Bihar Board 12 Political Science - 322 - Set-G 2025 Question Paper with Solutions PDF

Step 1: Understanding Unipolarity.

Unipolarity refers to a global order where one country holds dominant power over others, making decisions that affect global politics, economics, and security. Following the Cold War, the United States emerged as the sole superpower, effectively establishing unipolarity in the international system.


Step 2: Analysis of Options.

- (A) Russia: While Russia was a key player in the Cold War, following the dissolution of the Soviet Union, it no longer maintained the same level of global dominance.

- (B) United States of America: After the Cold War, the U.S. became the dominant superpower, leading in military, economic, and political influence across the globe. This period marked the beginning of unipolarity.

- (C) France: While France is a major power, it did not establish global unipolarity after the Cold War.

- (D) China: China has been rising in power, but its dominance is more recent and does not yet signify a unipolar world order.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The United States of America established unipolarity after the end of the Cold War, making (B) the correct answer.
Quick Tip: Unipolarity in global politics refers to the dominance of one superpower that influences the international order. The U.S. became the primary global force after the Cold War.

Step 1: Trinamool Congress History.

Trinamool Congress (TMC) was founded by Mamata Banerjee in 1998. It was formed after breaking away from the Indian National Congress (INC) due to differences with the leadership. Mamata Banerjee's goal was to provide a stronger voice for the people of West Bengal, especially in opposing the Left Front government's policies.


Step 2: Analysis of Options.

- (A) Jyoti Basu: A prominent leader of the Communist Party of India (Marxist), Jyoti Basu was not involved in the formation of TMC.

- (B) Mamata Banerjee: The correct answer. Mamata Banerjee founded the TMC to counter the Left Front in West Bengal.

- (C) Sharad Pawar: Sharad Pawar is the founder of the Nationalist Congress Party (NCP), not TMC.

- (D) J. Jayalalitha: Jayalalitha was the leader of the All India Anna Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (AIADMK) in Tamil Nadu, not TMC.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Mamata Banerjee is the correct founder of the Trinamool Congress, making (B) the correct answer.
Quick Tip: Trinamool Congress was founded by Mamata Banerjee as a regional political party in West Bengal, focusing on challenging the Communist government.

Step 1: Understanding the Rajya Sabha.

The Rajya Sabha, also known as the Council of States, is the upper house of India's Parliament. It represents the interests of the states and union territories, with members elected by the members of the State Legislative Assemblies and Union Territories through a proportional representation system.


Step 2: Analysis of Options.

- (A) Indian citizen: While Rajya Sabha members are elected by Indian citizens indirectly, it represents the states, not individual citizens.

- (B) Indian states: The correct answer. Rajya Sabha is meant to represent the states and union territories of India, ensuring that their interests are considered in the legislative process.

- (C) Old Princely States: The princely states were merged into India after independence, and they are represented through the states, not separately.

- (D) None of these: Incorrect, as Rajya Sabha indeed represents the states.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The Rajya Sabha represents Indian states and union territories, so the correct answer is (B).
Quick Tip: Rajya Sabha represents the states and union territories of India, providing them with a voice in the legislative process.

Step 1: Understanding Article 143 of the Constitution.

Article 143 of the Indian Constitution grants the President the power to issue ordinances. This provision allows the President to legislate when Parliament is not in session, and there is a need for immediate action. The ordinances must be approved by Parliament within six weeks of its reassembly to become law.


Step 2: Analysis of Options.

- (A) Article 125: This article deals with the salaries of judges of the Supreme Court, not the President's power to issue ordinances.

- (B) Article 127: This article pertains to the power of the President to make provisions for the administration of justice in states. It is not related to issuing ordinances.

- (C) Article 137: This article deals with the power of the Supreme Court to review its judgments, not issuing ordinances.

- (D) Article 143: The correct answer. This article provides the President with the power to promulgate ordinances.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The President’s power to issue ordinances comes from Article 143 of the Constitution of India, making (D) the correct answer.
Quick Tip: Article 143 of the Constitution allows the President to issue ordinances when immediate action is required and Parliament is not in session.

Step 1: Context of Russia-Ukraine Conflict.

Russia's invasion of Ukraine was primarily driven by its desire to regain control over Crimea, a region that was historically part of Russia but was annexed by Ukraine in 1954. Crimea is strategically important due to its location on the Black Sea and its military and economic significance. The invasion also had geopolitical motivations related to Russia's opposition to Ukraine’s increasing Western alignment, particularly with NATO and the European Union.


Step 2: Analysis of Options.

- (A) Oil resources of Ukraine: While Ukraine does have significant energy resources, oil was not the main reason for Russia’s invasion.

- (B) To establish relations with Europe: The invasion of Ukraine was not motivated by a desire for better relations with Europe, but rather by opposition to Ukraine’s potential alignment with Western powers.

- (C) To capture Crimea: The correct answer. The primary goal of Russia’s invasion was to capture Crimea and regain control of this strategically important territory.

- (D) To stop Ukraine from the membership of NATO: While NATO expansion was a concern, the main objective was territorial control, not preventing NATO membership.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The main reason for Russia’s invasion of Ukraine was to capture Crimea, making (C) the correct answer.
Quick Tip: The annexation of Crimea was one of the key reasons for the 2014 Russian invasion of Ukraine, which also had significant geopolitical implications.

Step 1: India's Position on Russia.

India has consistently maintained a neutral stance in the Russia-Ukraine conflict, voicing opposition to international sanctions on Russia. India values its strategic relations with Russia, particularly in defense and energy sectors, and has emphasized dialogue over sanctions in international forums.


Step 2: Analysis of Options.

- (A) India: The correct answer. India has opposed international sanctions against Russia and has called for diplomatic efforts to resolve the conflict.

- (B) China: While China has shown support for Russia, it has not been as outspoken in opposing international sanctions against Russia.

- (C) America: The U.S. is one of the countries leading international sanctions against Russia.

- (D) Japan: Japan has been supportive of international sanctions against Russia and has distanced itself from Russia due to the conflict.


Step 3: Conclusion.

India has been consistently opposing international restrictions against Russia, making (A) the correct answer.
Quick Tip: India has maintained a neutral position on Russia's actions in Ukraine, advocating for peaceful resolution and opposing Western sanctions.

Step 1: Understanding the Rajya Sabha Composition.

The Rajya Sabha, also known as the Council of States, is one of the two houses of the Parliament of India. The composition of the Rajya Sabha includes both elected and nominated members. The members are elected from the states and union territories, but the President has the power to nominate 12 members. These members are typically experts or individuals with significant contributions in fields like literature, science, art, and social service.


Step 2: Analysis of Options.

- (A) 12: The President of India can nominate 12 members to the Rajya Sabha as per Article 80 of the Constitution. This is the correct answer.

- (B) 14: This is incorrect. The President nominates only 12 members, not 14.

- (C) 16: This is also incorrect. The nominated members are strictly 12.

- (D) 18: Again, this is incorrect. The President nominates only 12 members to the Rajya Sabha.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The President nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha, making (A) the correct answer.
Quick Tip: The President of India nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha, mainly from fields like literature, science, and social service.

Step 1: Context of the G-20 Summit.

The G-20 Summit is an international forum where the world’s major economies discuss global issues like economic growth, trade, climate change, and political stability. The presidency of the G-20 rotates annually among its members. In 2023, India held the G-20 presidency and hosted the G-20 Summit.


Step 2: Analysis of Options.

- (A) Indonesia: Indonesia hosted the G-20 summit in 2022, not 2023.

- (B) India: The correct answer. India hosted the G-20 summit in 2023, focusing on global economic challenges and sustainable development.

- (C) African Union: The African Union is not a G-20 member and did not host the summit.

- (D) None of these: This is incorrect because India indeed hosted the 2023 G-20 Summit.


Step 3: Conclusion.

India hosted the G-20 Summit in 2023, making (B) the correct answer.
Quick Tip: India held the G-20 presidency in 2023 and hosted the summit, which focused on sustainable growth and global cooperation.

Step 1: Understanding 'One Person One Vote'.

The principle of "one person, one vote" is fundamental to democracy. It ensures that each individual’s vote has equal value, thereby promoting political equality. This concept is central to the idea that every citizen has an equal say in the democratic process, regardless of their social, economic, or legal status.


Step 2: Analysis of Options.

- (A) Political equality: The correct answer. "One person, one vote" embodies political equality by giving every citizen an equal voice in elections.

- (B) Social equality: This concept refers to equal social rights and opportunities, but it is not directly related to voting rights.

- (C) Economic equality: While important, economic equality does not directly relate to voting rights.

- (D) Legal equality: This refers to equal treatment under the law but is not specifically about the voting system.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The principle of "one person, one vote" is directly related to political equality, making (A) the correct answer.
Quick Tip: "One person, one vote" is a core principle of political equality, ensuring each citizen has an equal say in elections.

Step 1: Understanding the regional organisations.

India and Maldives are members of the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC), which is a regional organisation in South Asia.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) ASEAN: India and Maldives are not part of ASEAN.

- (B) SAARC: Correct answer. India and Maldives are both members of SAARC.

- (C) BRICS: India is a member of BRICS, but Maldives is not.

- (D) None of these: Incorrect, as the correct answer is SAARC.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (B) SAARC.
Quick Tip: SAARC is a regional organisation for South Asian countries, including India and Maldives.

Step 1: Understanding the requirements for Parliament meetings.

According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament must meet at least three times in a year to carry out legislative business.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) One time: Incorrect. The Parliament must meet more than once a year.

- (B) Two times: Incorrect. The Parliament must meet at least three times a year.

- (C) Three times: Correct answer. The Parliament must meet at least three times in a year.

- (D) Four times: Incorrect. While four meetings may happen, the minimum requirement is three.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (C) Three times.
Quick Tip: The Parliament of India is required to meet at least three times in a year according to the Constitution.

Step 1: Understanding United Nations Day.

United Nations Day is observed on 24th October every year to commemorate the anniversary of the founding of the United Nations in 1945.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) 24th September: Incorrect. United Nations Day is not on 24th September.

- (B) 24th October: Correct answer. United Nations Day is celebrated on 24th October.

- (C) 24th November: Incorrect. United Nations Day is not on 24th November.

- (D) 24th December: Incorrect. United Nations Day is not on 24th December.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (B) 24th October.
Quick Tip: United Nations Day is celebrated on 24th October, marking the founding of the UN.

Step 1: Understanding the principle of basic structure.

The Supreme Court propounded the principle of the basic structure of the Constitution in the landmark case of Keshavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala in 1973. This principle states that Parliament cannot amend the basic structure of the Constitution.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Golaknath case: The Golaknath case (1967) involved a ruling that Parliament cannot amend fundamental rights, but it did not establish the concept of basic structure.

- (B) Keshvanand Bharati case: Correct answer. This case is famous for the declaration of the basic structure doctrine.

- (C) S.R. Bommai case: This case dealt with the imposition of President's Rule, not the basic structure.

- (D) Maneka Gandhi case: The case expanded the scope of Article 21 but did not address the basic structure.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (B) Keshvanand Bharati case.
Quick Tip: The basic structure doctrine, propounded in Keshavananda Bharati case, ensures that the core principles of the Constitution remain unaltered.

Step 1: Understanding Judicial Review.

Judicial review in India is based on the principle of the rule of law, which allows the judiciary to review the laws and government actions to ensure they are consistent with the Constitution.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Rule of Law: Correct answer. The rule of law is the foundation of judicial review in India, ensuring that no law or action can violate the Constitution.

- (B) Theory of Natural Justice: While important, this theory is a part of judicial review, not the sole basis.

- (C) Democratic structure: Although democracy plays a role, judicial review primarily derives from the rule of law.

- (D) Tradition and cases: This is not the basis of judicial review, which is founded on constitutional principles.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (A) Rule of Law.
Quick Tip: Judicial review ensures that government actions conform to constitutional principles and the rule of law.

Step 1: Understanding Article 32.

Article 32 of the Indian Constitution provides the right to constitutional remedies, allowing citizens to approach the Supreme Court to protect their fundamental rights.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Article 19: Protects freedom of speech and other rights, but does not specifically provide the right to approach the Supreme Court.

- (B) Article 21: Guarantees protection of life and personal liberty, but it is Article 32 that specifically provides remedies through the Supreme Court.

- (C) Article 32: Correct answer. This article gives citizens the right to approach the Supreme Court directly for the enforcement of fundamental rights.

- (D) Article 38: Deals with the promotion of social and economic justice, not fundamental rights protection.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (C) Article 32.
Quick Tip: Article 32 is often called the "heart and soul" of the Constitution because it ensures the enforcement of fundamental rights.

Step 1: Understanding the office of the Governor.

The Governor of a state in India holds office at the pleasure of the President of India, meaning that the President can remove or transfer the Governor at any time without any specific reason.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Election Commissioner: The Election Commissioners hold office for a fixed term and are not at the pleasure of the President.

- (B) Speaker of the Lok Sabha: The Speaker’s tenure is defined by the Lok Sabha and cannot be terminated at the pleasure of the President.

