CLAT 2023 UG Question Paper with Answer Key PDFs- Download Here

What use was the kabadiwala (wastepicker) to the author?

• (A) The kabadiwala bought up all her magazines.
• (B) The kabadiwala’s stock of books and magazines were of interest to the author.
• (C) The kabadiwala was about to steal the author’s magazines.
• (D) The author ordered books online which the kabadiwala delivered.

What according to the author is essential about the experience of being a ‘provincial reader’?

• (A) Belatedness in the sense of coming late for everything.
• (B) Over-eagerness.
• (C) Accepting a temporal gap between what was current in the wider world and the time at which these arrived in the provincial location.
• (D) None of the above.

Why did the author feel a sense of epiphany and deep sadness?

• (A) Because the things that felt special and unique to the author were already established and accepted thought in the wider world.
• (B) Because the author was less well-read than others.
• (C) Because the author missed being in a big city.
• (D) All the above.

What does the word ‘anachronistic’ as used in the passage, mean?

• (A) Rooted in a non-urban setting
• (B) Related to a mofussil area
• (C) Connected with another time
• (D) Opposed to prevailing sensibilities

Which of the following options captures the meaning of the last sentence best?

• (A) Though the author feels provincial, she pretends to be from the metropolis.
• (B) Though the author feels dated in her access to intellectual ideas, her lack of metropolitan sophistication lets her engage with the ideas with some originality.
• (C) Though the author is aware of the limitedness of her knowledge, she is confident and can hold her own in a crowd. She is also proud of her roots in the small town.
• (D) All the above.

What was the assumption about the origin of urban life in India \emph{before the Keeladi dig?

• (A) The origins lay in the northern Gangetic plains, which urbanised earlier than the south.
• (B) The Indus Valley Civilization was the first urban civilization of India.
• (C) The second urbanization was known to be in the Magadha empire.
• (D) Both (A) and (B)

“The Keeladi excavations further challenge the idea of a single fountainhead of Indian life.” — In elaboration of this sentence, which option follows?

• (A) Dominant theories of how urban and modern life came about in ancient India were proved wrong by the Keeladi archaeological dig.
• (B) Neither the IVC, nor the urban civilisation of Magadha clearly explains how urban life emerged in Keeladi in the third century BCE.
• (C) The Keeladi dig indicates that Indian urban/modern life may have had multiple origins across periods and regions; no single theory suffices.
• (D) None of the above.

Language, including a script similar to Brahmi (Tamili), emerged in Keeladi in the 6th century BCE. Which conclusion is most convincing?

• (A) Keeladi was far superior in culture/learning to all others in ancient India.
• (B) People of Keeladi were illiterate and could not inscribe on pots.
• (C) Early urban history of India could be significantly altered by the advances evidenced at Keeladi.
• (D) All the above.

BCE is the acronym for:

• (A) Before the Common Era
• (B) Before Colloquial Era
• (C) Before Central Era
• (D) Behind Central Era

“A farmer could write his own name on a pot he owned… ‘I have learnt it myself.’ ” — These imply:

• (A) Keeladi civilization was inegalitarian.
• (B) Literacy/education access was not restricted to the elite in Keeladi.
• (C) Farmers of Keeladi were also potters.
• (D) All the above.

Which of the following statements can be inferred from the above passage?

• (A) The internet expanded very slowly.
• (B) The internet can be used to cause harm.
• (C) The internet is addictive.
• (D) The main purpose of social media platforms is to dissuade people from showing off.

All the following statements are ‘truisms’, except:

• (A) The internet has changed the way the world works.
• (B) A preference for cat videos can reveal a lot about your personality.
• (C) Like with any tool, digital technology has both advantages and disadvantages.
• (D) Only time can tell what the future holds.

Which of the following comes closest to the underlined sentence in the passage?

• (A) The way we use the internet says a lot about who we are.
• (B) The internet has reduced the distance between people living across the world.
• (C) The internet has the ability to customise what we access based on our identity.
• (D) The internet only shows us what we don’t want to see.

Which of the following is a metaphor?

• (A) the village of the internet
• (B) this feverish, electric, unliveable hell
• (C) three-ring circus of happiness and popularity and success
• (D) all the above

Which of the following categories best describes this piece of writing?

• (A) Non-fiction essay
• (B) Fiction
• (C) Academic paper
• (D) Poem

Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

• (A) The water tanker mafia’s operations, though illegal, are justified given the vital service they provide to the people of Delhi.
• (B) The water supplied by the water tanker mafia is potentially contaminated.
• (C) Private truck owners play the most important role in the operations of the water tanker mafia.
• (D) The water supplied by the water tanker mafia is meant primarily for residential use.

Which of the following, used in the passage, suggests that the illegal supply of groundwater is not a recent phenomenon?

• (A) Entrenched
• (B) Ubiquitous
• (C) Long-term water security
• (D) Fast-depleting common resource

Which of the following seems to be the author’s main concern in the passage?

• (A) Delhi’s water supply infrastructure does not adequately cater to all its residents.
• (B) The illegal operations of the water tank mafia do not depend on the complicity of a range of actors, including the police and city councillors.
• (C) The petty profiteering of a few actors comes at the immense cost of India’s sustainable access to water.
• (D) All the above

All of the following are sounds you can hear as the water tankers are filled, except:

• (A) Creaking
• (B) Thrumming
• (C) Droning
• (D) Gushing

Which of the following words from the passage means ‘hidden’?

• (A) Illicit
• (B) Idling
• (C) Subversive
• (D) Covert

Which of the following can be inferred about the author’s views on English in contemporary India?

• (A) The ability to speak English in India depends on place and social identity.
• (B) English is not an Indian language.
• (C) English language fluency does not necessarily imply competence.
• (D) People’s views on English are divided along political lines.

Who among the following would \emph{defy Chetan Bhagat’s neat categorisation of Indian English-speakers into E1 and E2?

