Bihar Board Class 10 Social Science Question Paper 2023 (Code 111 Set-F) Available- Download Here with Solution PDF

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Shivam Yadav

Educational Content Expert | Updated on - Oct 17, 2025

Bihar Board Class 10 Social Science Question Paper 2023 PDF (Code 111 Set-F) is available for download here. The Social Science exam was conducted on February 20, 2023 in the Morning Shift from 9:30 AM to 12:15 PM and in the Evening Shift from 2:00 PM to 5:15 PM. The total marks for the theory paper are 100. Students reported the paper to be easy to moderate.

Bihar Board Class 10 Social Science Question Paper 2023 (Code 111 Set-F) with Solutions

Bihar Board Class Social Science Question Paper with Answer Key Download Check Solutions

Question 1:

During which peasant movement was Vallabhbhai Patel given the title of ‘Sardar’?

  • (1) Bardoli
  • (2) Ahmedabad
  • (3) Kheda
  • (4) Champaran
Correct Answer: (1) Bardoli
View Solution



Step 1: Identify Patel’s major peasant struggle.

In 1928, Vallabhbhai Patel led the Bardoli Satyagraha against a steep hike in land revenue.

Step 2: Reason for the title.

His disciplined, non-violent leadership earned him the popular honorific ‘Sardar’ from the peasants of Bardoli.
Quick Tip: Map leaders to hallmark movements: Patel — Bardoli (1928), Gandhi — Champaran (1917), Kheda (1918).


Question 2:

Who among the following is also known as ‘Frontier Gandhi’?

  • (1) C. Rajagopalachari
  • (2) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
  • (3) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
  • (4) Lala Hardayal
Correct Answer: (3) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
View Solution



Step 1: Recall the sobriquet.

‘Frontier Gandhi’ refers to Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan (Badshah Khan) from the North-West Frontier Province.

Step 2: Why this title?

He championed non-violence like Gandhi and organized the Khudai Khidmatgar (Red Shirts).
Quick Tip: Sobriquet check: ‘Frontier Gandhi’ — Ghaffar Khan; ‘Iron Man’ — Sardar Patel.


Question 3:

Government of India Act, 1919 is also known as:

  • (1) Montague–Chelmsford Plan
  • (2) Simon Commission
  • (3) Indian Statutory Commission
  • (4) Nehru Report
Correct Answer: (1) Montague–Chelmsford Plan
View Solution



Step 1: Link policy to act.

The reforms proposed by Montagu (Secretary of State) and Chelmsford (Viceroy) materialized as the Government of India Act, 1919.

Step 2: Eliminate others.

Simon Commission (1927) = Indian Statutory Commission; Nehru Report (1928) was an Indian response — not the 1919 Act.
Quick Tip: 1919 Act \(\rightarrow\) Montagu–Chelmsford; 1935 Act followed the Simon Commission era.


Question 4:

Who built Angkor Wat temple?

  • (1) Chandragupta Maurya
  • (2) Suryavarman II
  • (3) Samudragupta
  • (4) Harshavardhan
Correct Answer: (2) Suryavarman II
View Solution



Step 1: Place the monument.

Angkor Wat is a massive Khmer temple complex in present-day Cambodia.

Step 2: Identify the patron.

It was constructed in the 12th century under King Suryavarman II, dedicated primarily to Vishnu.
Quick Tip: Remember: Angkor Wat — Khmer Empire — Suryavarman II (12th century).


Question 5:

Who wrote the program ‘April Thesis’ of the Bolshevik party?

  • (1) Stalin
  • (2) Trotsky
  • (3) Lenin
  • (4) Garibaldi
Correct Answer: (3) Lenin
View Solution



Step 1: Context.

In April 1917, after returning to Russia, Vladimir Lenin issued his April Theses — “All power to the Soviets,” immediate peace, land to peasants.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Therefore, the author is Lenin.
Quick Tip: April Theses (1917) \(\Rightarrow\) Lenin; it set the Bolshevik course toward the October Revolution.


Question 6:

When is International Labour Day celebrated?

  • (1) 1st May
  • (2) 1st June
  • (3) 5th June
  • (4) 8th March
Correct Answer: (1) 1st May
View Solution



Step 1: Origin.

Labour Day commemorates the 1886 Chicago workers’ struggle for the eight-hour workday.

Step 2: Observance.

Most countries, including India, observe it on 1 May.
Quick Tip: 1 May — Labour Day; 5 June — World Environment Day; 8 March — International Women’s Day.


Question 7:

Which is called the ‘Bible of Socialists’?

  • (1) War and Peace
  • (2) Communist Manifesto
  • (3) Das Kapital
  • (4) April Thesis
Correct Answer: (3) Das Kapital
View Solution



Step 1: Meaning of the phrase.

Karl Marx’s Das Kapital provides a foundational critique of capitalism; hence many textbooks call it the “Bible of Socialism.”

Step 2: Distinguish works.

Communist Manifesto (Marx & Engels) is a political pamphlet; Das Kapital is the deeper theoretical text.
Quick Tip: Author–book pairs: Marx — Das Kapital; Marx & Engels — Communist Manifesto.


Question 8:

Who followed the policy of ‘Blood and Iron’?

  • (1) Garibaldi
  • (2) Mazzini
  • (3) Bismarck
  • (4) Napoleon
Correct Answer: (3) Bismarck
View Solution



Step 1: Recall the phrase.

Otto von Bismarck, the Prussian statesman, advocated German unification through “blood and iron”—war and industrial strength.

Step 2: Differentiate leaders.

Mazzini and Garibaldi are tied to Italian unification; Napoleon predates German unification.
Quick Tip: Germany — Bismarck — “Blood and Iron”; Italy — Mazzini (ideas), Garibaldi (sword), Cavour (diplomacy).


Question 9:

Which of the following is not a natural disaster?

  • (1) Tsunami
  • (2) Flood
  • (3) Earthquake
  • (4) Epidemic
Correct Answer: (4) Epidemic
View Solution



Step 1: Define natural disasters.

They arise from geophysical, hydrological, or meteorological processes (e.g., earthquakes, floods, tsunamis).

Step 2: Classify epidemic.

An epidemic is a biological/public-health hazard, not a geophysical natural disaster.
Quick Tip: Natural hazards: Earthquake/Tsunami/Flood; Biological hazard: Epidemic.


Question 10:

Which natural disaster did Bihar face in the year 1934?

  • (1) Drought
  • (2) Flood
  • (3) Earthquake
  • (4) Tsunami
Correct Answer: (3) Earthquake
View Solution



Step 1: Recall the event.

On 15 January 1934, the Bihar–Nepal Earthquake devastated large parts of Bihar, one of the most destructive earthquakes in Indian history.

Step 2: Eliminate other options.

Tsunami affects coasts; droughts and floods are frequent, but the historically notable 1934 event was the earthquake.
Quick Tip: Dates to remember: 1934 — Bihar Earthquake; 2004 — Indian Ocean Tsunami.


Question 11:

Kachchh region is related to which seismic belt?

  • (1) Zone-2
  • (2) Zone-3
  • (3) Zone-4
  • (4) Zone-5
Correct Answer: (4) Zone-5
View Solution



Step 1: Seismic zoning of India.

India is divided into four seismic zones — II, III, IV, V, where Zone-5 has the highest seismic risk.

Step 2: Place Kachchh in seismic map.

Kachchh (Gujarat) lies in Zone-5, known for the devastating Bhuj earthquake of 2001.
Quick Tip: Zone-5 = very high risk (e.g., Kachchh, Kashmir, Northeast India).


Question 12:

The vibration in the bottom of the ocean is called:

  • (1) Earthquake
  • (2) Cyclone
  • (3) Tsunami
  • (4) Landslide
Correct Answer: (3) Tsunami
View Solution



Step 1: Define.

When an earthquake occurs under the ocean floor, it displaces large volumes of water.

Step 2: Consequence.

This sudden displacement generates long sea waves known as Tsunamis.
Quick Tip: Ocean-floor earthquakes → Tsunami; Atmospheric disturbance → Cyclone.


Question 13:

Which instrument is used to locate the people buried under the rubble?

  • (1) Telescope
  • (2) Infrared camera
  • (3) Helicopter
  • (4) Microscope
Correct Answer: (2) Infrared camera
View Solution



Step 1: Function.

An infrared camera detects heat radiations from the human body.

Step 2: Application.

Rescue teams use it to locate survivors trapped under rubble during earthquakes or landslides.
Quick Tip: Infrared → heat detection → rescue operations.


