AP EAMCET 2025 Question Paper May 19 Shift 2 (Available): Download Solutions with Answer Key PDF (AP EAPCET)

Assertion (A): Molecular interactions result in emergent properties at a higher level of organization.

Reason (R): All living phenomena are due to underlying interactions.
Identify the correct option from the following:

• (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
• (2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
• (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
• (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Choose the correct statements among the following:

• (A) White spots on leaves are due to {Puccinia}.
• (B) Mycelium with multinucleated cytoplasm is called {coenocytic}.
• (C) Bacteria produce endospores under unfavourable conditions.
• (D) {Gonyaulax} release toxins to kill fish. Identify the correct option from the following:
• (1) I, II, III
• (2) II, III, IV
• (3) I, III, IV
• (4) I, II, IV

Assertion (A): The progress in biology was rapid during the past three decades.

Reason (R): This was due to the invention of microscope and studies of sexual patterns.

Identify the correct option from the following:

• (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
• (2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
• (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
• (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Study the following and identify the correct combinations:

S.No.    List - I        List - II          List - III
I           Algae   Phaeophyceae   Sargassum
II     Bryophyta   Hepaticopsida  Marchantia
III    Pteridophyta   Pteropsida    Equisetum
IV  Gymnosperms   Gnetopsida   Pinus

Identify the correct option from the following:

• (1) I, II
• (2) II, IV
• (3) I, III
• (4) II, III

Match the following:

List - I                                           List - II
A.  Velamen Roots                         II.  Eichhornia
B.   Axillary buds as tendrils        I. Watermelon
C.   Floral buds as storage food   IV. Agave
D.   Swollen petiole                         III. Pisum

Identify the correct option from the following:

• (1) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
• (2) A - III, B - II, C - I, D - IV
• (3) A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV
• (4) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II

The margins of sepals or petals are overlap one another but not in particular direction.

• (1) Twisted
• (2) Imbricate
• (3) Valvate
• (4) Vexillary

Assertion (A): Presence of {Eichhornia in a pond can lead to the death of fishes.

Reason (R): It is an invasive weed and occupies the total pond.

Identify the correct option from the following:

• (1) Both (A) and (R) are true. (R) is correct explanation for (A)
• (2) Both (A) and (R) are true. But (R) is not correct explanation for (A)
• (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
• (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true

In flowering plants, a mature female gametophyte is derived from the megaspore mother cell by:

• (1) One Mitotic division and three Meiotic divisions
• (2) One Meiotic and one Mitotic division
• (3) One Meiotic and three Mitotic divisions
• (4) Three Meiotic and one Mitotic division

Identify the plants in sequence with the following characters:

• (A) Tendrillar climber, odd sepal anterior, self pollination.
• (B) Twisted aestivation, capsule, terminal flower.
• (C) Berry, Cladophylls, tuberous roots.
• (D) Geocarpic, monoadelphous stamens, oil seeds.
• (1) Asparagus, Datura, Arachis, Pisum
• (2) Pisum, Asparagus, Arachis, Datura
• (3) Pisum, Datura, Asparagus, Arachis
• (4) Datura, Asparagus, Arachis, Pisum

Match the following:

List - I                                 List - II

A. Amoeboid                        IV. WBC
B. Elongated                        III. Nerve cell
C. Long and narrow             II. Tracheid
D. Branched and long cells  I. Columnar epithelial cells
 

Assertion (A): Non-polar tails of saturated hydrocarbons are protected from aqueous environment.

Reason (R): Hydrophilic heads are on the outside of the membrane.

Identify the correct option from the following:

• (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
• (2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
• (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
• (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Choose the correct statements among the following:

• (A) Plant ash includes all carbon and inorganic elements.
• (B) In amino acid, an amino group and acidic group on \(\alpha\)-carbon makes it \(\alpha\)-amino acid.
• (C) Glycerol has 3 -OH groups.
• (D) Acid insoluble fractions are called macromolecules. Identify the correct option from the following:
• (1) I, II, III
• (2) II, IV
• (3) I, IV
• (4) II, III, IV

Choose the correct statements among the following:

• (A) Duplication of genome, synthesis of other cell constituents, and division to produce new cells is called cell cycle.
• (B) Interphase is followed by a resting phase.
• (C) In every cell division, genetic variability will increase from generation to generation.
• (D) Plant cells can divide mitotically in both haploid and diploid cells. Identify the correct option from the following:
• (1) I, II
• (2) III, IV
• (3) I, IV
• (4) II, IV

Assertion (A): The functions of sieve tubes are controlled by the nucleus of companion cells. The companion cells help in maintaining the pressure gradient in sieve tubes.

Reason (R): Gymnosperms phloem has albuminous cells and sieve cells.

Identify the correct option from the following:

• (1) Both (A) and (R) are true. (R) is correct explanation for (A)
• (2) Both (A) and (R) are true. But (R) is not correct explanation for (A)
• (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
• (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Assertion (A): Dicot leaf is dark green in colour on the upper surface and light green in colour on the lower surface.

Reason (R): Palisade tissue is at the abaxial side and spongy tissue is at the adaxial side in this leaf.

Identify the correct option from the following:

• (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct. (R) is correct explanation for (A)
• (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct. But (R) is not correct explanation for (A)
• (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
• (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Assertion (A): Due to water stress the bulliform cells in grasses make the leaf curl outward to minimise water loss.

Reason (R): Bulliform cells are large, empty and colourless cells.

Identify the correct option from the following:

• (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
• (2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
• (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
• (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Establishment of Natural Committee for Environmental Planning and Coordination was established by the efforts of:

• (1) Rajeev Gandhi
• (2) Eugens Warming
• (3) Ramdeo Misra
• (4) Vallabh Panth

Choose the correct statements among the following:

I) CO\textsubscript{2 fixed by the forest will have direct economical value.

II) By reducing the use of pesticides we can protect the pollinators.

III) Ecosystem services are delivered by non-living organisms of ecosystem.

IV) Pollinators play a significant role in the enhancement of food production.

Identify the correct option from the following:

• (1) I, II and III
• (2) I, II, III, IV
• (3) I, III, IV
• (4) I, II, IV

Choose the correct combination regarding mechanism of translocation:

• (1) Stem tip \(\longrightarrow\) Sugar enters sieve tube \(\longrightarrow\) water flows by diffusion.
• (2) Leaf \(\longrightarrow\) Sugar enters sieve tubes \(\longrightarrow\) water flows by Osmosis.
• (3) Stem \(\longrightarrow\) Sugar solution flows to region of high turgor pressure \(\longrightarrow\) water flows by Osmosis.
• (4) Root \(\longrightarrow\) Sugar enters sieve tube for metabolism and storage \(\longrightarrow\) water flows by Osmosis.

