AP EAPCET (AP EAMCET) 2025 Question Paper May 20 Shift 1 (Available): Download BiPC Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

Match the following:

• (1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
• (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
• (3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
• (4) A-III, B-III, C-I, D-IV

Assertion (A): Whittaker proposed a five kingdom classification based on many criteria.
Reason (R): This is due to the understanding of the different scientists differently over time.
Identify the correct option from the following:

• (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
• (2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
• (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
• (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Choose the correct statements among the following:
I. Krishi Parasaram describes different types of forests.
II. Hieroglyphics are related to the crop plants in the form of pictures.
III. \textit{Jatropha and \textit{Pongamia are rich in hydrocarbons.
IV. C.G.K. Ramanujan studied the crystallization of enzyme urease.

• (1) I, II
• (2) II, III
• (3) III, IV
• (4) II, IV

Match the following

• (1) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
• (2) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
• (3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
• (4) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

Choose the correct statements among the following:
[I.] Suckers are underground stems growing horizontally beneath the soil and become aerial.
[II.] The function of petiole is to attach leaf to stem.
[III.] Alstonia shows opposite phyllotaxy.
[IV.] In Pisum, terminal leaflets form as tendril.

• (1) I and IV
• (2) II and III
• (3) I and III
• (4) II and IV

Choose the correct sequence of fruits with the following characters

A. Multicarpellary syncarpous, unilocular ovary with stony pericarp
B. Fruit with fleshy thalamus and developed by inferior ovary
C. Apocarpous gynoecium develops into fruitlets

• (1) Cashew, Annona, Apple
• (2) Annona, Apple, Cashew
• (3) Cashew, Apple, Annona
• (4) Apple, Cashew, Annona

Choose the correct statements from the following

I. Zygote is the vital link for continuity of species.
II. In water plants the number of male gametes produced are several times more than the number of female gametes.
III. Meiosis can occur in haploid organisms.
IV. Adventitious buds are developed on leaf margins of Bryophyllum.
Options:

• (1) I, II, IV
• (2) I, IV, III
• (3) II, III, I
• (4) III, IV

Identify the correct sequence to the following statements

A) Seeds are attached to the fruits
B) Free nuclear endosperm
C) Grass family cotyledon

Options :

• (1) Coconut, Scutellum, Hilum
• (2) Hilum, Scutellum, Tegmen
• (3) Scutellum, Cashew, Coconut
• (4) Hilum, Coconut, Scutellum

Match the following

Options :

• (1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
• (2) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
• (3) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
• (4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

Assertion (A): In plant vacuole, the concentration is higher than the cytoplasm.
Reason (R): Tonoplast facilitates the transport of ions and other materials against concentration gradient.
Identify the correct option from the following

Options:

• (1) (A) and (R) are true, (R) is correct explanation for (A)
• (2) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation for (A)
• (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
• (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Study the following table and identify the correct combination




Options:

• (1) I, II
• (2) II, III
• (3) III, IV
• (4) IV, I

Assertion (A): Lipids are not true Biomacromolecules.
Reason (R): The molecular weight of lipids is less than 800 Daltons.

Options :

• (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct, R is correct explanation for (A)
• (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct. But (R) is not correct explanation for (A)
• (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
• (4) (A) is false but (R) is true

Arrange the following events that occur during prophase-I of Meiosis - I

A) Formation of synaptonemal complex
B) Repulsion between Homologous chromosomes
C) Formation of Bivalents
D) Exchange of Genetic material between non-sister chromatids of Homologous chromosomes
E) Terminalization
The correct sequence is

Options :

• (1) C, A, D, B, E
• (2) D, A, C, B, E
• (3) A, D, B, C, E
• (4) D, A, B, C, E

Identify the tissues in correct sequence based on the given characters


A) Cell walls are thickened with cellulose, hemicellulose and pectin.

B) Cellulose walls Polygonal and perform photosynthesis.

C) Thickened and lignified cell walls with pits.

Options :

• (1) Parenchyma, Sclerenchyma, Sclerides
• (2) Sclerides, Sclerenchyma, Parenchyma
• (3) Collenchyma, Parenchyma, Sclerenchyma
• (4) Sclerenchyma, Parenchyma, Sclerides

Choose the incorrect statement among the following

• (1) Parenchymatous cells usually present in cortex and pericycle of monocot stem.
• (2) Closed vascular bundles can not form secondary tissues.
• (3) Vessels are devoid of protoplasm and are connected with perforations.
• (4) Xylem conducts water and mineral from root to shoots

Match the following

• (1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
• (2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
• (3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
• (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Name the plants in which water is stored in the form of mucilage in root, stem and leaves respectively

• (1) Asparagus, Opuntia and Aloe
• (2) Opuntia, Aloe and Casuarina
• (3) Opuntia, Calotropis and Aloe
• (4) Asparagus, Aloe and Calotropis

Identify the correct photosynthetic equation related to Ecosystem.

% Statements to evaluate
I. When plant produces 162(gr) dry organic matter, 264 gr CO\(_2\) is fixed.

II. 1 gram dry organic matter can fix 1.63g of CO\(_2\).

III. To produce 198 gr O\(_2\) plant absorb 284g CO\(_2\).

IV. Plants can consume 687.5 K cal solar energy to produce 180 gr Glucose.

• (1) I, II
• (2) III, IV
• (3) I, III
• (4) II, IV

A sophisticated instrument designed by J.C. Bose was so sensitive that is could record even the minute growth of a plant upto a millionth part of millimeter is

• (1) Crescograph
• (2) Micrograph
• (3) Thermograph
• (4) Monograph

Choose the correct statements among the following

I. No energy is used directly by the plant to translocate water.

II. The mechanism of water transport from the soil through the plant body to the atmosphere includes diffusion, bulk flow, and osmosis.