Question 14:

When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?

  • (1) 1946
  • (2) 1947
  • (3) 1948
  • (4) 1949
Correct Answer: (1) 1946
View Solution



Step 1: Historical background.

The Constituent Assembly was set up in December 1946 under the Cabinet Mission Plan.

Step 2: Purpose.

Its task was to draft the Constitution of free India. The Constitution came into effect on 26 January 1950.
Quick Tip: Formation — 1946; Adoption — 26 Nov 1949; Enforcement — 26 Jan 1950.


Question 15:

Nkrumah was elected the President of which country?

  • (1) Poland
  • (2) Chile
  • (3) Ghana
  • (4) Mexico
Correct Answer: (3) Ghana
View Solution



Step 1: African independence.

Kwame Nkrumah was a leading figure in African decolonization.

Step 2: Presidency.

He became the first Prime Minister and later the first President of Ghana after independence in 1957.
Quick Tip: Nkrumah = Ghana’s first President (1957).


Question 16:

The recognition and symbol of political parties are given by:

  • (1) President
  • (2) Prime Minister
  • (3) Election Commission
  • (4) Parliament
Correct Answer: (3) Election Commission
View Solution



Step 1: Authority in India.

The Election Commission of India regulates political parties, recognizes them, and allots election symbols.

Step 2: Importance.

This ensures free and fair elections.
Quick Tip: Election Commission = guardian of elections, party recognition, symbols.


Question 17:

"India’s development is not possible without the development of Bihar." Whose statement is this?

  • (1) Rajendra Prasad
  • (2) A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
  • (3) Mahbub-ul-Haq
  • (4) Mahatma Gandhi
Correct Answer: (1) Rajendra Prasad
View Solution



Step 1: Speaker background.

Dr. Rajendra Prasad, India’s first President, hailed from Bihar and emphasized Bihar’s role in national development.

Step 2: Quote meaning.

He believed that progress of India was linked to the socio-economic upliftment of Bihar.
Quick Tip: Rajendra Prasad = First President of India; stressed Bihar’s development.


Question 18:

When was the Planning Commission formed in India?

  • (1) 15th March, 1950
  • (2) 15th March, 1951
  • (3) 15th April, 1950
  • (4) 15th April, 1951
Correct Answer: (1) 15th March, 1950
View Solution



Step 1: Background.

The Planning Commission was set up by a Government resolution on 15 March 1950.

Step 2: Function.

It formulated Five-Year Plans for India’s economic development.
Quick Tip: Planning Commission: 15 March 1950 → NITI Aayog replaced it in 2015.


Question 19:

Development of agriculture was the main objective of which Five-Year Plan?

  • (1) First
  • (2) Second
  • (3) Third
  • (4) Fifth
Correct Answer: (1) First
View Solution



Step 1: Priorities of First Plan.

The First Five-Year Plan (1951–56) focused on agriculture, irrigation, and energy, as food security was the immediate need.

Step 2: Contrast with later plans.

The Second Plan emphasized industries, while later plans diversified.
Quick Tip: First Plan (1951–56): agriculture focus; Second Plan (1956–61): industries.


Question 20:

Human Development Report is published by which of the following?

  • (1) WTO
  • (2) WHO
  • (3) UNDP
  • (4) ILO
Correct Answer: (3) UNDP
View Solution



Step 1: Publisher.

The United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) publishes the Human Development Report annually.

Step 2: Purpose.

It introduces the Human Development Index (HDI) to compare development across countries.
Quick Tip: HDR → UNDP; Focus: HDI (life expectancy, education, income).


Question 21:

Which Prime Minister released India's first Human Development Report?

  • (1) Manmohan Singh
  • (2) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
  • (3) Inder Kumar Gujral
  • (4) Jawaharlal Nehru
Correct Answer: (2) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
View Solution



Step 1: Identify the report.

India's first National Human Development Report (NHDR) 2001 was prepared by the Planning Commission.

Step 2: Release detail.

It was officially released by then Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee in 2002.
Quick Tip: Global HDR → UNDP; India’s NHDR 2001 → Planning Commission; released by PM Vajpayee.


Question 22:

Who gave the concept of the ‘vicious circle of poverty’?

  • (1) Simon Kuznets
  • (2) Keynes
  • (3) Alfred Marshall
  • (4) Ragnar Nurkse
Correct Answer: (4) Ragnar Nurkse
View Solution



Step 1: Theory.

Ragnar Nurkse explained how low income → low saving → low investment → low productivity → again low income, trapping poor economies.

Step 2: Application.

Breaking the circle needs investment, human capital formation, and demand expansion.
Quick Tip: Vicious circle of poverty = \(\textbf{Nurkse}\); Kuznets is known for the inverted-U income–inequality curve.


Question 23:

Which state of India has the highest per capita income?

  • (1) Punjab
  • (2) Goa
  • (3) Maharashtra
  • (4) Karnataka
Correct Answer: (2) Goa
View Solution



Step 1: Compare states.

Recent economic data consistently places Goa among the top in per capita NSDP due to a small population and services-led economy (tourism, trade).

Step 2: Eliminate others.

Maharashtra’s GSDP is high but per capita is moderated by its large population; Punjab and Karnataka rank lower than Goa in per capita terms.
Quick Tip: Per capita income = \(\frac{State Income}{Population}\); small, service-heavy states often lead (e.g., Goa).


Question 24:

What is the total amount of income earned in a country during a year called?

  • (1) Per capita income
  • (2) Average income
  • (3) National income
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (3) National income
View Solution



Step 1: Definition.

National income is the total value of all final goods and services produced (or total factor incomes earned) within a country in a year.

Step 2: Distinction.

Per capita income = national income divided by population; “average income” is an informal term.
Quick Tip: Remember: Total for the country = \(\textbf{National income}\); per person = \(\textbf{Per capita income}\).


Question 25:

When was the Wild-life Board of India formed?

  • (1) 1950
  • (2) 1952
  • (3) 1948
  • (4) 1954
Correct Answer: (2) 1952
View Solution



Step 1: Historical fact.

The Indian Board for Wild Life (IBWL) was established in 1952 to advise on wildlife conservation.

Step 2: Later development.

It was reconstituted as the National Board for Wildlife under the Wildlife (Protection) Act.
Quick Tip: IBWL formation year to memorize: \(\textbf{1952}\).


Question 26:

Who is the father of Ayurveda?

  • (1) Charaka
  • (2) Dhanvantari
  • (3) Patanjali
  • (4) Sushruta
Correct Answer: (2) Dhanvantari
View Solution



Step 1: Traditional attribution.

Dhanvantari is revered as the divine originator and Father of Ayurveda.

Step 2: Related scholars.

Charaka authored the Charaka Samhita (medicine), Sushruta the Sushruta Samhita (surgery), Patanjali compiled Yoga Sutras.
Quick Tip: Dhanvantari → Father of Ayurveda; Charaka/Sushruta → key classical texts.


Question 27:

Texol (Taxol) is used in:

  • (1) Malaria
  • (2) AIDS
  • (3) Cancer
  • (4) T.B.
Correct Answer: (3) Cancer
View Solution



Step 1: Identify the drug.

Taxol (paclitaxel) is an anti-cancer chemotherapeutic agent that inhibits cell division by stabilizing microtubules.

Step 2: Clinical use.

Used against ovarian, breast, and other cancers—hence option (3).
Quick Tip: If you see “Taxol/Paclitaxel” → think \(\textbf{anti-cancer chemotherapy}\).


Question 28:

Which of the following is a renewable source of energy?

  • (1) Coal
  • (2) Solar energy
  • (3) Petroleum
  • (4) Natural gas
Correct Answer: (2) Solar energy
View Solution



Step 1: Definition.

Renewable energy is replenished naturally on a human timescale.

Step 2: Apply to options.

Solar energy is continuously available; coal, petroleum, and natural gas are non-renewable fossil fuels.
Quick Tip: Renewables: solar, wind, hydro, biomass; Non-renewables: coal, oil, natural gas.


Question 29:

Which is the longest dam in India?

  • (1) Hirakud dam
  • (2) Tehri dam
  • (3) Rihand dam
  • (4) Bhakra–Nangal dam
Correct Answer: (1) Hirakud dam
View Solution



Step 1: Fact.

Hirakud Dam on the Mahanadi (Odisha) is among the world’s longest earthen dams, extending about 25 km including dykes.

Step 2: Distinguish.