Attraction of water molecules to polar surfaces in tracheary elements:

• (1) Inhibition
• (2) Adhesion
• (3) Cohesion
• (4) Diffusion

Match the following:

List-I                                             List-II
A. Nucleic acids structure         I. Magnesium
B. Synthesis of nucleic acid     II. Sulphur
C. Stabilize protein structure    III. Iron
D. Catalase                                  IV. Phosphorous
                                                      V. Potassium

• (1) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
• (2) A-V, B-I, C-II, D-III
• (3) A-IV, B-V, C-II, D-III
• (4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

Bacteria that oxidise Ammonia to Nitrite

• (1) Pseudomonas
• (2) Rhizobium
• (3) Nitrococcus
• (4) Thiobacillus

Choose incorrect statement from the following

• (1) Ligases linking of C–O, C–S, C–N bonds
• (2) Hydrolases catalysing C–C, C–halide, P–N bonds
• (3) Isomerases catalysing transfer of a group between a pair of substrates
• (4) Oxido reductase catalyse oxidation reduction reactions

Assertion (A): Decrease in the proton number in stroma and accumulation of more protons in the lumen creates proton gradient across the membrane.

Reason (R): Energy is released by the breakdown of proton gradient by ATPase and helps in synthesis of ATP.

Identify the correct option from the following:

• (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
• (2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
• (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
• (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Choose the correct statement from the following

• (I) In Hatch-Slack pathway mesophyll cells lack RuBisCO enzyme
  (II) PEP carboxylase is present in bundle sheath of chloroplast
  (III) OAA is formed in mesophyll cells
  (IV) PEP is primary CO2 acceptor present in chloroplast of bundle sheath cells
• (1) I, II
• (2) II, III
• (3) III, IV
• (4) I, IV

Arrange the intermediate compounds of Kreb's cycle based on number of carbons in ascending order.

• (1) α-Ketoglutaric acid, Acetyl CoA, Citric acid
• (2) Acetyl CoA, Citric acid, α-Ketoglutaric acid
• (3) α-Ketoglutaric acid, Citric acid, Acetyl CoA
• (4) Acetyl CoA, α-Ketoglutaric acid, Citric acid

Match the following
List-I              List-II
A) Kinetin     I) Terpenes
B) ABA         II) Carotenoids
C) \(GA_3\)   III) Indole compound
D) IAA          IV) Adenine derivatives

• (A) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
• (B) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
• (C) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
• (D) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Choose the correct series of bacteria that cause Tetanus, Diphtheria, Crown gall and Blight, respectively

• (A) Clostridium, Corynebacterium, Agrobacterium, Xanthomonas
• (B) Vibrio, Diplococcus, Xanthomonas, Clostridium
• (C) Xanthomonas, Agrobacterium, Corynebacterium, Clostridium
• (D) Corynebacterium, Agrobacterium, Xanthomonas, Clostridium

Number of nucleotides in viroid

• (A) 300 - 400
• (B) 6500
• (C) 2130
• (D) 158

The phenomenon of a single gene product may produce more than one effect so that a single gene may be related to more than one character.

• (1) Codominance
• (2) Incomplete dominance
• (3) Pleiotropy
• (4) Independent Assortment

Mutation is a phenomenon of

• (A) Alteration of genes
• (B) Variation in DNA
• (C) Heritable change in genotype and phenotype of an organism
• (1) I only
• (2) II only
• (3) I, II
• (4) I, II, III

Choose the incorrect statements among the following

• (A) Purines and cytosine are common in DNA and RNA.
• (B) Thymine is present only in RNA.
• (C) Uracil is present in DNA at the place of Thymine.
• (D) Adenine and Guanine are Purines
• (1) I and II
• (2) II and III
• (3) I and III
• (4) III and IV

Assertion (A): In prokaryotes the DNA in the nucleoid is organized in large loops held by proteins.

Reason (R): In prokaryotes, negatively charged DNA molecules are held with positively charged proteins.

Identify the correct option from the following:

• (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is correct explanation for (A)
• (2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A)
• (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
• (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Match the following

List - I                               List - II
A. Ori                                I. Low molecular weight
B. Selectable marker      II. Single recognition site to link alien DNA
C. Cloning site                III. Permitting the growth of transformants
D. Cloning vector           IV. Controlling the copy number of linked DNA

• (1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
• (2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
• (3) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
• (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-III

Choose the correct statements among the following

I. Pure DNA can be isolated by using ribonuclease and proteases.

II. Ethidium bromide staining facilitates the visualisation of DNA fragment in Agarose gel.

III. Sticky and ligation techniques help to cut the gene of interest from the source DNA.

• (1) I, III
• (2) II only
• (3) I, II, III
• (4) I only

Protein toxin produced by Bacillus thuringiensis that kill corn borer

• (1) cry
• (2) cry IIAb
• (3) cry IAc
• (4) cry IAb

Choose the correct statement among the following

I. Validity of GM research and safety of introducing GMO has to be given by GEAC.

II. Molecular farming means utilization of plants as biofactories for obtaining commercially useful products.

III. Basmati Rice variety is a transgenic plant with improved nutritional value.

IV. “Flavr savr” is suitable for food storage technology.

• (1) I, II, III
• (2) II, III, IV
• (3) I, II, IV
• (4) I, III, IV

The following hybridization crop variety is not an insect pest resistance variety

• (1) Pusa Sawani
• (2) Pusa Gaurav
• (3) Pusa Komal
• (4) Pusa Sem 2

Assertion (A): \textit{Propionibacterium sharmanii is responsible for large holes in Swiss cheese.


Reason (R): Characteristic texture, flavour and taste of cheese is specific to microorganism.

Identify the correct option from the following:

• (1) Both (A) and (R) are true. (R) is correct explanation for (A)
• (2) Both (A) and (R) are true. (R) is not correct explanation for (A)
• (3) (A) is true, (R) is false
• (4) (A) is false, (R) is true

Choose the correct statements among the following

I. Streptokinase is produced by \textit{Streptococcus.

II. \textit{Saccharomyces cerevisiae is used for commercial production of Ethanol.

III. Cyclosporin-A — blood cholesterol lowering agent produced by \textit{Trichoderma polysporum.

IV. Statin produced by yeast.

• (1) I, II, III
• (2) II, III, IV
• (3) I, III, IV
• (4) I, II, IV

Taxonomic hierarchy includes the following obligate categories:

Class, Family, Kingdom, Order, Species, Phylum, Genus

Arrange them in correct sequence.

• (1) III, I, VI, IV, VII, II, V
• (2) II, VII, IV, VI, I, V, III
• (3) IV, I, II, III, VII, VI, V
• (4) III, VI, I, IV, VII, II, V

Which factor primarily contributes to greater biodiversity in the tropics?