• (A) Savitha… English-medium, upper-middle class; fumbles in interviews due to nervousness.
• (B) Moin… milkman’s background; learns English at 17; becomes a spoken-English instructor.
• (C) Both (A) and (B)
• (D) Neither (A) nor (B)

Which of the following best describes the author’s response to Bhagat’s views on English?

• (A) Dismisses him as a self-appointed expert.
• (B) Completely agrees with his views.
• (C) Neither agrees nor disagrees.
• (D) Considers his views and finds that they lack nuance.

Which of the following can be inferred from Gandhi’s views with respect to English in post-independence India?

• (A) English should not be taught as a subject in Indian universities.
• (B) English proficiency is vital in order to gain entry into the bureaucracy.
• (C) Indian women cannot get rich if they do not know English.
• (D) None of the above.

Which of the following pairs of words are synonyms, \emph{except?

• (A) Stark, sharp
• (B) Sophisticated, spoil
• (C) Conundrum, problem
• (D) Cohesive, united

If Iff is right, which of the following statements is true?

• (A) You should only trust what you cannot see
• (B) Naming something is the only way to make it unreal
• (C) You should only trust what you can see
• (D) Naming something is one way to make it real

Which of the following applies to Iff?

• (A) He speaks in contradictions
• (B) He has a habit of speaking in synonyms
• (C) He uses proverbs to express ideas
• (D) He uses metaphors to describe things

Which of the following most accurately describes what the \underline{underlined sentence means in context?
(\emph{“Believe in your own eyes and you’ll get into a lot of trouble, hot water, a mess.”)

• (A) Do not restrict your knowledge only to what you can physically see
• (B) Accept everything you see uncritically
• (C) Trusting your senses is a recipe for success
• (D) Learn not to appreciate viewpoints other than your own

All the words below are related in meaning, \emph{except:

• (A) Levitate
• (B) Fly
• (C) Hover
• (D) Gander

What does “\emph{fabulous” mean in the passage?

• (A) Very good
• (B) Unbelievable
• (C) Mythical
• (D) Enormous

Before Droupadi Murmu, India had only one other female president, Pratibha Patil. When did Patil serve as the President of India?

• (A) 2007–2012
• (B) 2005–2010
• (C) 2012–2017
• (D) 2006–2011

President Murmu has earlier served as a Governor of which State?

• (A) Odisha
• (B) Bihar
• (C) Jharkhand
• (D) West Bengal

The first presidential election was held by the Election Commission in which year?

• (A) 1952
• (B) 1950
• (C) 1948
• (D) 1949

The Rashtrapati Bhavan was formerly known as the Viceroy’s palace (during colonial times). Where did the Governor General reside before the transfer of the British capital to Delhi in 1911?

• (A) Belvedere House
• (B) Raisina Palace
• (C) Secretariat Building
• (D) Writers’ Building

Who among the following was a candidate in the elections for the Vice President of India in 2022?

• (A) R. Venkataraman
• (B) Yashwant Sinha
• (C) M. Venkaiah Naidu
• (D) Margaret Alva

Voting in an Indian Presidential Election is through:

• (A) A first-past-the-post system through a single transferable vote cast in a secret ballot
• (B) A proportional representation system through a single transferable vote cast in a secret ballot
• (C) A proportional representation system through a single transferable vote cast in an open ballot
• (D) A first-past-the-post system through a single transferable vote cast in an open ballot

Who was the first Dalit to hold the office of the President of India?

• (A) Ram Nath Kovind
• (B) V.V. Giri
• (C) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
• (D) Kocheril Raman Narayanan

Whose name has been replaced with ``[1]'' in the passage above?

• (A) Alan Turing
• (B) Peter Hilton
• (C) Albert Einstein
• (D) Kurt Gödel

Garry Kasparov, (then) world chess champion, was defeated in 1997 by a supercomputer in a chess tournament. What was the name of this supercomputer?

• (A) Deep Mind
• (B) Deep Blue
• (C) Watson
• (D) Blue Gene

\emph{The Emperor’s New Mind: Concerning Computers, Minds and The Laws of Physics (1989) was written by a British mathematician who won the Nobel Prize in Physics in 2020. Who was this mathematician?

• (A) Donna Strickland
• (B) Max Tegmark
• (C) Peter Higgs
• (D) Roger Penrose

What kind of computing model resembles the way in which biological neurons exchange signals in the human brain?

• (A) Neural network
• (B) Cognitive computing
• (C) Natural language processing
• (D) Data mining

What is the full form of ‘LaMDA’?

• (A) Landing Macro Data Applications
• (B) Language Model for Dialogue Applications
• (C) Large Model Data Applications
• (D) Last Mile Dialogue Assessment

Meta’s newly released, fully trained large language AI model is called:

• (A) FTP
• (B) OPT
• (C) HTTP
• (D) SMTP

What is the name of the AI-enabled legal research assistive tool launched by the Supreme Court of India in April 2021?

• (A) SURAM
• (B) GPT-3
• (C) SUPACE
• (D) E-Courts

What is the name of the armband which has been replaced with ``[1]'' in the passage above?

• (A) FreeLove
• (B) OneLove
• (C) Pride
• (D) PlayLove

The name of which community has been replaced with ``[2]'' in the passage above?

• (A) Kurdish
• (B) Rohingya
• (C) Uyghur
• (D) LGBTQ+

What is the name of the system used to monitor and regulate migrant labourers, which is used in Qatar and a few other countries, and which came under heavy criticism in the build-up to the FIFA World Cup 2022 in Qatar?

• (A) Iddat
• (B) Khalifa
• (C) Kafala
• (D) Jazeera

Where is the Court of Arbitration for Sport (CAS) based?

• (A) Lausanne, Switzerland
• (B) The Hague, Netherlands
• (C) Brussels, Belgium
• (D) Paris, France

Who is the current captain of the Indian men’s football team?

• (A) Shabbir Ali
• (B) Bhaichung Bhutia
• (C) Sunil Chhetri
• (D) I.M. Vijayan

Timothy Weah, the Paris Saint-Germain and U.S. national team player in the FIFA World Cup 2022 in Qatar, is the son of the President of which country?