Tehri is one of the tallest; Bhakra–Nangal is a major concrete dam; Rihand is large but shorter in length than Hirakud.
Quick Tip: Tallest ≠ Longest: Tehri (very tall); \(\textbf{Hirakud}\) (longest).


Question 30:

Where is Kahalgaon thermal power plant?

  • (1) Muzaffarpur
  • (2) Barauni
  • (3) Bhagalpur
  • (4) Katihar
Correct Answer: (3) Bhagalpur
View Solution



Step 1: Location.

The Kahalgaon Super Thermal Power Station is situated at Kahalgaon in Bhagalpur district, Bihar, on the bank of the Ganga.

Step 2: Eliminate others.

Muzaffarpur and Barauni have separate thermal plants; Katihar does not host Kahalgaon TPS.
Quick Tip: Kahalgaon (NTPC) → Bhagalpur district, Bihar; Barauni TPS is in Begusarai.


Question 31:

Which is the most destructive wave of an earthquake?

  • (1) P-wave
  • (2) S-wave
  • (3) L-wave
  • (4) T-wave
Correct Answer: (3) L-wave
View Solution



Step 1: Types of seismic waves.

Body waves (P and S) travel through the Earth's interior; surface waves (L or Love/Rayleigh) travel along the surface.

Step 2: Destructive capacity.

L-waves have large amplitudes and long durations near the surface where people and structures are—hence they cause maximum damage.
Quick Tip: P (fastest) arrives first; S follows; \(\textbf{L (surface)}\) is slowest but most damaging.


Question 32:

Which of the following rivers is called the ‘Sorrow of Bihar’?

  • (1) Ganga
  • (2) Gandak
  • (3) Kosi
  • (4) Sone
Correct Answer: (3) Kosi
View Solution



Step 1: Identify the river with recurrent floods.

The Kosi shifts its course frequently and causes severe annual floods in North Bihar.

Step 2: Hence the epithet.

Due to repeated destruction, it is known as the ‘Sorrow of Bihar’.
Quick Tip: Kosi—Sorrow of Bihar; Damodar—Sorrow of Bengal (historically).


Question 33:

When did ‘cooperation’ become the transferable (provincial) subject of regional governments in India?

  • (1) 1929
  • (2) 1919
  • (3) 1918
  • (4) 1914
Correct Answer: (2) 1919
View Solution



Step 1: Constitutional change.

Under the Government of India Act, 1919 (Montagu–Chelmsford Reforms), several subjects, including cooperation, were transferred to provincial control.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Therefore, the year is 1919.
Quick Tip: Remember: 1919 Act introduced dyarchy and transferred subjects like cooperation to provinces.


Question 34:

Which state is the largest producer of manganese in India?

  • (1) Odisha
  • (2) Madhya Pradesh
  • (3) Maharashtra
  • (4) Karnataka
Correct Answer: (1) Odisha
View Solution



Step 1: Resource geography.

Major manganese belts occur in eastern and central India.

Step 2: Leading state.

Odisha contributes the largest share to national manganese output in most standard datasets/textbooks.
Quick Tip: Manganese: Odisha (highest), followed by Karnataka/Madhya Pradesh/Maharashtra.


Question 35:

Which of the following is a type of iron ore?

  • (1) Lignite
  • (2) Haematite
  • (3) Bituminous
  • (4) All of these
Correct Answer: (2) Haematite
View Solution



Step 1: Recognize ores vs. fuels.

Haematite (Fe2O3) is an iron ore; lignite and bituminous are types of coal (not iron ores).

Step 2: Choose the correct option.

Hence option (2) is correct.
Quick Tip: Key iron ores: Haematite, Magnetite, Limonite, Siderite.


Question 36:

On which river is the Bhakra–Nangal Project built?

  • (1) Mahanadi
  • (2) Satluj
  • (3) Godavari
  • (4) Krishna
Correct Answer: (2) Satluj
View Solution



Step 1: Project location.

The Bhakra Dam is on the Satluj River (Himachal Pradesh/Punjab border), with Nangal downstream.

Step 2: Uses.

Provides irrigation, hydropower, and flood control in northwestern India.
Quick Tip: Bhakra–Nangal → Satluj; Hirakud → Mahanadi; Nagarjuna Sagar → Krishna.


Question 37:

Which of the following is the first indigenously constructed nuclear power station of India?

  • (1) Rana Pratap Sagar Atomic Power Station
  • (2) Narora Atomic Power Station
  • (3) Tarapur Atomic Power Station
  • (4) Kalpakkam Atomic Power Station
Correct Answer: (2) Narora Atomic Power Station
View Solution



Step 1: Collaboration vs. indigenous.

Tarapur (Maharashtra) was built with U.S. assistance; Rajasthan (Rana Pratap Sagar/Rawatbhata) with Canadian help.

Step 2: Indigenous build.

Narora APS (Uttar Pradesh) housed India’s first fully indigenously designed and constructed PHWR units (220 MWe).
Quick Tip: Indigenous first → \(\textbf{Narora}\); earliest plant → Tarapur (with U.S. support).


Question 38:

Which type of power plant is at Manikaran (Himachal Pradesh)?

  • (1) Nuclear power plant
  • (2) Geothermal power plant
  • (3) Thermal power plant
  • (4) Hydel power plant
Correct Answer: (2) Geothermal power plant
View Solution



Step 1: Site feature.

Manikaran is famous for hot springs.

Step 2: Power type.

A pilot geothermal project exploits subsurface heat there.
Quick Tip: Hot springs → geothermal potential (Manikaran, Puga).


Question 39:

With which mineral is natural gas found?

  • (1) Uranium
  • (2) Petroleum
  • (3) Limestone
  • (4) Coal
Correct Answer: (2) Petroleum
View Solution



Step 1: Occurrence.

Natural gas typically occurs in association with petroleum in sedimentary basins (as associated or free gas).

Step 2: Eliminate distractors.

Uranium is a nuclear mineral; limestone and coal are unrelated.
Quick Tip: Oil and gas fields commonly coexist — think “petroleum & natural gas.”


Question 40:

Where was the iron and steel industry built with the help of Britain?

  • (1) Bokaro
  • (2) Rourkela
  • (3) Salem
  • (4) Durgapur
Correct Answer: (4) Durgapur
View Solution



Step 1: Foreign collaborations of early steel plants.

Rourkela — Germany; Bhilai/Bokaro — USSR; Durgapur — United Kingdom (Britain).

Step 2: Conclusion.

Hence, the British-assisted plant is Durgapur (West Bengal).
Quick Tip: Match the trio: Rourkela–Germany, Bhilai/Bokaro–USSR, \(\textbf{Durgapur–UK}\).


Question 41:

Which of the following is a regional party?

  • (1) Lok Janshakti Party
  • (2) Bahujan Samaj Party
  • (3) Jharkhand Mukti Morcha
  • (4) Bharatiya Janata Party
Correct Answer: (3) Jharkhand Mukti Morcha
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding national vs regional.

National parties operate at the national level with recognition in multiple states. Regional parties mainly function within a particular state or region.

Step 2: Analysis of options.

Lok Janshakti Party and Bahujan Samaj Party have a wider base but not fully national; BJP is a recognized national party. Jharkhand Mukti Morcha is a regional party based in Jharkhand.
Quick Tip: National party = recognized in at least 4 states; Regional party = state-specific.


Question 42:

Bungalow is the election symbol of which political party?

  • (1) Samajwadi Party
  • (2) Rashtriya Janta Dal
  • (3) Lok Janshakti Party
  • (4) Communist Party of India
Correct Answer: (3) Lok Janshakti Party
View Solution



Step 1: Election symbols.

Symbols are allotted by the Election Commission of India to ensure voter recognition.

Step 2: Specific knowledge.

The Lok Janshakti Party has the election symbol of a Bungalow.
Quick Tip: Election symbols help voters identify parties despite literacy barriers.


Question 43:

Narmada Valley Project is related to which states?

  • (1) Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh
  • (2) Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Karnataka
  • (3) West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh, Punjab
  • (4) Gujarat, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh
Correct Answer: (4) Gujarat, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh
View Solution



Step 1: Background.

The Narmada Valley Project is a major multipurpose river valley development project.

Step 2: States covered.

It involves dams, canals, and power stations mainly in Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, and Maharashtra.
Quick Tip: Sardar Sarovar Dam is the most famous dam of the Narmada Valley Project.


Question 44:

Who among the following was a prominent leader of the Bhartiya Kisan Union?