III. Water moves in the root via apoplast, transmembrane and symplast pathway.

IV. The cohesion tension theory explains water transport in xylem.

Options:

• (1) I, II, III
• (2) II, III
• (3) IV only
• (4) I, III, IV

Assertion (A): Amides are formed due to the replacement of hydroxyl part in aminoacid by another NH\(_2\) radicle.

Reason (R): Amides are formed by transamination reaction.

Identify the correct option from the following

• (1) (A) and (R) are true. (R) is correct explanation for (A)
• (2) (A) and (R) are true. But (R) is not correct explanation for (A)
• (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
• (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

In root nodules of legumes, Leg-haemoglobin is important because

• (1) It transports oxygen to the root nodules.
• (2) It protects nitrogen fixing enzyme from oxygen.
• (3) It provides energy to the nitrogen-fixing bacterium.
• (4) It acts as a catalyst in transamination.

Choose the correct response with respect to given equation.

CO\(_2\) + H\(_2\)O \(\rightleftharpoons\) H\(_2\)CO\(_3\)

• (1) Carbonic anhydrase is an enzyme required for accelerating the reaction
• (2) Even in the absence of enzyme this reaction is fast enough
• (3) 200 molecules of H\(_2\)CO\(_3\) per hour are formed in the presence of enzyme.
• (4) 6,00,000 molecules of H\(_2\)CO\(_3\) are formed for every second in the absence of enzyme.

Choose the correct statements among the following

I. Proton gradient across the membrane decreases due to cyclic flow of electrons between PQ and cytochrome b.

II. NADP reductase enzyme is located on the stroma side of the membrane.

III. PQ removes electron from the stroma

• (1) I and II
• (2) II and III
• (3) I and III
• (4) III only

Choose the correct sequence of no. of molecules formed when 6 mol of CO\textsubscript{2} enters into calvin cycle pathway

Options :

• (1) 4 xylulose 5P, 6 Ribulose 5P
• (2) 4 xylulose 5P, 2 Ribose 5P, 6 Ribulose 5P
• (3) 2 Ribose 5P, 4 xylulose 5P, 6 Ribulose 5P
• (4) 4 xylulose 5P, 2 Ribulose 5P, 2 Ribose 5P

Assertion (A): TCA cycle requires continuous replenishment of oxaloacetic acid.

Reason (R): TCA cycle requires regeneration of NAD\textsuperscript{+ and FAD\textsuperscript{+ from NADH and FADH.

Options :

• (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct, R is correct explanation for (A)
• (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct. But (R) is not correct explanation for (A)
• (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
• (4) (A) is false but (R) is true

Match the following





Options :

• (1) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
• (2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
• (3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
• (4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

Choose the correct statements among the following


I. Conjugation is a conservative process because donor bacteria donot retain copy of genetic material.

II. In Bacterial transformation, genetic information is expressed in recipient cell.

III. Salmonella typhimurium is a transformation bacteria.

IV. Biologically active toxic pollutant can be detected by Biosensors.

• (1) II and IV
• (2) I and II
• (3) III and IV
• (4) II and III

Match the following

• (1) A - IV, B - II, C - III, D - I
• (2) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
• (3) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
• (4) A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV

Ratio of genotypes of wrinkled : yellow coloured seed obtained in F2 generation of parents having pure round and yellow and wrinkled and green phenotypes in a dihybrid cross

• (1) 1 : 3
• (2) 1 : 2
• (3) 1 : 2 : 2 : 4
• (4) 1

The total number of progeny obtained through dihybrid cross of Mendel is 1280 in \( F_2 \) generation. How many are recombinants in this?

• (1) 240
• (2) 360
• (3) 480
• (4) 720

Match the following:

• (1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
• (2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
• (3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
• (4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

Which of the following statements are correct?


[I.] The packaging of chromatin at higher level requires additional set of proteins called non-histone chromosomal proteins.
[II.] In some viruses, the flow of genetic information for protein synthesis is in the reverse direction — that is from RNA to DNA.
[III.] RNA is the genetic material that is passed from virus to bacteria was given by Avery, Macleod and McCarty.
[IV.] RNA polymerase II transcribes the precursor of 5S RNA.

• (1) I, II
• (2) I, III
• (3) III, IV
• (4) I, IV

Choose the incorrect statement among the following

• (1) The process of separation and purification of the product is called downstream processing.
• (2) Bioreactors are used for the production of large quantities of enzymes.
• (3) Most commonly used bioreactors are stirring type.
• (4) Small volume cultures can yield appreciable quantities of products.

It helps in identifying and eliminating non-transformants

• (1) Restriction enzyme
• (2) Antibiotic
• (3) Selectable marker
• (4) Plasmid

Study the following lists:

• (1) A - II, B - V, C - I, D - IV
• (2) A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I
• (3) A - III, B - I, C - V, D - II
• (4) A - II, B - IV, C - I, D - V

Match the following:

• (1) A–II, B–III, C–IV, D–I
• (2) A–IV, B–II, C–III, D–I
• (3) A–IV, B–III, C–II, D–I
• (4) A–III, B–II, C–I, D–IV

Choose the incorrect statements among the following

I. Hairy leaves in plants are associated with resistance to insect pest.

II. Solid stem of wheat rejects stem saw fly.

III. Smooth leaves and nector less cotton attracts bollworms.

IV. Resistance to maize stem borer is by low aspartic acid and high nitrogen and sugar.

• (1) I, II
• (2) II, III
• (3) III, IV
• (4) II, IV

Select the correct statements among the following

I. The use of biofertilizers reduce the use of chemical fertilizers.

II. Mycorrhizae enhances phosphorous content in the soil.

III. An important biofertilizer in legume crops is Rhizobium.

IV. Glomus forms mycorrhizal association with plants.

• (1) I, II, III
• (2) II, III
• (3) III, IV
• (4) I, III, IV

Choose the incorrect statement among the following

• (1) Super Microbes are resistant to many drugs.
• (2) Severe Acute Respiratory syndrome is a recently emerged disease.
• (3) Cyanobacteria symbiotically associated with paddy fields as biofertiliser.
• (4) Nucleo polyhedrovirus are species specific insecticide.