• (1) Large seasonal variations
• (2) High niche specialization
• (3) Frequent habitat disturbances
• (4) Low resource availability

Assertion (A): Radial symmetry is an advantage to sessile or slow moving animals.

Reason (R): Radial symmetry allows equal distribution of sense organs and body parts in all directions, facilitating equal response in any direction.

Identify the correct option from the following:

• (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
• (2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
• (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
• (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Statement-I: In articular cartilages, perichondrium is present.

Statement-II: Intervertebral discs contain fibrous cartilage.

Identify the correct option from the following:

• (1) Both statements (I) and (II) are true
• (2) Both statements (I) and (II) are false
• (3) Statement-I is true, but statement-II is false
• (4) Statement-I is false, but statement-II is true

Blood-brain barriers are formed by

• (1) Astrocytes
• (2) Ependymal cells
• (3) Schwann cells
• (4) Satellite cells

Which of the following is an echinoderm?

• (1) Sea lemon
• (2) Sea fan
• (3) Sea hare
• (4) Sea urchin

Match the following:

Animal                   Class
A) Feather star   I) Bivalvia
B) Acorn worm   II) Asteroidea
C) Pearl oyster   III) Diplopoda
D) Millipede        IV) Enteropneusta
                             V) Crinoidea

• (1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
• (2) A-V, B-III, C-I, D-II
• (3) A-V, B-IV, C-I, D-III
• (4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-V

The type of dentition found in vertebrates that lack a renal portal system

• (1) Thecodont, homodont, polyphyodont
• (2) Acrodont, homodont, diphyodont
• (3) Thecodont, heterodont, diphyodont
• (4) Pleurodont, heterodont, polyphyodont

Study the following and pick up the incorrect combinations:

S.No.    Group   Flourished in...   Example
I            Pisces    Devonian period  Exocoetus
II         Amphibia  Cretaceous period   Colotes
III             Reptilia   Mesozoic era  Hemidactylus
IV           Mammalia  Palaeozoic era   Felis

• (1) I, IV
• (2) II, III
• (3) II, IV
• (4) I, III

Number of flagella in Giardia

• (1) Two
• (2) Four
• (3) Eight
• (4) Many

Study the following and pick up the correct statements

• (A) [I)] Flagellates exhibit gliding locomotion with the help of their flagellae
• (B) [II)] Multiple fission in Amoeba is called sporulation
• (C) [III)] Syngamy in Plasmodium is hologamy type
• (D) [IV)] Fusion of pronuclei of gametes is called amphimixis
• (1) I, III
• (2) II, IV
• (3) I, II
• (4) III, IV

Match the following:

List-I                             List-II  
A)   Morphine          I)  Cardio vascular system
B)   Cannabinoids   II)   Tranquilizers
C)   Cocaine             III)  Sleeping pills
D)  Benzodiazepines  IV)  Pain killer
                                     V) Dopamine

• (1) A-IV, B-I, C-V, D-II
• (2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
• (3) A-IV, B-III, C-V, D-II
• (4) A-II, B-V, C-I, D-IV

Excessive consumption of this drug causes hallucinations.

• (1) Cocaine
• (2) Morphine
• (3) Heroin
• (4) Charas

Pick up the wrongly matched pair.

• (1) Lymphoedema — Swelling
• (2) Lymphangitis — Inflammation in lymph vessels
• (3) Lymphadenitis — Inflammation in lymph glands
• (4) Lymphoma — Filariasis

Study the following statements regarding respiratory system of cockroach and identify the correct option:

Statement-I: Cockroach possesses 10 pairs of spiracles.

Statement-II: The spiracles of cockroach are holopneustic.

• (1) Both statements (I) and (II) are true
• (2) Statement-I is true, but statement-II is false
• (3) Statement-I is false, but statement-II is true
• (4) Both statements (I) and (II) are false

In cockroach, principal motor centre is

• (1) Brain
• (2) Ganglion in 6^th abdominal segment
• (3) Sub-oesophageal ganglion
• (4) Ventral nerve cord

Study the following and pick up the correct statements:


[I)] \textit{Daphnia exhibits cyclomorphosis
[II)] In a thermally stratified lake of temperate region, the upper layer in winter is epilimnion
[III)] Niche is the functional role of an organism in an ecosystem
[IV)] Bergmann’s rule states the relationship between temperature and metabolic rate of animals

• (1) I, III
• (2) II, IV
• (3) III, II
• (4) I, IV

Match the following:

List-I                             List-II
A)   Volvox                    I) Phytoplankton
B)   Notonecta              III) Nekton
C)  Aquatic snails         V) Periphyton
D)   Chironomid larvae  II) Benthos

• (1) A-I, B-III, C-V, D-II
• (2) A-IV, B-III, C-V, D-I
• (3) A-II, B-V, C-III, D-I
• (4) A-I, B-IV, C-V, D-II

Cattle never feed on the leaves of Calotropis because of the presence of these chemicals

• (1) Cardiac glycosides
• (2) Lignin and chitin
• (3) Nicotine
• (4) Opium

Assertion (A): Pancreatic juice contains steapsin

Reason (R): Steapsin helps in protein digestion

Identify the correct option from the following:

• (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
• (2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
• (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
• (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Which one of the following is not involved in the regulation of respiration?

• (1) Pneumotaxic centre
• (2) Chemo sensitive area
• (3) Hypothalamus
• (4) Aortic arch receptors

Following are different stages in blood clotting. Arrange them in correct sequence:


[I)] Activation of prothrombin
[II)] Formation of prothrombin activator
[III)] Conversion of fibrinogen into soluble fibrin
[IV)] Clot retraction
[V)] Conversion of soluble fibrin into insoluble fibrin threads

• (1) II, I, V, III, IV
• (2) II, I, III, V, IV
• (3) I, II, III, IV, V
• (4) IV, V, III, I, II
• (A) Formation of prothrombin activator (II)
• (B) Activation of prothrombin (I)
• (C) Conversion of fibrinogen into soluble fibrin (III)
• (D) Conversion of soluble fibrin into insoluble fibrin threads (V)

Statement–I: Excretory organs in crustaceans are coxal glands.

Statement–II: Various volatile materials are eliminated by lungs.