• (A) Senegal
• (B) Uruguay
• (C) Honduras
• (D) Liberia

Which of the following is the oldest football tournament in India?

• (A) Indian Super League
• (B) IFA Shield Cup
• (C) Santosh Trophy
• (D) Durand Cup

Which person’s name has been replaced with ``[1]'' in the passage above?

• (A) Mike Novogratz
• (B) Brian Armstrong
• (C) Changpeng Zhao \
• (D) Sam Bankman-Fried

Which hedge fund’s name has been replaced with ``[2]'' in the passage above?

• (A) BlackRock Advisors
• (B) Alameda Research
• (C) AQR Capital Management
• (D) Man Group

This person was once named “the world’s youngest self-made female billionaire” by \emph{Forbes and is the founder of Theranos. Who is she?

• (A) Elizabeth Holmes
• (B) Eren Ozmen
• (C) Fan Hongwei
• (D) Diane Hendricks

RBI launched “Digital Rupee — Wholesale Segment”. This is a form of which of the following?

• (A) Digi Suvidha
• (B) Virtual Wallet
• (C) Central Bank Digital Currency
• (D) Cyber Rupee

Which technologies does cryptocurrency rely on?

• (A) Cryptography
• (B) Blockchain
• (C) Spectrography
• (D) Both (A) and (B)

Name the Government of India-owned corporation that mints legal tender coins in India.

• (A) National Institute of Financial Management \quad
• (B) Security Printing and Minting Corporation of India Ltd. \quad
• (C) India Infrastructure Finance Company Ltd. \quad
• (D) National Bank of Agricultural and Rural Development

Who was the Founder and Former Chairman of Satyam Computer Services Ltd., later jailed and fined for a corporate governance scam?

• (A) Harshad Mehta
• (B) Ketan Parekh
• (C) B. Ramalinga Raju
• (D) Nirav Modi

Which of the following is the largest exported agricultural product from India?

• (A) Wheat
• (B) Sugar
• (C) Rice
• (D) Barley

According to provisional data released by the Directorate General of Commercial Intelligence and Statistics (DGCI\&S), India achieved record agricultural exports for FY22. What was the value of India’s agricultural products exports according to this data?

• (A) USD 7.5 billion
• (B) USD 95.34 billion
• (C) USD 13.2 billion
• (D) USD 50.21 billion

Who among the following is also called the ‘Father of the Wheat Revolution’?

• (A) Dilbagh Singh Athwal
• (B) Verghese Kurien
• (C) Atmaram Bhairav Joshi
• (D) Shanti Swaroop Bhatnagar

India is the world’s largest producer of which of the following?

• (A) Poultry meat
• (B) Rice
• (C) Almonds
• (D) Milk

What is India’s ranking in the 2022 Global Hunger Index (GHI)?

• (A) 10
• (B) 107
• (C) 50
• (D) 35

The National Commission on Farmers, constituted in December 2004, which recommended the C2+50% formula for calculation of the Minimum Support Price (MSP), was chaired by:

• (A) Ashok Gulati
• (B) P. Sainath
• (C) M. S. Swaminathan
• (D) Abhijit Sen

The bio-decomposer technology to avoid stubble burning around the Delhi NCR was developed by:

• (A) Monsanto
• (B) Cargill
• (C) Biocon
• (D) ICAR, Pusa Campus

Ashwin and Ashima were married in February 2020. In March 2020, Ashwin asked Ashima to take care of all their household work, such as cooking, cleaning, and other domestic chores, as he was very busy with his professional responsibilities. Ashima claims that this amounts to treating her like a maid servant and constitutes an offence under Section 498A of the IPC. Applying the Bombay High Court decision, is she likely to succeed?

• (A) Yes, since Ashwin had only asked Ashima to do their household work, and not for others.
• (B) No, since Ashwin had only asked Ashima to do their household work, and not for others.
• (C) Yes, since Ashwin had asked Ashima to do household work for themselves as well as others.
• (D) No, since treating a married woman like a maid servant would not amount to an offence under that Section.

In April 2020, Ashwin’s friend Rakesh visits Ashwin and Ashima’s home, and stays with them for a few days. During his visit, he is very mean to Ashima, and uses abusive language with her. He also threw a plate at her one evening when he was unhappy with the meal that she had prepared. Ashima now claims that Rakesh has committed an offence under Section 498A of the IPC. Is she likely to succeed?

• (A) No, since Rakesh’s actions were perfectly justifiable for a man who does not get a well-cooked meal.
• (B) Yes, since Rakesh’s use of abusive language and throwing the plate at Ashima clearly amount to cruelty.
• (C) No, since Rakesh is not her husband, nor is he related to Ashwin.
• (D) Yes, since Rakesh was staying at Ashwin and Ashima’s home at the time of the incident.

Frustrated and upset with her marriage, Ashima applies for and is granted a divorce from Ashwin in November 2020. Since she and Ashwin had been friends for many years before they got married, she stays in touch with him. She moves into her own apartment and starts going to office regularly at a new job. Ashwin is very upset at this and starts treating Ashima very cruelly. Ashima again claims that Ashwin has committed an offence under Section 498A of the IPC. Is she right?

• (A) Yes, since Ashwin has, as we are told, treated her cruelly.
• (B) Yes, since Ashwin has been her husband.
• (C) No, since Ashwin was understandably upset at Ashima’s behaviour.
• (D) No, since she is no longer married to Ashwin.

Assume that the government passes a new law in January 2021, called the Protection of Rights of Married Women Act, 2021 (the “PoMWA”), according to which, asking a married woman to take care of household chores would be an offence. The PoMWA also provides that if a man commits such an offence, he would have to pay compensation to the woman. The PoMWA even applies to actions that were committed any time in the three years prior to the new law coming into force, and even if the man and woman involved in the matter were no longer married. Upon hearing about this new law, Ashima once again alleges that Ashwin has committed an offence under Section 498A of the IPC, and claims compensation under the PoMWA for his actions. Is she right, and will she succeed?