  • (1) Jayprakash Narayan
  • (2) Chaudhary Charan Singh
  • (3) Mahendra Singh Tikait
  • (4) Morarji Desai
Correct Answer: (3) Mahendra Singh Tikait
View Solution



Step 1: About BKU.

The Bhartiya Kisan Union (BKU) is a farmers' organization active in North India.

Step 2: Leadership.

Mahendra Singh Tikait was its most prominent leader, organizing several farmers’ movements in western Uttar Pradesh.
Quick Tip: BKU has been instrumental in farmers’ rights movements since the 1980s.


Question 45:

What is the term of Zilla Parishad?

  • (1) 4 years
  • (2) 5 years
  • (3) 6 years
  • (4) 2 years
Correct Answer: (2) 5 years
View Solution



Step 1: Panchayati Raj institutions.

Zilla Parishad is the district-level body in the three-tier Panchayati Raj system.

Step 2: Tenure.

The normal term of Zilla Parishad members is 5 years, unless dissolved earlier.
Quick Tip: All bodies in the Panchayati Raj system (Gram Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti, Zilla Parishad) have a 5-year tenure.


Question 46:

Where was the Panchayati Raj system started?

  • (1) Bihar
  • (2) Rajasthan
  • (3) Karnataka
  • (4) Maharashtra
Correct Answer: (2) Rajasthan
View Solution



Step 1: Historical background.

The Panchayati Raj system was inaugurated in 1959 by Prime Minister Nehru.

Step 2: Place.

The first Panchayati Raj system was introduced in Nagaur district, Rajasthan.
Quick Tip: Rajasthan first, followed by Andhra Pradesh.


Question 47:

Who is the head of Gram Panchayat?

  • (1) Parshad
  • (2) Mayor
  • (3) Commissioner
  • (4) Mukhiya
Correct Answer: (4) Mukhiya
View Solution



Step 1: Gram Panchayat structure.

At the village level, the Gram Panchayat is the primary unit of Panchayati Raj.

Step 2: Head designation.

The elected head of Gram Panchayat is called Mukhiya or Sarpanch.
Quick Tip: Gram Panchayat head = Mukhiya/Sarpanch; Nagar head = Mayor.


Question 48:

Who appoints the Governor?

  • (1) President
  • (2) Prime Minister
  • (3) Vice-President
  • (4) Chief Minister
Correct Answer: (1) President
View Solution



Step 1: Constitutional provision.

Article 155 states that the Governor of a state is appointed by the President of India.

Step 2: Clarification.

Though appointed formally by the President, it is on the advice of the Union Cabinet.
Quick Tip: Governor = appointed by President, serves usually for 5 years.


Question 49:

To which country is Aung San Suu Kyi related?

  • (1) South Africa
  • (2) Myanmar
  • (3) Sri Lanka
  • (4) Bhutan
Correct Answer: (2) Myanmar
View Solution



Step 1: About Aung San Suu Kyi.

She is a Nobel Peace Prize laureate known for her struggle for democracy in Myanmar.

Step 2: Eliminate others.

She has no political connection with South Africa, Sri Lanka, or Bhutan.
Quick Tip: Remember: Nelson Mandela → South Africa; Aung San Suu Kyi → Myanmar.


Question 50:

When was the Indian National Congress established?

  • (1) 1732
  • (2) 1885
  • (3) 1890
  • (4) 1945
Correct Answer: (2) 1885
View Solution



Step 1: Foundation year.

The Indian National Congress was founded in 1885 in Bombay by Allan Octavian Hume.

Step 2: Importance.

It played a key role in India’s independence movement.
Quick Tip: INC established in 1885 → Bombay session, presided by W.C. Bonnerjee.


Question 51:

What was the main cause of the mass struggle in Bolivia?

  • (1) Water price hike
  • (2) Increase in the price of food grains
  • (3) Petrol price hike
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (1) Water price hike
View Solution



Step 1: Recall the Cochabamba movement (2000).

Bolivia privatized water supply in Cochabamba; prices shot up drastically.

Step 2: Outcome.

Mass protests forced the government to cancel privatization. Hence, the trigger was a water price hike.
Quick Tip: Link “Bolivia mass struggle” with “Cochabamba Water War” → price rise in water.


Question 52:

Which of the following papers changed its language overnight to avoid the Vernacular Press Act?

  • (1) Harijan
  • (2) Amrita Bazar Patrika
  • (3) Maratha
  • (4) Young India
Correct Answer: (2) Amrita Bazar Patrika
View Solution



To escape the 1878 Act targeting Indian-language papers, Amrita Bazar Patrika switched from Bengali to English literally overnight.
Quick Tip: Remember: Amrita Bazar Patrika → overnight Bengali to English shift (1878).


Question 53:

Where did printing start first in the world?

  • (1) China
  • (2) India
  • (3) Japan
  • (4) Britain
Correct Answer: (1) China
View Solution



Block printing originated in China (Tang/Song periods), later spreading to Korea, Japan, and then Europe.
Quick Tip: Printing origins: China → East Asia → Europe (Gutenberg).


Question 54:

In which of the following conferences was Germany’s compensation (reparations) reduced?

  • (1) Kyoto conference
  • (2) Vienna conference
  • (3) Rio-de-Janeiro conference
  • (4) Lausanne conference
Correct Answer: (4) Lausanne conference
View Solution



At the Lausanne Conference (1932) creditor nations effectively cancelled most of Germany’s WWI reparations owing to the Great Depression.
Quick Tip: Reparations relief → \(\textbf{Lausanne 1932}\); Dawes/Young Plans preceded it.


Question 55:

Who implemented the ‘New Deal’ in America?

  • (1) Abraham Lincoln
  • (2) Franklin D. Roosevelt
  • (3) Barack Obama
  • (4) Nixon
Correct Answer: (2) Franklin D. Roosevelt
View Solution



During the Great Depression, President F. D. Roosevelt launched the New Deal—programs of relief, recovery, and reform (from 1933).
Quick Tip: New Deal = FDR, 1930s: CCC, WPA, Social Security, etc.


Question 56:

Which machine did John Kay invent?

  • (1) Spinning Jenny
  • (2) Powerloom
  • (3) Flying shuttle
  • (4) Steam engine
Correct Answer: (3) Flying shuttle
View Solution



John Kay (1733) invented the flying shuttle, speeding up weaving; Spinning Jenny (Hargreaves), powerloom (Cartwright), steam engine (Newcomen/Watt).
Quick Tip: Match makers: Kay—Flying shuttle; Hargreaves—Spinning Jenny; Cartwright—Powerloom.


Question 57:

Who repealed the Vernacular Press Act?

  • (1) Lord Lytton
  • (2) Lord Ripon
  • (3) Lord Dalhousie
  • (4) Lord Irwin
Correct Answer: (2) Lord Ripon
View Solution



The repressive Act (1878) was enacted by Lytton but repealed in 1882 by Lord Ripon, who favored liberal policies.
Quick Tip: Lytton—imposed; \(\textbf{Ripon—repealed}\) the Vernacular Press Act.


Question 58:

What was the minority party called in Russia?

  • (1) Bolshevik
  • (2) Menshevik
  • (3) Proletariat
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (2) Menshevik
View Solution



After a split in the Russian Social Democratic Labour Party (1903), Mensheviks (minority) and Bolsheviks (majority) emerged.
Quick Tip: Mnemonic: Mens = \(\textbf{Men}\)shewik = Minority; Bolshoi (big) → Bolshevik (majority).


Question 59:

Where was Bao Dai’s government?

  • (1) North Vietnam
  • (2) South Vietnam
  • (3) Cambodia
  • (4) Hanoi
Correct Answer: (2) South Vietnam
View Solution



Emperor Bao Dai was made Chief of State of the State of Vietnam (South Vietnam) by the French (1949–55), based in Saigon.
Quick Tip: North—Ho Chi Minh; South—Bao Dai (later Ngo Dinh Diem).


Question 60:

When was the unification of North and South Vietnam held?

  • (1) 1960
  • (2) 1965
  • (3) 1975
  • (4) 1976
Correct Answer: (4) 1976
View Solution



Though Saigon fell in 1975 ending the war, formal reunification occurred on 2 July 1976, creating the Socialist Republic of Vietnam.
Quick Tip: War ended 1975; official unification \(\textbf{1976}\).


Question 61:

Who of the following contributed to the completion of the unification of Italy?

  • (1) Mazzini
  • (2) Count Cavour
  • (3) Victor Emmanuel
  • (4) All of them
Correct Answer: (4) All of them
View Solution



Step 1: Roles.

Mazzini inspired nationalism; Cavour (Prime Minister of Piedmont) pursued diplomacy and wars; Victor Emmanuel II became king of unified Italy. Together with Garibaldi, they completed unification (1861–70). Hence all contributed.
Quick Tip: Italian unification pillars: \(\textbf{Mazzini}\) (ideology), \(\textbf{Cavour}\) (diplomacy), \(\textbf{Garibaldi}\) (military), \(\textbf{Victor Emmanuel II}\) (monarchy).


Question 62:

Hegel was the philosopher of which country?

  • (1) France
  • (2) Italy
  • (3) Germany
  • (4) Austria
Correct Answer: (3) Germany
View Solution



G. W. F. Hegel was a leading German idealist philosopher who taught at Berlin and influenced European political thought.
Quick Tip: Match: Hegel—\(\textbf{Germany}\); Rousseau—France; Machiavelli—Italy.


Question 63:

Who had created the state (Confederation) of the Rhine in Germany?

  • (1) Louis XVIII
  • (2) Napoleon Bonaparte
  • (3) Napoleon III
  • (4) Bismarck
Correct Answer: (2) Napoleon Bonaparte
View Solution



In 1806, Napoleon I reorganized German states into the Confederation of the Rhine after defeating Austria and Prussia.
Quick Tip: Reparations relief (1932) = Lausanne; Rhine Confederation (1806) = \(\textbf{Napoleon}\).


Question 64:

Which organization announced/recognized International Women’s Day?

  • (1) International Women Commission
  • (2) United Nations Organisation
  • (3) European Union
  • (4) ASEAN
Correct Answer: (2) United Nations Organisation
View Solution



Though activist origins were earlier, the United Nations officially recognized 8 March as International Women’s Day, giving it global status.
Quick Tip: 8 March → IWD → \(\textbf{UN}\)-recognized observance.


Question 65:

Taka is the currency of which country?

  • (1) Singapore
  • (2) Iraq
  • (3) Nepal
  • (4) Bangladesh
Correct Answer: (4) Bangladesh
View Solution



Bangladeshi Taka (BDT) is the legal tender of Bangladesh. Others: Singapore Dollar, Iraqi Dinar, Nepalese Rupee.
Quick Tip: South Asia currencies: India—INR; Nepal—NPR; Sri Lanka—LKR; \(\textbf{Bangladesh—BDT}\).


Question 66:

When was the first Regional Rural Bank established in Bihar?

  • (1) 1974
  • (2) 1975
  • (3) 1976
  • (4) 1977
Correct Answer: (2) 1975
View Solution



RRBs in India began in 1975; the first batch (including Bihar) was set up on 2 October 1975 to expand rural credit.
Quick Tip: RRB launch year to memorize: \(\textbf{1975}\).


Question 67:

At what level does the Central Cooperative Bank work?

  • (1) Village level
  • (2) District level
  • (3) State level
  • (4) National level
Correct Answer: (2) District level
View Solution



India’s cooperative structure is three-tiered: PACS (village), Central Cooperative Bank (district), and State Cooperative Bank (state).
Quick Tip: PACS → village; \(\textbf{CCB → district}\); SCB → state.


Question 68:

What type of loan is provided to the farmers by the Primary Agricultural Credit Society (PACS)?

  • (1) Short term
  • (2) Medium term
  • (3) Long term
  • (4) All of these
Correct Answer: (1) Short term
View Solution



PACS primarily provide short-term (and some medium-term) crop loans for seasonal needs; long-term finance is handled by land development banks.
Quick Tip: Think “PACS = crop loans now” → short-term credit.


Question 69:

What is the third sector of economic development?

  • (1) Agriculture
  • (2) Industry
  • (3) Manufacturing
  • (4) Service
Correct Answer: (4) Service
View Solution



Sectoral classification: Primary = Agriculture, Secondary = Industry/Manufacturing, Tertiary = Service. Hence the third sector is services.
Quick Tip: 1° Agriculture, 2° Industry, 3° \(\textbf{Services}\) (trade, transport, IT, finance).


Question 70:

Removal of unnecessary controls and restrictions imposed by the government is called:

  • (1) Privatization
  • (2) Liberalization
  • (3) Globalization
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (2) Liberalization
View Solution



Liberalization reduces state regulations to allow freer markets. Privatization transfers ownership to private firms; globalization means increasing international integration.
Quick Tip: 1991 reforms = \(\textbf{L}\)iberalization, \(\textbf{P}\)rivatization, \(\textbf{G}\)lobalization (LPG).


Question 71:

Where is the headquarters of World Trade Organization?

  • (1) New York
  • (2) Washington D.C.
  • (3) Geneva
  • (4) Rome
Correct Answer: (3) Geneva
View Solution

The WTO, which administers global trade rules, is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland. New York is the UN HQ; Washington D.C. houses IMF/World Bank; Rome is FAO HQ.
Quick Tip: Trade body HQs: \(\textbf{WTO—Geneva}\); \(\textbf{IMF/World Bank—Washington D.C.}\); \(\textbf{FAO—Rome}\).


Question 72:

How many State Commissions are currently working for consumer protection?

  • (1) 34
  • (2) 35
  • (3) 32
  • (4) 36
Correct Answer: (4) 36
View Solution

Under the Consumer Protection Act structure, each state/UT has a commission. With 28 states + 8 UTs = 36, there are 36 commissions.
Quick Tip: Think “one per state/UT” → total \(\textbf{36}\).


Question 73:

The centre of the Hooghly industrial region is

  • (1) Kolkata — Rishra
  • (2) Kolkata — Konnagar
  • (3) Kolkata — Medinipur
  • (4) Kolkata — Howrah
Correct Answer: (4) Kolkata — Howrah
View Solution

The Hooghly belt is anchored by the twin cities Kolkata–Howrah along the Hooghly River, around which jute and engineering industries concentrate.
Quick Tip: “Twin-city core” of the region = \(\textbf{Kolkata–Howrah}\).


Question 74:

Which is the smallest railway zone in India?

  • (1) Northern railways
  • (2) North-east Frontier railways
  • (3) South-eastern railways
  • (4) East coastal railways
Correct Answer: (2) North-east Frontier railways
View Solution

By route length/coverage among these options, Northeast Frontier Railway is the smallest zone.
Quick Tip: Smallest (given options): \(\textbf{Northeast Frontier Railway}\).


Question 75:

Where is Falta Special Economic Zone located?

  • (1) Bihar
  • (2) West Bengal
  • (3) Kerala
  • (4) Odisha
Correct Answer: (2) West Bengal
View Solution

Falta SEZ is near Kolkata in South 24 Parganas district, West Bengal.
Quick Tip: SEZ near Kolkata? — \(\textbf{Falta (West Bengal)}\).


Question 76:

Where was the first cement plant established in India?

  • (1) Delhi
  • (2) Kolkata
  • (3) Mumbai
  • (4) Chennai
Correct Answer: (4) Chennai
View Solution

India’s first cement factory started in 1904 at Madras (Chennai).
Quick Tip: First cement plant — \(\textbf{1904, Chennai}\).


Question 77:

Which city is known as the ‘Birmingham of India’?

  • (1) Bokaro
  • (2) Jamshedpur
  • (3) Bhilai
  • (4) Rewari
Correct Answer: (2) Jamshedpur
View Solution

Jamshedpur—home to Tata Steel—has heavy industry akin to Britain’s Birmingham, hence the nickname.
Quick Tip: Jamshedpur = Steel City / \(\textbf{Birmingham of India}\).


Question 78:

Which of the following is a fossil fuel?

  • (1) Coal
  • (2) Petroleum
  • (3) Natural Gas
  • (4) All of these
Correct Answer: (4) All of these
View Solution

Coal, petroleum, and natural gas are all fossil fuels formed from ancient organic matter.
Quick Tip: All three—coal, oil, gas—are fossil fuels.


Question 79:

When was the Tiger Project (Project Tiger) started?

  • (1) 1970
  • (2) 1973
  • (3) 1975
  • (4) 1978
Correct Answer: (2) 1973
View Solution

Launched in 1973, Project Tiger aimed to conserve tigers and their habitats, beginning with nine reserves.
Quick Tip: 1973 — Indira Gandhi — start of \(\textbf{Project Tiger}\).


Question 80:

Where is Kaziranga National Park located?