Identify the correct option from the following:

• (1) Both statements (I) and (II) are true
• (2) Both statements (I) and (II) are false
• (3) Statement–I is true, but statement–II is false
• (4) Statement–I is false, but statement–II is true

Match the following:

List-I (Disorder)        List-II (Character)

A)  Myasthenia gravis   IV) Auto-immune disorder
B)  Muscular dystrophy III) Progressive muscle degeneration
C)   Gout                           I) Urate crystal deposits in joints
D)  Osteoporosis             II) Low bone density, fractures
 

• (1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
• (2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
• (3) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
• (4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

Study the following and pick up the correct combinations:

S.No. Organ  Sympathetic Nervous System  Parasympathetic Nervous System
I)         Eyes              Pupil constricts                                 Pupil dilates
II)   Blood vessels     Constricts                                             Dilates
III)   Digestive tract    Inhibits peristalsis                           Increases peristalsis
IV)  Pancreas               Stimulates activity                         Inhibits activity

• (1) I, II
• (2) III, IV
• (3) I, IV
• (4) II, III

Match the following:

Hormones
A) Insulin
B) Estrogen
C) Oxytocin
D) Thyroxine

Chemical nature

I) Steroid
II) Peptide
III) Amine
IV) Protein
V) Polysaccharide

Identify the correct match:

• (1) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
• (2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-V
• (3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
• (4) A-V, B-IV, C-II, D-II

Hormone that is having receptor on the surface of target cell membrane

• (1) Estrogen
• (2) Thyroxine
• (3) Epinephrine
• (4) Testosterone

Somatostatin is secreted by

• (1) Pituitary gland
• (2) Hypothalamus
• (3) Adrenal glands
• (4) Parathyroid glands

MHC class II molecules are primarily found on

• (1) All nucleated cells
• (2) Red blood cells
• (3) Antigen presenting cells
• (4) Blood platelets

Assertion (A): Placenta of human beings is called haemochorial type.

Reason (R): Chorionic villi of the foetus comes into direct contact with the maternal blood.

Identify the correct option from the following:

• (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
• (2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
• (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
• (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true

One of the following is not associated with male reproductive system of man.

• (1) Seminal vesicles
• (2) Prostate gland
• (3) Bulbourethral glands
• (4) Bartholin's glands

Pick up the hormone releasing intrauterine device.

• (1) Lippe’s loop
• (2) Multiload 375
• (3) Copper T
• (4) LNG - 20

If two heterozygous tall garden pea plants are crossed, the expected genotypic ratio in their offspring is

• (1) 3 : 1
• (2) 1 : 1
• (3) 1 : 2 : 1
• (4) 1 : 0

Study the following and pick up the correct statements:


[I)] In DNA fingerprinting, DNA is cut into small pieces at specific sites by restriction endonucleases.
[II)] Transfer of DNA strands on to the nylon membrane is called southern blotting.
[III)] The largest known human gene codes for the protein dystrophin.
[IV)] Least number of genes are located in Y-chromosome.

• (1) I only
• (2) I and II only
• (3) I, II and III only
• (4) I, II, III and IV

Match the following:

Method of sex determination

[A)] XX – XY
[B)] XX – XO
[C)] ZW – ZZ
[D)] ZZ – ZO

[I)] Grasshoppers
[II)] Birds
[III)] Human beings
[IV)] Moths
[V)] Honey bees

Identify the correct match:

• (1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-V
• (2) A-B, B-IV, C-I, D-II
• (3) A-V, B-I, C-III, D-IV
• (4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

Gynaecomastia is a symptom of

• (1) Klinefelter syndrome
• (2) Turner syndrome
• (3) Down syndrome
• (4) Edward syndrome

Assertion (A): Stabilizing selection favours intermediate traits and removes extremes.

Reason (R): Stabilizing selection does not promote speciation.

Identify the correct option from the following:

• (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
• (2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
• (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
• (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Fossilized faecal matter is

• (1) Moulds
• (2) Casts
• (3) Petrifications
• (4) Coprolites

Which of the following human proteins is used to treat emphysema?

• (1) Alpha-1 antitrypsin
• (2) Alpha-interferon
• (3) Alpha-lactalbumin
• (4) Adenosine deaminase

Match the following:

ECG Abnormality              Clinical Condition
A) Enlarged P wave            I) Bradycardia
B) Prolonged P-R interval  II) Myocardial infarction
C) Shortened Q-T interval  III) Atrial enlargement
D) Elevated S-T segment    IV) Hypercalcemia
                                               V) Hypocalcemia

Identify the correct match:

• (1) A-I, B-III, C-V, D-II
• (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
• (3) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
• (4) A-III, B-II, C-V, D-IV

If A, B and C represent Planck’s constant, mass and velocity respectively, then the dimensional formula of \(\frac{A}{BC}\) is

• (1) [M\textsuperscript{0}L\textsuperscript{0}T\textsuperscript{1}]
• (2) [M\textsuperscript{1}L\textsuperscript{0}T\textsuperscript{0}]
• (3) [M\textsuperscript{0}L\textsuperscript{1}T\textsuperscript{0}]
• (4) [M\textsuperscript{1}L\textsuperscript{1}T\textsuperscript{-1}]

A person walks up an escalator at rest in a time of 60 s. When standing on the same escalator now moving with a uniform speed, he is carried up in a time of 30 s. The time taken for him to walk up the moving escalator is

• (1) 10 s
• (2) 15 s
• (3) 20 s
• (4) 25 s

The magnitudes of two vectors \(\vec{A}\) and \(\vec{B}\) are \(A\) and \(B\) respectively, the magnitude of their resultant vector \(\vec{R}\) is \(R\). If \(\theta\) is the angle between the vectors \(\vec{A}\) and \(\vec{B}\), the angle made by the vector \(\vec{R}\) with the vector \(\vec{A}\) is \(\alpha\), then

• (1) \( R = \frac{B \sin \alpha}{\sin \theta} \)
• (2) \( R = \frac{A \sin \alpha}{\sin \theta} \)
• (3) \( R = \frac{B \sin \theta}{\sin \alpha} \)
• (4) \( R = \frac{A \sin \theta}{\sin \alpha} \)

If a body is projected horizontally from a height of 50 m with a speed of 20 m/s, then its speed after a time of 1.5 s is

(Acceleration due to gravity \( g = 10\ m/s^2 \))

• (1) 25 m/s
• (2) 28 m/s
• (3) 15 m/s
• (4) 30 m/s

Two blocks of masses 8 kg and 12 kg kept on a smooth horizontal table are connected to the ends of a light string as shown in the figure. If a horizontal force of 500 N is applied to the block of mass 12 kg, then the tension in the string connecting the blocks is

• (1) 200 N
• (2) 300 N
• (3) 500 N
• (4) 250 N

A body of mass 2 kg starts moving from the origin (0, 0) with an initial velocity of \( (4\hat{i} + 4\hat{j})\ ms^{-1} \). A constant force of \( -20\hat{j} \ N \) is applied on the body. When the Y-coordinate of the position of the body becomes zero again, then its X-coordinate is