• (A) Ashima is right about Ashwin committing an offence under Section 498A of the IPC, but she will not get compensation under the PoMWA.
• (B) Ashima will get compensation under the PoMWA, but she is not right about Ashwin committing an offence under Section 498A of the IPC.
• (C) Ashima will get compensation under the PoMWA, and she is also right about Ashwin committing an offence under Section 498A of the IPC.
• (D) Ashima will neither get compensation under the PoMWA, nor is she right about Ashwin committing an offence under Section 498A of the IPC.

Assume that in March 2021, the government changes Section 498A of the IPC. The effect of this change is that asking a married woman to do household chores — even for their own family — by herself would be considered cruelty, and therefore, an offence under the Section. Some days after this change comes into effect, Shamita, Ashima’s friend at work, tells her that her husband has been forcing her to do all the household work by herself. Ashima tells Shamita that her husband’s actions would amount to an offence under Section 498A of the IPC, even though Ashima herself has been unsuccessful in having Ashwin convicted under that Section in the past. Is Ashima’s advice to Shamita correct?

• (A) Yes, since Section 498A has now been changed, and Shamita’s husband’s actions would now be an offence under the changed Section 498A.
• (B) No, since Ashima has been unsuccessful in having Ashwin convicted under that Section in the past.
• (C) Yes, since the passing of the Protection of Married Women Act has resulted in Shamita’s husband’s actions being made illegal.
• (D) No, since Ashima is only Shamita’s friend, and only the married woman herself can file a complaint under Section 498A of the IPC.

Bhargesh is arrested by the police on April 11, 2022, on suspicion of having committed a series of minor thefts. During their investigation, the police find some fingerprints at the crime scenes, and on April 12, 2022, they tell Bhargesh that he must provide his finger-impressions to them so that they can check whether they match the fingerprints from the crime scenes. When Bhargesh refuses, the police tell him that he has no choice but to provide his measurements, as the Act had been passed by Parliament the previous month. Was Bhargesh bound to provide his finger-impressions under the Act?

• (A) No, since Bhargesh had only been arrested, and not convicted.
• (B) Yes, since Bhargesh was under arrest.
• (C) No, since the Rules had not yet been notified.
• (D) Yes, since finger-impressions are included within the definition of “measurements” under the Act.

Bhargesh is later released by the police because they are unable to find enough evidence to make a strong case against him. On October 5, 2022, the police receive a complaint alleging that Bhargesh had beaten up his neighbour and caused the neighbour severe injuries. They ask the local Magistrate to issue an order directing Bhargesh to provide the police his blood samples, so that they can match them against some blood stains that were found on the neighbour’s clothes. The Magistrate issues the order, but Bhargesh refuses to provide the blood samples. Is Bhargesh bound to provide his blood samples to the police under the Act?

• (A) Yes, since the crime that Bhargesh was accused of was very serious.
• (B) Yes, since the Magistrate had passed an order directing him to do so.
• (C) Yes, since Bhargesh had already been arrested in connection with another crime in the past.
• (D) No, since the police needed the blood samples to verify Bhargesh’s involvement in the crime.

On October 15, 2022, the police detain Bhargesh under a preventive Section of the CrPC, since they believe that he had plans to disturb the public peace during a festival day. They then tell Bhargesh that he must provide his measurements to them for their records. Bhargesh refuses again. Is Bhargesh bound to provide his photographs to the police under the Act?

• (A) No, since he was not charged or under arrest in connection with any other offence at the time.
• (B) No, since that would violate Bhargesh’s right to privacy.
• (C) Yes, since the police had detained Bhargesh under a preventive Section of the CrPC.
• (D) Yes, since there was a high likelihood that Bhargesh would disturb the public peace on a festival day.

Two days later, the police obtain an order from the Magistrate directing Bhargesh to provide them his photographs. As Bhargesh continues to refuse to provide his photographs, a regular police constable forces him to stand still and takes his photographs. Bhargesh files a case in court, claiming that the constable’s actions violate the Act. Will he succeed?

• (A) Yes, since Bhargesh had been detained under a preventive section of the CrPC.
• (B) Yes, since only police personnel of the rank of Head Constable or above can take measurements of any person who resists or refuses to give measurements when ordered to do so by a Magistrate.
• (C) No, the Magistrate had issued an order directing him to provide his photographs to the police.
• (D) No, since the police constable was only performing his duty.

The police release Bhargesh, but to ensure that he does not disturb the public peace, they ask the Magistrate to issue an order under Section 117 of the CrPC, directing Bhargesh to provide a security of ₹ 1,00,000/- for his good behaviour and to ensure he maintains the peace, which the Magistrate refuses. The police now tell Bhargesh he must provide them his iris and retina scans. Is Bhargesh required to do so?

• (A) Yes, since a person against whom an order has been issued under Section 117 of the CrPC cannot be made to give their measurements to the police.
• (B) Yes, since a person against whom an order has been issued under Section 117 of the CrPC can be made to give their measurements to the police.
• (C) Yes, since Bhargesh had already been arrested in connection with another crime in the past.
• (D) No, since the police needed the blood samples to verify Bhargesh’s involvement in the crime.

Assad buys an electoral bond worth ₹ 1,00,000/- on November 9, 2022 and plans to give the bond to the Popular People’s Party (the “PPP”), which he has been supporting for many years. On November 10, he must travel out of station on some urgent business, and he only hands the bond over to a representative of the PPP on November 14, 2022. The PPP’s representative deposits the bond in the Party’s account on November 16, 2022, but the bank refuses to credit the bond to the party’s account, on the grounds that it was no longer valid. Is the bank correct?

• (A) No, since Assad was a long-time supporter of the PPP.
• (B) Yes, since the bonds were only issued from November 9 to November 15, 2022 and were invalid after that.
• (C) Yes, since the party representative had not deposited the bond with an authorised branch of the bank.
• (D) No, since the bond was valid on November 16, 2022.