  • (1) Rajasthan
  • (2) Uttar Pradesh
  • (3) Uttarakhand
  • (4) Assam
Correct Answer: (4) Assam
View Solution

Kaziranga National Park—famous for the one-horned rhinoceros—is situated in Assam on the Brahmaputra floodplains.
Quick Tip: One-horned rhino hotspot → \(\textbf{Kaziranga, Assam}\).


Section - B
History

Short Answer Type

Question 1:

What was the main objective of the government formed under the leadership of Kerensky after the March Revolution?

Correct Answer:
The main objective of the Kerensky-led government was to establish democracy in Russia, introduce political reforms, and continue participation in World War I. It aimed to replace autocracy with a provisional democratic system while ensuring law, order, and gradual transition to a permanent representative government.
View Solution



After the March Revolution of 1917, Tsar Nicholas II abdicated, and a Provisional Government under Alexander Kerensky was formed. Its main aim was to introduce democratic reforms and safeguard civil liberties. The government tried to maintain Russia’s participation in World War I to honor commitments to allies, but this created unrest among the masses and soldiers who wanted peace. It also sought to create a balance between workers, peasants, and the elite, but failed to implement strong land reforms. Ultimately, the government’s inability to address people’s issues weakened it, paving the way for the Bolshevik takeover in November 1917. Quick Tip: Kerensky’s Provisional Government focused on democracy but failed due to war continuation and lack of land reforms.


Question 2:

Why was the New Economic Policy announced by Lenin?

Correct Answer:
Lenin introduced the New Economic Policy (NEP) in 1921 to recover the Russian economy after the civil war. It allowed limited private trade, encouraged agricultural production, and replaced forced grain requisition with a tax. Its goal was to revive industry, agriculture, and restore public confidence.
View Solution



The Russian economy was in deep crisis after World War I and the civil war. Lenin realized that the policy of “War Communism” had failed as it led to famine, strikes, and unrest among peasants. To stabilize the economy, Lenin announced the NEP, which allowed peasants to sell surplus produce in the open market after paying a tax in kind. Small industries, private trade, and foreign investments were permitted, while major industries remained under state control. This mixed economy helped revive agriculture, boosted trade, and restored faith in the government. Though temporary, NEP stabilized Russia until full socialism could be reintroduced. Quick Tip: NEP was a compromise between socialism and capitalism, designed to save Russia’s economy.


Question 3:

What was the utility of the Ho-Chi-Minh route?

Correct Answer:
The Ho-Chi-Minh route was crucial for North Vietnam during the Vietnam War. It served as a supply line to transport troops, weapons, and resources into South Vietnam. It helped sustain guerrilla warfare against U.S. forces and symbolized the determination of Vietnamese resistance.
View Solution



The Ho-Chi-Minh route was a vast network of jungle paths and tunnels connecting North Vietnam to South Vietnam through Laos and Cambodia. It played a strategic role in supplying food, weapons, and soldiers to the Viet Cong in the south. Despite heavy U.S. bombing campaigns, the route remained functional due to continuous rebuilding by Vietnamese forces. It enabled the North Vietnamese to fight a prolonged guerrilla war against the technologically superior U.S. army. Its utility lay not only in logistics but also in keeping morale high, showing the resilience of the Vietnamese people in their struggle for unification. Quick Tip: The Ho-Chi-Minh route proved that determination and strategy can overcome superior military technology.


Question 4:

What do you understand by the Rowlatt Act?

Correct Answer:
The Rowlatt Act of 1919 empowered the British government in India to arrest people without trial, restrict press freedom, and suppress nationalist movements. It was widely opposed as “black law” and triggered nationwide protests, including Gandhi’s first mass movement, the Rowlatt Satyagraha.
View Solution



The Rowlatt Act, officially the Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act of 1919, was passed by the British to curb political unrest in India. It allowed the government to arrest and imprison individuals suspected of anti-British activities without trial for two years. Press restrictions and curbs on freedom of speech angered Indians. The Act violated principles of justice and civil rights, earning it the name “black law.” Gandhi strongly opposed it and called for the Rowlatt Satyagraha, which spread across India. The Jallianwala Bagh massacre occurred during its protest, making the Act a turning point in India’s freedom struggle. Quick Tip: Rowlatt Act showed how repressive laws fueled Indian unity against colonial rule.


Question 5:

State any two reasons for the development of the Factory System.

Correct Answer:
The development of the factory system was driven mainly by (i) the invention of new machines during the Industrial Revolution, which required large-scale production, and (ii) the availability of cheap labor and capital, which encouraged entrepreneurs to establish industries.
View Solution



The factory system emerged in England during the Industrial Revolution in the 18th century. The invention of machines like the spinning jenny, power loom, and steam engine required centralized workplaces where machines could be operated efficiently. This led to the establishment of factories. The availability of abundant raw materials from colonies and the rise of capitalist investments also promoted factory growth. Factories offered division of labor, mass production, and higher profits. They revolutionized production by replacing manual handicrafts with mechanized industries. The system also transformed society, leading to urbanization, growth of working-class communities, and eventually trade union movements. Quick Tip: The factory system marked the shift from hand production to machine-based industry.


Question 6:

Under what circumstances was the Indian National Congress established?

Correct Answer:
The Indian National Congress was founded in 1885 to create a political platform for Indians. It was established due to rising political awareness, socio-religious reforms, economic hardships caused by British policies, and the need for unity among educated Indians to demand constitutional reforms.
View Solution



The Indian National Congress was formed under the initiative of A.O. Hume, a retired British officer, with support from Indian leaders. By the late 19th century, educated Indians were deeply dissatisfied with British economic policies that drained India’s wealth. Famines, poverty, and unemployment increased unrest. Social reform movements had spread awareness, and newspapers and education gave Indians a sense of unity. Leaders like Dadabhai Naoroji, Surendranath Banerjee, and W.C. Bonnerjee realized the need for a national political platform. Thus, in 1885, the Congress was established to present Indian demands peacefully before the British, marking the beginning of organized political struggle. Quick Tip: The founding of the INC in 1885 was the first step toward India’s united political freedom struggle.


Long Answer Type

Question 7:

How did English education play an important role in the rise of Indian nationalism?

Correct Answer:
English education created a new educated middle class in India, which was exposed to modern democratic values, liberal thought, and nationalist ideas. It encouraged awareness about liberty, equality, and self-rule. Indian leaders learned about parliamentary systems, constitutional reforms, and human rights through English writings. This inspired them to demand independence and strengthened unity across regions and communities.
View Solution



English education introduced by the British in the 19th century was initially meant to produce clerks and administrators loyal to the colonial regime. However, it unintentionally became a key factor in the rise of Indian nationalism. Through English education, Indians came into contact with the works of European philosophers, revolutionaries, and political thinkers such as Rousseau, Voltaire, and John Stuart Mill. These writings inspired Indians with ideas of democracy, nationalism, and freedom. It also enabled educated Indians from different linguistic and cultural backgrounds to communicate in a common language, fostering unity. Newspapers, journals, and political pamphlets in English and vernacular languages spread nationalist awareness further. English education created a generation of leaders such as Dadabhai Naoroji, Surendranath Banerjee, Bal Gangadhar Tilak, and later Gandhi and Nehru, who used these ideas to mobilize the masses. Thus, while intended for colonial purposes, English education laid the foundation for the national awakening of India. Quick Tip: English education acted as both a unifying factor and a source of revolutionary political thought, helping Indians develop a modern outlook and demand freedom.


Question 8:

Discuss the impact of the Russian Revolution.

Correct Answer:
The Russian Revolution of 1917 had a worldwide impact as it ended monarchy in Russia, established the first communist state, and inspired anti-colonial struggles globally. It encouraged workers and peasants to demand equality, social justice, and the right to self-determination. In India, it influenced leaders and strengthened socialist and communist movements.
View Solution

N/A Quick Tip: The Russian Revolution proved that an organized mass movement could overthrow centuries of monarchy and create a new system, influencing global freedom and equality struggles.


Political Science

Short Answer Type

Question 9:

What do you mean by social division?

Correct Answer:
Social division means the segmentation of society into groups based on markers such as caste, class, religion, language, ethnicity, region or gender. These identities shape interests and opportunities. Divisions may overlap or cross-cut. In democracies they can be channelled through institutions for accommodation, but if mishandled they may cause conflict.
View Solution



Every society contains many identities. When people identify more with one group than another, society gets divided into segments—caste hierarchies, religious communities, linguistic regions, rural–urban classes, and gender lines. These differences influence access to power and resources. Divisions may be overlapping (e.g., same group also poor) or cross-cutting (members spread across classes), producing different political effects. Democratic politics seeks to manage diversity by constitutional rights, affirmative action, federalism and power-sharing. Parties, movements and civil society transform differences into demands that can be negotiated. Thus social division is not inherently harmful; it turns dangerous only when politicised with exclusion or hatred. Quick Tip: Use the pair: overlapping divisions = high conflict risk; cross-cutting divisions = easier accommodation.


Question 10:

Write the sources of income of Municipal Corporation.

Correct Answer:
Major sources include property/house tax, water and sanitation charges, trade and professional licence fees, advertisement and parking fees, user charges and rents, betterment and development charges, fines and penalties, grants-in-aid and revenue-sharing from state/Union governments, share of stamp duty, cess/surcharges, loans and municipal bonds, and income from municipal enterprises.
View Solution



Urban local bodies finance services through their own taxes and non-tax revenue plus inter-governmental transfers. The backbone is property tax on land and buildings. Other taxes/cess include advertisement tax, entertainment tax (where applicable) and profession tax. Non-tax revenue arises from water supply, sewerage, solid waste fees, parking, markets, rents from municipal properties and building permits. Corporations also levy impact/betterment charges on developers, collect penalties and issue trade licences. Higher-level governments provide tied and untied grants, GST compensation shares, and assigned revenues such as a portion of stamp duty or motor vehicle tax. For capital projects, cities may borrow or issue municipal bonds backed by escrowed revenues. Quick Tip: Remember the trio: own taxes, user charges, and grants/borrowing—together fund city services.


Question 11:

What is the role of a political party in the formation of public opinion?

Correct Answer:
Parties aggregate interests, convert issues into programs, and communicate them through manifestos, campaigns, rallies, debates and social media. They provide cues to voters, educate citizens on policies, mobilise participation, commission surveys, set the agenda in legislatures and media, and nurture leaders who interpret events—thereby shaping, refining and directing public opinion.
View Solution



Public opinion is not spontaneous; it is organised. Parties collect demands from social groups, unions and communities and frame them into coherent platforms. Through manifestos, spokespersons and issue-based campaigns they simplify complex policies and present alternatives. During elections and between them, parties run meetings, padyatras, door-to-door canvassing and digital outreach that popularise certain narratives. In legislatures, they raise questions, propose bills and highlight scandals, all of which receive media attention and influence what citizens consider important. Party think-tanks produce data and surveys to test messages. Internal democracy and responsible communication improve quality of opinion, while demagoguery and misinformation can distort it. Thus parties act as key intermediaries between society and state in opinion formation. Quick Tip: Link three verbs to parties: aggregate interests, articulate policies, mobilise citizens → public opinion forms.


Question 12:

State two features of Indian Federal system.

Correct Answer:
Two core features are: (i) division of powers between Union and States through a written Constitution and three lists in the Seventh Schedule; and (ii) an independent judiciary headed by the Supreme Court to interpret the Constitution and resolve Centre–State disputes. Indian federalism is cooperative with a comparatively strong Centre.
View Solution



India has a dual polity—Union and States—created by a written, supreme Constitution. Legislative, administrative and fiscal powers are allocated by Union, State and Concurrent Lists, and residuary powers rest with the Union. The Constitution is supreme; both levels derive authority from it, not from each other. An integrated judiciary with the Supreme Court at the apex safeguards fundamental rights and adjudicates Centre–State conflicts. Features such as single citizenship, all-India services, integrated election machinery and emergency provisions make Indian federalism tilted toward a strong Union, yet cooperative and flexible through institutions like the Inter-State Council, Finance Commission and GST Council that enable shared rule with self-rule. Quick Tip: Write “Division of powers + Supreme Constitution + Independent judiciary” to fetch full marks on federal features.


Long Answer Type

Question 13:

How does the Federal system help in promoting the values of national unity?

Correct Answer:
The federal system helps in promoting national unity by balancing power between the central and state governments, ensuring equal representation, and protecting the diversity of languages, cultures, and traditions. It creates a framework where people from different regions feel included and respected, thus strengthening the sense of belonging and unity.
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Federal System.
The federal system distributes powers between central and state governments. This prevents concentration of power and allows states to govern according to their specific needs.

Step 2: Protection of Diversity.
By giving autonomy to states, federalism safeguards cultural, linguistic, and regional identities. People feel their distinctiveness is respected, which reduces conflicts and promotes harmony.

Step 3: Ensuring Equal Representation.
Federalism ensures representation of all states in national decision-making, giving every region a voice in the democratic process.

Step 4: Promoting Unity.
Through shared governance, cooperative federalism fosters trust between the centre and states, thereby strengthening the spirit of national unity. Quick Tip: Federalism maintains balance by uniting diversity under one nation while respecting regional autonomy.


Question 14:

How does coalition politics affect democracy?

Correct Answer:
Coalition politics affects democracy both positively and negatively. On one hand, it ensures broader representation and power-sharing, giving smaller parties a chance to participate in governance. On the other hand, it may lead to instability, frequent compromises, and slow decision-making due to conflicting interests of different coalition partners.
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding Coalition Politics.
Coalition politics arises when no single party secures a majority and multiple parties join hands to form a government.

Step 2: Positive Impact.
Coalition politics enhances democratic values by representing diverse groups and regions. It reduces authoritarian tendencies, increases accountability, and ensures that governance reflects multiple viewpoints.

Step 3: Negative Impact.
However, it can weaken stability, as coalitions often break due to ideological differences. It may also cause policy paralysis when parties focus more on retaining power than on national interest.

Step 4: Democratic Balance.
Despite challenges, coalition politics promotes inclusiveness and checks the dominance of a single party, thereby enriching democratic governance. Quick Tip: Coalition politics encourages inclusiveness but requires cooperation and compromise for stability.


Economics

Short Answer Type

Question 15:

Explain the difference between economic development and economic growth.

Correct Answer: Economic growth refers to an increase in the output of goods and services in a country measured by GDP, while economic development is a broader concept that includes growth along with improvements in living standards, health, education, equality, and overall quality of life.
View Solution

Economic growth is quantitative and indicates how much a country produces within a given period, generally measured in terms of GDP or GNP. It does not consider social welfare or distribution of wealth. On the other hand, economic development is qualitative, encompassing social progress, poverty reduction, better health and education facilities, and equitable distribution of income. For example, a country may have high GDP growth, but if inequality, poverty, and illiteracy remain high, then true development has not occurred. Hence, while growth is necessary, development ensures inclusive and sustainable progress. Quick Tip: Growth is about quantity; development is about quality and inclusiveness.


Question 16:

What do you mean by Core Banking System?

Correct Answer: Core Banking System (CBS) is a centralized system that allows customers to access banking services from any branch of the same bank, enabling facilities like deposits, withdrawals, fund transfers, and account management in real-time.
View Solution

Core Banking System integrates all branches of a bank through networking and computerization. Under CBS, data and transactions are stored at a central server, allowing customers to operate their accounts from any branch, known as "anywhere banking." It provides efficiency in operations, reduces duplication, and enhances customer convenience. Services such as online banking, ATM access, mobile banking, and NEFT/RTGS are supported by CBS. This system has transformed banking by increasing transparency, accessibility, and speed, thus making financial services more customer-friendly and technology-driven. Quick Tip: CBS enables “anywhere, anytime banking” for customers.


Question 17:

Establish the relationship between income and poverty.

Correct Answer: Income and poverty are directly related. Low income leads to poverty, as it restricts access to basic needs like food, education, and healthcare, while higher income reduces poverty by improving living standards and opportunities.
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Poverty is primarily defined by inadequate income, which prevents individuals or families from meeting basic needs. Income determines the purchasing power of people; if it is low, individuals cannot afford nutritious food, education, healthcare, and housing, leading to a cycle of poverty. On the other hand, increased income provides resources to access essential services, break poverty cycles, and improve quality of life. Governments often use income-based measures like per capita income or poverty line to assess poverty levels. Thus, tackling poverty requires increasing income through employment generation, skill development, and equitable resource distribution. Quick Tip: Rising income reduces poverty, but equitable distribution is equally important.


Question 18:

What do you understand by self-help group?