- (C) Governor: Correct answer. The Governor serves at the pleasure of the President.

- (D) Judges of the Supreme Court: Judges have security of tenure and are not at the pleasure of the President.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (C) Governor.
Quick Tip: The Governor's office is unique in India as it is held at the pleasure of the President, unlike other constitutional offices.

Step 1: Understanding Financial Emergency.

Under Article 360 of the Indian Constitution, a Financial Emergency can be declared if the financial stability or credit of India or any part of it is threatened. However, it has never been declared in India since the Constitution came into force.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) One time: Incorrect. No financial emergency has been declared so far.

- (B) Two times: Incorrect. No financial emergency has been declared.

- (C) Three times: Incorrect. Financial Emergency has never been declared.

- (D) Never: Correct answer. Financial Emergency has never been declared in India.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (D) Never.
Quick Tip: A Financial Emergency has never been declared in India since the Constitution came into force.

Step 1: Understanding National Emergency.

Article 352 of the Indian Constitution allows the President to declare a National Emergency when the security of India or any part of it is threatened by war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Article 352: Correct answer. National Emergency can be declared under Article 352.

- (B) Article 356: Deals with President's Rule in a state, not National Emergency.

- (C) Article 360: Deals with Financial Emergency, not National Emergency.

- (D) Article 370: Deals with the special status of Jammu and Kashmir, not National Emergency.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (A) Article 352.
Quick Tip: A National Emergency can only be declared under Article 352 due to threats to national security.

Step 1: Understanding the Human Rights Protection Act.

The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, came into force on 28th September 1993. It established the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) and other mechanisms for the protection of human rights in India.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) In 1990: Incorrect. The Act came into force in 1993, not in 1990.

- (B) In 1991: Incorrect. The Act came into force in 1993, not in 1991.

- (C) In 1992: Incorrect. The Act came into force in 1993, not in 1992.

- (D) In 1993: Correct answer. The Human Rights Protection Act came into force in 1993.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (D) In 1993.
Quick Tip: The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, created the National Human Rights Commission to safeguard human rights in India.

Step 1: Understanding the Lokpal Bill.

The first Lokpal Bill was introduced in the Parliament in 1967 by the then Prime Minister, Indira Gandhi, to address corruption in government offices.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) 1967: Correct answer. The first Lokpal Bill was introduced in 1967.

- (B) 1968: Incorrect. The Lokpal Bill was not introduced in 1968.

- (C) 1971: Incorrect. This was not the year the first Lokpal Bill was introduced.

- (D) 1972: Incorrect. The first Lokpal Bill was introduced earlier, in 1967.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (A) 1967.
Quick Tip: The first Lokpal Bill was introduced in 1967 to combat corruption in public offices.

Step 1: Understanding the role of the Chairperson of NITI Ayog.

The NITI Ayog (National Institution for Transforming India) is the government's policy think tank. The current Chairperson is Suman K. Bery, who succeeded Rajiv Kumar in 2022.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Suman K. Bery: Correct answer. Suman K. Bery is the current Chairperson of NITI Ayog.

- (B) Nirmala Sitaraman: Incorrect. Nirmala Sitaraman is the Finance Minister of India.

- (C) Narendra Modi: Incorrect. Narendra Modi is the Prime Minister of India, not the Chairperson of NITI Ayog.

- (D) Shaktikant Das: Incorrect. Shaktikant Das is the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (A) Suman K. Bery.
Quick Tip: The Chairperson of NITI Ayog is responsible for steering India's policy-making processes.

Step 1: Understanding military rule in the Indian subcontinent.

Military rule was first established in Pakistan in 1958 when General Ayub Khan took control of the government after a coup. This marked the beginning of military regimes in the Indian subcontinent.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Sri Lanka: Incorrect. Military rule did not begin in Sri Lanka first.

- (B) Nepal: Incorrect. While Nepal had military influence, it was not the first country in the subcontinent to experience military rule.

- (C) Bhutan: Incorrect. Bhutan did not have military rule at the time.

- (D) Pakistan: Correct answer. Pakistan was the first country in the subcontinent where military rule was established in 1958.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (D) Pakistan.
Quick Tip: Pakistan was the first country in the Indian subcontinent to experience military rule after the coup in 1958.

Step 1: Understanding religion-related states.

Pakistan, Sri Lanka, and Nepal have state religions or religious influence on governance. Bhutan, on the other hand, does not have an official state religion and practices a form of Buddhism that is deeply integrated into the culture but not enforced as a state religion.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Bhutan: Correct answer. Bhutan does not have a state religion, although Buddhism is the dominant religion.

- (B) Sri Lanka: Incorrect. Sri Lanka has Buddhism as its state religion.

- (C) Nepal: Incorrect. Nepal is a Hindu state and has the official status of Hinduism.

- (D) Pakistan: Incorrect. Pakistan is an Islamic republic and Islam is the state religion.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (A) Bhutan.
Quick Tip: Bhutan is unique for not having an official state religion, though Buddhism is an integral part of its culture.

Step 1: Understanding the amendment process.

The constitutional amendment process in India is described in Article 368 of the Indian Constitution. It lays down the procedure for amending the Constitution.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Article 352: This article deals with the declaration of National Emergency, not constitutional amendments.

- (B) Article 356: This article deals with President’s Rule in states, not the amendment process.

- (C) Article 368: Correct answer. This article specifies the process for amending the Constitution.

- (D) Article 370: This article deals with the special status of Jammu and Kashmir, not amendments.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (C) Article 368.
Quick Tip: Article 368 of the Indian Constitution describes the procedure for amending the Constitution.

Step 1: Understanding Fundamental Rights.

The Indian Constitution guarantees several fundamental rights under Part III. These rights include the Right to Equality, Right to Freedom, Right against Exploitation, and the Right to Life, among others. However, the Right to Property was removed as a fundamental right in 1978 through the 44th Amendment.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Right to equality: This is a fundamental right under Article 14 of the Indian Constitution.

- (B) Right to religious freedom: This is a fundamental right under Article 25.

- (C) Right to property: This is not a fundamental right anymore since it was removed in the 44th Amendment.

- (D) Right to life: This is a fundamental right under Article 21.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (C) Right to property.
Quick Tip: The Right to Property was removed as a fundamental right by the 44th Amendment in 1978.

Step 1: Understanding the Republic of India.

India is a republic, which means the head of state is elected, and it is not a monarchy. The Indian Constitution declares India as a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular Republic.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Secular: Correct. India is a secular republic, meaning there is no official state religion.

- (B) Sovereign: Correct. India is a sovereign state, meaning it is independent and free from external control.

- (C) Socialist: Correct. India follows a socialist model, aimed at reducing inequalities and promoting social welfare.

- (D) All of these: Correct answer. India is a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular Republic.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (D) All of these.
Quick Tip: India is defined as a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular Republic in the Preamble to the Constitution.

Step 1: Understanding Sunderlal Bahuguna’s contribution.

Sunderlal Bahuguna was a prominent environmentalist who is best known for his leadership in the Chipko Movement, which involved hugging trees to prevent them from being felled. The movement was a key part of environmental activism in India.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Dalit Movement: Incorrect. Sunderlal Bahuguna is not associated with the Dalit movement.

- (B) Women Movement: Incorrect. Although he supported various social causes, he is not specifically associated with the women’s movement.

- (C) Chipko Movement: Correct answer. Bahuguna was a key figure in the Chipko Movement.

- (D) Narmada Bachao Movement: Incorrect. The Narmada Bachao Movement was led by Medha Patkar, not Sunderlal Bahuguna.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (C) Chipko Movement.
Quick Tip: Sunderlal Bahuguna played a key role in the Chipko Movement, which advocated for forest conservation.

Step 1: Understanding the form of Government in India.

The Constitution of India establishes a Parliamentary system of government, where the executive (the Prime Minister and the Cabinet) is accountable to the legislature (Parliament).


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Presidential: Incorrect. India follows a Parliamentary system, not a Presidential one.

- (B) Parliamentary: Correct answer. India follows a Parliamentary system of government.

- (C) Dictatorship: Incorrect. India is a democratic republic, not a dictatorship.

- (D) Aristocracy: Incorrect. India is not ruled by a hereditary aristocracy.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (B) Parliamentary.
Quick Tip: In India, the Parliamentary system ensures that the executive is accountable to the legislature.

Step 1: Understanding the Preamble.

The Preamble of the Constitution of India mentions the words "Sovereign", "Socialist", "Secular", and "Democratic", but does not mention "Public welfare".


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Socialist: This word is included in the Preamble.

- (B) Secular: This word is included in the Preamble.

- (C) Sovereign: This word is included in the Preamble.

- (D) Public welfare: Correct answer. This term is not mentioned in the Preamble.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (D) Public welfare.
Quick Tip: The Preamble to the Indian Constitution mentions "Sovereign", "Socialist", "Secular", but not "Public welfare".

Step 1: Understanding India as a Secular State.

India is declared a secular state in the Preamble to the Constitution, which ensures that the state does not have any official religion and treats all religions equally.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Fundamental Rights: While Fundamental Rights include the Right to Religious Freedom, they do not define India as a secular state.

- (B) Preamble of the Constitution: Correct answer. The Preamble explicitly describes India as a secular state.

- (C) 9th Schedule: This schedule relates to laws that cannot be challenged in courts; it does not define secularism.

- (D) Directive Principles of the State Policy: These principles guide state policies but do not define India as a secular state.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (B) Preamble of the Constitution.
Quick Tip: India is defined as a secular state in the Preamble to the Constitution, meaning there is no official state religion.

Step 1: Understanding the Indus Water Treaty.

The Indus Water Treaty was signed between India and Pakistan in 1960, with the help of the World Bank. It divided the waters of the Indus River and its tributaries between the two countries.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Pakistan: Correct answer. The Indus Water Treaty was signed between India and Pakistan.

- (B) Bangladesh: Incorrect. The treaty was not signed with Bangladesh.

- (C) China: Incorrect. The treaty does not involve China.

- (D) Nepal: Incorrect. Nepal was not a party to the Indus Water Treaty.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (A) Pakistan.
Quick Tip: The Indus Water Treaty of 1960 was a major agreement between India and Pakistan over the use of the Indus River.

Step 1: Understanding the Uniting for Peace Resolution.

The 'Uniting for Peace Resolution' was passed by the United Nations General Assembly in 1950, to address situations where the Security Council is deadlocked and unable to act. However, the year mentioned in the options should correspond to the time of passing the resolution.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) 1945: Incorrect. The United Nations was founded in 1945, but the 'Uniting for Peace' resolution was passed in 1950.

- (B) 1950: Correct answer. The resolution was passed in 1950.

- (C) 1954: Incorrect. The resolution was not passed in 1954.

- (D) 1991: Incorrect. The resolution was not passed in 1991.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (B) 1950.
Quick Tip: The 'Uniting for Peace' resolution enables the General Assembly to make recommendations when the Security Council fails to act.

Step 1: Understanding racial conflict in South Asia.

Sri Lanka has witnessed significant racial and ethnic conflict between the Sinhalese and Tamil populations, leading to a civil war that lasted for several decades.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Nepal: Incorrect. Nepal has its own political issues, but racial conflict is not the primary issue.

- (B) Bhutan: Incorrect. Bhutan is not known for racial conflict.

- (C) Sri Lanka: Correct answer. Sri Lanka faced ethnic conflict between the Sinhalese and Tamil groups.

- (D) Bangladesh: Incorrect. While Bangladesh has faced political issues, racial conflict is not its primary concern.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (C) Sri Lanka.
Quick Tip: Sri Lanka's civil war was largely driven by ethnic tensions, particularly between the Sinhalese and Tamil communities.

Step 1: Understanding SAARC.

The first Summit of the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) was held in Kathmandu, Nepal, in 1985.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Islamabad: Incorrect. The first summit was not held in Islamabad.

- (B) Kathmandu: Correct answer. The first SAARC Summit was held in Kathmandu in 1985.

- (C) Delhi: Incorrect. The first summit was not held in Delhi.

- (D) Dhaka: Incorrect. Dhaka hosted the 6th SAARC Summit, not the first.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (B) Kathmandu.
Quick Tip: The first SAARC summit was held in Kathmandu in 1985, marking the beginning of regional cooperation in South Asia.

Step 1: Understanding India's recognition of Bangladesh.

India officially recognized Bangladesh as an independent country on 6th December 1971, following the Indo-Pakistani war and the creation of Bangladesh.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) 3rd December, 1971: Incorrect. India recognized Bangladesh on 6th December, not 3rd.

- (B) 6th December, 1971: Correct answer. India recognized Bangladesh on this date.

- (C) 16th December, 1971: Incorrect. While this is the date of the surrender of Pakistani forces, recognition came earlier.

- (D) 26th March, 1971: Incorrect. This was the day Bangladesh declared independence, but India recognized it later.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (B) 6th December, 1971.
Quick Tip: India recognized Bangladesh as an independent country on 6th December 1971, following the victory in the Indo-Pakistani war.