• (1) 3.2 m
• (2) 4.2 m
• (3) 2.4 m
• (4) 2.8 m

A force of 18 N is acting in the direction of motion of a body of mass 3 kg moving with a velocity of 2 ms\(^{-1}\). The velocity of the body when it displaces by 5 m is

• (1) 4 ms\(^{-1}\)
• (2) 6 ms\(^{-1}\)
• (3) 10 ms\(^{-1}\)
• (4) 8 ms\(^{-1}\)

A body A of mass 200 g moving with a velocity \(\vec{v}_1 \hat{i}\) makes collision with another body B of mass 100 g moving with a velocity \(\vec{v}_2 \hat{i}\). After collision, A and B move with velocities \(\vec{v}_3 \hat{i}\) and \(\vec{v}_4 \hat{i}\) respectively. If \(v_3 = 0.5v_1\), then the value of \(v_1\) is

• (1) \(\displaystyle v_4 = \frac{v_2}{4}\)
• (2) \(\displaystyle v_4 = \frac{v_2}{2}\)
• (3) \(\displaystyle v_4 = v_2\)
• (4) \(\displaystyle v_4 = v_1 + v_2\)

The ratio of the radius of a uniform circular disc and its radius of gyration about a tangent in its plane is

• (1) \(\sqrt{5} : 2\)
• (2) \(2 : \sqrt{5}\)
• (3) \(4 : 5\)
• (4) \(5 : 4\)

If a solid sphere of mass 50 g and diameter 20 cm rolls without slipping with a velocity \(5\, cm/s\) on a surface, then its total kinetic energy is

• (1) \(6.25 \times 10^{-7}\, J\)
• (2) \(2.50 \times 10^{-7}\, J\)
• (3) \(8.75 \times 10^{-7}\, J\)
• (4) \(3.75 \times 10^{-5}\, J\)

For a body in simple harmonic motion, the relation between force \( F \) (in Newton) acting on the body and its displacement \( y \) (in metre) is given as \( F + 3y = 0 \). If the time period of oscillation of the body is \( \pi \) s, then its mass is

• (1) 12 kg
• (2) 750 g
• (3) 1500 g
• (4) 200 g

If the amplitudes of a damped harmonic oscillator at times 3 and 6 seconds are 6 cm and 4 cm respectively, then the initial amplitude of the oscillator is

• (1) 20 cm
• (2) 16 cm
• (3) 9 cm
• (4) 12 cm

If an object of mass 1 kg is taken to a height which is equal to three times the radius of the earth, then the change in its potential energy is

(Radius of the earth \( = 6400 \, km \), acceleration due to gravity \( g = 10 \, m/s^2 \))

• (1) \( 48 \times 10^6 \, J \)
• (2) \( 24 \times 10^6 \, J \)
• (3) \( 36 \times 10^6 \, J \)
• (4) \( 12 \times 10^6 \, J \)

A body of mass 10 kg is attached to one end of a wire of length 0.3 m and area of cross-section \(10^{-6} \, m^2\). If the maximum stress the wire can withstand is \(2.7 \times 10^7 \, N/m^2\), then the maximum angular velocity with which the wire-body system can be rotated in a horizontal circle about the other end of the wire is

• (1) \( 4 \, rad/s \)
• (2) \( 5 \, rad/s \)
• (3) \( 9 \, rad/s \)
• (4) \( 3 \, rad/s \)

A small solid sphere of mass 10 g and density \( 2600 \, kg/m^3 \) is dropped into a long vertical column of glycerine. When the sphere attains terminal velocity, the magnitude of the viscous force acting on the sphere is

(Acceleration due to gravity \( g = 10 \, m/s^2 \), Density of glycerine \( = 1300 \, kg/m^3 \))

• (1) \( 20 \times 10^{-3} \, N \)
• (2) \( 25 \times 10^{-3} \, N \)
• (3) \( 75 \times 10^{-3} \, N \)
• (4) \( 50 \times 10^{-3} \, N \)

If two temperatures on Celsius scale differ by \( 25^\circ \), then the difference of those two temperatures on Fahrenheit scale is

• (1) \( 45^\circ \)
• (2) \( 25^\circ \)
• (3) \( 32^\circ \)
• (4) \( 59^\circ \)

If a Carnot engine working between the temperatures \(300 \, K\) and \(600 \, K\) has work output of \(800 \, J\) per cycle, then the heat supplied to the engine from source per cycle is

• (1) \(1800 \, J\)
• (2) \(1000 \, J\)
• (3) \(2000 \, J\)
• (4) \(1600 \, J\)

During adiabatic expansion process, if the temperature of 4 moles of a monoatomic gas is decreased by \(100^\circ C\), then the work done by the gas is

(Universal gas constant \(R = 8.3 \, J/mol·K\))

• (1) \(4150 \, J\)
• (2) \(8300 \, J\)
• (3) \(2490 \, J\)
• (4) \(4980 \, J\)

At constant pressure, if the work done by a gas is 40% of the increase in the internal energy of the gas, then the specific heat capacity of the gas at constant volume is

(Universal gas constant \(R = 8.3 \, J mol^{-1} K^{-1}\))

• (1) \(29.05 \, J mol^{-1} K^{-1}\)
• (2) \(25.35 \, J mol^{-1} K^{-1}\)
• (3) \(20.75 \, J mol^{-1} K^{-1}\)
• (4) \(32.55 \, J mol^{-1} K^{-1}\)

A spherical black body of radius 12 cm at a temperature of \(T\) K radiates a power of 400 W. If the radius of the sphere is doubled and absolute temperature is halved, then the power radiated by the body is

• (1) 100 W
• (2) 200 W
• (3) 400 W
• (4) 1600 W

When a stretched string is vibrated simultaneously with a 440 Hz tuning fork, a beat frequency of 5 Hz is produced. If the experiment is repeated with a tuning fork of 437 Hz, the beat frequency produced is 8 Hz. The frequency of the string is

• (1) 445 Hz
• (2) 435 Hz
• (3) 429 Hz
• (4) 448 Hz

The focal length of a convex lens immersed in a liquid of refractive index 1.2 is \( f_1 \) and its focal length when immersed in another liquid of refractive index 1.25 is \( f_2 \). If the refractive index of the material of the lens is 1.5, then \( f_1 : f_2 = \)

• (1) 6 : 5
• (2) 4 : 5
• (3) 3 : 5
• (4) 2 : 5

If two light waves of intensities \( I \) and \( 4I \) superimpose at a point with a phase difference of \( \frac{\pi}{2} \), then the resultant intensity at that point is

• (1) 5I
• (2) 7I
• (3) 6I
• (4) 8I

The electric flux through the surface of a thin spherical shell of radius 6 cm, having a point charge 2 µC at its center is