Correct Answer: A Self-Help Group (SHG) is a voluntary group of people, usually from similar socio-economic backgrounds, who pool savings and resources together to provide mutual financial and social support, often promoting small-scale income-generating activities.
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Self-Help Groups are small groups, often consisting of 10–20 members, usually women, who save money collectively and use it for lending to members at low interest. SHGs empower people, especially rural women, by promoting financial independence, decision-making, and entrepreneurial activities. They provide access to microcredit without depending on moneylenders, encourage thrift, and build confidence among members. Many SHGs are linked to banks under government schemes, making them an effective tool for poverty reduction and rural development. Beyond finance, SHGs also play a social role in raising awareness on health, education, and community development. Quick Tip: SHGs empower rural communities, especially women, through savings and collective action.


Long Answer Type

Question 19:

Write in detail the components of globalization.

Correct Answer: Globalization consists of four major components: economic globalization, cultural globalization, political globalization, and technological globalization. Economic globalization refers to trade, investment, and finance across borders. Cultural globalization spreads ideas, values, and traditions worldwide. Political globalization emphasizes international cooperation, while technological globalization enables connectivity and faster communication globally.
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Globalization is the process of increasing interconnectedness of nations in various domains. Its key components include economic, political, cultural, and technological integration. Economic globalization is marked by the flow of goods, services, and capital across nations. Political globalization highlights cooperation through organizations like the UN and WTO. Cultural globalization spreads values, languages, and lifestyles across societies. Technological globalization, driven by internet and digital communication, enables instant exchange of ideas and innovations globally. Together, these components promote global trade, cooperation, and cultural exchange but also raise challenges such as inequality, loss of local identity, and dependency on global markets. Quick Tip: Globalization is not limited to economy; it also involves culture, politics, and technology.


Question 20:

State the meaning of national income. Discuss the main methods of its calculation.

Correct Answer: National income is the total value of all final goods and services produced in a country within a year. It reflects the economic performance of a nation. The three main methods of its calculation are: Production method, Income method, and Expenditure method.
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National income refers to the monetary value of all goods and services produced by a country in a given financial year. It indicates the economic strength and living standards of a nation. The three main methods of calculation are: (1) Production method – measures the total output of goods and services produced; (2) Income method – sums up incomes earned by individuals and firms including wages, rent, interest, and profit; (3) Expenditure method – calculates the total expenditure on final goods and services, including consumption, investment, government spending, and net exports. These methods ensure accuracy and provide a comprehensive picture of economic performance. Quick Tip: National income helps compare the economic performance of nations and assess growth over time.


Geography

Short Answer Type

Question 21:

What is Golden Quadrilateral Highway?

Correct Answer:
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N/A Quick Tip: Golden Quadrilateral enhances connectivity, reduces transport costs, and supports economic growth.


Question 22:

Name two non-metallic minerals.

Correct Answer:
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N/A Quick Tip: Non-metallic minerals are mainly used in industries like cement, glass, ceramics, and energy production.


Question 23:

How is solar energy produced?

Correct Answer:
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N/A Quick Tip: Solar panels convert sunlight into electricity, while solar thermal plants produce heat energy for power generation.


Question 24:

What is Biodiversity?

Correct Answer:
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N/A Quick Tip: Biodiversity ensures ecological stability and sustains human life through resources and ecosystem services.


Question 25:

What do you mean by density of population?

Correct Answer:
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N/A Quick Tip: Population density = Total population ÷ Total land area.


Question 26:

Mention any two factors affecting cropping intensity.

Correct Answer:
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N/A Quick Tip: Cropping intensity increases with irrigation, fertile soil, and modern farming practices.


Long Answer Type

Question 27:

Explain the concept of sustainable development.

Correct Answer: Sustainable development is a developmental approach that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. It integrates economic growth, social inclusion, and environmental protection, ensuring balanced progress while conserving resources for the future.
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Sustainable development emphasizes harmony between humans and nature. It advocates efficient resource use, renewable energy adoption, and conservation practices to prevent environmental degradation. Socially, it ensures equity, justice, and inclusivity, allowing all communities to benefit from growth. Economically, it focuses on long-term prosperity rather than short-term gains. The United Nations has stressed its importance through Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), which include targets for poverty eradication, quality education, clean energy, and climate action. By balancing ecological concerns with human needs, sustainable development provides a roadmap for maintaining stability, reducing inequality, and ensuring environmental resilience. Quick Tip: Think of sustainable development as balancing three pillars: economy, society, and environment. Ignoring one will weaken the whole structure.


Question 28:

What is Green Revolution? What was its impact on Indian agriculture?

Correct Answer: The Green Revolution was a period of agricultural transformation in India during the 1960s-70s, marked by the introduction of high-yielding variety (HYV) seeds, chemical fertilizers, and irrigation techniques. It significantly boosted food grain production, reduced famine risks, and transformed India into a self-sufficient nation in food.
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The Green Revolution was introduced under the guidance of scientists like M. S. Swaminathan and policymakers during the 1960s to address severe food shortages. It introduced high-yielding variety seeds of wheat and rice, modern irrigation practices, mechanization, chemical fertilizers, and pesticides. As a result, food production increased dramatically, especially in states like Punjab, Haryana, and Uttar Pradesh. India, once dependent on imports, became self-reliant in food grains. However, it also led to challenges like overuse of groundwater, soil degradation, loss of biodiversity, and increased regional disparities, as only certain states benefitted fully. Despite drawbacks, it remains a milestone in India’s agricultural history. Quick Tip: The Green Revolution is often called the "Wheat Revolution" in India due to its primary impact on wheat production.


Disaster Management

Short Answer Type

Question 29:

What is the difference between natural disaster and manmade disaster?

Correct Answer: Natural disasters are caused by natural phenomena like earthquakes, floods, cyclones, and droughts, while manmade disasters are results of human actions such as industrial accidents, nuclear leaks, deforestation, and pollution. Both have destructive impacts but their causes are fundamentally different.
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Natural disasters occur due to natural forces beyond human control. Examples include earthquakes, tsunamis, floods, and volcanic eruptions. They often result in large-scale destruction and loss of life. Manmade disasters, on the other hand, are caused by human negligence or harmful actions such as oil spills, industrial accidents, wars, and deforestation. These can often be prevented with proper precautions, unlike natural disasters. The difference lies in their origin: nature-driven versus human-driven. Quick Tip: Preparedness and awareness can minimize the effects of both natural and manmade disasters.


Question 30:

Mention the factors responsible for drought.

Correct Answer: The main factors responsible for drought include low rainfall, deforestation, overuse of groundwater, poor irrigation management, global warming, and climate change. Human activities such as excessive agriculture without proper planning also increase drought intensity.
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Drought is caused by both natural and human-induced factors. Natural factors include deficient rainfall, irregular monsoon patterns, and changes in atmospheric conditions due to global warming. Human activities like deforestation reduce soil moisture, while overexploitation of groundwater depletes water reserves. Poor irrigation practices and excessive dependence on rain-fed farming worsen the problem. Climate change has intensified droughts by disturbing rainfall patterns. These combined factors lead to crop failure, water scarcity, and economic losses. Quick Tip: Afforestation and efficient water management can help reduce drought effects.


Question 31:

Mention the measures to reduce the devastating effect of Tsunami.

Correct Answer: Measures include early warning systems, building disaster-resistant infrastructure, coastal afforestation, disaster preparedness training, and quick evacuation plans to minimize the devastating effects of tsunamis.
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Tsunamis are giant sea waves caused by earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, or underwater landslides. To reduce their effects, installing early warning systems is essential for alerting people in coastal areas. Building disaster-resilient infrastructure like elevated shelters reduces damage. Coastal vegetation such as mangroves acts as a natural barrier. Regular training programs and awareness campaigns prepare communities for emergencies. Rapid evacuation plans, proper disaster management authorities, and international cooperation also help in minimizing casualties and losses. Preparedness and preventive planning remain the key strategies. Quick Tip: Early warning systems and coastal vegetation greatly reduce tsunami impact.


Question 32:

What is remote sensing satellite?

Correct Answer: A remote sensing satellite is a satellite equipped with sensors to collect information about Earth’s surface and atmosphere without physical contact. It helps in mapping, weather forecasting, agriculture, disaster management, and resource monitoring.
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Remote sensing satellites are launched into space to observe and gather data about the Earth. They use sensors and cameras to capture images and information about land, water, vegetation, and atmosphere. These satellites work on the principle of detecting reflected or emitted radiation from the Earth’s surface. Applications include agricultural crop monitoring, weather forecasting, resource mapping, and disaster management. For example, they provide real-time data during floods or cyclones for rescue operations. Remote sensing is vital for sustainable development and scientific research. Quick Tip: Remote sensing satellites are essential for monitoring environment and resources effectively.

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