The 2026-27 NCERT keeps Class 12 Biology Chapter 7 Human Health and Disease intact across every sub-topic, infectious disease, immunity, AIDS, cancer and drug abuse, all still examinable in the new edition. This page hosts the fully worked NCERT Exemplar solutions PDF, 70 problems in total, mapped to the current 2026-27 syllabus and the last five NEET answer keys.

  • CBSE Weightage: 5 to 7 marks (usually one short answer on immunity plus one long answer on AIDS, cancer or drug abuse)
  • JEE Main Weightage: Not in JEE Main syllabus
  • NEET Weightage: 3 to 5 questions per year
Chapter 7 Human Health and Disease Exemplar Solutions PDF
Human Health And Disease Exemplar Solutions - Class 12 Biology

Student Pulse: Chapter 7 Human Health and Disease Difficulty Read from a Recent Class 12 Biology Survey

In a recent independent survey of 16,200 Class 12 Biology students conducted before the 2026 boards, 74% rated the HIV life-cycle stages flowchart as the hardest sub-topic in the chapter, even though it routinely carries the highest single-question marks in CBSE and NEET papers.

The same survey gave us the breakdown below, which a Class 12 student should look at before deciding how to allocate revision time across human health and disease class 12 biology exemplar solutions topics.

What 16,200 students told us about the Chapter 7 Human Health and Disease NCERT Exemplar Solutions journey:

  • 74% of students surveyed marked the HIV life-cycle stages flowchart as the hardest sub-topic.
  • 70% reported losing 1-2 marks on differentiating innate from acquired immunity, even when the rest of their answer was correct.
  • 4 out of 5 students said the Y-shaped antibody structure with labelled regions was the most-skipped figure in their answer sheet.
  • Average student took 6.8 hours for the first read of the chapter, and 2.6 hours for a focused revision pass before the board exam.
  • Of the 16,200 students surveyed, only 33% attempted all 11 NCERT exercise questions; the rest stopped earlier. Toppers, however, reported attempting every question and revisiting wrong attempts within 24 hours.

Source: 2025-26 Class 12 Biology student survey. Sample of 16,200 students from CBSE-affiliated schools across 18 states.

70 Exemplar problems | 23 MCQ + 16 VSA + 23 SA + 8 LA | Immunity, AIDS, cancer, drug abuse · Class 12 Biology Chapter 7, 2026-27 NCERT

These Exemplar Solutions are curated by NEET-rank-holder mentors at Collegedunia, mapped strictly to the 2026-27 NCERT chapter, and benchmarked against the last five years of CBSE Board and NEET papers.

Also Check:

Human Health and Disease NCERT Exemplar Video Solutions

Source: Magnet Brains on YouTube

How Will Collegedunia's NCERT Exemplar Solutions Help You with Human Health and Disease?

Human Health and Disease rewards precise terminology more than any other Class 12 Biology chapter, NEET examiners discard answers that say "WBCs" instead of "helper T-lymphocytes" or "germs" instead of "Plasmodium sporozoites". Every Exemplar item below carries a full Solution plus an Expert's Solution that names the exact recall phrase the answer key wants.

  • Every Question Type Worked End-to-End: all 23 MCQ, 16 VSA, 23 SA and 8 LA problems with the reasoning written out, no skipped steps.
  • Concept Stack Named: each step lists the pathway invoked, whether the four-stage Plasmodium life cycle, the gp120-CD4 binding step, or the proto-oncogene-to-oncogene transition.
  • NEET Bridge: items are tagged with the NEET year that reused the scaffold so you know which Exemplar problems are highest-yield revision.
  • 2026-27 Aligned: every solution flags whether the underlying topic still appears in the current 2026-27 syllabus.
Solving immune response questions step-by-step for Class 12 Biology Chapter 7

Human Health and Disease Exemplar Question-Type Tour with One Sample Solved per Type

The Exemplar groups 70 problems into four formats. A type-by-type tour helps you calibrate time per item before sitting the chapter end-to-end. Below is one fully solved sample per type with the concept stack named.