• (1) \( 36\pi \times 10^5 \, N m^2 C^{-1} \)
• (2) \( 72\pi \times 10^5 \, N m^2 C^{-1} \)
• (3) \( 36\pi \times 10^8 \, N m^2 C^{-1} \)
• (4) \( 72\pi \times 10^3 \, N m^2 C^{-1} \)

The capacitance of a solid sphere of radius 18 cm is

• (1) 40 pF
• (2) 40 µF
• (3) 20 pF
• (4) 20 µF

Three point charges +10 µC, +20 µC, and +40 µC are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side 1 m. The electrostatic potential energy of the system of the charges is

• (1) 6.3 J
• (2) 12.6 J
• (3) 25.2 J
• (4) 21.6 J

A 48 V battery is supplying a current 12 A when connected to an external resistor. If the efficiency of the battery at this current is 75%, then the internal resistance of the battery is

• (1) 3 \(\Omega\)
• (2) 1.5 \(\Omega\)
• (3) 2.5 \(\Omega\)
• (4) 1 \(\Omega\)

In the circuit of resistors shown in the figure, the effective resistance between points A and B is


% Replace with actual image path in your document

• (1) \( 10\,\Omega \)
• (2) \( \frac{20}{3}\,\Omega \)
• (3) \( 65\,\Omega \)
• (4) \( 15\,\Omega \)

If the operating magnetic field in a cyclotron for accelerating protons is 668 mT, then the angular frequency of the oscillator of the cyclotron is

(Charge of proton \( = 1.6 \times 10^{-19} \,\mathrm{C} \), Mass of proton \( = 1.67 \times 10^{-27} \,\mathrm{kg} \))

• (1) \( 9.6 \times 10^{7} \,\mathrm{rad/s} \)
• (2) \( 3.2 \times 10^{7} \,\mathrm{rad/s} \)
• (3) \( 12.8 \times 10^{7} \,\mathrm{rad/s} \)
• (4) \( 6.4 \times 10^{7} \,\mathrm{rad/s} \)

Two concentric loops of radii 'r' and 'R' are in same plane such that \( R \gg r \). If a current \( I \) is maintained in the loop of radius \( r \), then the magnetic flux associated with the loop of radius 'R' due to this current is

• (1) \( \frac{\pi \mu_0 I r^2}{R} \)
• (2) \( \frac{\pi \mu_0 I r}{2} \)
• (3) \( \frac{\pi \mu_0 I r^2}{2R} \)
• (4) \( \frac{\pi \mu_0 I R}{2} \)

Three identical bar magnets each of magnetic moment \( M \) are placed in the form of an equilateral triangle with north pole of one touching the south pole of the other. The net magnetic moment of the system of magnets is

• (1) \( \sqrt{3}M \)
• (2) \( \frac{3M}{2} \)
• (3) \( 3M \)
• (4) zero

When the current in a coil decreases from 10 A to \( I \) in a time of 2 seconds, the induced emf in the coil is \( \varepsilon_1 \). When the current in the coil decreases from \( I \) to zero in 4 seconds, the induced emf in the coil is \( \varepsilon_2 \). If the ratio of the induced emfs \( \varepsilon_1 : \varepsilon_2 = 2 : 3 \), then the value of \( I \) is

• (1) 3.75 A
• (2) 7.5 A
• (3) 5 A
• (4) 2.5 A

If a capacitor of 500 nF is connected to an AC source of frequency 1 kHz, then the capacitive reactance of the capacitor is

• (1) \( \frac{10^3}{\pi}~\Omega \)
• (2) \( \frac{10^4}{\pi}~\Omega \)
• (3) \( 2 \times 10^3~\Omega \)
• (4) \( \frac{\pi \times 10^3}{2}~\Omega \)

If the amplitude of electric field vector and frequency of an electromagnetic wave travelling along \(z\)-direction in vacuum are 180 N C\(^{-1}\) and 60 GHz respectively, then the equation of the magnitude of the electric field of the plane electromagnetic wave is

• (1) \( E = 180 \sin\left( \pi \left( 1000z - 60 \times 10^9 t \right) \right)~N C^{-1} \)
• (2) \( E = 180 \sin\left( 2\pi \left( 200z - 6 \times 10^{10} t \right) \right)~N C^{-1} \)
• (3) \( E = 180 \sin\left( 2\pi \left( 100z - 3 \times 10^{10} t \right) \right)~N C^{-1} \)
• (4) \( E = 180 \sin\left( 2\pi \left( 10z - 3 \times 10^5 t \right) \right)~N C^{-1} \)

An electron of specific charge \( \frac{e}{m} \) enters an electric field, \( \vec{E} = -E_0 \hat{i} \) at a time \( t = 0 \) with an initial velocity \( \vec{v}_1 \). If \( \lambda_0 \) is its initial de Broglie wavelength, then its de Broglie wavelength at a time ‘t’ is

• (1) \( \frac{\lambda_0}{\left(1 + \frac{eE_0 t}{mv} \right)} \)
• (2) \( \lambda_0 \left[ 1 + \frac{eE_0 t}{mv} \right] \)
• (3) \( \frac{\lambda_0}{\left(1 - \frac{eE_0 t}{mv} \right)} \)
• (4) \( \frac{\lambda_0 e E_0}{mv} \)

If the angular momenta of electrons in two orbits of hydrogen atom are \( \frac{h}{\pi} \) and \( \frac{1.5h}{\pi} \), then the ratio of velocities of electrons in these two orbits is

(h – Planck’s constant)

• (1) \( 3 : 2 \)
• (2) \( 3 : 4 \)
• (3) \( 9 : 4 \)
• (4) \( 1 : 3 \)

If the half-life of a radioactive substance is 32 hours, then the fraction of the substance decayed in 4 days is

• (1) \( \frac{1}{16} \)
• (2) \( \frac{1}{8} \)
• (3) \( \frac{15}{16} \)
• (4) \( \frac{7}{8} \)

If the collector and base currents of a transistor in common emitter configuration are 5 mA and 50 \(\mu\)A, then the current amplification factor of the transistor is

• (1) \( 100 \)
• (2) \( 200 \)
• (3) \( 50 \)
• (4) \( 400 \)

If two diodes \( D_1 \) and \( D_2 \) are connected as shown in the figure, then

• (1) both the diodes \( D_1 \) and \( D_2 \) are forward biased.
• (2) both the diodes \( D_1 \) and \( D_2 \) are reverse biased.
• (3) diode \( D_1 \) is forward biased and diode \( D_2 \) is reverse biased.
• (4) diode \( D_1 \) is reverse biased and diode \( D_2 \) is forward biased.