Assad buys an electoral bond worth ₹ 1,00,000/- on November 9, 2022 and plans to give the bond to the Popular People’s Party (the “PPP”), which he has been supporting for many years. On November 10, he must travel out of station on some urgent business, and he only hands the bond over to a representative of the PPP on November 14, 2022. The PPP’s representative deposits the bond in the Party’s account on November 16, 2022, but the bank refuses to credit the bond to the party’s account, on the grounds that it was no longer valid. Is the bank correct?

• (A) No, since Assad was a long-time supporter of the PPP.
• (B) Yes, since the bonds were only issued from November 9 to November 15, 2022 and were invalid after that.
• (C) Yes, since the party representative had not deposited the bond with an authorised branch of the bank.
• (D) No, since the bond was valid on November 16, 2022.

On November 10, 2022, Palak purchases an electoral bond from a branch of the State Bank of India, and hands it over to a representative of the PPP. The next day, the PPP announces that it has changed its candidates for the upcoming elections in Palak’s State. Upset at this news, she tells a PPP representative that she would like her bond back. The representative tells her that the bond has already been deposited, and that the money has been credited to the party’s account. Palak claims that since the period of validity of the bonds has not expired, she has the right to get her bond back from the party. Is she right?

• (A) No, since Palak cannot ask for the bond back once she has given it to a political party.
• (B) No, since the party had already deposited the bond, and the money had been credited to its account.
• (C) Yes, since Palak bought the bond with her own money, and has the right to ask for it back.
• (D) Yes, since the PPP changed its candidates, and Palak may no longer support the party.

On November 15, 2022, the Government issues another notification, announcing that from that date onwards, only political parties that have received at least 1% of the votes polled in the last elections to the Lok Sabha, or the last elections to the Legislative Assembly of a State, would be eligible to receive and deposit electoral bonds. In the sale of the 24^th tranche of electoral bonds, Palak decides to give the electoral bonds she has purchased to the newly formed More Popular People’s Party (the “MPPP”), which is likely to win the first elections it would be contesting, in July 2023. Is the MPPP eligible to receive the electoral bonds?

• (A) Yes, since it is likely to succeed in the upcoming elections.
• (B) Yes, since it fulfils the criteria announced in the November 7, 2022 notification.
• (C) No, since it does not fulfil the eligibility criteria announced in the November 15, 2022 notification.
• (D) No, since it does not fulfil the eligibility criteria announced in the November 7, 2022 notification.

Abraham, who lives in a different State from Assad, purchased an electoral bond in the sale of the 23^rd tranche. He decides to give the electoral bond to the PPP, even though the PPP is only active in Assad’s State. When the PPP representative goes to an authorised branch of the State Bank of India to deposit the electoral bond on December 5, 2022 however, the bank refuses to credit the money to the party’s account. Which of the following would be the most valid reason for the bank to refuse to credit the money to the party’s account?

• (A) The bond was no longer valid.
• (B) Abraham could not give the bond to the PPP since the PPP was not active in his state.
• (C) The PPP was not eligible to receive electoral bonds.
• (D) The PPP could only deposit the bond in a bank branch located in Abraham’s state.

Sunil is a high-ranking officer of the Union government. While scrolling through his timeline on a social media platform, he notices some posts by Sachin, a private businessman, which he finds objectionable. He sends an order to UnReal, the company that owns that social media platform, that the posts must be blocked, as they may bring disrepute to India. UnReal claims that Sunil has not provided a clear, detailed reason for blocking the posts, and so, the order is not valid. Is UnReal right?

• (A) No, the blocking order is valid since Sunil found the posts objectionable.
• (B) No, the blocking order is valid since Sunil had provided reasons for blocking the post.
• (C) Yes, Sunil’s reasons are vague, and he should have provided more detail.
• (D) Yes, such an order is violative of the fundamental right to freedom of speech and expression.

Some days later, Sunil notices another post from Sachin on UnReal’s social media platform; this post contains some highly sensitive information about the country’s defence policies. He issues an order to UnReal, that the post must be blocked since it divulges the government’s confidential information. The order also says that UnReal should not let anyone know about the blocking order, or that the post was ordered to be deleted, since it relates to secret government information. UnReal claims that this order is invalid. Is UnReal right?

• (A) Yes, since it did not provide any reasons that could be communicated to the users of the social media platform.
• (B) No, since Sunil had provided reasons to UnReal for ordering that the post be blocked.
• (C) Yes, since Sunil did not have the authority to issue blocking orders so frequently.
• (D) No, since the post divulged confidential government information.

Sunil sends UnReal a third blocking order. UnReal claims that this order too was invalid. Upset with UnReal for claiming that all his blocking orders were invalid, Sunil sends them a letter in which he says, “If you do not comply with my blocking orders, then I will be forced to initiate criminal proceedings against you and cancel your safe harbour immunity.” UnReal claims that Sunil has broken the law by making these statements in the letter. Is UnReal right?

• (A) Yes, since making such threats amounts to intimidation.
• (B) No, since Sunil had issued blocking orders in the past as well, and UnReal should have complied with the orders without questioning them.
• (C) Yes, since Sunil did not have the power to cancel UnReal’s safe harbour immunity.
• (D) No, since the IT Act does not forbid Sunil from doing so.

Complying with a fourth blocking order that they receive from Sunil, UnReal blocks Sachin’s account, since his posts were seen as increasingly objectionable by the government. Sachin asks UnReal to share the reasons for the blocking order, which they do, yet Sachin claims the blocking order is invalid. Is he right?

• (A) Yes, since Sunil was clearly targeting Sachin, and was misusing his powers to silence him.
• (B) No, since UnReal had shared the reasons for the blocking order with Sachin.
• (C) Yes, since Section 69A of the IT Act only permits blocking information, or a particular post, but not a whole account.
• (D) No, since his posts were seen as increasingly objectionable by the government.

Sunil sends UnReal a fifth blocking order, which says that several of Sachin’s latest posts must be blocked. The blocking order sets out several reasons why the posts should be blocked, but UnReal does not find them satisfactory. Rather than take on another fight with a government official, however, UnReal blocks the posts, and gives Sachin what it thinks is a better set of reasons for blocking the posts. When Sachin finds out, he claims this was wrong on UnReal’s part, and that the blocking order was inappropriate. Which of the following is most accurate in this regard?