Pickup the correctly matched pairs from the following.

• (1) I, II
• (2) I, IV
• (3) II, III
• (4) III, IV

The measurement of the overall diversity for different ecosystems within an ecological region is

• (1) \(\alpha\)-diversity
• (2) \(\beta\)-diversity
• (3) \(\gamma\)-diversity
• (4) \(\delta\)-diversity

Assertion (A) : Aponeurosis is a type of connective tissue.

Reason (R) : Aponeurosis is a chord-like structure that may extend beyond the muscle.

Identify the correct option from the following

• (1) (A) and (R) are true. (R) is correct explanation for (A).
• (2) (A) and (R) are true. But (R) is not the correct explanation for (A).
• (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
• (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Study the following statements and identify the correct option :

Statement I : Satellite cells surround the cell bodies in ganglia of central nervous sytem.

Statement II : All types of neuroglial cells originate from the embryonic ectoderm.

• (1) Both statement I and II are correct.
• (2) Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect.
• (3) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct.
• (4) Both statements I and II are incorrect.

Endoneurium is

• (1) Epithelial tissue
• (2) Connective tissue
• (3) Muscular tissue
• (4) Nervous tissue

Identify the schizocoelomate phyla from the following.

I. Platyhelminthes

II. Nematoda

III. Annelida

IV. Chordata

V. Arthropoda

VI. Echinodermata

VII. Mollusca

• (1) II, III, IV
• (2) III, V, VII
• (3) IV, VI
• (4) I, II

Match the following

• (1) A-II, B-V, C-III, D-IV
• (2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
• (3) A-III, B-V, C-IV, D-II
• (4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

Anamniotic tetrapod is

• (1) Pristis
• (2) Hyla
• (3) Sphenodon
• (4) Psittacula

Study the following and identify the correct combinations

• (1) I and III
• (2) II and IV
• (3) III and IV
• (4) I, II and III

Hologamy is observed in

• (1) Plasmodium
• (2) Trichonympha
• (3) Vorticella
• (4) Paramecium

Study the following regarding types of flagellae and identify the correct statements

Statements:

I. Stichonematic flagellae possess a single row of lateral appendages.

II. Pantonematic flagellae are completely devoid of mastigonemes.

III. Acronematic flagellae have a naked terminal part of the axoneme.

IV. Pantacronematic flagellae are completely devoid of terminal naked filament.

• (1) I and III
• (2) II and IV
• (3) I and IV
• (4) III and IV

Match the following

• (1) A-III, B-IV, C-V, D-II
• (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
• (3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
• (4) A-V, B-II, C-III, D-IV

The larva of Wuchereria exhibits

• (1) Exra intestinal migration
• (2) Ex-flagellation
• (3) Nocturnal periodicity
• (4) Anisogamy

Identify the mismatched pair

1. Plasmodium - Hypertrophy
2. Virus - Neoplasia
3. Fasciola - Hyperplasia
4. Wuchereria - Gigantism

Study the following regarding circulatory system of cockroach and identify the correct option


Statement I : The cockroach heart is a tubular structure with 13 chambers.

Statement II : Haemolymph in cockroach plays a role in oxygen transportation.

• (1) Both statements I and II are correct.
• (2) Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect.
• (3) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct.
• (4) Both statements I and II are incorrect.

In cockroach, thermoreceptor sensillae are located on

• (1) Antennae on head
• (2) Labrum of mouth parts
• (3) Tarsi of legs
• (4) Maxillary palps of maxilla

Study the following statements and pick up the incorrect statements.

I. Oriented locomotor movement of an organism towards or away from the direction of light is called photokinesis.

II. The influence of light on non-directional movement of organisms is called phototaxis.

III. UV-B and UV-C rays are more harmful than UV-A rays.

IV. Photoperiod influences the migration of birds.

• (1) I, II
• (2) III, IV
• (3) II, IV
• (4) I, III

Match the following

• (1) A-II, B-V, C-III, D-I
• (2) A-V, B-III, C-II, D-I
• (3) A-IV, B-I, C-V, D-II
• (4) A-II, B-V, C-I, D-III

Hospital wastes are disposed through

• (1) Scrubbers
• (2) Electrostatic precipitators
• (3) Catalytic converters
• (4) Incinerators

Assertion (A) : The parietal cells of gastric glands secrete Castle's intrinsic factor in man.

Reason (R) : Castle's intrinsic factor is essential for the absorption of cyanocobalamin.

Identify the correct option from the following

• (1) (A) and (R) are true. (R) is correct explanation for (A).
• (2) (A) and (R) are true. But R is not correct explanation for (A).
• (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
• (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Low pH, high CO\textsubscript{2}, high temperature shifts the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve towards

• (1) Left side
• (2) Right side
• (3) Remains same
• (4) Upper side

Correct sequence of electrical impulse transmission in the human heart is

A) Purkinje fibres

B) Atrio ventricular node

C) Sino Atrial node

D) Bundle branches

E) Bundle of His

• (1) C \(\rightarrow\) B \(\rightarrow\) E \(\rightarrow\) D \(\rightarrow\) A
• (2) C \(\rightarrow\) E \(\rightarrow\) B \(\rightarrow\) D \(\rightarrow\) A
• (3) C \(\rightarrow\) D \(\rightarrow\) B \(\rightarrow\) E \(\rightarrow\) A
• (4) B \(\rightarrow\) C \(\rightarrow\) E \(\rightarrow\) A \(\rightarrow\) D

Statement I : Ammonia is highly toxic and needs more water for elimination and therefore excretion of ammonia is more common in aquatic animals.

Statement II : Urea is synthesised in kidneys.

Identify the correct option from the following

• (1) Both statements I and II are true.
• (2) Both statements I and II are false.
• (3) Statement I is true, but statement II is false.
• (4) Statement I is false, but statement II is true.

Match the following





The correct option is:

• (1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
• (2) A-V, B-II, C-III, D-IV
• (3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-V
• (4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

Study the following statements and identify the correct combinations :

• (1) I and II
• (2) II and III
• (3) III and IV
• (4) I and III

Match the following:

• (1) A-III, B-IV, C-V, D-II
• (2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
• (3) A-V, B-II, C-IV, D-I
• (4) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

Pickup the polymorphonuclear phagocyte

• (1) Basophil
• (2) Kupffer cell
• (3) Osteoclast
• (4) Histiocyte

Cushing's syndrome is due to hypersecretion of

• (1) Aldosterone
• (2) Adrenalin
• (3) Epinephrine
• (4) Cortisol

It is a secondary lymphoid organ.

• (1) Thymus gland
• (2) Bone marrow
• (3) Spleen
• (4) Bursa of fabricius

Assertion (A) : Lactational amenorrhoea is a natural method of contraception.

Reason (R) : Ovulation in mother generally does not occurs during intense lactation following parturition.

Identify the correct option from the following

• (1) (A) and (R) are true. (R) is correct explanation for (A).
• (2) (A) and (R) are true. But R is not correct explanation for (A).
• (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
• (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Which of the following are the accessory glands of human male reproductive system?

I. Skene glands

II. Bartholin glands

III. Seminal vesicles

IV. Lesser vestibular glands

V. Prostate gland

VI. Mammary glands

VII. Cowper's glands

• (1) II, III, IV
• (2) V, VI, VII
• (3) III, V, VII
• (4) I, IV, VI

Spirochete bacterium causes this disease in human beings

• (1) Gonorrhea
• (2) Syphilis
• (3) Trichomoniasis
• (4) Chlamydiasis

If both parents have B blood groups (both are heterozygous), the expected blood groups in their children.

• (1) B, O
• (2) A, AB
• (3) B only
• (4) B, AB

Study the following statements and pick up the incorrect statements.


I. Haemophilia is an X-linked disorder due to dominant genes.

II. Inheritance of colour blindness follows the cris-cross pattern.

III. Haemophilia A and Haemophilia C are X-linked disorders.

IV. Y-linked genes are called holandric genes.

• (1) I, II
• (2) III, IV
• (3) II, IV
• (4) I, III

Match the following

• (1) A-III, B-V, C-IV, D-II
• (2) A-III, B-V, C-I, D-II
• (3) A-II, B-I, C-V, D-III
• (4) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-V

The number of genes located on human Y chromosome.

• (1) 2968
• (2) 2698
• (3) 231
• (4) 239

Assertion (A) : Genetic drift always increases genetic diversity in small populations.

Reason (R) : Founder effect and Bottleneck effect exemplify the genetic drift.


Identify the correct option from the following

• (1) (A) and (R) are true. (R) is correct explanation for (A).
• (2) (A) and (R) are true. But R is not correct explanation for (A).
• (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
• (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Analogous organs arise due to

• (1) Divergent evolution
• (2) Artificial selection
• (3) Genetic drift
• (4) Convergent evolution

This vaccine is a toxoid.

• (1) Salk's polio vaccine
• (2) Vaccine for tetanus
• (3) Vaccine for rubella
• (4) Vaccine for typhoid

Match the following

• (1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-V
• (2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
• (3) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
• (4) A-V, B-II, C-IV, D-I

If \(\sigma\) denotes Stefan constant and S denotes heat capacity, then the dimensional formula of \(\frac{S}{\sigma}\) is

• (1) [M\textsuperscript{0}L\textsuperscript{2}T\textsuperscript{-1}K\textsuperscript{3}]
• (2) [M\textsuperscript{0}L\textsuperscript{2}TK\textsuperscript{3}]
• (3) [ML\textsuperscript{2}T\textsuperscript{-1}K\textsuperscript{-4}]
• (4) [M\textsuperscript{0}L\textsuperscript{-1}T\textsuperscript{-3}K\textsuperscript{-3}]

A body moving along a straight line path travels first 10 m distance in a time of 3 seconds and the next 10 m distance with a velocity of 5 m s\textsuperscript{-1}. The average velocity of the body is

• (1) 4 kmph
• (2) 10.6 kmph
• (3) 18.2 kmph
• (4) 14.4 kmph

If the speed of projection of a projectile is twice its speed when it is at maximum height, then the angle of projection is

• (1) 0°
• (2) 30°
• (3) 45°
• (4) 60°

A swimmer who can swim in still water at a speed of 20 kmph wants to cross a river flowing at speed of 10 kmph along shortest path, then the angle with the direction of flow in which he has to swim is

• (1) 120\(^\circ\)
• (2) 150\(^\circ\)
• (3) 30\(^\circ\)
• (4) 60\(^\circ\)

The minimum force required to stop a body of mass 4 kg moving along a straight line with a velocity of 54 kmph in a distance of 9 m is

• (1) 75 N
• (2) 100 N
• (3) 50 N
• (4) 25 N

A block of mass 2 kg is kept on a rough horizontal surface. If a horizontal force of 4 N is applied on the block, then the acceleration of the block is
(Coefficient of static friction between the block and the surface is 0.3)

• (1) 0.94 m s\textsuperscript{-2}
• (2) 1 m s\textsuperscript{-2}
• (3) zero
• (4) 2 m s\textsuperscript{-2}

A simple pendulum of length 1m is released from horizontal position. If 20% its initial energy is lost due to air resistance in reaching the mean position, then the speed of the bob of the pendulum at mean position is
(Acceleration due to gravity = 10 m s\textsuperscript{-2})

• (1) 2 m s\textsuperscript{-1}
• (2) 4 m s\textsuperscript{-1}
• (3) 3 m s\textsuperscript{-1}
• (4) 5 m s\textsuperscript{-1}

The work done to take a body of mass 100 kg to the top of a building of height 20 m is
(Acceleration due to gravity = 10 m s\textsuperscript{-2})

• (1) 14700 J
• (2) 15700 J
• (3) 20000 J
• (4) 30000 J

A solid sphere of mass 2 kg and radius 10 cm is rolling down on an inclined plane without slipping. If the rotational kinetic energy of the sphere is 40 J, then its total kinetic energy is

• (1) 100 J
• (2) 80 J
• (3) 140 J
• (4) 200 J

If a body of mass 'm' is projected at an angle '\(\theta\)' with the horizontal with an initial velocity 'u', then the average torque on the body during the flight is (g - acceleration due to gravity)

• (1) \(\frac{mu^3 \sin \theta}{g}\)
• (2) \(\frac{mu^3 \sin \theta}{2g}\)
• (3) \(\frac{mu^2 \sin 2\theta}{g}\)
• (4) \(\frac{mu^2 \sin 2\theta}{2}\)

If the equation representing the relation between displacement 'x' and velocity 'v' of a particle executing simple harmonic motion is \(4v^2 = 25 - x^2\), then the time period of the particle is (All the quantities in the equation are in SI units)

• (1) \(\pi s\)
• (2) \(2\pi s\)
• (3) \(4\pi s\)
• (4) \(6\pi s\)

The length of the scale of a spring balance that can weigh zero to 100 kg is 25 cm. If a body suspended from this balance oscillates with a time period of \(0.2\pi\) s, then the mass of the suspended body is (Acceleration due to gravity = \(10 m s^{-2}\))

• (1) 30 kg
• (2) 50 kg
• (3) 40 kg
• (4) 60 kg

A satellite is launched into a circular orbit of radius R around the earth. A second satellite is launched into another circular orbit of radius 1.01 R around the earth. The period of revolution of the second satellite is larger than that of the first one by a percent of (approximately)

• (1) 0.5
• (2) 1.0
• (3) 1.5
• (4) 3.0

If a steel rod of a radius 10 mm and length 80 cm is streched by a force of 66 kN along its length, then the longitudinal stress on the rod is nearly

• (1) \(2.1 \times 10^2 N m^{-2}\)
• (2) \(2.1 \times 10^4 N m^{-2}\)
• (3) \(2.1 \times 10^5 N m^{-2}\)
• (4) \(2.1 \times 10^8 N m^{-2}\)

If two rain drops of radii \(r_1\) and \(r_2\) reach the ground with terminal velocities \(v_1\) and \(v_2\) and linear momenta \(p\) and \(32p\) respectively, then \(r_1 : r_2 =\)

• (1) 1 : 16
• (2) 1 : 2
• (3) 2 : 1
• (4) 16 : 1

500 g of water at a temperature of 73 °C is mixed with 45 g of steam at a temperature of 100 °C. The ratio of the initial mass of steam and the mass of steam at equilibrium of the mixture is

• (1) 9 : 4
• (2) 3 : 1
• (3) 3 : 2
• (4) 5 : 4

The heat to be supplied to 20 g of oxygen to increase its temperature from 27 \(^\circ\)C to 59 \(^\circ\)C at constant pressure is (Universal gas constant = 8.3 J mol\(^{-1}\) K\(^{-1}\))

• (1) 1162 J
• (2) 423 J
• (3) 934 J
• (4) 581 J

If the coefficient of performance of a refrigerator is 5 and the temperature inside it is -20 °C, then the temperature of its surroundings is

• (1) 21.6 °C
• (2) 30.6 °C
• (3) 40.6 °C
• (4) 10.6 °C

Four moles of a diatomic gas at a temperature of 927 \(^\circ\)C expands adiabatically such that its volume increases by 3100%. The work done by the gas is (Universal gas constant = 8.3 J mol\(^{-1}\) K\(^{-1}\))

• (1) 24.9 kJ
• (2) 49.8 kJ
• (3) 57.6 kJ
• (4) 74.7 kJ

If four moles of hydrogen and two moles of helium form a gaseous mixture, then the molar specific heat capacity of the mixture at constant pressure is

• (1) \(\frac{16R}{7}\)
• (2) \(\frac{7R}{16}\)
• (3) \(R\)
• (4) \(\frac{19R}{6}\)

If the third harmonic of a closed pipe is in resonance with the fourth harmonic of an open pipe, then the ratio of the lengths of the closed and open pipes is:

• (1) \( 8 : 3 \)
• (2) \( 3 : 8 \)
• (3) \( 3 : 4 \)
• (4) \( 4 : 3 \)

If the formation of a real image using a biconvex lens of material of refractive index 1.5 is shown in the figure. If this setup is immersed in water (refractive index = \(\frac{4}{3}\)), then

• (1) the image disappears from the screen.
• (2) the image is magnified.
• (3) the image will be real and erect.
• (4) no change in the nature of the image.

If in Young's double slit experiment, fifth bright fringe is located at a distance of 0.3 mm from the central bright fringe, then the distance of the seventh dark fringe from the central bright fringe is:

• (1) 0.51 mm
• (2) 0.39 mm
• (3) 0.45 mm
• (4) 0.48 mm

A sphere of radius R and charge 'Q' is placed inside an imaginary sphere of radius 2R such that the centres of two spheres coincide. The electric flux linked with the imaginary sphere is

• (1) \(\frac{4Q}{\varepsilon_0}\)
• (2) \(\frac{2Q}{\varepsilon_0}\)
• (3) \(\frac{Q}{\varepsilon_0}\)
• (4) \(\frac{Q}{2\varepsilon_0}\)

If the charge on a capacitor of capacitance 15 \(\mu\)F is 300 \(\mu\)C, then the energy stored in the capacitor is:

• (1) 3 mJ
• (2) 9 mJ
• (3) 6 mJ

A bulb is connected in series with a capacitor to an AC supply. If the capacitance of the capacitor increases, then power of light emitted by the bulb

• (1) decreases
• (2) increases
• (3) does not change
• (4) becomes zero

If the Wheatstone bridge shown in the figure is balanced, then the value of R is

• (1) 50 \(\Omega\)
• (2) 200 \(\Omega\)
• (3) 300 \(\Omega\)
• (4) 100 \(\Omega\)

In the given circuit, if the current through 4 \(\Omega\) resistor is zero, then the value of the resistance \(R\) is:

• (1) 1 \(\Omega\)
• (2) 2 \(\Omega\)
• (3) 3 \(\Omega\)
• (4) 4 \(\Omega\)

When an electron accelerated from rest through a potential difference \( V_1 \) enters a uniform magnetic field, the maximum force on it is F. If the potential difference is changed to \( V_2 \), then the maximum force on the electron in the same magnetic field is 4F, then \( \frac{V_1}{V_2} \) =

• (1) 1 : 4
• (2) 4 : 1
• (3) 2 : 1
• (4) 1 : 16

If the radius of a circular coil is doubled and the number of turns is halved, then the magnetic field at the centre of the coil for the same current is

• (1) becomes doubled
• (2) becomes one fourth
• (3) becomes quadrupled
• (4) remains unchanged

If the earth's magnetic field at a certain place has a horizontal component of \( 5 \) gauss and a total field of \( 13 \) gauss, then the angle of dip at that place is:

• (1) \( \tan^{-1}\left(\frac{5}{12}\right) \)
• (2) \( \tan^{-1}\left(\frac{5}{13}\right) \)
• (3) \( \tan^{-1}\left(\frac{12}{5}\right) \)
• (4) \( \tan^{-1}\left(\frac{13}{5}\right) \)

The current in a coil decreases from 5 A to zero in a time of 0.1 s. If an average emf of 200 V is induced, then the self inductance of the coil is

• (1) 20 H
• (2) 4 H
• (3) 2 H
• (4) 40 H

If an electric bulb is rated at 50 W for a 220 V ac supply, then the resistance of the bulb and the peak voltage of the ac source are respectively:

• (1) 968 \(\Omega\), 220\(\sqrt{2}\) V
• (2) 484 \(\Omega\), 220 V
• (3) 968 \(\Omega\), 220 V

To dissociate a molecule into its component atoms, the energy required is 13.2 eV. The frequency of the electromagnetic radiation corresponding to this energy lies in the:

• (1) infrared region
• (2) visible region
• (3) microwave region
• (4) ultraviolet region

If a particle of mass \( 6 \times 10^{-30} \) kg is moving with a speed of \( 5.5 \times 10^5 m s^{-1} \), then the de Broglie wavelength of the particle is
(Planck's constant = \( 6.6 \times 10^{-34} J s \))

• (1) 200 \(\AA\)
• (2) 0.2 \(\AA\)
• (3) 2 \(\AA\)
• (4) 20 \(\AA\)

In a hydrogen atom, if an electron makes a transition from the fourth orbit to the second orbit, then the wavelength of the emitted radiation is:

(R = Rydberg constant)

• (1) \( \frac{16}{3R} \)
• (2) \( \frac{8}{3R} \)
• (3) \( \frac{3}{16R} \)
• (4) \( \frac{3}{8R} \)

If the mean life of a radioactive substance is 12 minutes, then the time (in minutes) at which the fraction of atoms disintegrated becomes \(\frac{e^2 - 1}{e^2}\) is

• (1) 36
• (2) 6
• (3) 24
• (4) 12

In a transistor, if the emitter and collector currents are respectively 2 mA and 1.95 mA, then the base current is

• (1) 50 \(\mu\)A
• (2) 0.05 \(\mu\)A
• (3) 50 mA
• (4) 5 mA

To get an output value \( 1 \) from the given circuit, the input values of \( A \), \( B \), and \( C \) are:

• (1) \( 0, 1, 0 \)
• (2) \( 0, 0, 1 \)
• (3) \( 1, 0, 1 \)
• (4) \( 1, 0, 0 \)

If the maximum amplitude of a modulated wave is three times its minimum amplitude, then the modulation index of the wave is

• (1) 0.55
• (2) 0.25
• (3) 0.75
• (4) 0.5

The ratio of wavelengths of first line (\( n_2 = 3 \)) and second line (\( n_2 = 4 \)) of Balmer series of hydrogen spectrum is

• (1) 9 : 5
• (2) 27 : 20
• (3) 20 : 27
• (4) 5 : 9

The ratio of wavelengths of first line (\( n_2 = 3 \)) and second line (\( n_2 = 4 \)) of Balmer series of hydrogen spectrum is

• (1) 9 : 5
• (2) 27 : 20
• (3) 20 : 27
• (4) 5 : 9

Choose the incorrect statement from the following:

• (1) For H-atom, the order of energy of orbitals is \( 3s < 3p < 3d \).
• (2) The number of radial nodes for a \( 4f \)-orbital is zero.
• (3) The number of angular nodes for a \( 4d \)-orbital is 2.
• (4) The wave character of the electron is not considered in the Bohr model of the H-atom.

Match the following

• (1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
• (2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
• (3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
• (4) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

A diatomic molecule has a dipole moment of \( 4 \times 10^{-30} \, Cm \). If the bond distance is \( 1.0 \, \AA \), what fraction of an electronic charge exists on each atom?

(Actual value of electronic charge = \( 1.6 \times 10^{-19} \, C \))

• (1) \( 0.33 \)
• (2) \( 0.50 \)
• (3) \( 0.25 \)
• (4) \( 0.66 \)

A molecule ‘X’ has square pyramidal geometry, as per VSEPR theory. The number of bond pairs and lone pairs of electrons present in the valence shell of central atom of X, respectively, are

• (1) 4, 1
• (2) 5, 1
• (3) 5, 2
• (4) 6, 1

At 27 °C, rms velocity of SO\(_2\) is x ms\(^{-1}\) and most probable velocity of O\(_2\) at 127 °C is y ms\(^{-1}\). The value of x : y is

• (1) 3 : 4
• (2) 4 : 3
• (3) 2 : 3
• (4) 3 : 2

At the same pressure, the volume occupied by \( 5.6 \, g \) of gas "A" at \( 610 \, K \) is the same as \( 1 \, g \) of \( H_2 \) at \( 243.9 \, K \). What is the molar mass (in \( g mol^{-1} \)) of "A"?

(Assume that gas "A" and \( H_2 \) are ideal gases) (\( M_{H_2} = 2 \, u \))

• (1) \( 56 \)
• (2) \( 28 \)
• (3) \( 44 \)
• (4) \( 60 \)

In acidic medium \(MnO_4^-\) oxidises \(NO_2^-\) to \(NO_3^-\). How many moles of \(NO_2^-\) are oxidised by 10 moles of \(MnO_4^-\)?

• (1) 20
• (2) 10
• (3) 25
• (4) 15

Identify the correct statements

I) Enthalpy is an intensive property

II) For, H\(_2\)O(l) \(\longrightarrow\) H\(_2\)O(g) process, \(\Delta S\) increases

III) Entropy is a state function

• (1) I, II, III
• (2) I, II only
• (3) I, III only
• (4) II, III only

The enthalpy of formation of \( CO_2(g) \) and \( H_2O(l) \) are \(-393.5\) and \(-286 kJ mol^{-1}\) respectively. If the heat of combustion of \( CH_3OH(l) \) is \(-749 kJ mol^{-1}\), the enthalpy of formation of \( CH_3OH(l) \) \(in kJ mol^{-1}\) is

• (1) +216.5
• (2) -216.5
• (3) -355.5
• (4) +355.5

At 25 \(^{\circ}\)C, \( K_a \) of acetic acid is \( 1.8 \times 10^{-5} \). What is the percentage of ionization of 0.02 M acetic acid at this temperature?

• (1) 3
• (2) 4.242
• (3) 5
• (4) 1.414

Which one of the following is an example of physical equilibrium?

• (1) \( N_2O_4(g) \rightleftharpoons 2NO_2(g) \)
• (2) \( N_2(g) + 3H_2(g) \rightleftharpoons 2NH_3(g) \)
• (3) \( CaCO_3(s) \rightleftharpoons CaO(s) + CO_2(g) \)
• (4) \( H_2O(l) \rightleftharpoons H_2O(g) \)

In which of the following reactions of H\(_2\)O\(_2\), dioxygen is evolved? (only = O\(_2\) evolved)


I) With HOCl in acidic medium

II) With permanganate in acidic medium

III) With permanganate in basic medium

• (1) I \& II only
• (2) I, II \& III
• (3) II \& III only
• (4) I \& III only

Ammonium chloride on reaction with calcium hydroxide gives a gas X. The incorrect statement about X is

• (1) X is ammonia
• (2) Shape of X is trigonal pyramidal
• (3) X is an electron rich hydride
• (4) Hybridisation of central atom in X is sp\(^2\)

In which of the following reactions \( B_2O_3 \) is not formed?

• (1) Acidifying an aqueous solution of \( Na_2B_4O_7 \)
• (2) Heating of Boron in air
• (3) Burning of \( B_2H_6 \) in oxygen
• (4) On heating \( H_3BO_3 \) above \( 370 \, K \)

In Lassaigne’s test, when both nitrogen and sulphur are present in an organic compound, a blood-red colour is observed upon adding FeCl\(_3\) to the sodium fusion extract. This colour is due to the formation of X. What is X?

• (1) NaSCN
• (2) [Fe(SCN)]\(^{2+}\)
• (3) [Fe(CN)\(_5\)NOS]\(^{4-}\)
• (4) [Fe(SCN)\(_2\)]\(^{2+}\)

What are X and Y respectively, in the following set of reactions ? \[ CH_3CH_3 + 3O_2 \xrightarrow{(CH_3COO)_2Mn, \Delta} X \] \[ CH_3CH=CH_2 \xrightarrow{KMnO_4/H^+} Y \]

• (1) \( CH_3COOH, CH_3CH(OH)CH(OH)CH_3 \)
• (2) \( CH_3CH_2OH, CH_3CHO \)
• (3) \( CH_3CHO, CH_3COOH \)
• (4) \( CH_3COOH, CH_3COOH \)

The crystal system of a compound with cell dimensions \( a = 0.387 \), \( b = 0.387 \), \( c = 0.504 nm \); \( \alpha = \beta = 90^{\circ} \) and \( \gamma = 120^{\circ} \) is

• (1) cubic
• (2) rhombohedral
• (3) orthorhombic
• (4) hexagonal

At T(K) vapour pressure of pure benzene and toluene are 500 and 200 mm Hg respectively. If they form an ideal solution, what is the mole fraction of toluene in a mixture boiling at T(K) at a total pressure of 380 mm Hg ?

• (1) \(0.20 \)
• (2) \(0.60 \)
• (3) \(0.40 \)
• (4) \(0.80 \)

0.25 moles of \( CH_2FCOOH \) was dissolved in \( 0.5 \, kg \) of water. The depression in freezing point of the resultant solution was observed as \( 1^\circ C \). What is the van't Hoff factor? (\( K_f = 1.86 \, K kg mol^{-1} \))

• (1) \( 0.93 \)
• (2) \( 1.07 \)
• (3) \( 1.25 \)
• (4) \( 1.50 \)

At 298 K the emf of the cell given below is 0.87 V.
Pt, \( H_2(1 atm)|H^+(aq) || Ag^+(1 M)|Ag(s) \)
The pH of the acid solution is
(Given : \( E^{\circ}_{Ag^+|Ag} = 0.80 V; E^{\circ}_{2H^+|H_2} = 0.0 V) \)

• (1) 2.18
• (2) 3.18
• (3) 1.18
• (4) 1.09

The decomposition of AB\(_3\)(g) is a zero order reaction. At 300 K, the rate constant of the reaction is \(2.5 \times 10^{-4}\) mol L\(^{-1}\) s\(^{-1}\). What is the rate of reaction (in mol L\(^{-1}\) s\(^{-1}\)) when the concentration of AB\(_3\)(g) is taken as 10\(^{-1}\) mol L\(^{-1}\) at 300 K?

• (1) \(2.5 \times 10^{-5}\)
• (2) \(2.5 \times 10^{-4}\)
• (3) \(2.5 \times 10^{-3}\)
• (4) \(5 \times 10^{-4}\)

Which of the following is an example of a negatively charged sol?

• (1) \( TiO_2 \)
• (2) \( Al_2O_3 \cdot xH_2O \)
• (3) \( As_2S_3 \)
• (4) Methylene blue

At T(K), adsorption of a gas on surface of a solid follows Freundlich adsorption isotherm. A graph of \( \log \left( \frac{x}{m} \right) \) (on y-axis) and \( \log p \) (on x-axis) for this gas gave a straight line with slope = 2 and intercept = 1.5. What is the value of n ?

• (1) 2.0
• (2) 1.5
• (3) 0.5
• (4) 0.666

In the extraction of which of the following metals, the ore is concentrated by leaching process?

I) Ag

II) Au

III) Zn

IV) Al

• (1) I \& III only
• (2) II \& III only
• (3) III \& IV only
• (4) I, II \& IV only

The reactions which give \( XeO_3 \) as one of the products are:


I) Complete hydrolysis of \( XeF_2 \)

II) Complete hydrolysis of \( XeF_4 \)

III) Complete hydrolysis of \( XeF_6 \)

• (1) I \& II only
• (2) II \& III only
• (3) I \& III only
• (4) I, II, III

Match the following





The correct answer is:

• (1) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
• (2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
• (3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
• (4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

In 3d series, a metal ‘X’ has highest second ionisation enthalpy. The spin only magnetic moment (in BM) of X\(^{2+}\) ion is

• (1) 1.73
• (2) 0.0
• (3) 2.84
• (4) 5.92

Match the following

• (1) A-V, B-I, C-II, D-IV
• (2) A-V, B-III, C-II, D-IV
• (3) A-III, B-V, C-IV, D-II
• (4) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

Glucose on reaction with HCN forms a compound 'A'. Acid hydrolysis of A gives B. The molecular formula of B is:

• (1) \( C_7H_{14}O_8 \)
• (2) \( C_6H_{14}O_7 \)
• (3) \( C_7H_{14}O_6 \)
• (4) \( C_7H_{12}O_5 \)

The pyrimidine bases found in RNA are

• (1) Thymine \& Uracil
• (2) Thymine \& Cytosine
• (3) Adenine \& Guanine
• (4) Uracil \& Cytosine

Which of the following is a synthetic progesterone ?

• (1) Norethindrone
• (2) Novestrol
• (3) Estradiol
• (4) Testosterone

The S\(_{N}\)1 reactivity of the following halides will be in the order


I) C\(_{6}\)H\(_{5}\)CH\(_{2}\)Br

II) (C\(_{6}\)H\(_{5}\))\(_2\)CHBr

III) (C\(_{6}\)H\(_{5}\))\(_2\)C(CH\(_{3}\))Br

IV) (CH\(_{3}\))\(_2\)CHBr

• (1) \(III > II > I > IV\)
• (2) \(III > I > II > IV\)
• (3) \(IV > I > II > III\)
• (4) \(II > III > I > IV\)

Consider the following halogen-containing compounds:





The compounds with a net dipole moment are:

• (1) I, IV only
• (2) II, III, IV only
• (3) I, III and IV only
• (4) III, IV and V only

What are X and Y respectively in the following reaction sequence ?

• (1)
• (2)
• (3)
• (4)

Match the following:





The correct answer is:

• (1) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
• (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
• (3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
• (4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

Sequence of reagents required to convert m-bromoaniline to benzoic acid is
(dry ether = పొడి ఈథర్)

• (1) \( NaNO_2 | HCl, 273 - 278 K; CH_3CH_2OH; KCN; H_3O^+ \)
• (2) \( NaNO_2 | HCl, 273 - 278 K; Mg | dry ether; CO_2 | dry ether; H_3O^+ \)
• (3) \( NaNO_2 | HCl, 298 K; CuCN; H_3O^+ \)
• (4) \( NaNO_2 | HCl, 273 K; H_2O; KCN; H_3O^+ \)

Which of the following has the lowest \( pK_b \) value?

• (1) \( CH_3-NH_2 \)
• (2) \( (CH_3CH_2)_2NH \)
• (3)
• (4)