The minimum length of an antenna to transmit a signal of frequency \( 3 kHz \) is

• (1) 20 km
• (2) 25 km
• (3) 50 km
• (4) 75 km

The wavelength of spectral line corresponding to electron transition \( n = 3 \) to \( n = 2 \) for \( Li^{2+} \) ion is \( \lambda \,nm \). What is the wavelength (in nm) corresponding to electron transition \( n = 4 \) to \( n = 1 \) for \( He^+ \) ion?

• (1) \( \frac{\lambda}{4} \)
• (2) \( \frac{\lambda}{3} \)
• (3) \( \frac{\lambda}{9} \)
• (4) 5\( \lambda \)

The orbital with number of total nodes as 3 and angular nodes as 3 is

• (1) 3d
• (2) 4d
• (3) 4f
• (4) 5p

In which of the following, elements are correctly arranged in the decreasing order of atomic radius?

• (1) Cl \(>\) Si\(>\) C\(>\) F
• (2) Si\(>\) Cl\(>\) C\(>\) F
• (3) Si\(>\) C\(>\) F\(>\) Cl
• (4) C\(>\) Si\(>\) F\(>\) Cl

The pairs of compounds which have the same molecular geometry are

I) BF\textsubscript{3, BrF\textsubscript{3

II) XeF\textsubscript{2, BeCl\textsubscript{2

III) BCl\textsubscript{3, PCl\textsubscript{3

IV) PCl\textsubscript{3, NCl\textsubscript{3

• (1) I \& III only
• (2) II \& III only
• (3) I \& IV only
• (4) II \& IV only

Which of the following sets are not correctly matched?

I) O₂⁺, O₂^–              – diamagnetic
II) O₂^–, O₂              – paramagnetic
III) O₂^–, O₂^2–          – diamagnetic
IV) O₂⁺, O₂^2–          – paramagnetic

• (1) II \& III
• (2) I \& II
• (3) III \& IV
• (4) I \& III

Consider the following:

Statement I: Real gases exhibit ideal behaviour at high pressures and low temperatures.

Statement II: At high pressure, all gases have compressibility factor (Z) either as 1 or \(<\) 1.

• (1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
• (2) Both statement-I and statement-II are not correct
• (3) Statement-I is correct, but statement-II is not correct
• (4) Statement-I is not correct, but statement-II is correct

At T(K), a gaseous mixture contains H\(_2\) and O\(_2\). The total pressure of the mixture is 2 bar. The weight percentage (w/w) of H\(_2\) is 33.33%. What is the approximate ratio of partial pressure of H\(_2\) and O\(_2\)?

• (1) 8 : 1
• (2) 4 : 1
• (3) 2 : 1
• (4) 3 : 1

In acid medium, dichromate oxidizes sulphite to sulphate. In this redox reaction, the oxidation state of sulphur changes from \(x\) to \(y\). What is the value of \(x + y\)?

• (1) 8
• (2) 6
• (3) 10
• (4) 12

Which of the following statements is incorrect about enthalpy?

• (1) Its absolute value can be determined accurately.
• (2) It is a state function.
• (3) It is an extensive property.
• (4) Enthalpy change can be determined using the first law of thermodynamics.

The standard enthalpy of formation of C\(_2\)H\(_4\)(g), CO\(_2\)(g), and H\(_2\)O(l) are 52, –394, and –286 kJ mol\(^{-1}\) respectively. The heat evolved by burning 7 g of C\(_2\)H\(_4\)(g) is

• (1) 353 kJ
• (2) 1412 kJ
• (3) 706 kJ
• (4) 1306 kJ

At T(K), \( K_c \) value for the dissociation of \( PCl_5 \) is 0.04.
\[ PCl_5(g) \rightleftharpoons PCl_3(g) + Cl_2(g) \]
The number of moles of \( PCl_5 \) to be added to a 3.0 L flask to get chlorine concentration of 0.15 mol L\(^{-1}\) is (approximately)?

• (1) 1.7
• (2) 1.2
• (3) 2.1
• (4) 1.8

The pH of a mixture containing 100 mL of 0.5 M acetic acid and 50 mL of 0.2 M NaOH is (p\(K_a\) of CH\(_3\)COOH = 4.8).

(Given: \( \log 3 = 0.48 \), \( \log 4 = 0.60 \))

• (1) 4.8
• (2) 4.2
• (3) 9.2
• (4) 5.4

Which of the following methods are used to remove temporary hardness of water?

I) Boiling

II) Calgon method

III) Clark's method

The correct answer is (only = మాత్రమే):

• (1) I only
• (2) I \& III only
• (3) II only
• (4) I, II \& III

Consider the following

Statement-I: Alkali metals dissolve in liquid ammonia and form deep blue solutions.

Statement-II: The order of melting and boiling points of alkali metal halides follow the trend:

Fluoride\(<\) chloride\(<\) bromide\(<\) iodide.

• (1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
• (2) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is not correct
• (3) Statement-I is not correct, but Statement-II is correct
• (4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are not correct

Among \( B_2O_3 \), \( Al_2O_3 \), and \( In_2O_3 \), the oxides which react with alkalies are:

• (1) \( Al_2O_3 \), \( In_2O_3 \) only
• (2) \( B_2O_3 \), \( Al_2O_3 \) only
• (3) \( B_2O_3 \), \( In_2O_3 \) only
• (4) \( B_2O_3 \), \( Al_2O_3 \), and \( In_2O_3 \)

Observe the following given changes:
\[ wood \xrightarrow[absence of air]{high temperature} X
coal \xrightarrow[absence of air]{high temperature} Y \]

X and Y respectively are:

• (1) coke, coke
• (2) charcoal, coke
• (3) charcoal, charcoal
• (4) coke, charcoal

Consider the following:

Statement-I: \( CO_2 \) is released into atmosphere by burning of fossil fuels and increase in \( CO_2 \) levels in air causes global warming.

Statement-II: CO is released into the air mainly by automobile exhaust and it is a lung irritant.

• (1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
• (2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are not correct
• (3) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is not correct
• (4) Statement-I is not correct, but Statement-II is correct

Which of the following compounds is most reactive towards electrophilic substitution reactions?

• (1)
• (2)
• (3)
• (4)

Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

A compound (X) produces an alkene when treated with H\(_2\) in the presence of Na/liquid NH\(_3\). Ozonolysis of this alkene gives ethanol and methanal. "X" is

• (1) 1-Butyne
• (2) 2-Butyne
• (3) Ethyne
• (4) Propyne

An element crystallizes in bcc lattice. The atomic radius of the element is 2.598 \AA{}. What is the edge length (in \AA{}) of the unit cell?