• (A) The blocking order was valid, but UnReal’s actions were inappropriate.
• (B) UnReal’s actions were valid, but the blocking order was invalid.
• (C) UnReal’s actions were valid, but Sachin’s actions were invalid.
• (D) Sachin’s actions were valid, but the blocking order was invalid.

Divya was arrested by the police and charged with having committed a murder. She was convicted by the trial court and appealed to the high court. She lost her appeal there and decided to appeal to the Supreme Court. By this time she has run out of money, so she approaches NALSA and asks them to help her get an advocate who can represent her before the Supreme Court. Is Divya entitled to support from NALSA?

• (A) No, since she should have approached them at the beginning of the case before the trial court, and not at such a late stage.
• (B) Yes, since her previous lawyers were incompetent, and that is why she lost the matter in the trial court and the high court.
• (C) Yes, she is entitled to free legal aid in the Supreme Court proceedings because she is a woman.
• (D) No, since she had been accused of having committed the heinous crime of murder.

Divya is acquitted by the Supreme Court and goes back to her regular life. Some days later, she has a fight with her neighbour Riya over a petty matter and decides to file a criminal case against her. She approaches NALSA for free legal aid to prosecute the matter. She tells NALSA representative that she knows she does not have a genuine case, but just wants to harass Riya. NALSA refuses to provide Divya free legal aid because they believe she does not have a genuine case to prosecute. Can NALSA do so?

• (A) Yes, since Section 13(1) of the Act provides that free legal aid can be provided if NALSA is satisfied the person has a genuine case to prosecute, and they did not believe that Divya had a genuine case to prosecute.
• (B) Yes, since Divya had earlier been prosecuted for the crime of murder.
• (C) Yes, since Divya had already applied for free legal aid from NALSA in the past and could not repeatedly ask NALSA for such assistance.
• (D) No, since Divya is a woman, and is included within the list of people entitled to free legal aid from NALSA under Section 12 of the Act.

Incensed at Divya, Riya decides to file a civil case against Divya, claiming that Divya had violated the terms of a contract they had made some time back. Divya approaches NALSA for free legal aid to defend the matter, which NALSA agrees to provide. Since Riya is also short of funds, she too approaches NALSA for free legal aid. NALSA refuses to provide legal aid to Riya, since they are already providing Divya free legal aid in the same case. Is NALSA right in refusing free legal aid to Riya?

• (A) Yes, since NALSA cannot provide free legal aid to opposing parties in the same matter.
• (B) Yes, since NALSA does not provide free legal aid in civil matters.
• (C) No, since Divya had filed a frivolous case against Riya in the past, and Riya was entitled to retaliate by filing another case against Divya.
• (D) No, since Riya is a woman, and is entitled to free legal aid as long as NALSA is satisfied she has a genuine case.

Farhan is an up-and-coming artist and makes a living selling his paintings. Since he is not very well known yet, he isn’t able to sell too many paintings, and is dependent on aid from the government and well-wishers. He reads about a new Central Government scheme in the papers one day, under which artists would be provided a monthly stipend by the local government. Since he finds the language of the scheme document very complex to understand, he approaches NALSA for help in understanding the scheme and obtaining the stipend. Is he entitled to free legal aid from NALSA in this regard?

• (A) No, since free legal aid does not include provision of help to understand and access benefits under government schemes.
• (B) No, since he does not fit within any of the categories under Section 12 of the Act.
• (C) Yes, since free legal aid includes provision of help to understand and access benefits under government schemes.
• (D) Yes, since he is a struggling artist, and is dependent on aid for survival.

Vikram is a rich businessman and has a huge art collection. Farhan invites Vikram to his studio one day, hoping to convince Vikram to buy some of his paintings. Vikram doesn’t buy any of his paintings, but after he leaves, Farhan notices that one of his newest paintings is missing. He suspects that Vikram has stolen it, and complains to the police, who promptly arrest Vikram. Vikram approaches NALSA and asks for free legal aid, so that he can obtain bail. Is Vikram entitled to free legal aid from NALSA?

• (A) No, since he is a rich businessman and can hire a lawyer with his own money.
• (B) Yes, since he is innocent.
• (C) Yes, since Vikram has been arrested and is in police custody.
• (D) No, since he has stolen from a struggling artist.

Rani and Shiva would like to opt for surrogacy. They have been married for 6 years. Rani is aged 51 and Shiva is aged 53. Both Rani and Shiva have built successful business empires. They are now working together on a joint initiative. Due to the demanding nature of their work, they have not thought about children previously. However, they are now keen to have a child via surrogacy.
Are Rani and Shiva eligible for surrogacy under the SRA?

• (A) Yes, because they have been married for more than 5 years.
• (B) Yes, because they have financial capacity to bring up a child.
• (C) No, because they do not fall within the legal requirements of intending parents.
• (D) No, because they are not an infertile couple.

Assume Rani and Shiva are eligible for surrogacy under the SRA. They approach Geeta to act as a surrogate. Geeta is Rani’s sister. She is 29 years old. She is married, has one child, and has been a surrogate twice before. Which of the following statements are false?

i. Geeta is eligible to be a surrogate because she is a close relative.

ii. Geeta is eligible to be a surrogate because she is married.

iii. Geeta has been a surrogate only twice before and is now eligible to be a surrogate for Rani.

iv. Geeta is eligible to be a surrogate because she is 29.

• (A) Statement iii
• (B) Statements ii and iii
• (C) Statements ii, iii, and iv
• (D) Statements i, iii, and iv

Joseph and Neena are keen to have a child via surrogacy. They have been married for 8 years, and have been unable to conceive biologically due to infertility. Joseph is 40 years old and Neena is 42 years old. They have an adopted daughter, Maya, who is 4 years old. Maya has been diagnosed with Striker’s Syndrome, which would cause slow neurological deterioration, with chances of death. Devastated, Joseph and Neena decide to opt for surrogacy, to become parents to their biological child. Are they eligible for surrogacy?

• (A) Yes, because they have no biological children.
• (B) No, because they have an adopted child.
• (C) Yes, because their adopted child has been diagnosed with Striker’s Syndrome.
• (D) Yes, because their right to procreation and parenthood is protected under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution.

Queen runs a surrogacy clinic. She employs 54 women, aged between 25 and 35 years. They are all married women with one or more children. Most of them belong to economically disadvantaged backgrounds. They choose to be surrogates because it gives them a reliable source of income. Kishore and Noor are intending parents. They have been married 5 years, are both aged 35, and do not have children. Kishore has been certified as infertile. So, they decide to approach Queen’s clinic. They sign a contract with the surrogate. The contract is in writing and is signed in the presence of two witnesses. As per the contract, Kishore and Noor are required to remunerate the surrogate with ₹2 lakh per child born as a result of surrogacy, and take care of her medical needs, including providing her with medical insurance. A healthy baby girl is born as a result of surrogacy. Kishore and Noor are overjoyed. They take care of the surrogate’s medical expenses. However, they do not pay the surrogate the ₹2 lakh. The surrogate, supported by Queen, now wants to take Kishore and Noor to court, to demand that they make the payment. Will she succeed?

• (A) Yes, because Kishore and Noor are bound by the contract under the ICA.
• (B) Yes, because the intending parents and the surrogate meet the eligibility requirements under the SRA.
• (C) No, because the surrogate meets the eligibility requirements under the SRA.
• (D) No, because SRA allows only altruistic surrogacy, so the contract is not valid under the ICA.

Karan and Daniel are in a homosexual relationship. As per the Hindu Marriage Act, marriage is allowed only between heterosexual couples. As a result, Karan and Daniel are not married. However, they wish to have children and decide to go in for surrogacy. When they approach Queen’s clinic, they are informed that they do not meet the requirements for an intending couple under the SRA. Karan and Daniel wish to challenge the SRA for violating their constitutional right to non-discrimination. The non-discrimination clause under the Constitution of India reads: “No citizen shall be discriminated on the basis of sex, caste, religion, nationality, place of birth or any other ground”. Karan and Daniel argue that the SRA discriminates against them on the basis of sexual orientation, because it restricts surrogacy to heterosexual couples alone. Which of the following arguments would most strongly support their claim in court?

• (A) The non-discrimination clause does not explicitly mention sexual orientation.
• (B) Discrimination on the basis of sex could include discrimination on the basis of sexual orientation.
• (C) The non-discrimination clause is not restricted to explicitly mentioned grounds.
• (D) Surrogacy is restricted under the SRA to married couples, and only heterosexual couples can get married.

In 2014, India was hit by a terrible pandemic. It was the first time the country was experiencing a pandemic. People panicked. WhatsApp and Facebook groups became common platforms for sharing information about the pandemic. Messages were forwarded from group to group. Many of these messages prescribed different remedies to prevent and cure the flu caused by the pandemic. In Merohta district, people following these remedies began to fall sick. The already overburdened public sector hospitals became even more full. The district administration requested people to stop sharing such misinformation. However, these requests were not heeded. The District Magistrate issued an indefinite order to shut down the internet to prevent the transmission of these messages. Is this order legal?

• (A) Yes, because the District Magistrate has the power to issue a range of orders, which includes internet shut down orders.
• (B) Yes, because the order was necessary on grounds of public health.
• (C) Yes, because a speedy order was necessary to immediately prevent transmission of these messages.
• (D) No, because the order was indefinite.

The Central government was preparing to conduct the National Medical Eligibility Test (“NMET”) on 25 October 2021. The exams were to be conducted in public schools around the country on computers provided by the government. In July 2021, there were rumours that several groups had hatched plans to share answers with the students taking the exam. A special chat application was developed. The student simply had to open the application on the browser of the computer on which they were taking the exam, allowing persons on the other end to send them the answers. The government was very concerned. If the rumours were true, the quality of doctors in training (who were selected through the NMET) would be severely affected. To prevent this public emergency, the government issued orders under the Temporary Suspension Rules to shut down internet countrywide on 25 October 2021. Many protested against this decision. They argued that the government could prevent cheating in the exams by shutting down the internet in the public schools where the exam was taking place. A nation-wide blanket shut down was not required for this purpose. Now, the issue is before the Supreme Court. What will the Court decide?

• (A) The government’s order is legal under the Temporary Suspension Rules because it prevents a public emergency by preserving the quality of doctors in India.
• (B) The government’s order is not legal under the Temporary Suspension Rules because the power belonged to the magistrate to issue orders under Section 144.
• (C) The government’s order is not legal under the Temporary Suspension Rules because the nation-wide internet shut down order was not necessary or unavoidable.
• (D) The government’s order is legal because it is the responsibility of the State to conduct exams in a fair manner.

In the above instance, the order was passed by the Communications Minister of the Indian Central Government. The Communications Minister is below the rank of Joint Secretary. The Home Secretary was away for a conference in Geneva and thus was not present in Delhi when the decision to pass the order was made. However, the Home Secretary could be contacted by phone or email. She had, in fact, explicitly said that she should be contacted if any need arises, however minor. As she had taken measures to make herself available virtually, the Home Secretary did not authorise any other official to exercise her functions. Against this, consider the following statements:

i. The Communications Minister had the power to pass the order under the 2017 Rules.

ii. The passing of the order by the Communications Minister was avoidable.

iii. The power to pass the order remained with the Home Secretary.

iv. The Communications Minister did not have the power to pass the order under the 2017 Rules.


Which of the following statements are false?

• (A) Statement iv
• (B) Statement i
• (C) Statements ii and iii
• (D) Statements ii and iv

Assume that in the above instance, the Joint Secretary passed the order. The order stated: "By means of the discretion vested in me by the Temporary Suspension of Telecom Services (Public Emergency or Public Safety) Rules 2017, I suspend internet across all Indian States and Union Territories on October 25, 2021". The order was passed on 15 October, 2021. The order was sent to the Central Government review committee within 8 hours of its passing. The committee reviewed and approved the order on 22 October, 2021. Is the order legal?