Step 1: Understanding fundamental duties.

The Constitution of India mentions 11 fundamental duties in Part IVA (Articles 51A). These were added by the 42nd Amendment Act in 1976.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) 8: Incorrect. There are 11 fundamental duties, not 8.

- (B) 9: Correct answer. There are 11 fundamental duties, as mentioned under Article 51A.

- (C) 10: Incorrect. There are not 10 fundamental duties.

- (D) 11: Incorrect. The correct number of duties is 11.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (B) 9.
Quick Tip: The fundamental duties were added to the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Amendment in 1976, and they form an important part of the citizens' duties.

Step 1: Understanding the strength of the Lok Sabha.

The Lok Sabha, or the House of the People, is composed of not more than 552 members. This includes 530 members representing the states, 20 members representing Union Territories, and 2 members from the Anglo-Indian community, although the latter has now been abolished.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) 545: Incorrect. The maximum strength is 552, not 545.

- (B) 550: Incorrect. The correct maximum strength is 552, not 550.

- (C) 552: Correct answer. The Lok Sabha has a maximum strength of 552 members.

- (D) None of these: Incorrect. The correct number is 552.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (C) 552.
Quick Tip: The Lok Sabha has a maximum strength of 552 members, with representation from states, Union Territories, and the Anglo-Indian community.

Step 1: Understanding the formation of the Disarmament Commission.

The United Nations Disarmament Commission (UNDC) was established in 1960 to promote disarmament and non-proliferation, and to address issues of armament control.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) 1945: Incorrect. The UN was established in 1945, but the Disarmament Commission came later.

- (B) 1952: Incorrect. The Disarmament Commission was not formed in 1952.

- (C) 1960: Correct answer. The UN Disarmament Commission was formed in 1960.

- (D) 1965: Incorrect. The Disarmament Commission was formed earlier in 1960.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (C) 1960.
Quick Tip: The United Nations Disarmament Commission was formed in 1960 to deal with issues related to disarmament and peace.

Step 1: Understanding ASEAN Free Trade Agreement.

The decision to establish the ASEAN Free Trade Area (AFTA) was formally taken in 2003 to promote economic integration among the Southeast Asian nations.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) 1996: Incorrect. AFTA was established later, in 2003.

- (B) 1999: Incorrect. The agreement was reached later.

- (C) 2003: Correct answer. ASEAN members agreed to form a Free Trade Area in 2003.

- (D) 2010: Incorrect. The agreement was made earlier, in 2003.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (C) 2003.
Quick Tip: The ASEAN Free Trade Area (AFTA) was agreed upon in 2003 to strengthen the economic ties between Southeast Asian nations.

Step 1: Understanding the Human Rights Council.

The United Nations Human Rights Council was established in 2006 to replace the UN Commission on Human Rights. It aims to promote and protect human rights globally.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) 2004: Incorrect. The Human Rights Council was not established in 2004.

- (B) 2005: Incorrect. The Council was formed in 2006.

- (C) 2006: Correct answer. The Human Rights Council was established in 2006.

- (D) 2008: Incorrect. The establishment happened earlier, in 2006.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (C) 2006.
Quick Tip: The United Nations Human Rights Council was formed in 2006 to enhance the protection and promotion of human rights globally.

Step 1: Understanding the 42nd Amendment.

The 42nd Amendment, passed in 1976, is often referred to as the "Mini-Constitution" because it made significant changes to the Constitution of India, including the Preamble and fundamental rights.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) 42nd Amendment: Correct answer. This amendment is called the "Mini-Constitution" due to its comprehensive changes to the Constitution.

- (B) 44th Amendment: Incorrect. The 44th Amendment reversed some provisions of the 42nd Amendment but was not called the Mini-Constitution.

- (C) 46th Amendment: Incorrect. This amendment focused on the reservation of seats but did not bring fundamental changes.

- (D) 50th Amendment: Incorrect. This amendment dealt with issues related to states but was not as extensive as the 42nd Amendment.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (A) 42nd Amendment.
Quick Tip: The 42nd Amendment of 1976 made sweeping changes to the Constitution, often called the "Mini-Constitution."

Step 1: Understanding constitutional bodies.

Constitutional bodies are those set up by the Constitution of India, such as the Union Public Service Commission, the Election Commission, and the Finance Commission. NITI Aayog, however, is a non-constitutional body.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Union Public Service Commission: Correct. This is a constitutional body responsible for recruitment to civil services.

- (B) Election Commission: Correct. This is a constitutional body responsible for overseeing elections.

- (C) Finance Commission: Correct. This is a constitutional body that recommends financial distribution between the Union and States.

- (D) NITI Aayog: Correct answer. NITI Aayog is not a constitutional body; it is a non-constitutional think tank.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (D) NITI Aayog.
Quick Tip: NITI Aayog is a non-constitutional body formed to foster economic policy and planning, unlike constitutional bodies such as the UPSC and Election Commission.

Step 1: Understanding Panchayati Raj.

Panchayati Raj refers to a system of rural local governance that promotes the decentralisation of power, encourages public participation, and focuses on community development through elected representatives at the village, intermediate, and district levels.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Decentralisation of power: Correct. Panchayati Raj decentralises power to local levels.

- (B) Public participation: Correct. It involves public participation in local governance.

- (C) Community development: Correct. It plays a significant role in the development of rural communities.

- (D) All of these: Correct answer. Panchayati Raj embodies decentralisation, participation, and community development.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (D) All of these.
Quick Tip: Panchayati Raj is a cornerstone of rural governance in India, promoting decentralisation, public involvement, and local development.

Step 1: Understanding the history of Panchayati Raj.

The Panchayati Raj system was first implemented in Rajasthan in 1959 as a part of the constitutional reform process to strengthen local governance.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Punjab: Incorrect. While Punjab has implemented Panchayati Raj, it was not the first.

- (B) Bihar: Incorrect. Bihar also implemented Panchayati Raj but later.

- (C) Rajasthan: Correct answer. Rajasthan was the first state to implement the Panchayati Raj system in 1959.

- (D) Gujarat: Incorrect. Gujarat was not the first state to implement the system.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (C) Rajasthan.
Quick Tip: Rajasthan was the first state to implement Panchayati Raj in 1959, setting the stage for decentralised governance in rural India.

Step 1: Understanding the role of B.R. Mehta.

B.R. Mehta is considered the architect of the Panchayati Raj system in India. He played a key role in shaping the structure of local governance in the country.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) B.R. Mehta: Correct answer. B.R. Mehta is regarded as the architect of the Panchayati Raj system.

- (B) Ashok Mehta: Incorrect. Ashok Mehta was involved in Panchayati Raj reforms but is not called the architect.

- (C) L.M. Singhvi: Incorrect. L.M. Singhvi made contributions to Indian governance but not specifically to the Panchayati Raj system.

- (D) G.B.K. Rao: Incorrect. He contributed to rural development but is not called the architect of Panchayati Raj.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (A) B.R. Mehta.
Quick Tip: B.R. Mehta is credited with designing the Panchayati Raj system, which was first implemented in India in 1959.

Step 1: Understanding International Non-violence Day.

International Non-violence Day is celebrated on 30th January every year to honor Mahatma Gandhi's commitment to non-violence. It marks the anniversary of his assassination in 1948.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) 30th January: Correct answer. This is the correct date for International Non-violence Day.

- (B) 8th March: Incorrect. This date is celebrated as International Women's Day, not Non-violence Day.

- (C) 1st May: Incorrect. This is celebrated as Labour Day, not Non-violence Day.

- (D) 10th December: Incorrect. This is Human Rights Day, not Non-violence Day.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (A) 30th January.
Quick Tip: International Non-violence Day is observed on 30th January in honor of Mahatma Gandhi's principles of non-violence.

Step 1: Understanding Partyless Democracy.

Jayaprakash Narayan was a strong advocate of Partyless Democracy, believing that political parties lead to divisions and corruption in the system. He suggested a system where candidates are chosen on the basis of merit and not political affiliation.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) M.N. Roy: Incorrect. M.N. Roy was a prominent revolutionary but did not advocate for Partyless Democracy.

- (B) Mahatma Gandhi: Incorrect. Gandhi advocated for non-party politics, but not exactly Partyless Democracy as defined by Jayaprakash Narayan.

- (C) Acharya Narendra Deo: Incorrect. While he supported democratic ideals, he did not advocate for Partyless Democracy.

- (D) Jayaprakash Narayan: Correct answer. He is the most famous proponent of Partyless Democracy in India.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (D) Jayaprakash Narayan.
Quick Tip: Jayaprakash Narayan was a strong advocate of Partyless Democracy, aiming to eliminate party-based divisions in governance.

Step 1: Understanding the High Courts in India.

As of now, India has 25 High Courts, each serving a particular state or group of states. Some states share High Courts, while others have their own.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) 20: Incorrect. India has more than 20 High Courts.

- (B) 22: Incorrect. India has 26 High Courts.

- (C) 25: Incorrect. There are currently 26 High Courts.

- (D) 26: Correct answer. India has 26 High Courts.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (D) 26.
Quick Tip: India has 26 High Courts, which serve as the highest judicial bodies in each state or group of states.

Step 1: Understanding the establishment of the Supreme Court.

The Supreme Court of India was established on 26th January 1950, which is also India's Republic Day. It replaced the Privy Council as the highest judicial body.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) 26th January, 1950: Correct answer. The Supreme Court was established on this date.

- (B) 28th January, 1950: Incorrect. The Supreme Court was established on 26th January, not 28th.

- (C) 29th January, 1950: Incorrect. The correct date is 26th January.

- (D) 30th January, 1950: Incorrect. The Supreme Court was established on 26th January, not 30th.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (A) 26th January, 1950.
Quick Tip: The Supreme Court of India was established on 26th January 1950, coinciding with India's Republic Day.

Step 1: Understanding the Presidential form of Government.

The Presidential form of Government originated in the United States of America, where the president is both the head of state and head of government.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Canada: Incorrect. Canada follows a parliamentary system of government.

- (B) France: Incorrect. France has a semi-presidential system, not a full presidential system.

- (C) America: Correct answer. The United States is the origin of the Presidential form of Government.

- (D) Sri Lanka: Incorrect. Sri Lanka follows a parliamentary system of government.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (C) America.
Quick Tip: The Presidential form of Government, where the president holds both executive and symbolic roles, originated in the United States.

Step 1: Understanding the role of B.N. Rao.

B.N. Rao, a constitutional advisor, played a key role in drafting the Constitution of India. He was tasked with preparing the first draft of the Constitution.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) K.M. Munshi: Incorrect. K.M. Munshi was a member of the Constituent Assembly but not the main drafter.

- (B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar: Incorrect. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar is considered the principal architect, but B.N. Rao prepared the first draft.

- (C) B.N. Rao: Correct answer. He prepared the first draft of the Constitution of India.

- (D) K. Santhanam: Incorrect. He was involved in the Constituent Assembly but not in preparing the first draft.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (C) B.N. Rao.
Quick Tip: B.N. Rao was responsible for preparing the first draft of the Indian Constitution, later refined by the Constituent Assembly.

Step 1: Understanding the original form of the Constitution.

The original Constitution of India, when it was adopted in 1950, had 395 articles. Since then, several amendments have been made, increasing the number of articles.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) 359: Incorrect. The original Constitution had more than 359 articles.

- (B) 395: Correct answer. The original Constitution of India had 395 articles.

- (C) 399: Incorrect. The number of articles was not 399.

- (D) 448: Incorrect. The number of articles was 395 in the original form.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (B) 395.
Quick Tip: The original Constitution of India, adopted in 1950, had 395 articles, later increased through amendments.

Step 1: Understanding the role of the President of the Constituent Assembly.

Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the President of the Constituent Assembly of India and presided over its sessions. He played a crucial role in the adoption of the Constitution of India.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad: Correct answer. He was the President of the Constituent Assembly.

- (B) Dr. Ambedkar: Incorrect. Dr. Ambedkar was the principal architect of the Constitution but not the President of the Assembly.

- (C) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru: Incorrect. Nehru was the first Prime Minister of India but did not serve as the President of the Constituent Assembly.

- (D) Mahatma Gandhi: Incorrect. Gandhi was not the President of the Constituent Assembly.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad.
Quick Tip: Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the President of the Constituent Assembly and later became India's first President.

Step 1: Understanding the elements of a state.

Sovereignty is the most important element of a state, as it refers to the ultimate authority within a state's boundaries. A state without sovereignty cannot exercise control over its territory or make independent decisions.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Flag: Incorrect. The flag is a symbol of the state but does not define its power.

- (B) Capital: Incorrect. While the capital is important, it is not the defining feature of a state's authority.

- (C) Sovereignty: Correct answer. Sovereignty ensures that a state can make decisions without external interference.

- (D) Traditions: Incorrect. Traditions are cultural elements but not a defining feature of state authority.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (C) Sovereignty.
Quick Tip: Sovereignty is the ultimate authority of a state over its territory, ensuring independence and control over decision-making.

Step 1: Understanding Presidential appointments.

The President of India appoints key positions such as the Attorney General, Comptroller and Auditor General, and Governors of states.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Attorney General of India: Correct. The President appoints the Attorney General.

- (B) Comptroller and Auditor General of India: Correct. The President also appoints the Comptroller and Auditor General.

- (C) Governor: Correct. The President appoints the Governors of states.

- (D) All of them: Correct answer. The President appoints all of the mentioned individuals.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (D) All of them.
Quick Tip: The President of India appoints several important officials, including the Attorney General, Comptroller and Auditor General, and Governors of states.

Step 1: Understanding the role of the President in India.

The President of India is the ceremonial head of state, representing the republic. Although the Prime Minister holds executive power, the President is the formal head of the Republic.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) President: Correct answer. The President is the ceremonial head of state in India.

- (B) Prime Minister: Incorrect. The Prime Minister is the head of government but not the head of state.

- (C) Chief Justice: Incorrect. The Chief Justice heads the judiciary, not the country.

- (D) Parliament: Incorrect. Parliament represents the legislative body, not the head of state.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (A) President.
Quick Tip: The President of India is the ceremonial head of state, whereas the Prime Minister is the head of government.

Step 1: Understanding Lok Sabha seats in Bihar.

Bihar has 53 seats in the Lok Sabha, which is the maximum number of seats allocated to any state in India based on its population.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) 54: Incorrect. Bihar has 53 Lok Sabha seats, not 54.

- (B) 53: Correct answer. Bihar has 53 seats in the Lok Sabha.

- (C) 60: Incorrect. Bihar does not have 60 seats in the Lok Sabha.

- (D) 62: Incorrect. Bihar has 53 seats, not 62.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (B) 53.
Quick Tip: Bihar has 53 seats in the Lok Sabha, making it one of the states with the highest number of seats.

Step 1: Understanding the first woman speaker.

Meira Kumar was elected as the first woman Speaker of the Lok Sabha in 2009. She played a significant role in the functioning of the Parliament.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Tarakeshwari Sinha: Incorrect. She was the first woman member of the Lok Sabha but not the Speaker.

- (B) Meira Kumar: Correct answer. She was the first woman to hold the position of Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

- (C) Sucheta Kripalani: Incorrect. She was the first woman to become a Chief Minister in India, not the Speaker.

- (D) Vijayalaxmi Pandit: Incorrect. She was an important political figure, but not the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (B) Meira Kumar.
Quick Tip: Meira Kumar was the first woman to become the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, a significant achievement in Indian politics.

Step 1: Understanding the role of Rajya Sabha in bills.

The Rajya Sabha cannot introduce or propose Money Bills. Such bills can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Ordinary Bill: Incorrect. An ordinary bill can be introduced in both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.

- (B) Constitutional Amendment Bill: Incorrect. This type of bill can be introduced in either house.

- (C) Money Bill: Correct answer. Only the Lok Sabha can introduce Money Bills.

- (D) State Reorganisation Bill: Incorrect. This bill can be introduced in either house.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (C) Money Bill.
Quick Tip: A Money Bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha, not the Rajya Sabha, as per the Constitution of India.

Step 1: Understanding the role of the Supreme Court.

The Supreme Court of India has the authority to interpret the Constitution, and its rulings serve as the final word on constitutional matters.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) President: Incorrect. The President does not have the authority to interpret the Constitution.

- (B) Attorney General of India: Incorrect. The Attorney General advises the government on legal matters but does not interpret the Constitution.

- (C) Lok Sabha Speaker: Incorrect. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha manages parliamentary proceedings but does not interpret the Constitution.

- (D) Supreme Court: Correct answer. The Supreme Court of India is the final authority on interpreting the Constitution.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (D) Supreme Court.
Quick Tip: The Supreme Court of India is the ultimate authority for interpreting the Constitution and resolving constitutional disputes.

Step 1: Understanding India's strategic interests.

India's primary strategic interest in the Maldives is its maritime security in the Indian Ocean. The Maldives' location makes it an important partner in ensuring regional stability.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Energy resources: Incorrect. While energy is a key factor, maritime security is the primary concern.

- (B) India's maritime security in the Indian Ocean: Correct answer. India has a strategic interest in the Maldives for ensuring its security in the Indian Ocean.

- (C) Political alliance with Europe: Incorrect. This is not a major reason for India's interest in the Maldives.

- (D) Cultural and linguistic relations: Incorrect. While cultural ties exist, security concerns are the primary reason.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (B) India's maritime security in the Indian Ocean.
Quick Tip: India's strategic interest in the Maldives is driven by the need for maritime security in the Indian Ocean region.

Step 1: Understanding the reason for tensions.

The main reason affecting the relations between India and the Maldives recently has been the presence of Indian military in the Maldives, which has led to political tensions.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Presence of Indian military in Maldives: Correct answer. This has been the main factor impacting relations.

- (B) Visa restriction: Incorrect. While visa restrictions are an issue, they are not the primary reason for strained relations.

- (C) Cyber security: Incorrect. Cyber security issues are not the primary cause of tension.

- (D) Trade issues: Incorrect. Trade issues have not been the leading cause of tension between the countries.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (A) Presence of Indian military in Maldives.
Quick Tip: Political relations between countries can often be affected by military presence, which may trigger security and sovereignty concerns.

Step 1: Understanding SAARC membership.

SAARC (South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation) is a regional intergovernmental organization and political union in South Asia. Myanmar is not a member of SAARC.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Bhutan: Incorrect. Bhutan is a member of SAARC.

- (B) Maldives: Incorrect. Maldives is a member of SAARC.

- (C) Myanmar: Correct answer. Myanmar is not a member of SAARC.

- (D) Sri Lanka: Incorrect. Sri Lanka is a member of SAARC.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (C) Myanmar.
Quick Tip: SAARC includes eight South Asian countries, excluding Myanmar.

Step 1: Understanding the Sino-Indian War.

The Sino-Indian War occurred in 1962, primarily over territorial disputes between India and China, including the regions of Aksai Chin and Arunachal Pradesh.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) 1948: Incorrect. The Sino-Indian War took place in 1962, not 1948.

- (B) 1962: Correct answer. This is the year when the Sino-Indian War occurred.

- (C) 1965: Incorrect. This is the year of the India-Pakistan war, not the Sino-Indian war.

- (D) 1971: Incorrect. This year marks the India-Pakistan war, not the Sino-Indian war.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (B) 1962.
Quick Tip: The Sino-Indian War of 1962 was a significant conflict resulting from border disputes between India and China.

Step 1: Understanding the Euro.

The Euro is the official currency used by the European Union member countries, making it one of the most widely used currencies in the world.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) A subcontinent: Incorrect. The Euro is not a subcontinent.

- (B) Name of a country: Incorrect. The Euro is not a country.

- (C) Currency of European Union: Correct answer. The Euro is the currency used by many European Union countries.

- (D) An island: Incorrect. The Euro is not an island.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (C) Currency of European Union.
Quick Tip: The Euro is the official currency of the Eurozone, which includes most EU countries.

Step 1: Understanding the McMahon Line.

The McMahon Line is the line of demarcation between India and China in the northeastern region, particularly in Arunachal Pradesh, which China claims as part of its territory.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Jammu and Kashmir: Incorrect. The McMahon Line does not pass through Jammu and Kashmir.

- (B) Arunachal Pradesh: Correct answer. The McMahon Line is located along the border between India and China, running through Arunachal Pradesh.

- (C) Uttar Pradesh: Incorrect. The McMahon Line is not located in Uttar Pradesh.

- (D) Assam: Incorrect. The McMahon Line does not pass through Assam.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (B) Arunachal Pradesh.
Quick Tip: The McMahon Line marks the boundary between India and China, specifically in the state of Arunachal Pradesh.

Step 1: Understanding globalisation and its ideology.

Globalisation is primarily based on the principles of Liberalism, which promotes free markets, economic openness, and the reduction of trade barriers between nations.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Socialism: Incorrect. Globalisation is not based on socialist principles, which emphasize state control over the economy.

- (B) Communism: Incorrect. Communism opposes capitalist and market-driven economies, which are key to globalisation.

- (C) Anarchism: Incorrect. Anarchism opposes hierarchical structures and does not support globalisation's market-oriented goals.

- (D) Liberalism: Correct answer. Liberalism supports the free market and global integration, the foundation of globalisation.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (D) Liberalism.
Quick Tip: Globalisation is fundamentally tied to Liberalism, which encourages open markets, free trade, and reduced government intervention.

Step 1: Understanding the G-7.

The G-7, or Group of Seven, is an organization of seven major advanced economies. Japan is the only Asian country that is a member of the G-7.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) India: Incorrect. India is not a member of the G-7.

- (B) China: Incorrect. China is not a member of the G-7.

- (C) Japan: Correct answer. Japan is the only Asian country in the G-7.

- (D) Philippines: Incorrect. The Philippines is not part of the G-7.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (C) Japan.
Quick Tip: Japan is the only Asian member of the G-7, a group of the world's most advanced economies.

Step 1: Understanding the role of the Ex-officio Chairman.

The Vice-President of India serves as the Ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, the upper house of Parliament.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) President: Incorrect. The President is not the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

- (B) Vice-President: Correct answer. The Vice-President of India serves as the Ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

- (C) Prime Minister: Incorrect. The Prime Minister does not serve as the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

- (D) Speaker of the Lok Sabha: Incorrect. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over the lower house, not the Rajya Sabha.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (B) Vice-President.
Quick Tip: The Vice-President of India serves as the Ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

Step 1: Understanding the origin of the term.

The term "equal protection of the law" was borrowed from the United States of America, specifically from the 14th Amendment to the U.S. Constitution, which guarantees equal protection under the law.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) United States of America: Correct answer. The term was taken from the U.S. Constitution.

- (B) Britain: Incorrect. The term does not originate from British law.

- (C) Canada: Incorrect. While Canada has similar provisions, the term "equal protection of law" originated in the U.S.

- (D) Australia: Incorrect. The term was not taken from Australian law.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (A) United States of America.
Quick Tip: The principle of "equal protection of law" is part of the 14th Amendment of the U.S. Constitution.

Step 1: Understanding the procedure for introducing Constitutional Amendment Bill.

A Constitution Amendment Bill can be introduced in either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha, and must be approved by both houses before becoming law.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Only in the Lok Sabha: Incorrect. The Bill can also be introduced in the Rajya Sabha.

- (B) Only in the Rajya Sabha: Incorrect. The Bill can be introduced in either house.

- (C) Both (A) and (B): Correct answer. The Constitution Amendment Bill can be introduced in either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha.

- (D) None of these: Incorrect. The Bill can be introduced in both houses.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (C) Both (A) and (B).
Quick Tip: A Constitution Amendment Bill can be introduced in either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha and must be approved by both.

Step 1: Understanding the 106th Constitutional Amendment.

The 106th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019, focuses on providing the right to education by increasing the age limit of children covered under the right to education to 18 years.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Right to Education: Correct answer. The amendment extends the right to education to all children up to the age of 18.

- (B) Women's reservation: Incorrect. This amendment does not address women’s reservation.

- (C) Local Self Government: Incorrect. The 106th amendment does not deal with local self-governance.

- (D) International treaties: Incorrect. The amendment does not relate to international treaties.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (A) Right to Education.
Quick Tip: The 106th Constitutional Amendment aims to enhance the scope of the right to education, making it applicable to children up to 18 years of age.

Step 1: Understanding the part of the constitution dealing with centre-state relations.

Part-XI of the Indian Constitution specifically deals with the distribution of legislative, executive, and financial powers between the Union and the States.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Part-IX: Incorrect. Part-IX deals with Panchayats and Municipalities, not centre-state relations.

- (B) Part-X: Incorrect. Part-X relates to the prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labor.

- (C) Part-XI: Correct answer. This part describes the distribution of powers between the Centre and the States.

- (D) Part-XII: Incorrect. Part-XII deals with finance, property, contracts, and suits, not centre-state relations.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (C) Part-XI.
Quick Tip: Part-XI of the Indian Constitution specifically deals with the distribution of powers and responsibilities between the Centre and the States.

Step 1: Understanding the Right to Information movement.

The Right to Information (RTI) movement in India started in Rajasthan, where social activists and organizations campaigned for transparency and accountability in governance.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Rajasthan: Correct answer. The RTI movement began in Rajasthan and spread across India.

- (B) Delhi: Incorrect. While Delhi plays a significant role in RTI, the movement started in Rajasthan.

- (C) Tamil Nadu: Incorrect. The RTI movement did not originate in Tamil Nadu.

- (D) Bihar: Incorrect. Bihar was not the starting point for the RTI movement.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (A) Rajasthan.
Quick Tip: The Right to Information movement began in Rajasthan and led to the enactment of the RTI Act in India.

Step 1: Understanding the Mandal Commission and its recommendations.

The Mandal Commission was tasked with identifying the socially and economically backward classes in India. V.P. Singh, the Prime Minister at the time, implemented its recommendations in 1990, providing reservations for OBCs in government jobs and educational institutions.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) V.P. Singh: Correct answer. V.P. Singh implemented the Mandal Commission's recommendations.

- (B) Indira Gandhi: Incorrect. Indira Gandhi did not implement the Mandal Commission’s recommendations.

- (C) Atal Bihari Vajpayee: Incorrect. Atal Bihari Vajpayee did not implement the Mandal Commission’s recommendations.

- (D) Morarji Desai: Incorrect. Morarji Desai was not involved in implementing the Mandal Commission’s recommendations.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (A) V.P. Singh.
Quick Tip: V.P. Singh, as the Prime Minister, implemented the recommendations of the Mandal Commission, which provided reservations for OBCs in education and employment.

Step 1: Understanding the Farakka Agreement.

The Farakka Agreement is a treaty between India and Bangladesh that was signed to resolve disputes over water distribution, specifically regarding the sharing of the Ganga waters.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) River water treaty: Correct answer. The Farakka Agreement deals with the sharing of river waters between India and Bangladesh.

- (B) Border treaty: Incorrect. The Farakka Agreement is not related to border issues.

- (C) Trade treaty: Incorrect. The Farakka Agreement is not related to trade.

- (D) None of these: Incorrect. The Farakka Agreement is indeed a river water treaty.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (A) River water treaty.
Quick Tip: The Farakka Agreement is focused on sharing the Ganga river waters between India and Bangladesh to prevent disputes.

Step 1: Understanding the commission.

The first Commission to look into the status of Other Backward Classes was the Kaka Kalelkar Commission, which was set up in 1953.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Karpoori Thakur: Incorrect. Karpoori Thakur was a prominent leader but not the chairman of the first OBC Commission.

- (B) B.P. Mandal: Incorrect. B.P. Mandal was the Chairman of the Mandal Commission, not the first OBC Commission.

- (C) Kaka Kalelkar: Correct answer. Kaka Kalelkar was the Chairman of the first Commission for Other Backward Classes.

- (D) V.P. Singh: Incorrect. V.P. Singh implemented the Mandal Commission's recommendations, but he was not the chairman of the first OBC Commission.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (C) Kaka Kalelkar.
Quick Tip: The Kaka Kalelkar Commission was the first to investigate the condition of Other Backward Classes in India in 1953.

Step 1: Understanding women's reservation in Parliament.

The Indian government has proposed that 33 percent of the seats in both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha be reserved for women, a move to ensure better representation of women in the Indian Parliament.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) 20 percent: Incorrect. The proposal reserves 33 percent, not 20 percent.

- (B) 30 percent: Incorrect. The reservation proposed is 33 percent, not 30 percent.

- (C) 33 percent: Correct answer. 33 percent of seats in Parliament have been proposed to be reserved for women.

- (D) 40 percent: Incorrect. The reservation for women is proposed at 33 percent, not 40 percent.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (C) 33 percent.
Quick Tip: The reservation of 33 percent seats for women in Parliament aims to improve their representation and participation in politics.

Step 1: Understanding the Money Bill process.

Under Article 109 of the Indian Constitution, the Rajya Sabha can hold a Money Bill for a maximum of 14 days, but it must be returned to the Lok Sabha within this period.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) 7 days: Incorrect. The Rajya Sabha can hold the Money Bill for 10 days, not 7.

- (B) 10 days: Correct answer. The Rajya Sabha can hold a Money Bill for a maximum of 10 days.

- (C) 14 days: Incorrect. The Rajya Sabha's time limit is 10 days, not 14.

- (D) 20 days: Incorrect. The Rajya Sabha does not have 20 days to hold a Money Bill.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (B) 10 days.
Quick Tip: The Rajya Sabha can hold a Money Bill for up to 10 days before returning it to the Lok Sabha for final approval.

Step 1: Understanding the reservation policy.

In Bihar, 50% seats were reserved for women in Panchayats starting in 2006, aiming to enhance women's participation in local governance.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) 2005: Incorrect. The reservation for women in Panchayats in Bihar started in 2006.

- (B) 2006: Correct answer. This is the year when the 50% reservation for women in Panchayats was implemented in Bihar.

- (C) 2009: Incorrect. The reservation was not implemented in 2009.

- (D) 2011: Incorrect. The reservation was implemented earlier, in 2006.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (B) 2006.
Quick Tip: Bihar was the first state in India to reserve 50% of the seats for women in Panchayats, a significant step in gender-inclusive governance.

Step 1: Understanding the amendment to the Preamble.

The Preamble to the Constitution of India was amended by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976, which added the words "Socialist", "Secular", and "Integrity" to the Preamble.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) 24th amendment: Incorrect. The 24th amendment deals with the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution.

- (B) 42nd amendment: Correct answer. The Preamble was amended by the 42nd Amendment in 1976.

- (C) 44th amendment: Incorrect. The 44th amendment primarily dealt with curbing the powers of the President and the suspension of Fundamental Rights.

- (D) 73rd amendment: Incorrect. The 73rd amendment deals with Panchayati Raj and not the Preamble.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (B) 42nd amendment.
Quick Tip: The 42nd Amendment, enacted in 1976, is known for amending the Preamble to include the words "Socialist", "Secular", and "Integrity".

Step 1: Understanding the concurrent list.

The Concurrent List in the Indian Constitution consists of 97 subjects on which both the Union and State legislatures can legislate. These subjects are shared between the two levels of government.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) 47: Incorrect. The Concurrent List has 97 subjects, not 47.

- (B) 52: Incorrect. The Concurrent List has more subjects than 52.

- (C) 97: Correct answer. There are 97 subjects in the Concurrent List.

- (D) 100: Incorrect. There are 97 subjects in the Concurrent List, not 100.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (C) 97.
Quick Tip: The Concurrent List contains 97 subjects on which both the Union and State legislatures can make laws.

Step 1: Understanding the adoption of the Constitution.

The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 26th November 1949, and it came into effect on 26th January 1950.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) by the Constituent Assembly: Correct answer. The Constitution was adopted by the Constituent Assembly.

- (B) by the Governor General: Incorrect. The Constitution was not adopted by the Governor General.

- (C) by the Parliament: Incorrect. The Constitution was not adopted by Parliament.

- (D) by the President: Incorrect. The Constitution was not adopted by the President.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (A) by the Constituent Assembly.
Quick Tip: The Indian Constitution was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 26th November 1949 and came into force on 26th January 1950.

Step 1: Understanding the provision for President’s rule.

The President’s Rule can be extended for a maximum of three years in a state under the provisions of Article 356 of the Indian Constitution. The maximum period is three years, with necessary approvals by the Parliament every six months.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) One year: Incorrect. The period of President’s rule can be extended up to three years, not just one year.

- (B) Two years: Incorrect. The period of President’s rule can be extended up to three years, not two.

- (C) Three years: Correct answer. The period of President’s rule can be extended for a maximum of three years.

- (D) Four years: Incorrect. The period cannot extend beyond three years.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (C) Three years.
Quick Tip: President's rule can be extended up to three years in a state with the approval of Parliament.

Step 1: Understanding the removal process of the President.

The President of India can only be removed from office by impeachment. The process of impeachment is initiated in either House of Parliament, and the President can be removed by the Parliament. This process is laid out under Article 61 of the Indian Constitution.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) by the Prime Minister: Incorrect. The Prime Minister does not have the power to remove the President.

- (B) by the Lok Sabha: Incorrect. The Lok Sabha alone cannot remove the President. The impeachment process involves both Houses of Parliament.

- (C) by the Chief Justice: Incorrect. The Chief Justice cannot remove the President.

- (D) by the Parliament: Correct answer. The President can be removed from office by Parliament through impeachment.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (D) by the Parliament.
Quick Tip: The President of India can only be removed by impeachment, which is initiated and carried out by the Parliament.

Step 1: Understanding the nickname of "Missile Man".

Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam, the 11th President of India, is popularly known as the "Missile Man of India" due to his pivotal role in the development of India's missile defense systems, such as the Agni and Prithvi missiles.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma: Incorrect. He was the 9th President of India but was not known as the "Missile Man".

- (B) Prof. K.R. Narayanan: Incorrect. He was the 10th President of India but was not associated with missile development.

- (C) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam: Correct answer. He is known as the "Missile Man of India".

- (D) Smt. Pratibha Patil: Incorrect. She was the 12th President of India but is not associated with missile defense systems.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (C) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam.
Quick Tip: Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam is known as the "Missile Man" due to his contributions to India's missile technology and defense systems.

Step 1: Understanding the eligibility criteria for a presidential candidate.

To be eligible to become the President of India, a person must be an Indian citizen, at least 35 years old, and qualified to be a member of the Lok Sabha. There is no requirement for a presidential candidate to have a bachelor's degree.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Indian citizen: Incorrect. Being an Indian citizen is a fundamental requirement.

- (B) Minimum 35 years age: Incorrect. The age requirement for a presidential candidate is 35 years.

- (C) Have at least a bachelor's degree: Correct answer. This is not a requirement for a presidential candidate.

- (D) None of these: Incorrect. The correct answer is (C).


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (C) Have at least a bachelor's degree.
Quick Tip: A bachelor's degree is not a requirement to be a presidential candidate in India, but being an Indian citizen and at least 35 years old are.

Step 1: Understanding the mismatch.

Dr. Rajendra Prasad, Dr. Radhakrishnan, and Dr. Zakir Hussain were Presidents of India. Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru was the first Prime Minister of India, not a President.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad: Correct. He was the first President of India.

- (B) Dr. Radhakrishnan: Correct. He was the second President of India.

- (C) Dr. Zakir Hussain: Correct. He was the third President of India.

- (D) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru: Incorrect. He was the first Prime Minister of India, not a President.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (D) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru.
Quick Tip: Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru was the first Prime Minister of India, not a President.

Step 1: Understanding the Planning Commission.

Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru was the first Chairman of the Planning Commission of India, established in 1950 to formulate the Five-Year Plans.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Dr. Visvesvaraya: Incorrect. Dr. Visvesvaraya was a renowned engineer and a key figure in industrial development but not the Chairman of the Planning Commission.

- (B) V.C. Mahalanobis: Incorrect. Mahalanobis was a prominent economist but not the first Chairman.

- (C) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru: Correct answer. Pt. Nehru was the first Chairman and a visionary leader behind India's Five-Year Plans.

- (D) John Mathai: Incorrect. John Mathai was an important member of the Planning Commission but was not its first Chairman.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (C) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru.
Quick Tip: Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru, the first Prime Minister of India, was also the first Chairman of the Planning Commission.

Step 1: Understanding Judicial Review.

Judicial review is the power of courts to assess the constitutionality of legislative acts and executive actions. Both India and the United States have a provision for judicial review in their respective legal systems. In India, it is provided under the Constitution, and in the U.S., it is a principle upheld through court decisions like Marbury v. Madison.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) only in India: Incorrect. Judicial review is not exclusive to India; it is also present in other countries, including the United States.

- (B) only in Britain: Incorrect. The UK does not have the same judicial review process as India or the United States, as it follows an unwritten constitution.

- (C) only in America: Incorrect. Judicial review is present in both India and America.

- (D) in both America and India: Correct answer. Both India and the United States have provisions for judicial review in their legal systems.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (D) in both America and India.
Quick Tip: Judicial review is a feature of both the Indian and U.S. legal systems, allowing courts to declare laws or executive actions unconstitutional.

Step 1: Understanding the alliances.

NATO (North Atlantic Treaty Organization), SEATO (Southeast Asia Treaty Organization), and CENTO (Central Treaty Organization) were all Western Bloc military alliances formed during the Cold War, whereas the Warsaw Pact was formed by the Eastern Bloc (Soviet Union and its satellite states).


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) NATO: Incorrect. NATO was formed by the Western Bloc in 1949.

- (B) SEATO: Incorrect. SEATO was a Western-led alliance formed to block the spread of communism in Southeast Asia.

- (C) CENTO: Incorrect. CENTO was another Western military alliance, focusing on the Middle East.

- (D) Warsaw Pact: Correct answer. The Warsaw Pact was formed by the Soviet Union and Eastern Bloc countries in 1955 as a counter to NATO.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (D) Warsaw Pact.
Quick Tip: The Warsaw Pact was the Eastern Bloc's counter to NATO, created by the Soviet Union and its allies in response to Western military alliances.

Step 1: Understanding NATO.

NATO stands for the North Atlantic Treaty Organization, established in 1949 to provide collective security against the Soviet Union and its allies during the Cold War.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) North Atlantic Treaty Organization: Correct answer. NATO was formed to safeguard the security and defense of its member countries.

- (B) North Arctic Treaty Organization: Incorrect. There is no such treaty.

- (C) North Asian Treaty Organization: Incorrect. NATO is focused on the North Atlantic region, not Asia.

- (D) North American Treaty Organization: Incorrect. NATO includes North America but is not exclusively focused on North America.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (A) North Atlantic Treaty Organization.
Quick Tip: NATO was formed in 1949 to counter Soviet influence and is still a major military alliance for collective defense.

Step 1: Understanding the Warsaw Pact.

The Warsaw Pact was a military alliance formed in 1955 by the Soviet Union and its satellite states as a countermeasure to NATO and to maintain Soviet control over its European allies. The primary aim was to counter NATO's military presence in Europe.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) To keep USSR united: Incorrect. While the Pact was a response to NATO, it was not aimed at keeping the USSR united.

- (B) To support Central Asian Republic: Incorrect. The Pact was not designed for this purpose.

- (C) To counter NATO forces in Europe: Correct answer. The Warsaw Pact was formed to counter NATO’s influence in Europe during the Cold War.

- (D) To develop nuclear weapon: Incorrect. While the Pact was a military alliance, it was not specifically focused on developing nuclear weapons.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (C) To counter NATO forces in Europe.
Quick Tip: The Warsaw Pact was established to counter NATO's military presence in Europe, particularly during the Cold War.

Step 1: Understanding the historical context.

The Treaty of Versailles was signed after World War I, not World War II. The Russian revolution occurred in 1917, and the League of Nations was created after World War I, not World War II. NATO (North Atlantic Treaty Organization), on the other hand, was formed in 1949, after World War II, to counter the Soviet Union's influence.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Treaty of Versailles: Incorrect. The Treaty of Versailles was signed in 1919, after World War I.

- (B) Russian revolution: Incorrect. The Russian Revolution occurred in 1917, before World War II.

- (C) Establishment of NATO: Correct answer. NATO was established in 1949 after World War II as a military alliance.

- (D) Establishment of League of Nations: Incorrect. The League of Nations was established after World War I, not II.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (C) Establishment of NATO.
Quick Tip: NATO was formed in 1949 after World War II to provide collective security against the Soviet Union.

Step 1: Understanding India's foreign policy objectives.

India’s foreign policy objectives primarily include preserving sovereignty, protecting territorial integrity, and promoting economic development. While liberalization is an important economic policy, it is not a core objective of India’s foreign policy itself, which focuses more on sovereignty and security.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Preserve sovereignty: Correct. Protecting India’s sovereignty is a primary objective of its foreign policy.

- (B) Protect territorial integrity: Correct. Territorial integrity is a crucial concern of India’s foreign relations.

- (C) Promote rapid economic development: Correct. Economic development is a priority, but not the sole focus of foreign policy.

- (D) Promote liberalisation of economy: Correct answer. While liberalisation has been important for India’s economy, it is not directly an objective of foreign policy.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (D) Promote liberalisation of economy.
Quick Tip: India’s foreign policy emphasizes sovereignty, security, and economic growth, but liberalization falls under internal policy.

Step 1: Understanding the Panchsheel Agreement.

The Panchsheel Agreement, signed between India and China in 1954, outlined five principles of peaceful coexistence, including mutual respect for sovereignty, non-aggression, and non-interference in each other's internal affairs.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) India-Pakistan: Incorrect. There is no Panchsheel Agreement between India and Pakistan.

- (B) India-China: Correct answer. The Panchsheel Agreement was signed between India and China in 1954.

- (C) India-Nepal: Incorrect. While India and Nepal have agreements, the Panchsheel Agreement was with China.

- (D) India-Bangladesh: Incorrect. The Panchsheel Agreement was not signed with Bangladesh.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (B) India-China.
Quick Tip: The Panchsheel Agreement between India and China set the framework for peaceful coexistence and mutual respect between the two nations.

Step 1: Context of the Warsaw Pact.

The Warsaw Pact was a military alliance formed in 1955 among the Soviet Union and its Eastern Bloc allies in response to the formation of NATO (North Atlantic Treaty Organization) by Western powers. The Warsaw Pact was a countermeasure to NATO, aiming to strengthen the Soviet Union's influence over Eastern Europe.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) SEATO: Incorrect. SEATO (Southeast Asia Treaty Organization) was a separate alliance, not related to the Warsaw Pact's formation.

- (B) NATO: Correct answer. NATO was the primary military alliance opposed by the Warsaw Pact.

- (C) OPEC: Incorrect. OPEC is a coalition of oil-producing countries and was not a military alliance.

- (D) United Nations Organisation: Incorrect. The United Nations is an international organization for peace, not a military alliance.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (B) NATO.
Quick Tip: The Warsaw Pact was established as a direct countermeasure to NATO during the Cold War, consolidating Soviet influence in Eastern Europe.

Step 1: Understanding the India-China border issues.

India and China have had several border disputes, with key issues including Doklam, Galwan Valley, and Lipulekh pass. Pangong-Tso, while contested, is not as prominent in recent diplomatic disputes.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Doklam: Incorrect. Doklam is a major point of contention between India and China.

- (B) Galwan valley: Incorrect. The Galwan Valley has been the site of significant recent military confrontations.

- (C) Lipulekh pass: Incorrect. Lipulekh pass, on the India-China border, is a disputed region.

- (D) Pangong-Tso: Correct answer. Though it is contested, it is not as frequently a flashpoint as the other locations.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (D) Pangong-Tso.
Quick Tip: Pangong-Tso, though disputed, has not been as central in India-China confrontations as other areas like Doklam and Galwan Valley.

Step 1: Understanding the context.

After the Emergency period (1975-77), the general elections of 1977 saw the Janata Party led by Morarji Desai win. He became the Prime Minister following the election.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) Chaudhary Charan Singh: Incorrect. Charan Singh briefly became Prime Minister later, but not immediately after the 1977 election.

- (B) Jagjivan Ram: Incorrect. Jagjivan Ram was an important leader, but not the Prime Minister after 1977.

- (C) Morarji Desai: Correct answer. Morarji Desai became the Prime Minister after the 1977 elections.

- (D) Jayaprakash Narayan: Incorrect. Jayaprakash Narayan was an influential leader but did not serve as Prime Minister.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (C) Morarji Desai.
Quick Tip: Morarji Desai, after the Janata Party's victory in the 1977 elections, became India’s Prime Minister, ending the Congress party’s dominance.

Step 1: Context of Planning Commission.

The Planning Commission was set up in 1950 by the Government of India to plan and manage the country’s Five-Year Plans. It played a central role in formulating economic policies until its dissolution in 2014.


Step 2: Analysis of options.

- (A) 1950: Correct answer. The Planning Commission was created in 1950.

- (B) 1951: Incorrect. The commission was set up in 1950, not 1951.

- (C) 1952: Incorrect. The commission was formed before 1952.

- (D) 1954: Incorrect. The commission was already established by this time.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The correct answer is (A) 1950.
Quick Tip: The Planning Commission of India was set up in 1950 to formulate Five-Year Plans for national economic development.

Step 1: Understanding the concept.

A Public Welfare State is a form of government in which the state plays a key role in protecting and promoting the economic and social well-being of its citizens. This includes ensuring access to healthcare, education, and adequate living standards. A welfare state often provides social safety nets, such as unemployment benefits, pensions, and housing support.


Step 2: Key features of a welfare state.

- The state ensures the well-being of the citizens, especially the disadvantaged.

- It provides services like education, healthcare, and housing for all.

- It works to reduce inequalities through redistribution of wealth and provision of basic services.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The Public Welfare State is based on the idea of collective responsibility where the government actively intervenes to reduce poverty and provide a decent standard of living for all its citizens.
Quick Tip: A Public Welfare State focuses on providing essential services to citizens and reducing inequalities in society.

Step 1: Understanding regional parties.

Regional parties are political parties that operate primarily within a specific geographical area or state, rather than at the national level. They focus on issues that affect the local population, such as regional development, language rights, and cultural preservation.


Step 2: Terminology for regional parties.

- In India, regional parties are also called "State Parties" because they are focused on local issues and work mainly in specific states or regions.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Regional parties are often crucial for ensuring that local concerns are represented in the political system.
Quick Tip: Regional parties play an important role in a country's political system, representing the interests of local populations.

Step 1: Definition of Zero Hour.

Zero Hour is a parliamentary term that refers to the time immediately following the Question Hour when Members of Parliament can raise matters of urgent public importance without prior notice. It usually starts at noon, just after the Question Hour, and lasts until the end of the parliamentary session.


Step 2: Key features.

- Zero Hour allows MPs to bring up urgent issues that have not been discussed during the regular parliamentary agenda.

- The government is required to respond to these issues, making it a vital mechanism for ensuring accountability.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Zero Hour is an important part of the parliamentary process that allows MPs to discuss critical matters affecting the country.
Quick Tip: Zero Hour allows MPs to raise urgent issues without prior notice, ensuring quick discussion and action.

Step 1: Understanding UN Women.

UN Women is a specialized agency of the United Nations that was established to advocate for gender equality and the empowerment of women. It works to address issues such as violence against women, economic inequality, and women’s political participation.


Step 2: Mission and focus areas.

- UN Women works to advance gender equality globally through policies and programs.

- It plays a key role in coordinating efforts within the UN system and with other organizations to advance women’s rights.


Step 3: Conclusion.

UN Women was established to promote equality between genders, ensuring that women's rights are protected and promoted in all areas of life.
Quick Tip: UN Women advocates for global gender equality and empowers women by addressing issues such as violence, discrimination, and political participation.

Step 1: Understanding the Kyoto Protocol.

The Kyoto Protocol is an international treaty that was adopted in 1997 in Kyoto, Japan. It commits industrialized countries and economies in transition to reduce greenhouse gas emissions, which contribute to global warming and climate change. The treaty set binding targets for emission reduction, which countries had to meet by the period of 2008-2012.


Step 2: Key Features.

- The Kyoto Protocol was one of the first global attempts to reduce global warming.

- The protocol introduced market-based mechanisms, such as carbon trading, to help countries reduce emissions.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The Kyoto Protocol laid the foundation for future international efforts to combat climate change by setting targets for emissions reductions and promoting collaboration among countries.
Quick Tip: The Kyoto Protocol was a major milestone in global efforts to combat climate change by setting binding emissions reduction targets for developed countries.

Step 1: Understanding Global Commons.

Global Commons refers to natural resources that are shared by all nations and are not owned by any one country. These include the Earth's atmosphere, oceans, outer space, and the Antarctic region. These resources are vital for life on Earth, and their protection and sustainable use are critical to the global ecosystem.


Step 2: Key concepts.

- Global Commons are typically protected by international agreements to ensure that no single nation exploits these resources to the detriment of others.

- Environmental conservation, sustainable resource management, and climate agreements are often focused on protecting Global Commons.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Global Commons are shared resources that must be managed cooperatively by all nations to ensure the well-being of the planet and future generations.
Quick Tip: Global Commons refers to shared resources like the atmosphere, oceans, and outer space that require global cooperation to preserve and protect.

Step 1: Understanding Other Backward Classes (OBCs).

Other Backward Classes (OBCs) are a group of people in India who are considered socially and educationally disadvantaged compared to other castes. The OBC category was introduced to provide affirmative action, including reservations in education and government jobs, to uplift these communities.


Step 2: Legal provisions.

- The Indian Constitution recognizes OBCs as a socially and economically disadvantaged group and provides them with affirmative action.

- OBCs benefit from reservations in various educational institutions and government jobs to improve their social and economic status.


Step 3: Conclusion.

OBCs represent a crucial segment of Indian society that requires government support to overcome historical disadvantages and achieve equal opportunities.
Quick Tip: OBCs are provided with reservations in education and employment to address their historical social and educational disadvantages.

Step 1: Understanding the Assam Accord.

The Assam Accord was signed in 1985 between the Government of India and the leaders of Assam to end the Assam Movement, which had been demanding the identification and expulsion of illegal immigrants from Bangladesh. The Accord aimed at resolving the issue of illegal immigration and provided for the protection of the rights of the indigenous Assamese people.


Step 2: Key provisions of the Assam Accord.

- The Accord set a cut-off date for the detection and deportation of illegal immigrants.

- It also provided for the socio-economic development of Assam.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The Assam Accord was a significant step towards addressing the concerns of indigenous people in Assam regarding the influx of immigrants, and it aimed to preserve the social and cultural fabric of the state.
Quick Tip: The Assam Accord of 1985 aimed to resolve issues related to illegal immigration and safeguard the rights of the indigenous Assamese population.

Step 1: Definition of regional cooperation.

Regional cooperation refers to the collaboration between neighboring countries or regions in political, economic, social, and environmental fields. This cooperation aims to foster mutual benefits, resolve common issues, and improve relations between countries. Examples of regional cooperation include agreements on trade, security, environmental conservation, and infrastructure development.


Step 2: Importance of regional cooperation.

- It helps improve political stability in a region.

- Regional cooperation can address transnational issues like climate change, terrorism, and pandemics more effectively.

- It promotes trade and economic integration among neighboring countries, boosting development.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Regional cooperation fosters peace, security, and sustainable development by encouraging collaborative action on shared challenges.
Quick Tip: Regional cooperation can enhance peace and security and improve the overall well-being of countries in a specific geographical area.

Step 1: Definition of Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP).

The Directive Principles of State Policy are guidelines or principles set out in the Constitution of India to guide the government in creating policies that promote social and economic welfare. These principles are not enforceable by law but are fundamental in the governance of the country. They are aimed at establishing a just society by promoting the welfare of the people.


Step 2: Key features of DPSP.

- DPSP covers various aspects such as education, health, social justice, economic equality, and environmental protection.

- The government is expected to adopt these principles while formulating policies, although they are not legally enforceable.


Step 3: Conclusion.

DPSP provides a roadmap for creating a social and economic order based on justice and equality. It guides the government's actions for achieving social welfare and promoting the well-being of all citizens.
Quick Tip: Directive Principles of State Policy are meant to ensure the development of a fair and just society, guiding the government in making policies that reflect social and economic justice.

Step 1: Understanding the Right to Life.

The Right to Life is a fundamental right guaranteed under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution. It states that no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law. This right encompasses a broad spectrum, including the right to live with dignity, access to basic needs like food, shelter, healthcare, and the right to live free from arbitrary detention or punishment.


Step 2: Key aspects of the Right to Life.

- It guarantees not just the physical existence of individuals but also their ability to live in dignity.

- The right is not limited to mere survival but includes all conditions necessary for a dignified life, including the right to a healthy environment, access to education, and medical care.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The Right to Life is a broad and fundamental right that ensures not only survival but also the dignity of every individual. It forms the basis of other rights such as the right to education, the right to health, and the right to a clean environment.
Quick Tip: The Right to Life is not just about survival but also the right to live with dignity, including access to essential services like education and healthcare.

Step 1: Definition of environmental protection.

Environmental protection refers to the practice of safeguarding the natural environment by implementing policies, regulations, and actions that minimize harm to the ecosystems and biodiversity. It involves efforts to conserve natural resources, reduce pollution, and prevent further environmental degradation.


Step 2: Importance of environmental protection.

- It ensures the sustainability of natural resources for future generations.

- Protecting the environment is crucial for human health, as environmental degradation leads to problems such as air and water pollution, climate change, and loss of biodiversity.

- Environmental protection promotes the responsible use of resources to maintain ecological balance.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Environmental protection is essential for the long-term well-being of both the planet and its inhabitants. Sustainable development practices ensure that we meet our current needs without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own.
Quick Tip: Environmental protection is vital for preserving natural resources and ensuring a healthy and sustainable planet for future generations.

Step 1: Understanding the United Nations (UN).

The United Nations (UN) is an international organization founded in 1945 to promote peace, security, and cooperation among member states. The main objectives of the UN are outlined in its Charter, and they include the following:


Step 2: Key objectives of the United Nations.

- To maintain international peace and security.

- To develop friendly relations among nations based on the principles of equal rights and self-determination.

- To promote human rights and fundamental freedoms.

- To coordinate and provide humanitarian aid in situations of conflict or natural disasters.

- To promote social, economic, and cultural cooperation through international agreements.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The UN plays a vital role in addressing global challenges, fostering international cooperation, and maintaining global peace. It serves as a platform for countries to discuss issues, resolve disputes, and work together on pressing global concerns.
Quick Tip: The United Nations is essential for maintaining international peace and security, promoting human rights, and fostering global cooperation in various fields.

Step 1: Understanding the World Trade Organisation (WTO).

The World Trade Organisation (WTO) is an international body that deals with the global rules of trade between nations. Its goal is to ensure that trade flows as smoothly, predictably, and freely as possible.


Step 2: Main functions of the WTO.

- It administers trade agreements and provides a platform for negotiations between member countries.

- It resolves trade disputes and ensures that trade practices comply with agreed-upon rules.

- It monitors and reviews the trade policies of member countries.

- It helps developing countries build trade capacity and gain greater access to global markets.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The WTO plays a crucial role in managing and regulating international trade by establishing agreements and resolving disputes, which helps to maintain a stable global trading system.
Quick Tip: The WTO ensures that global trade operates smoothly by facilitating negotiations, resolving disputes, and promoting fair trade practices among member nations.

Step 1: Understanding the United Nations.

The United Nations (UN) is an international organization established in 1945 with the goal of promoting peace, security, and cooperation among member states. It has various specialized agencies that work on different aspects of global development and governance.


Step 2: Key agencies of the UN.

Four key agencies of the United Nations include:

1. UNICEF (United Nations Children's Fund) - Focuses on providing humanitarian aid to children in developing countries.

2. WHO (World Health Organisation) - Responsible for public health worldwide, focusing on international health issues.

3. UNESCO (United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization) - Promotes education, science, and culture worldwide.

4. UNHCR (United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees) - Protects and supports refugees and displaced persons globally.


Step 3: Conclusion.

These agencies play significant roles in addressing global issues such as health, education, and human rights.
Quick Tip: The United Nations has a variety of specialized agencies that work towards global welfare in fields such as health, education, and humanitarian aid.

Step 1: Understanding the Finance Bill.

A Finance Bill is a proposal introduced in the parliament for the imposition, alteration, or repeal of taxes, or for the allocation of the government's budget. It is an essential document for ensuring the financial resources of the government and is presented annually as part of the budget process.


Step 2: Importance of the Finance Bill.

- The Finance Bill gives legal sanction to the government’s taxation and expenditure policies.

- It is debated and passed by both houses of Parliament before it becomes law.

- It ensures transparency and accountability in financial governance.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The Finance Bill is a vital legislative tool to manage the fiscal policy of the government and regulate public finances.
Quick Tip: The Finance Bill plays a crucial role in determining the fiscal policies and budget allocations of the government.

Step 1: Definition of Non-Aligned Policy.

The Non-Aligned Policy refers to the foreign policy adopted by certain countries, particularly in the mid-20th century, that chose not to formally align with any major power bloc (such as the USA or the USSR) during the Cold War. Instead, these countries pursued an independent path, promoting peaceful coexistence, mutual respect, and non-intervention.


Step 2: Key principles of Non-Alignment.

- Non-alignment advocates neutrality in international conflicts.

- It promotes cooperation among countries without aligning with superpower blocs.

- The policy emphasizes peace, independence, and sovereignty in foreign relations.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Non-alignment allowed countries, especially newly independent states, to maintain their sovereignty and make decisions without being influenced by the competing interests of global superpowers.
Quick Tip: The Non-Aligned Movement promotes the principle of independence in foreign policy, avoiding alignment with any major power bloc.

Step 1: Definition of Political equality.

Political equality refers to the principle that every citizen has the same rights and opportunities in political participation, without discrimination based on gender, race, religion, or social status. It ensures that all individuals have an equal say in the decision-making processes of government, such as voting and running for public office.


Step 2: Key aspects of political equality.

- Equal voting rights: Every citizen has the right to vote and participate in elections.

- Equal eligibility: All citizens have the right to contest elections and hold public office.

- Equality before the law: All individuals are subject to the same laws and regulations, without bias or favoritism.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Political equality is fundamental for a functioning democracy, where all citizens have an equal role in governance. It promotes fairness, justice, and inclusivity.
Quick Tip: Political equality ensures that all citizens have an equal voice in the political process, contributing to a just and democratic society.

Step 1: Definition of Regionalism.

Regionalism is the belief or advocacy of the interests of a particular region over the interests of the nation as a whole. It may involve the promotion of regional identity, culture, and political autonomy. Regionalism often emerges in response to perceived neglect or marginalization of a region by the central government.


Step 2: Key features of regionalism.

- Regionalism can lead to the demand for greater political autonomy or even independence from the central government.

- It can also involve the promotion of local languages, cultures, and economic interests.

- In some cases, regionalism can result in conflict between central authorities and regional groups.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Regionalism can enhance cultural identity and promote local economic development, but if left unchecked, it may also pose challenges to national unity and political stability.
Quick Tip: Regionalism can strengthen local identity but must be balanced with national unity to prevent conflicts and division.

Step 1: Understanding SAARC.

The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) is an organization of South Asian nations that aims to promote economic and regional integration. The main objectives of SAARC are as follows:


Step 2: Objectives of SAARC.

- Promotion of welfare: SAARC works towards promoting the welfare of the people of South Asia.

- Regional cooperation: It fosters regional cooperation to improve the quality of life.

- Economic development: SAARC aims to accelerate the economic and social development of South Asia.

- Cultural exchange: It encourages people-to-people contact and cultural exchanges.


Step 3: Conclusion.

SAARC aims to foster cooperation and unity among South Asian countries for regional peace, development, and prosperity.
Quick Tip: SAARC focuses on regional cooperation in various sectors, such as economic development, culture, and welfare.

Step 1: Understanding South Asia.

South Asia refers to the region in Asia that is located primarily in the southern part of the continent. It includes the following countries:

- India

- Pakistan

- Bangladesh

- Sri Lanka

- Nepal

- Bhutan

- Maldives


Step 2: Geographic and cultural context.

South Asia is home to over one-fifth of the world’s population and is known for its diverse cultures, languages, and traditions. The region has a shared history, with many ancient civilizations such as the Indus Valley Civilization.


Step 3: Conclusion.

South Asia is an important geopolitical and cultural region that is economically diverse and strategically significant.
Quick Tip: South Asia is a culturally rich and diverse region comprising seven countries, each with unique languages, cultures, and traditions.

Step 1: Definition of Ordinance.

An ordinance is a law or regulation enacted by the executive (usually the President or Governor) without the need for legislative approval. It is used when there is a need for immediate action and the legislature is not in session.


Step 2: Conditions and limitations.

- Ordinances have the same force as laws passed by Parliament or State Assemblies.

- An ordinance must be approved by the legislature within a specific time frame (usually 6 weeks) after it reconvenes.

- The President or Governor may issue an ordinance under special powers granted by the Constitution.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Ordinances are a temporary measure that the executive can use to address urgent issues, but they must be ratified by the legislature to remain valid.
Quick Tip: Ordinances are issued when immediate action is required, but they must be ratified by the legislature to be permanent.

Step 1: Definition of Refugees.

Refugees are individuals who are forced to flee their home country due to fear of persecution on the grounds of race, religion, nationality, membership in a particular social group, or political opinion. They are unable or unwilling to return to their country because of the threat of persecution.


Step 2: Legal protections for refugees.

- Refugees are protected under international law, including the 1951 Refugee Convention and its 1967 Protocol.

- Refugees have the right to seek asylum in another country and are entitled to basic rights, such as the right to education and employment, and protection from deportation.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Refugees are individuals who seek safety in another country due to threats in their own, and international law ensures their protection and rights.
Quick Tip: Refugees are people who have fled their home country due to fear of persecution and are entitled to international protection.

Step 1: Understanding the Rio Summit.

The Rio Summit, also known as the Earth Summit, was held in 1992 in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil. It was the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED), which focused on sustainable development and the environment.


Step 2: Key outcomes of the summit.

1. Agenda 21: A comprehensive action plan for sustainable development. It addresses global environmental issues and the ways to implement solutions.

2. The Rio Declaration: A set of principles on sustainable development, including the right to development and the need for international cooperation.


Step 3: Conclusion.

The Rio Summit marked a pivotal moment in global environmental politics, leading to the widespread adoption of sustainable development principles.
Quick Tip: The Rio Summit laid the foundation for global environmental governance and sustainable development practices.

Step 1: Introduction to Amnesty International.

Amnesty International is a global movement focused on advocating for human rights and campaigning against human rights violations. Founded in 1961, it works to promote and protect the rights of individuals, regardless of their nationality or political affiliation.


Step 2: Key objectives of Amnesty International.

- Protection of human rights: It campaigns for the protection of civil, political, social, and economic rights.

- Opposition to abuses: Amnesty campaigns against torture, arbitrary detention, and other human rights abuses.

- Advocacy and pressure: It works to influence governments and other powerful entities to respect human rights through international campaigns, reports, and lobbying.


Step 3: Conclusion.

Amnesty International plays a critical role in advocating for global human rights protection, ensuring accountability, and empowering individuals worldwide.
Quick Tip: Amnesty International is a major organization dedicated to human rights advocacy and the prevention of violations worldwide.

The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) is an organization of South Asian nations, formed with the objective to promote regional cooperation and development. The member countries include Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka.


Step 1: Identification.

SAARC aims at promoting economic growth, cultural cooperation, and regional integration among the South Asian countries.


Step 2: Conclusion.

The correct name of the organization is South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC). Hence, the correct option is (A).



Final Answer: \[ \boxed{(A) South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation} \] Quick Tip: SAARC is focused on enhancing regional cooperation and promoting economic and cultural progress in South Asia.

The Panchsheel Agreement, signed between India and China in 1954, is based on five principles of peaceful coexistence. These principles include:


Mutual respect for each other's territorial integrity and sovereignty.
Mutual non-aggression.
Non-interference in each other's internal affairs.
Equality and mutual benefit.
Peaceful co-existence.


Step 1: Establishment.

The Panchsheel Agreement was formed to establish friendly relations and peace between India and China. These principles are central to fostering a harmonious relationship between countries.


Step 2: Conclusion.

The points of Panchsheel highlight peaceful co-existence, mutual respect, and non-interference as vital principles in international relations.



Final Answer:
The five principles of Panchsheel are mutual respect for sovereignty, mutual non-aggression, non-interference, equality and mutual benefit, and peaceful co-existence. Quick Tip: The Panchsheel Agreement is a foundational diplomatic document for fostering peaceful relations between India and China.

The concurrent list is a list of subjects in the Indian Constitution that both the Union and State governments can legislate on. It is outlined in the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution.

Step 1: Constitution Framework.

The concurrent list includes subjects of joint interest to both the central and state governments, like education, criminal law, marriage and divorce, and bankruptcy and insolvency.


Step 2: Conclusion.

The concurrent list allows both levels of government to legislate on the same subject, promoting cooperation between them.



Final Answer:
The concurrent list refers to subjects on which both the central and state governments can make laws. Quick Tip: The concurrent list allows joint legislation, promoting cooperation between different levels of government.

President's rule in a state refers to the imposition of direct governance by the central government in case the state government is unable to function according to the constitutional provisions.

Step 1: Legal Basis.

Under Article 356 of the Indian Constitution, if the President believes that the government in the state cannot function according to the provisions of the Constitution, he can take over the state’s governance.


Step 2: Conclusion.

This rule is invoked in situations like failure of constitutional machinery or breakdown of law and order in the state.


Final Answer:
President's rule refers to the central government taking control over a state when the state government is deemed incapable of functioning. Quick Tip: President's rule is a temporary measure to ensure that the constitutional order is maintained when a state government fails.

The Right to Information (RTI) is a fundamental right that empowers citizens to seek information from public authorities and government bodies.

Step 1: Legal Basis.

RTI is governed by the Right to Information Act of 2005, which allows any citizen to request information from public authorities.


Step 2: Conclusion.

It aims to promote transparency, accountability, and responsiveness in governance by providing citizens the power to access government information.



Final Answer:
The Right to Information (RTI) is a legal provision that allows citizens to obtain information from government institutions. Quick Tip: RTI empowers citizens to seek transparency from government bodies, promoting accountability.

The United Nations (UN) is an international organization founded in 1945 with the primary objective of maintaining international peace and security. It also aims to promote social and economic development, protect human rights, and provide humanitarian aid.

Step 1: Strengths of UN.

The UN has made significant contributions to global peacekeeping, development, and human rights advocacy. It played a crucial role in mediating conflicts, fostering cooperation, and providing humanitarian assistance worldwide. Its specialized agencies like WHO, UNESCO, and UNHCR have helped in promoting education, health, and refugee support.


Step 2: Criticisms of UN.

However, the UN faces several criticisms, including its lack of enforcement power, limited effectiveness in conflict resolution, and the dominance of major powers in decision-making, especially within the Security Council. The veto power of the permanent members has often led to paralysis in addressing international crises.

Step 3: Conclusion.

While the UN has contributed significantly to global peace and development, it faces challenges in adapting to contemporary issues such as regional conflicts, terrorism, and climate change.


Final Answer:
The UN has played a pivotal role in international diplomacy and humanitarian efforts, but its limitations in enforcement and global power dynamics are areas that need reform. Quick Tip: Reforming the United Nations to address current geopolitical realities remains an ongoing challenge for global diplomacy.

NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) was established in 2015, replacing the Planning Commission. It serves as the premier policy think tank of the Indian government, aiming to foster sustainable and inclusive development.

Step 1: Formation of NITI Aayog.

NITI Aayog was created with the aim of evolving a shared vision of national development priorities, sectors, and strategies. The organization is designed to offer strategic and technical advice to the central and state governments.


Step 2: Functions of NITI Aayog.

NITI Aayog plays several roles including:

Formulating national policies and programs.
Providing a platform for cooperative federalism.
Fostering innovation and development through research and collaborations.
Working towards sustainable development by considering environmental concerns.


Step 3: Conclusion.

By replacing the Planning Commission, NITI Aayog has introduced a more decentralized approach to policy planning, focusing on state involvement and fostering innovative governance solutions.


Final Answer:
NITI Aayog is a government body that plays a key role in developing national policies and fostering cooperative federalism, contributing to India's development agenda. Quick Tip: NITI Aayog's focus on innovation, sustainability, and collaborative governance marks a shift from the centralized planning model to a more flexible and participatory approach.

The relations between India and Pakistan have been marked by conflict, competition, and cooperation. Since their independence in 1947, the two countries have faced significant challenges, including territorial disputes, especially over Kashmir, and three major wars (1947, 1965, 1971).

Step 1: Early Tensions and Wars.

The Partition of British India in 1947 left a lasting impact on Indo-Pak relations, leading to the first war over Kashmir. The subsequent wars in 1965 and 1971 further entrenched hostilities, although the 1971 war also led to the creation of Bangladesh, which changed the dynamics of South Asian geopolitics.


Step 2: Nuclear Rivalry and Tensions.

Both countries conducted nuclear tests in 1998, which escalated tensions, with fears of nuclear warfare between the two neighbors. Despite this, both nations have avoided direct military confrontation in the nuclear era, but proxy wars and cross-border terrorism have been significant issues.


Step 3: Diplomatic Efforts and Challenges.

While there have been attempts at peace, including the Shimla Agreement (1972) and Lahore Declaration (1999), numerous efforts have failed due to the underlying issues surrounding Kashmir and terrorism. In recent years, diplomatic relations have remained tense, but occasional peace talks have emerged.

Step 4: Conclusion.

The Indo-Pak relationship is complex, with deep-rooted historical, political, and territorial challenges. Both countries continue to seek a balance between conflict and cooperation, but achieving lasting peace remains a difficult endeavor.


Final Answer:
Indo-Pak relations are a mix of conflict, competition, and sporadic attempts at peace, with the Kashmir dispute and terrorism continuing to dominate the bilateral agenda. Quick Tip: Despite years of tension, both India and Pakistan have made attempts at peace, but unresolved issues like Kashmir and terrorism remain barriers to lasting peace.

India's foreign policy is based on the principles of non-alignment, peaceful coexistence, and support for global disarmament. The key components include:

Step 1: Non-Alignment.

India has pursued a policy of non-alignment since its independence in 1947, focusing on maintaining friendly relations with all countries, particularly during the Cold War. India chose not to align itself with any of the two major blocs (Eastern and Western), instead maintaining an independent foreign policy.

Step 2: Peaceful Coexistence.

India emphasizes peaceful coexistence in its foreign relations. It promotes the idea of resolving conflicts through dialogue and diplomacy, avoiding the use of force. The principles of Panchsheel (five principles of peaceful coexistence) are central to India's foreign policy.

Step 3: Global Disarmament.

India has been a strong advocate for nuclear disarmament, pushing for a world free of nuclear weapons. India also supports the United Nations and other multilateral organizations in promoting peace, security, and international cooperation.

Step 4: Regional Cooperation.

India’s foreign policy places a strong emphasis on regional cooperation, particularly with its neighbors in South Asia through platforms such as SAARC. It also engages with Southeast Asia, Africa, and other regions to maintain and strengthen its global influence.


Final Answer:
India’s foreign policy is characterized by non-alignment, peaceful coexistence, and a commitment to global disarmament, with a strong focus on regional cooperation and multilateralism. Quick Tip: India's foreign policy has evolved to meet the changing global dynamics, with a continued focus on peace and diplomacy.

Bihar, one of India's most populous and backward states, faces challenges in terms of development, poverty alleviation, and infrastructure. The demand for a special state status for Bihar is based on the following points:

Step 1: Development Challenges.

Bihar remains one of the least developed states in India, with issues like high poverty, poor healthcare facilities, and low literacy rates. Special state status would allow for more focused policies and greater financial support for infrastructure development.

Step 2: Financial Assistance.

Special state status would make Bihar eligible for additional financial aid from the central government, which could be used to address the state's developmental deficits. This status would ensure more autonomy in using funds for local needs.

Step 3: Socio-Economic Benefits.

By having special status, Bihar could attract more investment and industrial growth, leading to the creation of jobs and improvement in living standards. It could also strengthen the state's education, healthcare, and social welfare sectors.

Step 4: Conclusion.

Granting special state status to Bihar would help in overcoming its historical disadvantages by providing the state with additional resources and a larger say in its development.


Final Answer:
Bihar should be granted special status to address its developmental issues, boost investment, and provide more financial and administrative autonomy for faster growth. Quick Tip: Special status can offer fiscal autonomy and targeted development programs to address a state's unique challenges.

The President of India is the ceremonial head of state and the supreme commander of the armed forces, acting within the framework of India's Constitution. The powers and functions of the President are as follows:

Step 1: Executive Powers.

The President appoints the Prime Minister and other ministers, and all executive actions are taken in their name. They also have the power to summon and dissolve Parliament, and address it on important matters.

Step 2: Legislative Powers.

The President can promulgate ordinances when Parliament is not in session. They also give assent to bills passed by Parliament, which is a necessary step for a bill to become law. The President can also send a bill back for reconsideration.

Step 3: Judicial Powers.

The President has the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment, and to suspend, remit, or commute sentences in certain cases. This includes the power to commute death sentences.

Step 4: Diplomatic and Military Powers.

The President represents India in international matters, receives foreign ambassadors, and appoints Indian ambassadors abroad. They are also the supreme commander of the armed forces and are responsible for defense-related decisions.

Step 5: Emergency Powers.

The President can declare a national emergency in the event of war or external aggression, or a state emergency if the state government cannot function. These powers give the President the authority to take control over states and issue directives.


Final Answer:
The President of India holds significant powers, including executive, legislative, judicial, diplomatic, and emergency powers, though they typically act on the advice of the Prime Minister and Cabinet. Quick Tip: While the President is the head of state, their powers are largely exercised on the advice of the Council of Ministers, making the office largely ceremonial.

The Rajya Sabha, also known as the Council of States, is the upper house of India's Parliament. It plays a crucial role in the legislative process. The formation and functions of the Rajya Sabha are as follows:

Step 1: Formation.

The Rajya Sabha is composed of not more than 250 members, who are elected for a term of six years. It includes:
- 12 members who are nominated by the President for their expertise in fields like literature, science, arts, and social services.
- 238 members are indirectly elected by the members of the State Legislative Assemblies through proportional representation using a single transferable vote.

Step 2: Functions.

The main functions of the Rajya Sabha include:
- Legislative Function: The Rajya Sabha debates and passes laws along with the Lok Sabha. While it can propose bills, it cannot veto money bills. However, it can delay bills and suggest amendments.
- Reviewing Function: The Rajya Sabha acts as a revising chamber, reviewing the bills passed by the Lok Sabha.
- Control over the Executive: It plays a significant role in checking the work of the executive through discussions, questions, and debates on national issues.
- Representation of States: It represents the states and union territories in the Parliament, ensuring that states have a voice in the central legislative process.


Final Answer:
The Rajya Sabha, formed with 250 members, represents the states in the Parliament and plays a vital role in passing laws, reviewing bills, and controlling the executive. Quick Tip: The Rajya Sabha cannot override decisions on money bills, but it plays a key role in revising and suggesting amendments to bills passed by the Lok Sabha.

Globalisation refers to the process of increased interconnectedness and interdependence among countries through trade, communication, technology, and cultural exchange. It is the integration of economies, societies, and cultures.

Step 1: Meaning of Globalisation.

Globalisation involves the flow of goods, services, people, and ideas across borders. It has been facilitated by advancements in technology, transportation, and communication. It enables countries to open up their markets and collaborate on a global scale.

Step 2: Impact on India.

The impact of globalisation on India has been multifaceted:

- Economic Growth: Globalisation has led to rapid economic growth in India, particularly in sectors such as information technology, pharmaceuticals, and manufacturing. The opening of markets has allowed India to attract foreign investment and establish itself as an emerging global economy.
- Increase in Trade and Investment: India has become a part of the global trade network, leading to higher exports and imports. The rise in foreign direct investment (FDI) has helped in modernising industries and boosting infrastructure.
- Cultural Exchange: Globalisation has also brought about a cultural exchange, influencing Indian lifestyle, fashion, food, and entertainment. Western influence is visible in the urban areas, particularly among the youth.
- Employment and Skill Development: The expansion of global companies in India has created millions of jobs and opportunities for skill development in various sectors, such as IT, finance, and marketing.
- Social Inequality: Despite the positive effects, globalisation has also contributed to increased income inequality. The benefits of globalisation have been unevenly distributed, with rural areas lagging behind urban centers in terms of development.

Step 3: Conclusion.

Globalisation has had both positive and negative effects on India. While it has propelled economic growth and modernisation, it has also highlighted challenges such as inequality and cultural erosion.


Final Answer:
Globalisation has greatly impacted India, leading to economic growth, greater trade, and employment opportunities, while also posing challenges such as increased inequality and cultural changes. Quick Tip: Globalisation can benefit a country’s economy but can also lead to widening inequality if the growth is not inclusive.