• (1) 4
• (2) 8
• (3) 6
• (4) 5

A 1% (w/v) aqueous solution of a certain solute is isotonic with a 3% (w/v) solution of glucose (molar mass 180 g mol\(^{-1}\)). The molar mass of solute (in g mol\(^{-1}\)) is

• (1) 120
• (2) 60
• (3) 360
• (4) 80

Consider the following:

Assertion (A): Nitric acid - water mixture is a maximum boiling azeotrope.

Reason (R): Nitric acid - water mixture shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law.

• (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
• (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
• (3) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct
• (4) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct

Consider the following cell at 298 K.

M(s) \(|\) M\(^{2+}\) (x M) \(||\) Zn\(^{2+}\) (y M) \(|\) Zn(s)

The cell reaction reached the equilibrium state. The value of \(\log \left( \frac{[M^{2+}]}{[Zn^{2+}]} \right)\) is 53.33.

What is the value of \(E^\Theta_{M^{2+}/M}\) (in volts)?


Given: \[ E^\Theta_{Zn^{2+}/Zn} = -0.76\,V, \quad \frac{2.303\,RT}{F} = 0.06\,V \]

• (1) +2.36
• (2) –1.6
• (3) –2.36
• (4) +1.6

The time required for 100% completion of a zero order reaction is

[\(R\)]\(_0\) = Initial concentration of reactant, R

• (1) \(\dfrac{2k}{[R]_0}\)
• (2) \(\dfrac{[R]_0}{2k}\)
• (3) \(\dfrac{[R]_0}{k}\)
• (4) \([R]_0 \cdot k\)

Identify the correct statements regarding the enzymes


I) Almost all enzymes are proteins

II) Enzymes are not specific in nature

III) Enzymes work effectively in the pH range of 5–7

IV) Enzymes work effectively between 310 K and 330 K temperature

• (1) I \& II only
• (2) II \& III only
• (3) I \& III only
• (4) II \& IV only

Which of the following is an example of a positively charged sol?

• (1) As\(_2\)S\(_3\) sol
• (2) Congo red sol
• (3) TiO\(_2\) sol
• (4) Gelatin sol

Copper matte mainly contains

• (1) Cu\(_2\)S, Fe\(_2\)S\(_3\)
• (2) Cu\(_2\)S, FeS
• (3) Cu\(_2\)O, Cu\(_2\)S
• (4) FeO, FeS

Zinc sulphide reacts with oxygen and gives two oxides, X and Y. If nature of X is acidic, the nature of Y is

• (1) Acidic
• (2) Basic
• (3) Neutral
• (4) Amphoteric

In Am\(^{3+}\) (Z = 95), the number of f-electrons with (\(n + \ell\)) value equal to 8 is (where \(n\), \(\ell\) represent principal and azimuthal quantum numbers)

• (1) 7
• (2) 6
• (3) 5
• (4) 4

Match the following:

List-I (Complex)                                  List-II (Isomerism)
A) [Co(NH\(_3\))\(_5\)Br]SO\(_4\)              I) Optical
B) [Co(en)\(_3\)]\(^{3+}\)                            II) Linkage
C) [Co(NH\(_3\))\(_5\)(NO\(_2\))]\(^{2+}\)   III) Geometrical
D) [Co(NH\(_3\))\(_3\)Cl\(_3\)]                     IV) Coordination
                                                                      V) Ionization

• (1) A-V, B-II, C-I, D-III
• (2) A-II, B-I, C-V, D-III
• (3) A-V, B-I, C-II, D-III
• (4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

Identify the correct set from the following:

• (1) Copolymer - addition polymer - Natural rubber
• (2) Homopolymer - condensation polymer - Nylon 6,6
• (3) Copolymer - condensation polymer - Nylon 6
• (4) Homopolymer - addition polymer - Neoprene

Which of the following reagents will oxidise glucose to gluconic acid?

% Given reagents

[I)] Br\(_2\)/H\(_2\)O
[II)] HNO\(_3\)
[III)] [Ag(NH\(_3\))\(_2\)]^+ / OH\(^-\)

• (1) I, II only
• (2) I, III only
• (3) II, III only
• (4) I, II, III

During the denaturation of proteins, which of the following structures will remain intact?

• (1) Secondary \& tertiary (2°, 3°)
• (2) Tertiary only (3°)
• (3) Primary only (1°)
• (4) Primary and secondary (1°, 2°)

Identify the incorrect statement regarding artificial sweeteners.

• (1) Saccharin is the first popular artificial sweetener
• (2) Aspartame is stable at cooking temperature
• (3) Among the artificial sweeteners, alitame is a high potency sweetener
• (4) Sucralose is a trichloro derivative of sucrose

What are X and Y in the following set of reactions?

(dry acetone)
\[ \ce{CH3-CH2-CH(Br)-CH2-F ->[Y] CH3-CH2-CH(Br)-CH3 ->[X] CH3-CH2-CH(I)-CH3} \]

• (1) NaI / dry acetone; SbF\(_3\)
• (2) NaI / H\(_2\)O; NaF
• (3) NaI / H\(_2\)O; SbF\(_3\)
• (4) NaI / dry acetone; NaF

The SN\(_2\) reactivity of the following compounds will be in the order:


I) C\(_6\)H\(_5\)CH(CH\(_3\))Br

II) (C\(_6\)H\(_5\))\(_2\)CHBr

III) (C\(_6\)H\(_5\))\(_2\)C(CH\(_3\))Br

IV) C\(_6\)H\(_5\)CH\(_2\)Br

• (1) III \(<\) II \(<\) I \(<\) IV
• (2) III \(<\) I \(<\) II \(<\) IV
• (3) II \(<\) III \(<\) IV \(<\) I
• (4) II \(<\) IV \(<\) I \(<\) III

What is ‘Y’ in the following reaction sequence?

• (1)
• (2)
• (3)
• (4)

Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Which of the following sets is correctly matched?

• (1) C\(_6\)H\(_5\)CN -- DIBAL-H, H\(_2\)O -- Stephen reaction
• (2) C\(_6\)H\(_6\) -- CO, HCl, Anhy. AlCl\(_3\) -- Friedel-Crafts reaction
• (3) C\(_6\)H\(_5\)CH\(_3\) -- (i) CrO\(_2\)Cl\(_2\)/CS\(_2\) (ii) H\(_3\)O\(^+\) -- Etard reaction
• (4) C\(_6\)H\(_5\)COCl -- H\(_2\)/Pd -- Rosenmund reduction

The IUPAC name of the product Z in the reaction sequence is:

• (1) But-2-enal
• (2) 4-Methylpent-3-enal
• (3) 4-Methylpent-3-en-2-one
• (4) 2-Methylpent-2-enal

Identify the end product 'Y' in the given reaction sequence:

• (1)
• (2)
• (3)
• (4)

Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution