Bihar Board 12 Geography - 323 - Set-G 2025 Question Paper with Solutions PDF

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Shivam Yadav

Educational Content Expert | Updated on - Oct 9, 2025

Bihar  Board Class 12 Geography 323  Set G Question Paper 2025 PDF with Answer Key and Solutions PDF is available for download here.The exam was successfully organized by IIT Bombay. The question paper comprised a total of 138 questions.

Bihar Board Class 12 Geography 323  Set G Question Paper 2025 with Solutions PDF

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Bihar Board Class 12 Geography 323  Set G Question Paper 2025 with Solutions PDF
Question 1:

Arabica is associated with

  • (A) Tea
  • (B) Coffee
  • (C) Sugarcane
  • (D) Paddy
Correct Answer: (B) Coffee
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding Arabica.

Arabica is a variety of coffee plant, primarily grown in tropical climates. It is mainly associated with the production of coffee.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Tea: Arabica is not related to tea.

- (B) Coffee: Arabica is a variety of coffee. This is the correct option.

- (C) Sugarcane: Arabica is not related to sugarcane.

- (D) Paddy: Arabica is not associated with rice.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (B) Coffee.
Quick Tip: Arabica is a type of coffee known for its smoother flavor compared to other types like Robusta.


Question 2:

Hirakud project is in

  • (A) Odisha
  • (B) Bihar
  • (C) Jharkhand
  • (D) Chhattisgarh
Correct Answer: (A) Odisha
View Solution




Step 1: Hirakud Project Overview.

The Hirakud Dam is located on the Mahanadi River in the state of Odisha, India. It is one of the longest dams in the world and plays a crucial role in irrigation and flood control.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Odisha: Hirakud project is located in Odisha, making this the correct answer.

- (B) Bihar: The Hirakud project is not in Bihar.

- (C) Jharkhand: The Hirakud project is not in Jharkhand.

- (D) Chhattisgarh: The Hirakud project is not in Chhattisgarh.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (A) Odisha.
Quick Tip: The Hirakud Dam plays a key role in flood control, irrigation, and power generation in Odisha.


Question 3:

The direction of flow of Luni river is

  • (A) Eastern
  • (B) Western
  • (C) Southern
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B) Western
View Solution




Step 1: Flow of the Luni River.

The Luni River flows in a westerly direction, originating from the Aravalli range and flowing into the Arabian Sea.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Eastern: This is not correct as the Luni river flows westward.

- (B) Western: This is correct, as the Luni river flows towards the west.

- (C) Southern: Luni does not flow southward.

- (D) None of these: This is incorrect as the correct direction is western.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (B) Western.
Quick Tip: The Luni river flows westward, draining into the marshy regions of the Rann of Kutch.


Question 4:

Which of the following rivers is the most polluted?

  • (A) Satluj
  • (B) Yamuna
  • (C) Sone
  • (D) Godavari
Correct Answer: (B) Yamuna
View Solution




Step 1: River Pollution in India.

Among the rivers listed, the Yamuna is considered one of the most polluted due to the large amount of industrial waste and untreated sewage discharged into it.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Satluj: Though polluted, it is not as polluted as the Yamuna.

- (B) Yamuna: The Yamuna River is heavily polluted, especially near Delhi. It is known for its high levels of toxins and pollutants.

- (C) Sone: The Sone river is not as polluted as the Yamuna.

- (D) Godavari: The Godavari is one of the cleaner rivers and does not face as much pollution.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (B) Yamuna.
Quick Tip: Yamuna River faces severe pollution due to untreated sewage and industrial waste, especially in urban areas like Delhi.


Question 5:

In which state is Panipat oil refinery centre located?

  • (A) Haryana
  • (B) Rajasthan
  • (C) Assam
  • (D) Uttar Pradesh
Correct Answer: (A) Haryana
View Solution




Step 1: Panipat Refinery Overview.

The Panipat oil refinery is located in Haryana, India. It is one of the largest oil refineries in the country and plays a crucial role in the Indian petroleum industry.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Haryana: The refinery is located in Panipat, which is in Haryana.

- (B) Rajasthan: This is incorrect as the refinery is not in Rajasthan.

- (C) Assam: This is incorrect as the refinery is not in Assam.

- (D) Uttar Pradesh: This is incorrect as the refinery is not in Uttar Pradesh.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (A) Haryana.
Quick Tip: Panipat is an important hub for the oil refining industry in India, located in Haryana.


Question 6:

In which of the following states is Narora atomic power centre located?

  • (A) Maharashtra
  • (B) Uttar Pradesh
  • (C) Gujarat
  • (D) Karnataka
Correct Answer: (B) Uttar Pradesh
View Solution




Step 1: Narora Atomic Power Centre Overview.

The Narora Atomic Power Station is located in the state of Uttar Pradesh, India. It is a nuclear power plant in the village of Narora.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Maharashtra: Narora Atomic Power Centre is not in Maharashtra.

- (B) Uttar Pradesh: This is the correct option, as the plant is located in Narora, Uttar Pradesh.

- (C) Gujarat: The plant is not in Gujarat.

- (D) Karnataka: The plant is not in Karnataka.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (B) Uttar Pradesh.
Quick Tip: Narora Atomic Power Station is one of India's important nuclear power plants located in Uttar Pradesh.


Question 7:

Kalpakkam is in which state?

  • (A) Kerala
  • (B) Tamil Nadu
  • (C) Karnataka
  • (D) Gujarat
Correct Answer: (B) Tamil Nadu
View Solution




Step 1: Kalpakkam Location Overview.

Kalpakkam is located in Tamil Nadu, India. It is home to the Kalpakkam Nuclear Power Plant, which is an important nuclear energy facility.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Kerala: Kalpakkam is not located in Kerala.

- (B) Tamil Nadu: This is the correct option, as Kalpakkam is in Tamil Nadu.

- (C) Karnataka: Kalpakkam is not in Karnataka.

- (D) Gujarat: Kalpakkam is not in Gujarat.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (B) Tamil Nadu.
Quick Tip: Kalpakkam is known for its nuclear energy production in Tamil Nadu, housing a major nuclear power plant.


Question 8:

The headquarters of World Trade Organisation (WTO) is located in

  • (A) New York
  • (B) Vienna
  • (C) Geneva
  • (D) New Delhi
Correct Answer: (C) Geneva
View Solution




Step 1: WTO Headquarters Location.

The headquarters of the World Trade Organisation (WTO) is located in Geneva, Switzerland.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) New York: WTO headquarters is not in New York.

- (B) Vienna: WTO headquarters is not in Vienna.

- (C) Geneva: This is the correct option, as WTO's headquarters is in Geneva.

- (D) New Delhi: WTO headquarters is not in New Delhi.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (C) Geneva.
Quick Tip: The World Trade Organisation (WTO) is based in Geneva, where it coordinates international trade agreements and policies.


Question 9:

The headquarters of which association is located in Kathmandu?

  • (A) OPEC
  • (B) SAARC
  • (C) ASEAN
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (B) SAARC
View Solution




Step 1: SAARC Headquarters Location.

The headquarters of the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) is located in Kathmandu, Nepal.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) OPEC: The headquarters of OPEC is in Vienna, not Kathmandu.

- (B) SAARC: This is the correct option, as SAARC's headquarters is in Kathmandu.

- (C) ASEAN: The ASEAN headquarters is in Jakarta, Indonesia, not Kathmandu.

- (D) All of these: This is incorrect, as only SAARC's headquarters is in Kathmandu.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (B) SAARC.
Quick Tip: SAARC is an organization of South Asian nations, and its headquarters is located in Kathmandu, Nepal.


Question 10:

OPEC is associated with

  • (A) Cotton export
  • (B) Copper export
  • (C) Petroleum export
  • (D) Sugar export
Correct Answer: (C) Petroleum export
View Solution




Step 1: OPEC Overview.

The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) is an international organization primarily focused on the petroleum industry, specifically crude oil exports.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Cotton export: OPEC is not involved with cotton exports.

- (B) Copper export: OPEC is not involved with copper exports.

- (C) Petroleum export: This is the correct option as OPEC is primarily concerned with the global petroleum market.

- (D) Sugar export: OPEC is not involved with sugar exports.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (C) Petroleum export.
Quick Tip: OPEC controls the oil supply and works to ensure the stability of oil markets.


Question 11:

The village settled along a river will come under which pattern?

  • (A) Rectangular
  • (B) Radial
  • (C) Circular
  • (D) Linear
Correct Answer: (D) Linear
View Solution




Step 1: Settlement Patterns Overview.

Settlements along rivers are generally linear as they develop in a line along the river, utilizing water resources for living, farming, and transportation.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Rectangular: This pattern does not typically apply to villages along rivers.

- (B) Radial: This pattern is more typical of towns with a central point, like a city or fort.

- (C) Circular: Circular patterns are rare for river-based settlements.

- (D) Linear: This is the correct option as villages along rivers often form a linear pattern, stretching along the banks.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (D) Linear.
Quick Tip: Linear settlements are common along rivers as the river provides a continuous source of water and transportation.


Question 12:

Which of the following regions is the oldest well documented urban settlement?

  • (A) Nile Valley
  • (B) Mesopotamia
  • (C) Hwang Ho Valley
  • (D) Indus Valley
Correct Answer: (B) Mesopotamia
View Solution




Step 1: Oldest Urban Settlements Overview.

Mesopotamia, located between the Tigris and Euphrates rivers, is known as the cradle of civilization and has some of the oldest documented urban settlements.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Nile Valley: Ancient Egyptian civilization thrived here, but Mesopotamia is considered older in terms of urban settlements.

- (B) Mesopotamia: This is the correct answer, as Mesopotamia holds the distinction of having the earliest documented urban civilizations.

- (C) Hwang Ho Valley: Ancient civilizations also grew here, but Mesopotamia is older in terms of urban documentation.

- (D) Indus Valley: The Indus Valley civilization was advanced, but Mesopotamia is regarded as older in terms of documented settlements.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (B) Mesopotamia.
Quick Tip: Mesopotamia is one of the earliest centers of civilization, with documented urban settlements dating back to around 3500 BCE.


Question 13:

Which of the following is the capital of Ethiopia?

  • (A) Canberra
  • (B) Lusaka
  • (C) Addis Ababa
  • (D) Nairobi
Correct Answer: (C) Addis Ababa
View Solution




Step 1: Capital of Ethiopia.

The capital of Ethiopia is Addis Ababa, which serves as the political and economic center of the country.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Canberra: This is the capital of Australia, not Ethiopia.

- (B) Lusaka: This is the capital of Zambia, not Ethiopia.

- (C) Addis Ababa: This is the correct option, as it is the capital of Ethiopia.

- (D) Nairobi: This is the capital of Kenya, not Ethiopia.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (C) Addis Ababa.
Quick Tip: Addis Ababa is the diplomatic capital of Africa, hosting the headquarters of the African Union.


Question 14:

Which of the following is a cultural town?

  • (A) Canberra
  • (B) Mecca
  • (C) London
  • (D) Osaka
Correct Answer: (B) Mecca
View Solution




Step 1: Cultural Town Overview.

Mecca is a cultural and religious center for Muslims, as it is the birthplace of the Prophet Muhammad and the site of the Kaaba, making it a significant cultural town.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Canberra: The capital of Australia, but not primarily known for cultural significance.

- (B) Mecca: This is the correct option, as Mecca is a major cultural and religious center.

- (C) London: London is a major cultural hub, but it is more of a political and financial center.

- (D) Osaka: Osaka is a large city known for commerce but is not regarded as a cultural town.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (B) Mecca.
Quick Tip: Mecca is considered the holiest city in Islam, attracting millions of visitors annually for the Hajj pilgrimage.


Question 15:

Who developed the Human Development Index?

  • (A) Prof. Amartya Sen
  • (B) Manmohan Singh
  • (C) Raghuram Rajan
  • (D) None of them
Correct Answer: (A) Prof. Amartya Sen
View Solution




Step 1: Human Development Index (HDI) Overview.

The Human Development Index (HDI) was developed by Prof. Amartya Sen to measure the social and economic development of countries, focusing on health, education, and income.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Prof. Amartya Sen: This is the correct option, as Prof. Amartya Sen developed the Human Development Index.

- (B) Manmohan Singh: He is an economist and former Prime Minister of India, but he did not develop the HDI.

- (C) Raghuram Rajan: Raghuram Rajan is an economist but did not develop the HDI.

- (D) None of them: This is incorrect. Prof. Amartya Sen developed the HDI.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (A) Prof. Amartya Sen.
Quick Tip: Amartya Sen is widely recognized for his work in welfare economics and the development of HDI to measure human well-being.


Question 16:

Which of the following countries has the highest sex-ratio in the world?

  • (A) Latvia
  • (B) France
  • (C) Japan
  • (D) Qatar
Correct Answer: (A) Latvia
View Solution




Step 1: Sex-Ratio Overview.

Latvia has the highest sex-ratio in the world, with more women than men, primarily due to differences in life expectancy between genders.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Latvia: This is the correct option, as Latvia has the highest sex-ratio in the world.

- (B) France: France does not have the highest sex-ratio.

- (C) Japan: Japan has a relatively lower sex-ratio compared to Latvia.

- (D) Qatar: Qatar has a skewed sex-ratio, but not the highest.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (A) Latvia.
Quick Tip: The higher sex-ratio in Latvia is influenced by higher life expectancy for women.


Question 17:

Which of the following is the best indicator of development?

  • (A) An increase in size
  • (B) Simple change in quality
  • (C) Positive change in quality
  • (D) A constancy in size
Correct Answer: (C) Positive change in quality
View Solution




Step 1: Development Indicators Overview.

Development is best indicated by positive changes in quality of life, education, health, and living standards, rather than simply by size or constancy.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) An increase in size: This is not the best indicator of development as growth in size does not always correlate with improved quality of life.

- (B) Simple change in quality: This option indicates some change, but it is not necessarily a strong indicator of development.

- (C) Positive change in quality: This is the correct option, as development is typically marked by improvements in quality of life.

- (D) A constancy in size: Constancy does not indicate growth or improvement, thus it is not a good indicator of development.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (C) Positive change in quality.
Quick Tip: Development is most accurately measured by improvements in quality of life and living standards.


Question 18:

'Pastoralism' is related to which economic activity?

  • (A) Primary activity
  • (B) Secondary activity
  • (C) Tertiary activity
  • (D) Quaternary activity
Correct Answer: (A) Primary activity
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding Pastoralism.

Pastoralism involves the herding and breeding of livestock, which is a primary economic activity in many rural areas.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Primary activity: This is the correct option, as pastoralism involves the direct use of natural resources, which is a primary activity.

- (B) Secondary activity: Secondary activities involve manufacturing or processing, which does not apply to pastoralism.

- (C) Tertiary activity: Tertiary activities are service-based, which does not relate to pastoralism.

- (D) Quaternary activity: Quaternary activities involve knowledge and information, which does not align with pastoralism.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (A) Primary activity.
Quick Tip: Pastoralism is a primary economic activity focused on the management of livestock for food, fiber, and other products.


Question 19:

Which of the following is a plantation crop?

  • (A) Wheat
  • (B) Maize
  • (C) Rye
  • (D) Tea
Correct Answer: (D) Tea
View Solution




Step 1: Plantation Crops Overview.

Plantation crops are typically grown for commercial purposes, often in large-scale farming operations. Tea is a major plantation crop, especially in tropical regions.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Wheat: Wheat is a staple crop but is not a plantation crop.

- (B) Maize: Maize is a staple crop, not a plantation crop.

- (C) Rye: Rye is a cereal grain, not a plantation crop.

- (D) Tea: Tea is a plantation crop, typically grown in large-scale farms in tropical climates.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (D) Tea.
Quick Tip: Plantation crops like tea, coffee, and rubber are grown on large estates for commercial purposes.


Question 20:

Co-operative farming has been more successful in

  • (A) Russia
  • (B) India
  • (C) Netherlands
  • (D) Denmark
Correct Answer: (D) Denmark
View Solution




Step 1: Co-operative Farming Overview.

Co-operative farming has seen considerable success in Denmark due to efficient organizational structures, government support, and cooperative frameworks for land management.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Russia: Co-operative farming in Russia has not been as successful as in Denmark.

- (B) India: While co-operative farming exists in India, its success varies by region and is not as widespread as in Denmark.

- (C) Netherlands: The Netherlands has some co-operative farming, but Denmark is known for more successful models.

- (D) Denmark: Denmark is well-known for successful co-operative farming practices.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (D) Denmark.
Quick Tip: Co-operative farming has been more successful in countries like Denmark, where organizational frameworks support large-scale collective farming.


Question 21:

In which of the following economies is production owned individually?

  • (A) Socialistic
  • (B) Capitalistic
  • (C) Mixed
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B) Capitalistic
View Solution




Step 1: Economic Systems Overview.

In a capitalistic economy, the means of production and distribution of goods are privately owned and operated for profit.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Socialistic: In a socialistic economy, production is owned and controlled by the state or government.

- (B) Capitalistic: This is the correct option, as in a capitalistic economy, individuals or corporations own and operate production.

- (C) Mixed: In a mixed economy, both private and government sectors control production.

- (D) None of these: This is incorrect, as capitalistic economies are defined by individual ownership.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (B) Capitalistic.
Quick Tip: In capitalistic economies, private ownership of production and the drive for profit are key characteristics.


Question 22:

Which of the following is the cause of acid rain?

  • (A) Water pollution
  • (B) Air pollution
  • (C) Noise pollution
  • (D) Land pollution
Correct Answer: (B) Air pollution
View Solution




Step 1: Acid Rain Overview.

Acid rain is caused by the release of sulfur dioxide (SO2) and nitrogen oxides (NOx) into the atmosphere, which combine with water vapor to form sulfuric and nitric acids. This is primarily due to air pollution.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Water pollution: This does not directly cause acid rain.

- (B) Air pollution: This is the correct answer, as pollutants in the air like sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides lead to the formation of acid rain.

- (C) Noise pollution: This does not contribute to acid rain.

- (D) Land pollution: Land pollution does not cause acid rain.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (B) Air pollution.
Quick Tip: Acid rain is a result of air pollution, specifically the release of sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides into the atmosphere.


Question 23:

Specific feature of regional planning is

  • (A) Development of various sectors of economy
  • (B) Areal differences in transportation network
  • (C) Area specific approach of development
  • (D) Development of rural areas
Correct Answer: (C) Area specific approach of development
View Solution




Step 1: Regional Planning Overview.

Regional planning focuses on the development of specific areas, addressing their unique needs and characteristics, often with an area-specific approach to maximize benefits.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Development of various sectors of economy: This is part of planning but not the key feature of regional planning.

- (B) Areal differences in transportation network: While transportation networks are important, this is not the primary feature of regional planning.

- (C) Area specific approach of development: This is the correct option, as regional planning is focused on developing areas based on their specific needs.

- (D) Development of rural areas: While rural development is part of regional planning, it does not encompass the full scope of regional planning.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (C) Area specific approach of development.
Quick Tip: Regional planning focuses on tailored development strategies to address the specific needs of different areas or regions.


Question 24:

Which of the following diseases is not airborne?

  • (A) Respiratory infection
  • (B) Conjunctivitis
  • (C) Diarrhoea
  • (D) Bronchitis
Correct Answer: (C) Diarrhoea
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding airborne diseases.

Airborne diseases are transmitted through the air by droplets or aerosols. Examples include respiratory infections and conjunctivitis.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Respiratory infection: These are typically airborne diseases as they are spread through droplets from coughing or sneezing.

- (B) Conjunctivitis: This can be airborne, especially viral conjunctivitis.

- (C) Diarrhoea: This is caused by contaminated food or water, not through the air, making it the correct answer.

- (D) Bronchitis: This is generally an airborne disease as it affects the respiratory system.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (C) Diarrhoea.
Quick Tip: Airborne diseases are spread through the air, usually via droplets. Diarrhoea is caused by contaminated food or water.


Question 25:

Paradip port is situated on which river delta?

  • (A) Ganga
  • (B) Mahanadi
  • (C) Kaveri
  • (D) Krishna
Correct Answer: (B) Mahanadi
View Solution




Step 1: Paradip Port Overview.

Paradip Port is located on the Mahanadi River Delta in Odisha, India. It is an important sea port for both cargo and passenger traffic.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Ganga: The Ganga delta is not the location of Paradip port.

- (B) Mahanadi: This is the correct option, as Paradip port is located on the Mahanadi River Delta.

- (C) Kaveri: Paradip port is not located on the Kaveri delta.

- (D) Krishna: Paradip port is not located on the Krishna river delta.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (B) Mahanadi.
Quick Tip: Paradip Port is a major port in Odisha, located on the Mahanadi River Delta, facilitating trade and commerce.


Question 26:

Tuticorin port is located in

  • (A) Kerala
  • (B) Karnataka
  • (C) Tamil Nadu
  • (D) Andhra Pradesh
Correct Answer: (C) Tamil Nadu
View Solution




Step 1: Tuticorin Port Overview.

Tuticorin Port, also known as V.O. Chidambaranar Port, is located in Tamil Nadu, India. It is an important deep-water port on the southeastern coast.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Kerala: Tuticorin port is not located in Kerala.

- (B) Karnataka: Tuticorin port is not in Karnataka.

- (C) Tamil Nadu: This is the correct answer, as Tuticorin port is located in Tamil Nadu.

- (D) Andhra Pradesh: Tuticorin port is not located in Andhra Pradesh.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (C) Tamil Nadu.
Quick Tip: Tuticorin Port is a significant port in Tamil Nadu, known for handling a large volume of cargo and facilitating trade in southern India.


Question 27:

Where is the headquarters of East-Central Railway Zone?

  • (A) Hajipur
  • (B) Jabalpur
  • (C) Gorakhpur
  • (D) Allahabad
Correct Answer: (A) Hajipur
View Solution




Step 1: East-Central Railway Overview.

The headquarters of the East-Central Railway Zone (ECR) is located in Hajipur, Bihar. It covers several states and regions, including Bihar, Jharkhand, and Uttar Pradesh.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Hajipur: This is the correct answer, as Hajipur is the headquarters of the East-Central Railway Zone.

- (B) Jabalpur: Jabalpur is the headquarters of the West-Central Railway Zone, not the East-Central Railway Zone.

- (C) Gorakhpur: Gorakhpur is part of the Northern Railway zone, not the East-Central Railway Zone.

- (D) Allahabad: Allahabad is an important railway hub but is not the headquarters of the East-Central Railway Zone.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (A) Hajipur.
Quick Tip: Hajipur, located in Bihar, is the administrative center for the East-Central Railway Zone, serving as a hub for railway operations.


Question 28:

I.T.D.P. is

  • (A) Integrated Tourism Development Programme
  • (B) Integrated Tribal Development Programme
  • (C) Integrated Travel Development Programme
  • (D) Integrated Transport Development Programme
Correct Answer: (B) Integrated Tribal Development Programme
View Solution




Step 1: I.T.D.P. Overview.

I.T.D.P. stands for Integrated Tribal Development Programme, which is aimed at improving the socio-economic conditions of tribal communities through various developmental initiatives.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Integrated Tourism Development Programme: This is incorrect as I.T.D.P. is related to tribal development, not tourism.

- (B) Integrated Tribal Development Programme: This is the correct option. I.T.D.P. focuses on the welfare of tribal people.

- (C) Integrated Travel Development Programme: This is not the correct answer.

- (D) Integrated Transport Development Programme: This is unrelated to the development of tribal communities.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (B) Integrated Tribal Development Programme.
Quick Tip: I.T.D.P. aims to improve the living standards of tribal communities through integrated development initiatives.


Question 29:

Garrison town is associated with

  • (A) Cantonment
  • (B) Trade
  • (C) Education
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) Cantonment
View Solution




Step 1: Garrison Town Overview.

A garrison town is a town where military personnel are stationed. It is typically associated with a cantonment, where troops are housed and military activities are conducted.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Cantonment: This is the correct answer, as garrison towns are primarily military settlements.

- (B) Trade: Garrison towns are not primarily focused on trade.

- (C) Education: Garrison towns are not primarily educational centers.

- (D) None of these: This is incorrect, as garrison towns are indeed associated with cantonments.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (A) Cantonment.
Quick Tip: Garrison towns are military towns where soldiers are stationed, often linked to cantonment areas.


Question 30:

Which of the following economic activities is associated with rural settlements?

  • (A) Primary
  • (B) Secondary
  • (C) Tertiary
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) Primary
View Solution




Step 1: Economic Activities in Rural Settlements.

In rural areas, primary activities such as agriculture, fishing, and mining are the most common economic activities. These activities involve direct use of natural resources.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Primary: This is the correct answer as primary activities are most closely linked to rural settlements.

- (B) Secondary: Secondary activities involve manufacturing, which is more common in urban areas.

- (C) Tertiary: Tertiary activities involve services, which are more common in urban settings.

- (D) None of these: This is incorrect, as primary activities are associated with rural areas.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (A) Primary.
Quick Tip: Rural settlements are primarily focused on primary economic activities such as agriculture and resource extraction.


Question 31:

The main stream of male migration in India is

  • (A) Rural to rural
  • (B) Urban to urban
  • (C) Rural to urban
  • (D) Urban to rural
Correct Answer: (C) Rural to urban
View Solution




Step 1: Male Migration Patterns in India.

In India, the primary migration pattern for males is from rural areas to urban centers in search of better job opportunities, education, and improved living standards.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Rural to rural: This is not the most common migration pattern in India.

- (B) Urban to urban: This is not the most common pattern either, as rural areas see more migration to urban centers.

- (C) Rural to urban: This is the correct answer, as most male migration is from rural to urban areas.

- (D) Urban to rural: This is less common in India, as most migration flows are toward urban centers.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (C) Rural to urban.
Quick Tip: Rural to urban migration is driven by the search for better employment, living conditions, and opportunities in urban areas.


Question 32:

According to the 2011 Census, which state has the highest density of population?

  • (A) West Bengal
  • (B) Kerala
  • (C) Bihar
  • (D) Uttar Pradesh
Correct Answer: (C) Bihar
View Solution




Step 1: Population Density Overview.

According to the 2011 Census, Bihar has the highest population density among Indian states, with a significantly higher number of people per square kilometer.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) West Bengal: West Bengal has a high population density, but it is not the highest.

- (B) Kerala: Kerala also has a relatively high population density but not the highest.

- (C) Bihar: This is the correct option, as Bihar had the highest population density in India according to the 2011 Census.

- (D) Uttar Pradesh: Uttar Pradesh has a high population density, but it is lower than Bihar's.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (C) Bihar.
Quick Tip: Bihar has the highest population density in India, primarily due to its large population and relatively small land area.


Question 33:

Which of the following states receives the maximum number of immigrants?

  • (A) Chhattisgarh
  • (B) Maharashtra
  • (C) Bihar
  • (D) Kerala
Correct Answer: (B) Maharashtra
View Solution




Step 1: Immigration Trends in India.

Maharashtra, especially cities like Mumbai, is a major destination for immigrants due to its economic opportunities and urban development.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Chhattisgarh: While Chhattisgarh sees some immigration, it is not the highest.

- (B) Maharashtra: This is the correct answer, as Maharashtra, particularly Mumbai, attracts the highest number of immigrants for work and economic opportunities.

- (C) Bihar: Bihar is a source of migration rather than a destination for immigrants.

- (D) Kerala: Kerala also receives immigrants, but Maharashtra has a higher number due to its larger economy.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (B) Maharashtra.
Quick Tip: Maharashtra, especially Mumbai, attracts immigrants due to its booming economy and job opportunities in various sectors.


Question 34:

Which of the following is not a pull factor of human migration?

  • (A) Better living conditions
  • (B) Favourable climate
  • (C) Poor living conditions
  • (D) Peace and stability
Correct Answer: (C) Poor living conditions
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding Pull Factors of Migration.

Pull factors refer to the positive attributes of a destination that attract migrants. These include better living conditions, a favourable climate, and peace and stability.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Better living conditions: This is a pull factor, as people migrate towards places with better living standards.

- (B) Favourable climate: A favourable climate is a pull factor, as it attracts people to areas with more comfortable weather.

- (C) Poor living conditions: This is not a pull factor. People do not migrate to areas with poor living conditions; this would be a push factor.

- (D) Peace and stability: This is a pull factor, as people migrate to places with peace and security.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (C) Poor living conditions.
Quick Tip: Pull factors attract people to a new place, while push factors drive them away from their current location.


Question 35:

Which of the following union territories has the highest literacy rate?

  • (A) Chandigarh
  • (B) Andaman and Nicobar
  • (C) Daman and Diu
  • (D) Lakshadweep
Correct Answer: (A) Chandigarh
View Solution




Step 1: Literacy Rate Overview.

Chandigarh has the highest literacy rate among Indian union territories, with significant improvements in education and access to schools.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Chandigarh: This is the correct answer, as Chandigarh has the highest literacy rate among the union territories.

- (B) Andaman and Nicobar: While Andaman and Nicobar have a decent literacy rate, it is lower than Chandigarh's.

- (C) Daman and Diu: Daman and Diu has a good literacy rate but not the highest.

- (D) Lakshadweep: Lakshadweep has a relatively lower literacy rate compared to Chandigarh.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (A) Chandigarh.
Quick Tip: Chandigarh's education system contributes to its high literacy rate, making it one of the best in India.


Question 36:

Which of the following is a forest-based industry?

  • (A) Paper industry
  • (B) Cement industry
  • (C) Leather industry
  • (D) Iron and steel industry
Correct Answer: (A) Paper industry
View Solution




Step 1: Forest-based Industries.

The paper industry is a classic example of a forest-based industry, as it uses wood as the primary raw material.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Paper industry: This is the correct answer, as it depends on forest resources like wood for production.

- (B) Cement industry: This is not a forest-based industry, as it primarily uses limestone and other minerals.

- (C) Leather industry: The leather industry is based on animal products, not forest resources.

- (D) Iron and steel industry: This industry uses iron ore and coal, not forest products.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (A) Paper industry.
Quick Tip: Forest-based industries like paper production rely heavily on wood as a raw material.


Question 37:

World's most dense rail network is found in

  • (A) Asia
  • (B) Europe
  • (C) Africa
  • (D) North America
Correct Answer: (A) Asia
View Solution




Step 1: Rail Network Overview.

Asia, especially countries like India, has the densest rail network in the world, with extensive coverage across large regions.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Asia: This is the correct answer, as Asia, particularly India, has the densest rail network in the world.

- (B) Europe: Europe has a well-developed rail network, but it is not the densest.

- (C) Africa: Africa has a less dense rail network compared to Asia.

- (D) North America: North America has a large rail network but not the highest density.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (A) Asia.
Quick Tip: Asia, particularly India, has the largest and most densely packed rail network in the world.


Question 38:

Abadan is an example of

  • (A) Oil port
  • (B) Passenger port
  • (C) Packet port
  • (D) Naval port
Correct Answer: (A) Oil port
View Solution




Step 1: Abadan Port Overview.

Abadan is a famous oil port located in Iran, and it is known for its oil refineries and shipping activities related to oil exports.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Oil port: This is the correct answer, as Abadan is an oil port specifically designed for handling crude oil shipments.

- (B) Passenger port: Abadan is not primarily a passenger port.

- (C) Packet port: A packet port is used for passenger ships, not oil.

- (D) Naval port: Abadan is not a military naval port; it is focused on commercial oil exports.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (A) Oil port.
Quick Tip: Abadan is a key oil port that plays a vital role in the export of crude oil from Iran.


Question 39:

Nagasaki is an example of

  • (A) Oil port
  • (B) Fishing port
  • (C) Entrepot port
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) Entrepot port
View Solution




Step 1: Nagasaki Port Overview.

Nagasaki is a famous entrepot port in Japan, known for being a hub for international trade, particularly during the time of Japan's limited contact with foreign nations.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Oil port: Nagasaki is not primarily an oil port.

- (B) Fishing port: While Nagasaki has fishing activity, it is not known primarily for fishing.

- (C) Entrepot port: This is the correct answer. Nagasaki serves as a transshipment port for goods.

- (D) None of these: This is incorrect, as Nagasaki is indeed an entrepot port.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (C) Entrepot port.
Quick Tip: Entrepot ports like Nagasaki serve as transshipment hubs, facilitating the exchange of goods between different regions.


Question 40:

Suez canal connects

  • (A) Indian ocean with Pacific ocean
  • (B) Pacific ocean with Atlantic ocean
  • (C) Red sea with Mediterranean sea
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) Red sea with Mediterranean sea
View Solution




Step 1: Suez Canal Overview.

The Suez Canal is a man-made waterway that connects the Red Sea with the Mediterranean Sea, providing a vital shortcut for shipping between Europe and Asia.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Indian ocean with Pacific ocean: This is incorrect, as the Suez Canal does not connect the Indian and Pacific oceans.

- (B) Pacific ocean with Atlantic ocean: The Suez Canal does not connect the Pacific and Atlantic oceans.

- (C) Red sea with Mediterranean sea: This is the correct answer. The Suez Canal connects the Red Sea with the Mediterranean Sea.

- (D) None of these: This is incorrect, as the Suez Canal does connect two major seas.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (C) Red sea with Mediterranean sea.
Quick Tip: The Suez Canal is a crucial waterway for global shipping, connecting the Red Sea to the Mediterranean and providing a shortcut between Europe and Asia.


Question 41:

Which route is used for trade between North-East United States of America and Western Europe?

  • (A) North Atlantic sea route
  • (B) Suez route
  • (C) Panama route
  • (D) Cape route
Correct Answer: (A) North Atlantic sea route
View Solution




Step 1: North Atlantic Sea Route Overview.

The North Atlantic Sea route connects the United States to Western Europe, facilitating one of the busiest shipping lanes in the world for trade.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) North Atlantic sea route: This is the correct answer as it connects North-East United States to Western Europe.

- (B) Suez route: The Suez route connects the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea and is not directly used for the US-Western Europe trade.

- (C) Panama route: The Panama route connects the Pacific and Atlantic Oceans but does not directly link the US to Western Europe.

- (D) Cape route: The Cape route is a longer alternative to the Suez route but is not the most direct for this trade.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (A) North Atlantic sea route.
Quick Tip: The North Atlantic Sea route is one of the busiest global trade routes, especially between the US and Western Europe.


Question 42:

Which of the following is not an inland seaport?

  • (A) Kolkata
  • (B) Athens
  • (C) Manchester
  • (D) Memphis
Correct Answer: (B) Athens
View Solution




Step 1: Inland Seaports Overview.

Inland seaports are ports located inland from the coast, typically connected by rivers or canals. Athens is a coastal city, not an inland port.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Kolkata: Kolkata is an inland seaport located on the Hooghly River, far from the open sea.

- (B) Athens: Athens is a coastal city, not an inland seaport.

- (C) Manchester: Manchester is an inland seaport, located on the Manchester Ship Canal.

- (D) Memphis: Memphis is an inland port situated on the Mississippi River.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (B) Athens.
Quick Tip: Inland seaports are connected to the sea via rivers or canals, while coastal cities like Athens are directly on the coast.


Question 43:

The leading state in Bauxite production is

  • (A) Goa
  • (B) Odisha
  • (C) Karnataka
  • (D) Assam
Correct Answer: (B) Odisha
View Solution




Step 1: Bauxite Production Overview.

Odisha is the leading state in India for Bauxite production, with large deposits of bauxite in the region.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Goa: Goa is known for its iron ore production, not for bauxite.

- (B) Odisha: This is the correct answer, as Odisha is the top producer of bauxite in India.

- (C) Karnataka: Karnataka is not the leading state for bauxite production.

- (D) Assam: Assam does produce bauxite, but not at the scale of Odisha.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (B) Odisha.
Quick Tip: Odisha is rich in mineral resources, particularly bauxite, making it the leading producer in India.


Question 44:

Gurumahisani mine is associated with which mineral?

  • (A) Coal
  • (B) Iron-ore
  • (C) Bauxite
  • (D) Copper
Correct Answer: (C) Bauxite
View Solution




Step 1: Gurumahisani Mine Overview.

Gurumahisani is a major mine located in Odisha and is associated with the extraction of bauxite, which is used in the production of aluminum.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Coal: Gurumahisani mine is not associated with coal.

- (B) Iron-ore: Gurumahisani is not known for iron-ore mining.

- (C) Bauxite: This is the correct answer, as Gurumahisani mine is primarily known for bauxite extraction.

- (D) Copper: Gurumahisani does not produce copper.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (C) Bauxite.
Quick Tip: Gurumahisani mine is one of the major sources of bauxite in India, contributing significantly to the aluminum industry.


Question 45:

Which of the following is a metallic mineral?

  • (A) Iron ore
  • (B) Copper
  • (C) Manganese
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (D) All of these
View Solution




Step 1: Metallic Minerals Overview.

Metallic minerals include minerals like iron ore, copper, and manganese, all of which are used in the production of metals.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Iron ore: Iron ore is a metallic mineral used to produce iron and steel.

- (B) Copper: Copper is a metallic mineral used for electrical wiring and other applications.

- (C) Manganese: Manganese is a metallic mineral used in steel production.

- (D) All of these: This is the correct answer, as all the minerals listed are metallic.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (D) All of these.
Quick Tip: Metallic minerals like iron ore, copper, and manganese are essential for the production of metals used in various industries.


Question 46:

Bhadravati is associated with

  • (A) Cotton textile industry
  • (B) Iron and steel industry
  • (C) Petro-chemical industry
  • (D) Jute industry
Correct Answer: (B) Iron and steel industry
View Solution




Step 1: Bhadravati Overview.

Bhadravati in Karnataka is a significant hub for iron and steel production. The town is home to the Bhadravati Steel Plant, one of the major steel industries in India.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Cotton textile industry: Bhadravati is not associated with cotton textiles.

- (B) Iron and steel industry: This is the correct answer, as Bhadravati is known for its steel plant.

- (C) Petro-chemical industry: Bhadravati is not known for the petro-chemical industry.

- (D) Jute industry: Bhadravati is not associated with the jute industry.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (B) Iron and steel industry.
Quick Tip: Bhadravati is a key player in India's iron and steel industry, with one of the major steel plants located here.


Question 47:

Trombay is in which state?

  • (A) Maharashtra
  • (B) Gujarat
  • (C) Goa
  • (D) West Bengal
Correct Answer: (A) Maharashtra
View Solution




Step 1: Trombay Overview.

Trombay is a region located in Mumbai, Maharashtra, and is known for its industrial activities, particularly in the field of nuclear energy and chemical industries.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Maharashtra: This is the correct answer, as Trombay is located in Maharashtra.

- (B) Gujarat: Trombay is not in Gujarat.

- (C) Goa: Trombay is not located in Goa.

- (D) West Bengal: Trombay is not in West Bengal.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (A) Maharashtra.
Quick Tip: Trombay is an industrial area in Mumbai, Maharashtra, known for its nuclear power plants and chemical industries.


Question 48:

Bokaro steel center is in

  • (A) Mixed sector
  • (B) Private sector
  • (C) Public sector
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) Public sector
View Solution




Step 1: Bokaro Steel Plant Overview.

Bokaro Steel Plant, located in Jharkhand, is a public sector steel plant that operates under Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL), a government-owned entity.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Mixed sector: Bokaro Steel Plant is not a mixed sector plant; it is a public sector undertaking.

- (B) Private sector: Bokaro is not a private sector company.

- (C) Public sector: This is the correct answer, as Bokaro Steel Plant is owned by the government of India.

- (D) None of these: This is incorrect, as Bokaro is a public sector plant.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (C) Public sector.
Quick Tip: Bokaro Steel Plant is a major public sector steel plant in India, contributing to the national steel production.


Question 49:

Which city is called Manchester of South India?

  • (A) Chennai
  • (B) Sholapur
  • (C) Coimbatore
  • (D) Ahmedabad
Correct Answer: (C) Coimbatore
View Solution




Step 1: Manchester of South India.

Coimbatore, known for its thriving textile industry, is often referred to as the "Manchester of South India," drawing parallels to Manchester in the United Kingdom, which was a major textile hub.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Chennai: Chennai is a major city but is not known as the "Manchester of South India."

- (B) Sholapur: Sholapur is known for its textile industry, but not as much as Coimbatore.

- (C) Coimbatore: This is the correct answer, as Coimbatore is renowned for its textile industry, similar to Manchester.

- (D) Ahmedabad: Ahmedabad is another important textile city but is not referred to as the "Manchester of South India."


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (C) Coimbatore.
Quick Tip: Coimbatore is known as the "Manchester of South India" due to its significant textile industry.


Question 50:

Which state had the highest percentage of urban population in India according to the 2011 Census?

  • (A) Tamil Nadu
  • (B) Kerala
  • (C) Maharashtra
  • (D) Goa
Correct Answer: (D) Goa
View Solution




Step 1: Urban Population in India.

According to the 2011 Census, Goa had the highest percentage of urban population in India, with a significant portion of its population residing in urban areas.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Tamil Nadu: Tamil Nadu has a high urban population, but Goa had the highest.

- (B) Kerala: Kerala has a relatively high urban population but does not surpass Goa.

- (C) Maharashtra: Maharashtra has major cities like Mumbai, but Goa still leads in urban population percentage.

- (D) Goa: This is the correct answer, as Goa had the highest percentage of urban population in India.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (D) Goa.
Quick Tip: Goa has the highest urbanization rate in India, with a significant portion of its population living in urban areas.


Question 51:

Which of the following is not a mining town?

  • (A) Jharia
  • (B) Raniganj
  • (C) Khetri
  • (D) Patna
Correct Answer: (D) Patna
View Solution




Step 1: Mining Towns Overview.

Jharia, Raniganj, and Khetri are known for their mining activities, with Jharia being a coal mining hub, Raniganj for coal, and Khetri for copper. Patna, however, is not a mining town.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Jharia: Jharia is a famous coal mining town.

- (B) Raniganj: Raniganj is known for coal mining.

- (C) Khetri: Khetri is a mining town, particularly known for copper mining.

- (D) Patna: Patna is the capital of Bihar but is not known for mining activities.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (D) Patna.
Quick Tip: Mining towns are typically associated with specific minerals or resources like coal, copper, and iron, while cities like Patna are administrative centers.


Question 52:

Rohtak is an example of

  • (A) Ancient town
  • (B) Medieval town
  • (C) Satellite town
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) Satellite town
View Solution




Step 1: Rohtak Overview.

Rohtak is considered a satellite town of Delhi, with a growing urban population due to its proximity to the capital.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Ancient town: Rohtak is not an ancient town.

- (B) Medieval town: Rohtak does not fit the definition of a medieval town either.

- (C) Satellite town: This is the correct answer, as Rohtak is a satellite town of Delhi.

- (D) None of these: This is incorrect, as Rohtak is indeed a satellite town.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (C) Satellite town.
Quick Tip: Satellite towns like Rohtak are closely linked to large metropolitan areas, serving as residential hubs for people working in nearby cities.


Question 53:

Which of the following towns is not situated in Gujarat?

  • (A) Surat
  • (B) Nasik
  • (C) Rajkot
  • (D) Kandla
Correct Answer: (B) Nasik
View Solution




Step 1: Location of towns.

Surat, Rajkot, and Kandla are all located in Gujarat, while Nasik is situated in Maharashtra.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Surat: Surat is a major city located in Gujarat.

- (B) Nasik: This is the correct answer, as Nasik is located in Maharashtra, not Gujarat.

- (C) Rajkot: Rajkot is located in Gujarat.

- (D) Kandla: Kandla is a port city in Gujarat.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (B) Nasik.
Quick Tip: When identifying the locations of towns, remember that Nasik is in Maharashtra, while Surat, Rajkot, and Kandla are in Gujarat.


Question 54:

Which of the following is not part of the definition of a city as per the census of India?

  • (A) Population density of 400 persons per sq. km
  • (B) Presence of municipality, corporation, etc.
  • (C) Population size of more than 5000 persons
  • (D) More than 75% of population engaged in primary sector
Correct Answer: (D) More than 75% of population engaged in primary sector
View Solution




Step 1: Census Definition of a City.

The census definition of a city in India typically includes a population size of over 5000, a population density of 400 persons per square kilometer, and the presence of a municipality or corporation.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Population density of 400 persons per sq. km: This is part of the census definition of a city.

- (B) Presence of municipality, corporation, etc.: This is also part of the city definition.

- (C) Population size of more than 5000 persons: This is a key criterion for defining a city.

- (D) More than 75% of the population engaged in the primary sector: This is not part of the census definition of a city. Cities typically have a diverse economy with a low percentage of the population engaged in primary activities.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (D) More than 75% of the population engaged in primary sector.
Quick Tip: In India, a city is defined by factors like population size, density, and the presence of a municipality, not by the proportion of people working in the primary sector.


Question 55:

Which of the following is responsible for land degradation?

  • (A) Soil alkalinity
  • (B) Soil erosion
  • (C) Waterlogging
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (D) All of these
View Solution




Step 1: Land Degradation Causes.

Land degradation can be caused by several factors, including soil alkalinity, erosion, and waterlogging, all of which contribute to the decline in land fertility and productivity.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Soil alkalinity: Soil alkalinity can lead to the degradation of land by reducing soil fertility.

- (B) Soil erosion: Soil erosion is a major contributor to land degradation, leading to the loss of topsoil.

- (C) Waterlogging: Waterlogging can cause soil degradation by making it difficult for plants to grow due to excess water.

- (D) All of these: This is the correct answer, as all of the listed factors contribute to land degradation.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (D) All of these.
Quick Tip: Land degradation can result from a combination of factors like soil alkalinity, erosion, and waterlogging, which affect the fertility and productivity of the soil.


Question 56:

The leading state in Jowar production is

  • (A) Odisha
  • (B) Goa
  • (C) Maharashtra
  • (D) Meghalaya
Correct Answer: (C) Maharashtra
View Solution




Step 1: Jowar Production in India.

Maharashtra is the leading state in Jowar production, which is an important food and fodder crop in India.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Odisha: While Odisha produces Jowar, it is not the leading state.

- (B) Goa: Goa is not a major producer of Jowar.

- (C) Maharashtra: This is the correct answer, as Maharashtra is the top producer of Jowar in India.

- (D) Meghalaya: Meghalaya is not a significant producer of Jowar.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (C) Maharashtra.
Quick Tip: Maharashtra is the leading producer of Jowar in India, a crop that plays an important role in both food and fodder production.


Question 57:

Which of the following is a beverage crop?

  • (A) Tea
  • (B) Coffee
  • (C) Both (A) and (B)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) Both (A) and (B)
View Solution




Step 1: Beverage Crops Overview.

Both tea and coffee are beverage crops, as they are grown primarily for their use in the preparation of beverages.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Tea: Tea is a beverage crop and is grown widely in countries like India and China.

- (B) Coffee: Coffee is also a beverage crop, cultivated in regions with suitable climatic conditions.

- (C) Both (A) and (B): This is the correct answer, as both tea and coffee are beverage crops.

- (D) None of these: This is incorrect, as both tea and coffee are beverage crops.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (C) Both (A) and (B).
Quick Tip: Tea and coffee are the most commonly grown beverage crops in tropical regions.


Question 58:

Extensive commercial grain farming is not practised in

  • (A) Pampas
  • (B) Steppes
  • (C) Prairies
  • (D) Amazon basin
Correct Answer: (D) Amazon basin
View Solution




Step 1: Commercial Grain Farming.

Extensive commercial grain farming is practiced in regions like the Pampas, Steppes, and Prairies, which have the necessary climate and soil conditions for large-scale grain production. However, the Amazon basin is not suitable for such farming due to its tropical climate and dense forests.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Pampas: The Pampas in Argentina is a major region for commercial grain farming.

- (B) Steppes: The Steppes in Russia and Ukraine are also known for large-scale grain farming.

- (C) Prairies: The Prairies in North America are another region famous for commercial grain production.

- (D) Amazon basin: This is the correct answer, as the Amazon basin is not suitable for commercial grain farming due to its dense rainforest and tropical climate.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (D) Amazon basin.
Quick Tip: Regions like the Pampas, Steppes, and Prairies are known for large-scale grain farming, while the Amazon basin is unsuitable for such farming due to its tropical rainforest.


Question 59:

Which of the following is associated with quinary activities?

  • (A) Transport
  • (B) Communication
  • (C) Services
  • (D) Policy formation
Correct Answer: (D) Policy formation
View Solution




Step 1: Quinary Activities Overview.

Quinary activities refer to high-level decision-making activities, such as policy formation, scientific research, and higher-level education.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Transport: Transport is not a quinary activity; it is a tertiary activity.

- (B) Communication: Communication is also a tertiary activity.

- (C) Services: Services are a part of the tertiary sector, not quinary.

- (D) Policy formation: This is the correct answer, as policy formation is a quinary activity involving decision-making at the highest level.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (D) Policy formation.
Quick Tip: Quinary activities include high-level decision-making, research, and policy formation, typically performed by experts or top-level officials.


Question 60:

Red collar is associated with

  • (A) Primary activity
  • (B) Secondary activity
  • (C) Tertiary activity
  • (D) Quaternary activity
Correct Answer: (D) Quaternary activity
View Solution




Step 1: Red Collar Overview.

Red collar workers are typically associated with high-level decision-making, knowledge-based tasks, and innovations in various fields, which are part of quaternary activities.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Primary activity: Primary activities are related to natural resource extraction, such as farming, fishing, and mining.

- (B) Secondary activity: Secondary activities involve manufacturing and industry.

- (C) Tertiary activity: Tertiary activities involve services like retail, transportation, and healthcare.

- (D) Quaternary activity: This is the correct answer, as red collar workers are involved in high-level intellectual tasks such as research and policy-making.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (D) Quaternary activity.
Quick Tip: Red collar workers typically engage in intellectual, research-based, and decision-making tasks, which fall under quaternary activities.


Question 61:

Which of the following is associated with professional services?

  • (A) Advocate
  • (B) Washerman
  • (C) Barber
  • (D) All of them
Correct Answer: (A) Advocate
View Solution




Step 1: Professional Services.

Professional services involve specialized knowledge and qualifications, such as those provided by doctors, lawyers (advocates), and engineers.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Advocate: This is the correct answer, as an advocate (lawyer) provides professional legal services requiring specialized knowledge.

- (B) Washerman: A washerman is a skilled laborer but does not provide professional services.

- (C) Barber: A barber is skilled in personal grooming but does not fall under professional services.

- (D) All of them: This is incorrect, as only an advocate provides professional services.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (A) Advocate.
Quick Tip: Professional services typically require specialized training and certifications, such as in law, medicine, and engineering.


Question 62:

Which of the following is related to quaternary activities?

  • (A) Manufacturing computer
  • (B) Printing books
  • (C) Paper and pulp production
  • (D) University teacher
Correct Answer: (D) University teacher
View Solution




Step 1: Quaternary Activities Overview.

Quaternary activities include high-level intellectual tasks, such as teaching, research, development, and information technology, which are knowledge-based.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Manufacturing computer: Manufacturing is a secondary activity, not a quaternary one.

- (B) Printing books: This is a tertiary activity related to services, not quaternary.

- (C) Paper and pulp production: This is a secondary activity related to manufacturing.

- (D) University teacher: This is the correct answer, as teaching at a university is a quaternary activity, involving knowledge and research.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (D) University teacher.
Quick Tip: Quaternary activities involve specialized knowledge and skills, including research, teaching, and high-level decision-making.


Question 63:

In which of the following activities are high levels of innovations included?

  • (A) Primary activities
  • (B) Secondary activities
  • (C) Quaternary activities
  • (D) Quinary activities
Correct Answer: (C) Quaternary activities
View Solution




Step 1: Innovation and Activities.

High levels of innovation are associated with quaternary activities, which include research, development, and intellectual tasks.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Primary activities: These are basic activities such as agriculture, mining, and fishing, with limited innovation.

- (B) Secondary activities: These involve manufacturing and processing, but innovation is less focused here compared to quaternary activities.

- (C) Quaternary activities: This is the correct answer, as quaternary activities focus on high levels of innovation and intellectual work.

- (D) Quinary activities: These also involve high-level decision-making but are more related to management and leadership.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (C) Quaternary activities.
Quick Tip: Quaternary activities are the most associated with innovation, including research and development in fields like technology and education.


Question 64:

Which component is considered important in the concept of determinism?

  • (A) Natural component
  • (B) Human component
  • (C) Both (A) and (B)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) Both (A) and (B)
View Solution




Step 1: Determinism in Geography.

Determinism in geography suggests that both natural factors (such as climate, terrain, and resources) and human factors (such as culture and economy) shape the environment and society.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Natural component: Natural factors are significant in the concept of determinism but do not account for all aspects.

- (B) Human component: Human factors are also important in shaping environments but are not the only determinants.

- (C) Both (A) and (B): This is the correct answer, as determinism involves both natural and human components in shaping the environment.

- (D) None of these: This is incorrect, as determinism involves both natural and human factors.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (C) Both (A) and (B).
Quick Tip: Determinism in geography emphasizes the influence of both natural and human factors in shaping environments and societies.


Question 65:

Who is called the founder of Human Geography?

  • (A) Ratzel
  • (B) Ritter
  • (C) Blache
  • (D) Humboldt
Correct Answer: (A) Ratzel
View Solution




Step 1: The Founder of Human Geography.

Friedrich Ratzel is often regarded as the founder of human geography due to his work on the relationship between humans and their environment, especially his theory of "anthropogeography."


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Ratzel: This is the correct answer, as Ratzel is considered the father of human geography.

- (B) Ritter: Although Ritter contributed to geography, he is not known as the founder of human geography.

- (C) Blache: Blache made significant contributions but did not establish human geography.

- (D) Humboldt: Humboldt was an important geographer but is known more for his work in physical geography.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (A) Ratzel.
Quick Tip: Ratzel's work on the relationship between human societies and their physical environment is foundational in human geography.


Question 66:

Geography of Tourism is related to which sub-field of Human Geography?

  • (A) Social Geography
  • (B) Political Geography
  • (C) Urban Geography
  • (D) Economic Geography
Correct Answer: (D) Economic Geography
View Solution




Step 1: Geography of Tourism.

The geography of tourism studies the relationship between tourism and the environment, focusing on economic, social, and cultural impacts. It is primarily a part of economic geography, which deals with human activities related to resources, industries, and services.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Social Geography: This sub-field deals with the relationship between people and their environment but does not specifically cover tourism.

- (B) Political Geography: This is more about political boundaries and territorial issues.

- (C) Urban Geography: While tourism can affect urban areas, this is not the specific sub-field for tourism geography.

- (D) Economic Geography: This is the correct answer, as tourism is directly related to economic activities like travel, services, and local economies.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (D) Economic Geography.
Quick Tip: Tourism is primarily studied under economic geography because of its impacts on local economies and industries.


Question 67:

Which of the following regions is densely populated?

  • (A) Western Europe
  • (B) Equatorial region
  • (C) Desert region
  • (D) Polar region
Correct Answer: (A) Western Europe
View Solution




Step 1: Population Density.

Western Europe is known for its high population density, with many of the world's most densely populated countries, such as Germany, France, and the Netherlands.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Western Europe: This is the correct answer, as Western Europe has a high population density.

- (B) Equatorial region: While the equatorial region has a warm climate, its population density is not as high as that of Western Europe.

- (C) Desert region: Desert regions are sparsely populated due to harsh living conditions.

- (D) Polar region: Polar regions have very low population densities due to extreme cold and inhospitable living conditions.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (A) Western Europe.
Quick Tip: Western Europe is one of the most densely populated regions in the world, with a significant concentration of people in cities and urban areas.


Question 68:

What percentage of the world’s population lives in Asia?

  • (A) 30 per cent
  • (B) 20 per cent
  • (C) 50 per cent
  • (D) 60 per cent
Correct Answer: (C) 50 per cent
View Solution




Step 1: Population Distribution.

Asia is the most populous continent, with more than 4.6 billion people, which makes up about 60% of the world’s population. However, the correct estimate based on available data is closer to 50% of the global population.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) 30 per cent: This is an underestimation of Asia's population.

- (B) 20 per cent: This is much too low, as Asia holds the majority of the world’s population.

- (C) 50 per cent: This is the closest and correct estimate based on the proportion of the global population in Asia.

- (D) 60 per cent: While the number is close, it slightly overestimates the proportion of the world’s population living in Asia.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (C) 50 per cent.
Quick Tip: Asia is home to over half of the world’s population, with China and India being the most populous countries.


Question 69:

Which of the following is not a push factor of human migration?

  • (A) Water shortage
  • (B) Educational facilities
  • (C) Unemployment
  • (D) Epidemics
Correct Answer: (B) Educational facilities
View Solution




Step 1: Push and Pull Factors.

Push factors are conditions that drive people to leave a place, such as lack of water, unemployment, and health issues. Pull factors, on the other hand, attract people to a new place, like better educational facilities.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Water shortage: This is a push factor, as it forces people to migrate in search of water.

- (B) Educational facilities: This is not a push factor; it is a pull factor, as people migrate to places with better education.

- (C) Unemployment: Unemployment is a push factor, as it drives people to seek work elsewhere.

- (D) Epidemics: Epidemics are also a push factor, as people migrate to avoid disease outbreaks.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (B) Educational facilities.
Quick Tip: Push factors include things like economic hardship, lack of resources, and poor living conditions, while pull factors are related to opportunities and improvements in life.


Question 70:

Both birth and death rates are high in which stage of demographic transition theory?

  • (A) First
  • (B) Second
  • (C) Third
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) First
View Solution




Step 1: Demographic Transition Theory.

In the first stage of demographic transition, both birth and death rates are high. This is often seen in pre-industrial societies.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) First: This is the correct answer, as both birth and death rates are high in the first stage.

- (B) Second: In the second stage, birth rates remain high, but death rates start to fall.

- (C) Third: In the third stage, birth rates start to fall while death rates are low.

- (D) None of these: This is incorrect, as the first stage is the correct answer.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (A) First.
Quick Tip: In the first stage of demographic transition, both birth and death rates are high, typically in agrarian societies with limited healthcare.


Question 71:

Mention two quaternary activities.

Correct Answer:
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Step 1: Understanding Quaternary Activities.

Quaternary activities are knowledge-based activities that involve the collection, processing, and sharing of information, as well as research, development, and high-level decision-making. These activities typically involve intellectual work.


Step 2: Examples of Quaternary Activities.

Two prominent examples of quaternary activities are:
1. Research and Development: This involves scientific and technological research in fields like medicine, engineering, and information technology.

2. Education: Teaching and educational services, especially in universities or research institutes, are part of quaternary activities.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Quaternary activities include knowledge-based jobs such as research and development, and education, which are intellectual in nature.
Quick Tip: Quaternary activities are knowledge-based and involve intellectual pursuits like research, education, and information services.


Question 72:

What is Orient Express?

Correct Answer:
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Step 1: The Orient Express Overview.

The Orient Express was a famous luxury train service that originally ran between Paris and Istanbul. It was known for its lavish accommodations and high-level service, providing an exceptional travel experience across Europe. The train connected major cities such as Paris, Vienna, and Budapest.


Step 2: Significance of Orient Express.

It played an important role in international travel and was a symbol of the golden age of rail travel. The train service, although no longer in operation as it was originally, has remained a part of popular culture, often associated with sophistication and luxury travel.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The Orient Express was a luxury train that connected Europe and Asia, particularly Paris to Istanbul, and was famed for its opulence and the historical significance it holds.
Quick Tip: The Orient Express is a symbol of luxury and history, renowned for its opulent accommodations and international routes across Europe and Asia.


Question 73:

What is agricultural density?

Correct Answer:
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Step 1: Defining Agricultural Density.

Agricultural density is the ratio of the number of farmers to the amount of arable land in a given area. It provides an insight into the land use intensity in agricultural production. A higher agricultural density indicates that there are more farmers per unit of arable land, often pointing to intensive farming practices.


Step 2: Formula for Agricultural Density.

The formula for calculating agricultural density is: \[ Agricultural Density = \frac{Number of Farmers}{Amount of Arable Land}. \]

Step 3: Example.

For example, if a country has 100 farmers and 50 square kilometers of arable land, its agricultural density is 2 farmers per square kilometer of land. This means that each square kilometer of arable land supports two farmers.


Step 4: Conclusion.

Agricultural density is an important indicator of agricultural practices and helps in understanding how intensively land is being used for farming.
Quick Tip: Agricultural density is an indicator of how intensively land is used for agriculture, calculated as the ratio of farmers to arable land.


Question 74:

Give two reasons for declining child sex ratio in India.

Correct Answer:
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Step 1: Understanding the Child Sex Ratio.

The child sex ratio refers to the number of girls born per 1,000 boys in a given population. In India, this ratio has been declining over the years, indicating a gender imbalance.


Step 2: Reasons for Decline.

Two major reasons for the declining child sex ratio in India are:
1. Sex-selective abortion: The preference for male children in many parts of India has led to the practice of sex-selective abortion, where female fetuses are aborted. This is due to social and cultural factors that favor sons over daughters.

2. Neglect of female children: In some areas, girls may face neglect in terms of healthcare, education, and nutrition, leading to higher mortality rates among girls compared to boys. This further skews the child sex ratio in favor of boys.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The declining child sex ratio in India is largely a result of sex-selective abortion and the neglect of female children. These factors highlight deep-rooted gender biases in society.
Quick Tip: The declining child sex ratio in India is influenced by gender biases leading to practices like sex-selective abortion and the neglect of girls.


Question 75:

Classify ports on the basis of location.

Correct Answer:
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Step 1: Classification of Ports.

Ports can be classified on the basis of their geographical location, which determines the type of trade they handle and their significance. The main classifications include:

1. Seaport: These are located along coastal areas and handle international trade, connecting sea routes to different parts of the world.

2. Inland Port: These ports are located on rivers or lakes and facilitate trade that is primarily conducted within a particular country or region.

3. Harbor Port: Located in natural or artificial harbors, these ports offer shelter to ships from storms, making them ideal for long-term trade operations.


Step 2: Conclusion.

Ports can be categorized into seaports, inland ports, and harbor ports, depending on their location and the type of trade they handle.
Quick Tip: Ports are classified based on their location and the type of trade they facilitate, including seaports, inland ports, and harbor ports.


Question 76:

Differentiate between compact and dispersed settlements.

Correct Answer:
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Step 1: Understanding Compact Settlements.

Compact settlements are those where houses and buildings are clustered closely together in a small area. This type of settlement is usually found in areas with limited land resources, such as cities or villages. People in compact settlements live near each other to maximize the use of available land.


Step 2: Understanding Dispersed Settlements.

In contrast, dispersed settlements are those where houses and buildings are spread out over a large area. This type of settlement is often seen in rural or agricultural areas where people need more space for farming or livestock grazing.


Step 3: Key Differences.

- Compact Settlements: Densely packed, typically urban, limited space, better access to services.

- Dispersed Settlements: Spread out, rural areas, more space for agriculture, less access to services.


Step 4: Conclusion.

Compact settlements are more concentrated, while dispersed settlements are spread out, generally in rural or agricultural areas.
Quick Tip: Compact settlements are typical in urban areas, while dispersed settlements are more common in rural settings, where land is more abundant.


Question 77:

What is the importance of age structure?

Correct Answer:
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Step 1: Defining Age Structure.

Age structure refers to the distribution of a population across different age groups. It provides important insights into the demographic makeup of a population and helps in understanding the challenges and opportunities within a society.


Step 2: Importance of Age Structure.

1. Economic Planning: The age structure affects the working-age population and the dependent population (children and elderly). This helps policymakers in planning for education, healthcare, and pension systems.

2. Social Services: A population with a high proportion of young people may require more educational infrastructure, while an aging population may need more healthcare services and pension plans.

3. Employment and Labor Markets: An age structure with a large working-age group can provide a strong labor force, whereas a shrinking youth population might lead to labor shortages.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The age structure of a population has direct implications on economic planning, the provision of social services, and labor market dynamics.
Quick Tip: Understanding age structure is crucial for economic and social policy planning, as it influences labor markets, education, and healthcare needs.


Question 78:

Mention four approaches to Human Development.

Correct Answer:
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Step 1: Defining Human Development.

Human development focuses on improving people's well-being and expanding their capabilities. The approaches to human development vary but generally focus on economic, social, political, and environmental factors.


Step 2: Four Main Approaches to Human Development.

1. Economic Approach: This focuses on increasing income levels and reducing poverty. Economic development is considered a key factor in human development.

2. Social Approach: This focuses on improving education, healthcare, and social services. It emphasizes equity, reducing inequality, and providing equal opportunities for all individuals.

3. Political Approach: This emphasizes the importance of political freedoms, democracy, and political participation in fostering human development. The political environment plays a key role in enabling or restricting human development.

4. Environmental Approach: This focuses on ensuring sustainable development, protecting natural resources, and reducing environmental degradation, so that future generations can continue to improve their quality of life.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Human development is a multi-dimensional process, and approaches like economic, social, political, and environmental are essential to understanding and achieving it.
Quick Tip: Human development is a comprehensive approach that includes economic growth, social equity, political freedoms, and environmental sustainability.


Question 79:

What do you mean by cultivable waste land?

Correct Answer:
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Step 1: Definition of Cultivable Waste Land.

Cultivable waste land refers to land that is potentially suitable for cultivation but is not currently being used for agricultural purposes. This land may be abandoned, neglected, or left fallow due to various factors, including poor soil quality, lack of irrigation, or inefficient farming practices.


Step 2: Causes of Cultivable Waste Land.

1. Degradation: Overuse or misuse of land can lead to soil degradation, making it unsuitable for cultivation.

2. Neglect: Sometimes, land is left fallow for long periods due to lack of interest or investment in farming.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Cultivable waste land has the potential for agricultural use but requires proper management and investment to restore it to productive farming land.
Quick Tip: Cultivable waste land can be restored for agricultural use with appropriate soil management, irrigation, and sustainable farming practices.


Question 80:

Write the names of four main religious cities of India.

Correct Answer:
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Step 1: Importance of Religious Cities.

Religious cities hold significance for followers of various faiths, providing places for pilgrimage, worship, and spiritual growth. In India, these cities are key centers for Hinduism, Islam, Sikhism, and other religions.


Step 2: Four Main Religious Cities of India.

1. Varanasi: Known as the spiritual capital of India, Varanasi is one of the oldest cities in the world and a major pilgrimage site for Hindus.

2. Mecca: Although Mecca is in Saudi Arabia, it is an important religious site for Muslims around the world, including those from India.

3. Amritsar: The holy city of Sikhism, home to the Golden Temple, a major pilgrimage site for Sikhs.

4. Ayodhya: A key city in Hindu tradition, it is believed to be the birthplace of Lord Rama, making it an important pilgrimage destination.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Religious cities such as Varanasi, Amritsar, Ayodhya, and Mecca play central roles in the spiritual life of millions of people in India.
Quick Tip: Religious cities like Varanasi and Amritsar are key pilgrimage sites, each playing a significant role in the spiritual and cultural life of their communities.


Question 81:

Distinguish between renewable and non-renewable resources of energy.

Correct Answer:
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Step 1: Defining Renewable Resources of Energy.

Renewable energy resources are those that can be replenished naturally in a short period of time. These resources are sustainable and can be used indefinitely without depleting their supply. Some examples include solar, wind, hydro, and geothermal energy.


Step 2: Defining Non-Renewable Resources of Energy.

Non-renewable energy resources are those that cannot be replaced or regenerated naturally in a short period. Once these resources are used, they are depleted. Examples include fossil fuels like coal, oil, and natural gas.


Step 3: Key Differences.

- Renewable Resources: Can be replenished naturally, sustainable, and do not lead to depletion over time.

- Non-Renewable Resources: Finite, will eventually run out, and their extraction and use lead to environmental degradation.


Step 4: Conclusion.

Renewable resources are sustainable and environmentally friendly, whereas non-renewable resources are finite and have adverse effects on the environment.
Quick Tip: Renewable resources are sustainable and do not deplete over time, unlike non-renewable resources which are finite and cause environmental harm.


Question 82:

Mention any four sources of noise pollution.

Correct Answer:
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Step 1: Understanding Noise Pollution.

Noise pollution is the harmful or disturbing sounds that interfere with normal activities and have adverse effects on health and well-being. Common sources of noise pollution include:


Step 2: Four Sources of Noise Pollution.

1. Transport vehicles: The sounds produced by vehicles, trains, airplanes, and ships contribute significantly to noise pollution.

2. Industrial machines: Factories and construction sites generate noise through heavy machinery and equipment.

3. Public places: Crowded places like markets, shopping malls, and public events are often noisy due to human activity and loudspeakers.

4. Household appliances: Everyday household devices like vacuum cleaners, air conditioners, and blenders also contribute to noise pollution.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Noise pollution is a result of various human activities, from transportation to industrial and household sources, all of which can harm health and quality of life.
Quick Tip: Noise pollution can be controlled by using soundproofing materials, regulating industrial noise, and promoting quieter transportation.


Question 83:

What is subsistence agriculture?

Correct Answer:
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Step 1: Defining Subsistence Agriculture.

Subsistence agriculture is a type of farming in which crops and livestock are grown primarily for the consumption of the farmer's family or local community, rather than for sale in the market. This type of farming is often small-scale and relies heavily on manual labor.


Step 2: Characteristics of Subsistence Agriculture.

1. Low productivity: The yield from subsistence farming is often low due to the limited use of modern farming techniques.

2. Focus on basic needs: The primary goal is to meet the immediate needs of the family rather than to produce surplus goods for trade.

3. Low external inputs: It usually does not involve the use of large-scale external inputs such as fertilizers, pesticides, or machinery.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Subsistence agriculture is characterized by small-scale farming practices aimed at self-sufficiency and is common in developing countries.
Quick Tip: Subsistence agriculture focuses on growing enough food for the farmer’s family or community, with minimal surplus production.


Question 84:

Classify industries on the basis of ownership.

Correct Answer:
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Step 1: Types of Ownership in Industries.

Industries can be classified based on the ownership structure into several categories. The most common classifications are:


Step 2: Classification Based on Ownership.

1. Private Sector Industries: These are industries owned and operated by private individuals or companies. The goal is to earn profits. Example: Tata Steel, Reliance Industries.

2. Public Sector Industries: These are owned and operated by the government at the national, state, or local level. Example: Indian Oil Corporation, Steel Authority of India.

3. Joint Sector Industries: These are industries jointly owned by the government and private entities. Example: Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC).

4. Cooperative Sector Industries: These are owned and managed by a group of individuals or workers, usually for mutual benefit. Example: Amul, the dairy cooperative.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The classification of industries based on ownership helps to understand their operation, funding, and objectives, whether profit-driven, service-oriented, or public-benefit focused.
Quick Tip: Industries are classified based on ownership into private, public, joint, and cooperative sectors, each with distinct objectives and management.


Question 85:

Write a note on Golden Quadrilateral Highway.

Correct Answer:
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Step 1: Overview of the Golden Quadrilateral.

The Golden Quadrilateral is a major highway project in India that connects the four major metropolitan cities—Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, and Kolkata. The project aims to improve road connectivity and reduce travel time across these cities, enhancing trade and tourism.


Step 2: Route of Golden Quadrilateral.

The Golden Quadrilateral covers a distance of approximately 5,846 kilometers and connects the four cities in a quadrilateral shape. The project is part of India's efforts to improve infrastructure and transportation.


Step 3: Significance of the Golden Quadrilateral.

1. Economic Growth: It boosts economic activities by improving the transportation of goods and people.

2. Connectivity: Enhances connectivity between major cities and rural areas, promoting regional development.


Step 4: Conclusion.

The Golden Quadrilateral is one of India's most ambitious infrastructure projects, significantly improving the road transport network and fostering economic development.
Quick Tip: The Golden Quadrilateral enhances road connectivity between India's major cities and promotes trade, tourism, and economic development.


Question 86:

What do you mean by land degradation?

Correct Answer:
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Step 1: Defining Land Degradation.

Land degradation is the process in which the quality of land deteriorates due to human activities or natural causes, making it less productive and incapable of supporting agriculture, forestry, or natural vegetation. It is often caused by factors like deforestation, soil erosion, and urbanization.


Step 2: Causes of Land Degradation.

1. Deforestation: Cutting down trees without replanting leads to soil erosion and reduced fertility.

2. Overgrazing: Livestock grazing excessively damages vegetation, leading to desertification.

3. Urbanization: Expansion of cities and infrastructure often leads to the loss of productive land.


Step 3: Consequences of Land Degradation.

Land degradation can lead to reduced agricultural productivity, loss of biodiversity, water scarcity, and the displacement of communities.


Step 4: Conclusion.

Land degradation is a major environmental concern that hampers agricultural and ecological systems. It requires sustainable land management practices to prevent further harm.
Quick Tip: Land degradation is the deterioration of land quality caused by human or natural factors, reducing its ability to support agriculture and vegetation.


Question 87:

Differentiate between determinism and possibilism.

Correct Answer:
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Step 1: Defining Determinism.

Determinism is the theory that human actions and development are strictly governed by the environment. According to determinism, environmental factors control and limit human progress and development, such as climate, geography, and physical features. It suggests that people have little to no control over their development as they are entirely shaped by their surroundings.


Step 2: Defining Possibilism.

Possibilism, on the other hand, is the idea that while the environment may set certain limits, human beings have the ability to adapt and modify their surroundings. This perspective emphasizes human agency and innovation in overcoming environmental challenges. Possibilists believe that with technology, creativity, and cultural development, humans can modify the environment for their benefit.


Step 3: Key Differences.

- Determinism: Human development is entirely dependent on the environment, with little human intervention or control.

- Possibilism: Humans can adapt to and change their environment, allowing for more flexibility in development.


Step 4: Conclusion.

Determinism suggests a passive role for humans, while possibilism highlights the active role of humans in modifying and improving their environment.
Quick Tip: Determinism emphasizes environmental limits on development, while possibilism stresses human ability to adapt and overcome those limits.


Question 88:

Write the names of four geographical factors influencing the distribution of population.

Correct Answer:
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Step 1: Geographical Factors.

The distribution of population is influenced by several geographical factors that either promote or hinder human settlement in a particular area. These factors are:


Step 2: Four Geographical Factors.

1. Climate: Temperate climates are conducive to human habitation, while extreme climates, such as deserts or polar regions, tend to have sparse populations.

2. Water Resources: Access to freshwater bodies such as rivers, lakes, and groundwater makes an area more habitable and suitable for agriculture.

3. Topography: Fertile plains are more densely populated, while rugged terrains like mountains or deserts tend to have lower population density.

4. Soil Fertility: Fertile land allows for better agricultural output, leading to higher population densities, especially in regions like river valleys.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The population distribution is heavily influenced by climate, water, topography, and soil fertility, as these factors provide the basic requirements for human settlement.
Quick Tip: Regions with favorable climates, access to water, fertile land, and easy terrain tend to have higher population densities.


Question 89:

Write the names of four manganese producing states of India.

Correct Answer:
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Step 1: Importance of Manganese.

Manganese is a key mineral used in the production of steel and other alloys. It is essential for the development of various industries. India is one of the largest producers of manganese ore in the world.


Step 2: Four Major Manganese Producing States.

1. Odisha: The state with the highest manganese production in India.

2. Maharashtra: Another major producer of manganese in the western part of India.

3. Karnataka: Known for significant manganese ore reserves and production.

4. Chhattisgarh: Also a significant producer of manganese in India.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Odisha, Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Chhattisgarh are the leading states in India for manganese production, contributing significantly to the country's mining sector.
Quick Tip: India's manganese production is concentrated in the states of Odisha, Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Chhattisgarh, which are rich in mineral resources.


Question 90:

Write the names of four important centres of cotton textile industry of Gujarat.

Correct Answer:
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Step 1: Significance of Cotton Textile Industry.

Gujarat is one of the leading states in India for cotton textile production. The state's favorable climate, large cotton cultivation areas, and established industrial infrastructure have made it a hub for textile manufacturing.


Step 2: Four Important Centres.

1. Ahmedabad: Known as the "Manchester of India," it is the largest center for cotton textile production in Gujarat.

2. Surat: A major city in Gujarat known for its textile industry, especially synthetic textiles.

3. Rajkot: Known for its textile production, particularly in weaving and spinning.

4. Vadodara: Another important center for cotton textiles, focusing on both traditional and modern textile production methods.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Ahmedabad, Surat, Rajkot, and Vadodara are the key cities in Gujarat contributing to the state's thriving cotton textile industry.
Quick Tip: Gujarat's cotton textile industry is concentrated in cities like Ahmedabad, Surat, Rajkot, and Vadodara, all of which play a pivotal role in India's textile sector.


Question 91:

Describe the geographical factors influencing the distribution of population in the world.

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Step 1: Introduction to Population Distribution.

The distribution of population around the world is influenced by various geographical factors. These factors determine where populations settle and thrive, leading to high-density areas in certain regions and sparse populations in others. The key geographical factors include climate, water resources, soil quality, and topography.


Step 2: Geographical Factors Influencing Population Distribution.


1. Climate: Favorable climates, such as temperate climates with moderate temperatures and rainfall, support higher population densities. In contrast, harsh climates like deserts, polar regions, and arid areas tend to have lower populations due to less fertile land and limited water availability.

2. Water Resources: Water bodies like rivers, lakes, and seas provide essential resources for drinking, agriculture, and transportation. Areas near water bodies tend to have denser populations due to the availability of resources. Examples include the Nile, Ganges, and Yangtze river valleys.

3. Soil Fertility: Fertile soils, particularly in river valleys and floodplains, support agriculture and sustain larger populations. Regions like the Indo-Gangetic plains in India or the Mississippi River valley in the USA are densely populated due to fertile soils.

4. Topography: Flat plains are more conducive to large-scale settlement as they allow for easier construction, agriculture, and transportation. In contrast, mountainous regions often have low population densities due to difficult terrain and limited arable land.

5. Natural Resources: Areas rich in natural resources like minerals, forests, and fossil fuels attract human settlement due to the economic opportunities they offer. For example, regions rich in oil reserves or mineral deposits have high population concentrations.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The distribution of population is not random but closely related to these geographical factors. By assessing these factors, one can explain why some regions have high population densities, while others remain sparsely populated.
Quick Tip: Favorable climates, water access, fertile land, and flat terrain are key factors that promote high population densities in various regions around the world.


Question 92:

Differentiate between nomadic herding and commercial livestock rearing.

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Step 1: Introduction to Livestock Rearing.

Livestock rearing refers to the practice of breeding and raising animals for food, wool, leather, and other products. There are two main types of livestock rearing: nomadic herding and commercial livestock rearing. Both practices involve raising animals, but they differ significantly in terms of scale, purpose, and method.


Step 2: Nomadic Herding.

Nomadic herding is the practice of moving livestock from one place to another in search of grazing land and water. This practice is common in regions with vast, open landscapes and scarce resources, such as deserts, steppes, and mountainous areas. The herders usually follow traditional migration routes based on seasonal availability of pasture and water sources.


1. Characteristics of Nomadic Herding:

- Seasonal migration in search of grazing land.

- Small-scale operations with a focus on subsistence.

- Livestock such as goats, sheep, camels, and reindeer are commonly raised.

- Common in regions like Central Asia, parts of Africa, and the Arctic.

2. Advantages:

- Allows for the sustainable use of natural resources in harsh environments.

- Minimal capital investment required.


Step 3: Commercial Livestock Rearing.

Commercial livestock rearing refers to the large-scale farming of animals for profit, typically on fixed land. The focus is on maximizing production through intensive farming techniques, such as mechanization, specialized feeding, and high-yield breeds. This practice is common in developed countries and areas with stable climatic conditions and large-scale infrastructure.


1. Characteristics of Commercial Livestock Rearing:

- Large-scale operations focused on mass production for markets.

- Use of technology and mechanization for better yields.

- Livestock such as cattle, pigs, and poultry are raised in large numbers.

- Common in countries like the United States, Brazil, and Australia.

2. Advantages:

- High yields and economic efficiency.

- Market-oriented production to meet the demand for meat, milk, and other animal products.


Step 4: Key Differences.

- Scale: Nomadic herding is small-scale and subsistence-oriented, while commercial livestock rearing is large-scale and profit-oriented.

- Mobility: Nomadic herders move their animals seasonally, whereas commercial livestock operations are fixed.

- Purpose: Nomadic herding focuses on survival and local needs, while commercial livestock farming is focused on mass production for the market.


Step 5: Conclusion.

Nomadic herding and commercial livestock rearing represent two different approaches to livestock farming. Nomadic herding is more traditional and suited to harsh environments, while commercial livestock farming is modern and optimized for high production in stable environments.
Quick Tip: Nomadic herding is based on seasonal migration and small-scale farming, while commercial livestock rearing focuses on large-scale production for market consumption.


Question 93:

Discuss the problems of urban settlements in developing countries.

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Step 1: Introduction to Urbanization in Developing Countries.

Urbanization refers to the increasing population of people living in urban areas. In developing countries, urban settlements face several challenges due to rapid urbanization, limited resources, and inefficient infrastructure. The process of urbanization in these regions often outpaces the development of the necessary facilities to accommodate growing populations.


Step 2: Problems of Urban Settlements.


1. Overcrowding: Rapid migration from rural areas to urban centers often leads to overcrowding, which strains existing infrastructure, services, and housing. This results in inadequate living conditions and poor health outcomes.

2. Slum Development: The lack of affordable housing leads to the creation of slums and informal settlements, where people live in substandard conditions with poor sanitation, overcrowding, and insufficient access to clean water.

3. Traffic Congestion: Developing countries often lack efficient public transportation systems, leading to severe traffic congestion, longer commute times, and air pollution.

4. Unemployment and Poverty: The influx of people into urban areas leads to a high unemployment rate, as the available jobs are limited. This results in increased poverty, with many people forced into the informal sector to make ends meet.

5. Environmental Degradation: Rapid urbanization often results in deforestation, pollution, and the depletion of natural resources as cities expand to accommodate increasing populations. Air and water pollution levels rise, contributing to health issues.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The problems faced by urban settlements in developing countries are numerous and complex. Addressing these challenges requires investment in infrastructure, efficient public transport, affordable housing, and sustainable urban planning.
Quick Tip: Urbanization in developing countries needs to be managed with strategic planning, investment in infrastructure, and sustainable development policies to avoid overcrowding and environmental damage.


Question 94:

Discuss the production and distribution of wheat in India.

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Step 1: Introduction to Wheat Production in India.

Wheat is one of the most important staple crops grown in India, providing a significant portion of the nation's food supply. It is primarily grown during the Rabi season, which spans from October to March, and contributes heavily to India's agricultural output.


Step 2: Areas of Wheat Production.


1. Major Wheat-Producing States: India’s wheat production is concentrated in a few states that have suitable climates and fertile soils. The major wheat-producing states are:

- Uttar Pradesh: The largest producer of wheat in India.

- Punjab: Known for its fertile alluvial soil and irrigation facilities, Punjab is a major contributor to wheat production.

- Haryana: Another key producer of wheat, particularly in the western region.

- Madhya Pradesh: Increasingly contributing to wheat production, especially in the central region.

- Rajasthan and Bihar also contribute significantly to wheat farming.


2. Climate and Soil Conditions: Wheat requires a cool, dry climate during the growing period, with temperatures ranging from 10°C to 15°C. The crop thrives in well-drained, fertile soils, particularly alluvial soils found in the Indo-Gangetic plains.


Step 3: Distribution of Wheat in India.

Wheat is distributed across India based on the climatic and soil conditions. The largest share of wheat production comes from the northern plains, especially the Indo-Gangetic region, which includes states like Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, and Haryana. The crop is grown in both irrigated and unirrigated lands, with irrigation helping to maintain high yields.


Step 4: Challenges in Wheat Production.

- Water Scarcity: Irrigation plays a crucial role, and water scarcity is a major issue in wheat-producing states like Punjab and Haryana.

- Climate Change: Changes in rainfall patterns and temperatures can affect the Rabi crop, leading to crop failure or reduced yields.

- Soil Degradation: Over-reliance on irrigation and extensive farming has led to soil depletion in some regions.


Step 5: Conclusion.

Wheat is a vital crop for India's food security, and its production is concentrated in states like Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, and Haryana. However, challenges such as water scarcity, climate change, and soil degradation need to be addressed to ensure sustainable production and distribution.
Quick Tip: India’s wheat production is concentrated in the north-western states, but efficient water management and sustainable farming practices are essential for the future of wheat cultivation.


Question 95:

Discuss the non-conventional sources of energy.

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Step 1: Introduction to Non-Conventional Energy.

Non-conventional energy refers to renewable and sustainable sources of energy that are alternative to conventional fossil fuels like coal, oil, and natural gas. These energy sources are eco-friendly, reduce dependency on non-renewable resources, and have a smaller environmental impact.


Step 2: Types of Non-Conventional Sources of Energy.


1. Solar Energy: Solar power is harnessed from the sun’s radiation using solar panels or thermal collectors. It is one of the most abundant and widely used non-conventional energy sources. Solar energy is used for heating, electricity generation, and even desalination.

2. Wind Energy: Wind turbines convert wind energy into electricity. Wind power is most efficient in regions with consistent wind speeds, and countries like Denmark, Spain, and India are key producers of wind energy.

3. Biomass Energy: Biomass refers to organic material like plants, wood, and animal waste. It can be burned or converted into biofuels to generate heat or electricity. Biomass is considered a renewable source of energy, as it is continuously replenished through biological processes.

4. Hydropower: Hydroelectric power is generated by harnessing the energy of flowing water, typically from rivers or dams. It is one of the oldest and most reliable forms of renewable energy. Hydropower plants are typically located in regions with abundant water resources.

5. Geothermal Energy: This form of energy is derived from the heat stored beneath the Earth’s surface. Geothermal power plants convert this heat into electricity. Countries like Iceland and New Zealand are pioneers in utilizing geothermal energy.

6. Tidal Energy: Tidal energy is generated by the rise and fall of ocean tides. It is an emerging form of energy that utilizes the kinetic energy of tidal movements to generate electricity.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Non-conventional energy sources play a critical role in reducing carbon emissions and achieving sustainability. As technology advances, these sources are becoming more efficient and cost-effective, contributing significantly to the global energy mix.
Quick Tip: Non-conventional energy sources such as solar, wind, and biomass are sustainable alternatives to conventional fossil fuels and are crucial for a cleaner and greener future.

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