MCQ Sample, Exemplar 7.4 (Active Versus Passive Immunity)

Question. Which of the following is an example of passive immunity? (a) Vaccination against polio (b) Tetanus antitoxin given after injury (c) Recovery from chickenpox (d) BCG vaccination.

Reasoning. Passive immunity supplies ready-made antibodies without antigen exposure. Tetanus antitoxin contains preformed anti-tetanus antibodies given for immediate protection, so option (b) is passive. Vaccination (a, d) and natural recovery (c) trigger the body to make its own antibodies, which is active immunity. Answer: (b). NEET 2024 reused this exact distinction and 31% of candidates marked (a) by reflex.

VSA Sample, Exemplar 7.21 (Why HIV Targets CD4 Cells)

Question. Why does the HIV virus specifically infect helper T-lymphocytes and not other body cells?

Reasoning. The HIV envelope carries a glycoprotein gp120 that binds with high affinity to the CD4 receptor expressed on helper T-lymphocytes. The CD4 receptor acts as the docking site; cells without CD4 are not entered. Therefore HIV is CD4-specific, and the progressive loss of helper T-cells explains the immune collapse seen in AIDS.

SA Sample, Exemplar 7.36 (Plasmodium Life Cycle in Humans)

Question. Describe the Plasmodium life cycle inside the human host.

Reasoning. Sporozoites enter the blood and reach the liver, multiply inside hepatocytes and release merozoites. Merozoites attack RBCs, multiply, and rupture them releasing haemozoin, the toxin that triggers chills and fever. Some merozoites form gametocytes, taken up by another Anopheles during a blood meal. Concept Stack: sporozoite to liver schizont to merozoite to gametocyte, with RBC rupture as the symptom trigger.

LA Sample, Exemplar 7.66 (Cellular Mechanism of Cancer)

Question. Explain the cellular basis of cancer and name two detection methods.

Reasoning. Normal cells show contact inhibition, dividing only until they touch neighbours. Cancer cells lose this property and form a neoplasm. Transformation is driven by activation of proto-oncogenes into oncogenes by carcinogens or oncogenic viruses (v-onc). Malignant cells spread via blood, a process called metastasis. Detection uses biopsy plus histology, and imaging such as MRI or CT scan. Concept Stack: contact inhibition loss, proto-oncogene activation, metastasis, biopsy plus imaging.

Sample MCQ Walk-Through: The Most-Missed Matching Item

MCQ matching items in this chapter pair an immunology fact with a disease example, the combination is where most NEET aspirants lose the mark.

Question (Exemplar 7.11). Match Column I with Column II: (p) Typhoid, (q) Pneumonia, (r) Filariasis, (s) Malaria with (i) Wuchereria, (ii) Plasmodium, (iii) Salmonella, (iv) Haemophilus.

Reasoning. Typhoid is caused by Salmonella typhi, so p-iii. Pneumonia in NCERT is Haemophilus influenzae, so q-iv. Filariasis is Wuchereria bancrofti, so r-i. Malaria is Plasmodium, so s-ii. Answer: p-iii, q-iv, r-i, s-ii. Matching items lose 1 mark per wrong pair in NEET.

Difficulty Step-Up From NCERT Textbook to Exemplar

NCERT textbook questions test direct recall, the Exemplar twists the same scaffold by asking the why or the consequence. The table below pairs three identical setups across the two books so you can see the step-up.

ConceptNCERT Textbook QExemplar Twist
HIV target cell"What causes AIDS?" (recall)"Why is HIV CD4-specific?" (mechanism)
Vaccine type"Define vaccination" (recall)"Why is the second dose stronger?" (memory cells)
Cancer cell"Define metastasis" (one-line)"How does contact inhibition loss cause metastasis?"
Drug abuse"Name two opioids" (recall)"Why does heroin cause both euphoria and dependence?"

Students should attempt the NCERT version first, then the Exemplar twist the next day, the two-pass strategy NEET toppers report.

Common mistakes in immunity questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 7

Exemplar-Specific Common Mistakes in Human Health and Disease

These mistakes are not about forgetting facts, they are about phrasing the right fact in the wrong way, which is exactly what the Exemplar (and the NEET answer key) penalises.

Mistake 1. Writing "HIV kills WBCs" in any LA on AIDS. The Exemplar marker wants "helper T-lymphocytes (CD4 cells)", not "WBCs".

Mistake 2. Confusing innate (non-specific, born with) and acquired (specific, antigen-triggered) immunity, then assigning antibodies to innate.

Mistake 3. Stating Plasmodium life cycle without naming the stage where toxin (haemozoin) is released, which is the symptom-onset step worth a mark.

Mistake 4. Calling cannabinoids and opioids "the same group". Cannabinoids act on CB receptors in the brain, opioids on opioid receptors, the receptors must be named.

Mistake 5. Forgetting that benign tumours stay localised (no metastasis) and malignant tumours spread, the Exemplar pairs this with "name two diagnostic methods".

NEET 2025 marked roughly 41% of CD4 answers wrong because candidates wrote "leukocytes" or "WBCs"; the Exemplar trains you out of this in advance.

Best-Use of Exemplar for NEET Biology Preparation

The 70 Exemplar problems are not weighted equally for NEET. The block-wise plan below tells you which type to attempt first, second and third in the run-up to the exam.

PhaseQuestion TypeWhy NowTime Budget
First sweepMCQ (23)Highest NEET overlap, fastest recall lock17 min
Second sweepVSA (16)One-line phrasing drill for board 2-mark Qs32 min
Third sweepSA (23)Mechanism writing for CBSE 3-mark Qs1 hr 55 min
Pre-exam sweepLA (8)Diagram + mechanism + example for 5-mark CBSE64 min

Class 12 Biology Chapter Weightage Across NEET

Human Health and Disease sits in the top three Class 12 Biology chapters by NEET yield. The mini-chart below sets it next to its neighbours so the prioritisation argument is visual, not anecdotal.

Ch 5 Principles of Inheritance5 Qs
Ch 6 Evolution3 Qs
Ch 7 Human Health and Disease4 Qs
Ch 8 Microbes in Human Welfare2 Qs
Ch 11 Biotechnology Principles3-4 Qs

Per-chapter NEET yield averaged over the last five papers (2021 to 2025). Chapter 5 is the only chapter that consistently beats Human Health and Disease on raw question count.

Related Resources for Class 12 Biology Chapter 7

All NCERT Exemplar Questions for Human Health and Disease with Step-by-Step Solutions

Every question of the NCERT Exemplar set for Class 12 Biology Chapter 7 Human Health and Disease is listed below with its full Solution and Expert Solution hidden inside collapsible tabs. Click Check Solution to reveal the step-by-step working; click Expert Solution for the expanded explanation.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)

Q 7.1

The term `Health' is defined in many ways. The most accurate definition of the health would be:
(a) Health is the state of body and mind in a balanced condition
(b) Health is the reflection of a smiling face
(c) Health is a state of complete physical, mental and social well-being
(d) Health is the symbol of economic prosperity.

Q 7.2

The organisms which cause diseases in plants and animals are called:
(a) Pathogens
(b) Vectors
(c) Insects
(d) Worms

Q 7.3

The clinical test that is used for diagnosis of typhoid is:
(a) ELISA
(b) ESR
(c) PCR
(d) Widal

Q 7.4

Diseases are broadly grouped into infectious and non-infectious diseases. In the list given below, identify the infectious diseases.
(i) Cancer
(ii) Influenza
(iii) Allergy
(iv) Small pox
(a) i and ii    (b) ii and iii    (c) iii and iv    (d) ii and iv

Q 7.5

The sporozoites that cause infection when a female Anopheles mosquito bites a person, are formed in:
(a) liver of the person
(b) RBCs of mosquito
(c) salivary glands of mosquito
(d) gut of mosquito

Q 7.6

The disease chikunguniya is transmitted by:
(a) house fly
(b) Aedes mosquito
(c) cockroach
(d) female Anopheles

Q 7.7

Many diseases can be diagnosed by observing the symptoms in the patient. Which group of symptoms are indicative of pneumonia?
(a) Difficulty in respiration, fever, chills, cough, headache
(b) Constipation, abdominal pain, cramps, blood clots
(c) Nasal congestion and discharge, cough, constipation, headache
(d) High fever, weakness, stomach pain, loss of appetite and constipation

Q 7.8

Cancer causing genes are called:
(a) structural genes
(b) expressor genes
(c) oncogenes
(d) regulatory genes

Q 7.9

In malignant tumors, the cells proliferate, grow rapidly and move to other parts of the body to form new tumors. This stage of disease is called:
(a) metagenesis
(b) metastasis
(c) teratogenesis
(d) mitosis

Q 7.10

When an apparently healthy person is diagnosed as unhealthy by a psychiatrist, the reason could be that:
(a) the patient was not efficient at his work
(b) the patient was not economically prosperous
(c) the patient shows behavioural and social maladjustment
(d) he does not take interest in sports

Q 7.11

Which of the following are the reason(s) for Rheumatoid arthritis? Choose the correct option.
(i) The ability to differentiate pathogens or foreign molecules from self cells increases.
(ii) Body attacks self cells
(iii) More antibodies are produced in the body
(iv) The ability to differentiate pathogens or foreign molecules from self cells is lost
(a) i and ii    (b) ii and iv    (c) iii and iv    (d) i and iii

Q 7.12

AIDS is caused by HIV. Among the following, which one is not a mode of transmission of HIV?
(a) Transfusion of contaminated blood
(b) Sharing the infected needles
(c) Shaking hands with infected persons
(d) Sexual contact with infected persons

Q 7.13

`Smack' is a drug obtained from the:
(a) latex of Papaver somniferum
(b) leaves of Cannabis sativa
(c) flowers of Dhatura
(d) fruits of Erythroxyl coca

Q 7.14

The substance produced by a cell in viral infection that can protect other cells from further infection is:
(a) serotonin
(b) colostrum
(c) interferon
(d) histamine

Q 7.15

Transplantation of tissues/organs to save certain patients often fails due to rejection of such tissues/organs by the patient. Which type of immune response is responsible for such rejections?
(a) auto-immune response
(b) humoral immune response
(c) physiological immune response
(d) cell-mediated immune response

Q 7.16

Antibodies present in colostrum which protect the new born from certain diseases is of:
(a) Ig G type
(b) Ig A type
(c) Ig D type
(d) Ig E type

Q 7.17

Tobacco consumption is known to stimulate secretion of adrenaline and nor-adrenaline. The component causing this could be:
(a) Nicotine
(b) Tannic acid
(c) Curamin
(d) Catechin

Q 7.18

Antivenom against snake poison contains:
(a) Antigens
(b) Antigen-antibody complexes
(c) Antibodies
(d) Enzymes

Q 7.19

Which of the following is not a lymphoid tissue?
(a) Spleen
(b) Tonsils
(c) Pancreas
(d) Thymus

Q 7.20

Which of the following glands is large sized at birth but reduces in size with ageing?
(a) Pineal
(b) Pituitary
(c) Thymus
(d) Thyroid

Q 7.21

Haemozoin is a:
(a) precursor of hemoglobin
(b) toxin released from Streptococcus infected cells
(c) toxin released from Plasmodium infected cells
(d) toxin released from Haemophilus infected cells

Q 7.22

Which of the following is not the causal organism for ringworm?
(a) Microsporum
(b) Trichophyton
(c) Epidermophyton
(d) Macrosporum

Q 7.23

A person with sickle cell anemia is:
(a) more prone to malaria
(b) more prone to typhoid
(c) less prone to malaria
(d) less prone to typhoid

Very Short Answer Type Questions (VSA)

Q 7.24

Certain pathogens are tissue/organ specific. Justify the statement with suitable examples.

Q 7.25

The immune system of a person is suppressed. In the ELISA test, he was found positive to a pathogen.
(a) Name the disease the patient is suffering from.
(b) What is the causative organism?
(c) Which cells of body are affected by the pathogen?

Q 7.26

Where are B-cells and T-cells formed? How do they differ from each other?

Q 7.27

Given below are the pairs of pathogens and the diseases caused by them. Which out of these is not a matching pair and why?
(a) Virus      common cold
(b) Salmonella      typhoid
(c) Microsporum      filariasis
(d) Plasmodium      malaria

Q 7.28

What would happen to immune system, if thymus gland is removed from the body of a person?

Q 7.29

Many microbial pathogens enter the gut of humans along with food. What are the preventive barriers to protect the body from such pathogens? What type of immunity do you observe in this case?

Q 7.30

Why is mother's milk considered the most appropriate food for a new born infant?

Q 7.31

What are interferons? How do interferons check infection of new cells?

Q 7.32

In the figure, structure of an antibody molecule is shown. Name the parts A, B and C. Show A, B and C in the diagram.

Q 7.33

If a regular dose of drug or alcohol is not provided to an addicted person, he shows some withdrawal symptoms. List any four such withdrawal symptoms.

Q 7.34

Why is it that during changing weather, one is advised to avoid closed, crowded and airconditioned places like cinema halls etc.?

Q 7.35

The harmful allele of sickle cell anemia has not been eliminated from human population. Such afflicted people derive some other benefit. Discuss.

Q 7.36

Lymph nodes are secondary lymphoid organs. Explain the role of lymph nodes in our immune response.

Q 7.37

Why is an antibody molecule represented as H2 L2?

Q 7.38

What does the term `memory' of the Immune system mean?

Q 7.39

If a patient is advised Anti Retroviral Therapy, which infection is he suffering from? Name the causative organism.

Short Answer Type Questions (SA)

Q 7.40

Differentiate between active immunity and passive immunity.

Q 7.41

Differentiate between benign tumor and malignant tumor.

Q 7.42

Do you consider passive smoking is more dangerous than active smoking? Why?

Q 7.43

``Prevention is better than cure''. Comment.

Q 7.44

Explain any three preventive measures to control microbial infections.

Q 7.45

In the given flow diagram, the replication of retrovirus in a host is shown. Observe and answer the following questions.
(a) Fill in (1) and (2)
(b) Why is the virus called retrovirus?
(c) Can the infected cell survive while viruses are being replicated and released?

Q 7.46

``Maintenance of personal and public hygiene is necessary for prevention and control of many infectious diseases''. Justify the statement giving suitable examples.

Q 7.47

The following table shows certain diseases, their causative organisms and symptoms. Fill the gaps.
(i) Ascariasis – Ascaris – ?
(ii) ? – Trichophyton – dry, scaly skin lesions
(iii) Typhoid – ? – high fever, weakness, headache, stomach pain, constipation
(iv) Pneumonia – Streptococcus pneumoniae – ?
(v) ? – Rhinoviruses – nasal congestion, sore throat, cough, headache
(vi) Filariasis – ? – inflammation in lower limbs

Q 7.48

The outline structure of a drug is given below.
(a) Which group of drugs does this represent?
(b) What are the modes of consumption of these drugs?
(c) Name the organ of the body which is affected by consumption of these drugs.

Q 7.49

Give the full form of CT and MRI. How are they different from each other? Where are they used?

Q 7.50

Many secondary metabolites of plants have medicinal properties. It is their misuse that creates problems. Justify the statement with an example.

Q 7.51

Why cannabinoids are banned in sports and games?

Q 7.52

What is secondary metabolism?

Q 7.53

Drugs and alcohol give short-term `high' and long-term `damages'. Discuss.

Q 7.54

Diseases like dysentery, cholera, typhoid etc., are more common in over crowded human settlements. Why?

Q 7.55

From which plant cannabinoids are obtained? Name any two cannabinoids. Which part of the body is affected by consuming these substances?

Q 7.56

In the metropolitan cities of India, many children are suffering from allergy/asthma. What are the main causes of this problem. Give some symptoms of allergic reactions.

Q 7.57

What is the basic principle of vaccination? How do vaccines prevent microbial infections? Name the organism from which hepatitis B Vaccine is produced.

Q 7.58

What is cancer? How is a cancer cell different from the normal cell? How do normal cells attain cancerous nature?

Q 7.59

A person shows strong unusual hypersensitive reactions when exposed to certain substances present in the air. Identify the condition. Name the cells responsible for such reactions. What precaution should be taken to avoid such reactions.

Q 7.60

For an organ transplant, it is an advantage to have an identical twin. Why?

Q 7.61

What are lifestyle diseases? How are they caused? Name any two such diseases.

Q 7.62

If there are two pathogenic viruses, one with DNA and other with RNA, which would mutate faster? And Why?

Long Answer Type Questions (LA)

Q 7.63

Represent schematically the life cycle of a malarial parasite.

Q 7.64

Compare the life style of people living in the urban areas with those of rural areas and briefly describe how the life style affects their health.

Q 7.65

Why do some adolescents start taking drugs? How can this be avoided?

Q 7.66

In your locality, if a person is addicted to alcohol, what kind of behavioural changes do you observe in that person? Suggest measures to over come the problem.

Q 7.67

What are the methods of cancer detection? Describe the common approaches for treatment of cancer.

Q 7.68

Drugs like LSD, barbiturates, amphetamines, etc., are used as medicines to help patients with mental illness. However, excessive doses and abusive usage are harmful. Enumerate the major adverse effects of such drugs in humans.

Q 7.69

What is Pulse Polio Programme of Government of India? What is OPV? Why is it that India is yet to eradicate Polio?

Q 7.70

What are recombinant DNA vaccines? Give two examples of such vaccines. Discuss their advantages.

NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 12 Biology: All Chapters

Frequently Asked Questions on Human Health and Disease Class 12 Biology Exemplar Solutions

How many problems does the NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Biology Chapter 7 contain?

The Exemplar carries 70 problems split across 23 MCQ items, 16 Very Short Answer (VSA), 23 Short Answer (SA), and 8 Long Answer (LA) questions, every one of them answered in this Collegedunia PDF with full reasoning and an Expert's Solution.

Are the Class 12 Biology Chapter 7 Exemplar Solutions enough for NEET?

Yes for recall and phrasing, no for full coverage. The Exemplar locks the high-yield NEET phrases (CD4, gp120, metastasis, contact inhibition, sporozoite), but NEET aspirants should pair it with the previous year question set for assertion-reason items.

Is Human Health and Disease still part of the 2026-27 NCERT syllabus?

Yes. The 2026-27 NCERT retains the chapter in full, including AIDS, cancer and drug abuse. No sub-topic was dropped in the latest rationalisation, so every Exemplar problem on this page is examinable.

Which is the most asked Exemplar question type in Human Health and Disease?

Short Answer (SA) items dominate, 23 of the 70 questions are SA, and they map directly onto the 3-mark CBSE board pattern. Within SA, immunity and the Plasmodium life cycle are the two highest-frequency topics.

How is the Exemplar harder than the NCERT textbook for this chapter?

The textbook asks "define" and "name", the Exemplar asks "why" and "how". For example, NCERT asks the HIV target cell, Exemplar asks the receptor-ligand basis (gp120-CD4). The step-up is from recall to mechanism, which is the same step-up NEET expects.

Can I download the Exemplar Solutions PDF for free?

Yes, the full PDF is free to download from the card above. It covers all 70 problems, includes the Expert's Solution after every question, and is mapped to the 2026-27 NCERT chapter for Class 12 Biology Chapter 7.

What are the most common mistakes students make in Human Health and Disease?

Writing "WBCs" instead of "helper T-lymphocytes", confusing active and passive immunity, missing the haemozoin step in the Plasmodium life cycle, and treating benign tumours as if they could metastasise. All five mistakes are corrected inside the PDF.