• (A) Yes, because it was passed under the 2017 rules.
• (B) No, because the procedure under the 2017 rules was not followed.
• (C) Yes, because the order was reviewed by the Central government review committee.
• (D) No, because the order was passed 10 days before it was to come into effect.

In January 2022, communal riots were rife in five states in India, between two dominant communities, X and Y. The primary mode of communication amongst the rioters was Signal which could be accessed through the internet via mobile phones and computers. The State governments of the five States received information that some members of X group were planning to set the houses of members of Y group on fire. Through broad Signal broadcasts amongst all users, the leaders of X group were instigating members of their group to participate in this exercise, threatening public order. Creating or inciting threat to public order is a criminal offence under Section 163F of the Indian Penal Code. To prevent further communication between the leaders of X group and their members, the State shut Signal down. However, communication then shifted to other platforms. Realising that targeting isolated platforms would not work, the State governments issued an order shutting down internet completely in all the States. Two groups protested against this order. First, students whose education was being conducted online due to the riots. They argued that they were prevented from accessing vital information, central to their education. Second, business owners who conducted business on the internet. The State’s order read: ‘In the five Indian States listed below, internet will be suspended for a period of two months from 10 January 2022 to 10 March 2022’. The State’s order was not displayed anywhere (in print or virtually) from January to March 2022.

Consider the following statements:

i. The students’ right under Article 19(1)(a) was violated by the State order.

ii. The business owners’ right under Article 19(1)(g) was violated by the State order.

iii. The State order validly restricted the said fundamental rights.

iv. The State’s order complied with the guidelines under Anuradha Bhasin.


How many statements are true?

• (A) One statement
• (B) Two statements
• (C) Three statements
• (D) All four statements

Clint Leone Morricone Ltd. (“CLML”) is a factory manufacturing bicycles. For the purpose of documentation and record keeping, it purchased a laptop from Pacer. However, within a month of the purchase, the laptop crashed and there was a motherboard failure. Despite a warranty, Pacer failed to replace the motherboard. Which of the following statements is correct?

• (A) Purchase of electronic items do not fall within the purview of consumer law.
• (B) CLML is a consumer since it has bought a good for a price.
• (C) CLML is not a consumer since it has purchased the laptop for commercial purpose.
• (D) A company is not a person and so, cannot be a consumer.

Sita Das has been working as a freelance journalist. She writes columns and news-reports for various newspapers and news-portals and is paid on the basis of each column and report. For the purpose of her writing work, she purchases a Pacer laptop. However, within a month of the purchase, the laptop crashed and there was a motherboard failure. Which of the following statements is correct?

• (A) Since she is using the laptop for the purpose of writing paid columns and news reports, Sita Das cannot be a consumer.
• (B) Purchase of goods does not fall within the purview of Consumer Protection Law.
• (C) Since she is using the laptop for the purpose of earning her livelihood, she will be a consumer.
• (D) None of the above

Kalpavruksha Charitable Trust runs a hospital. The hospital charges a fee from its patients, which is 30% less than the commercial rate for services and medical devices. The hospital purchased a pacemaker from St. Rude’s, a global manufacturer, to be resold to patients. Which of the following statements is correct?

• (A) The hospital is a charitable hospital and therefore, it is a consumer with respect to the pacemakers purchased from St. Rude’s.
• (B) The hospital resells the pacemakers to patients and therefore cannot be considered as a consumer with respect to the pacemakers purchased from St. Rude’s.
• (C) The hospital resells the pacemakers at a discounted rate and therefore can be considered a consumer with respect to the pacemakers purchased from St. Rude’s.
• (D) Sale of medical devices is not covered by Consumer Protection Law.

Fitzti is an online platform providing physiotherapy and ancillary medical services. Amit Ghosh booked a physiotherapist for three months for ₹ 25,000. Fitzti failed to provide a qualified physiotherapist for the first two visits. Amit seeks to proceed against Fitzti under Consumer Protection Law. Which statement is correct?

• (A) Since online services are not covered by Consumer Protection Law, Amit Ghosh cannot be considered a consumer.
• (B) Since services are not covered by Consumer Protection Law, Amit Ghosh cannot be considered a consumer.
• (C) Since online services are covered by Consumer Protection Law, Amit Ghosh shall be considered a consumer.
• (D) Since medical services are not covered by Consumer Protection Law, Amit Ghosh cannot be considered a consumer.

Jitesh Shah purchased from BreatheEasy a nebuliser device for his son, Jignesh Shah, for nasal passage clearance. The device was defective and caused respiratory distress. Jignesh wants to file a complaint against BreatheEasy. Which is correct?

• (A) Since Jignesh Shah did not purchase the device from BreatheEasy, he cannot be considered a consumer with respect to BreatheEasy.
• (B) Since Jignesh Shah is a user of the device, he can be considered a consumer.
• (C) Sale of medical devices are not covered by Consumer Protection Law.
• (D) None of the above.

Which of the following is the author most likely to agree with?

• (A) It is a major cause for concern if an economy’s currency is depreciating.
• (B) Currency depreciation is not a reason for worry in itself, but if macroeconomic factors are not good, there may be a cause for concern.
• (C) The fact that the Indian rupee is witnessing a decline in value against major currencies is very worrisome.
• (D) A central bank must always do everything in its power to stem the slight depreciation of an economy’s currency.

Based on the author’s arguments, which of the following, if true, would reduce the decline in value of the rupee?

• (A) Appointing a new Governor for the RBI who has a better sense of how to control inflationary trends.
• (B) A steep increase in commodity prices and the continued disruption of supply chains.
• (C) A reduction in worldwide inflationary trends and the lowering of interest rates in developed country markets.
• (D) Increasing interest rates in developed country markets.

Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the author’s arguments?

• (A) The Indian economy has been affected by global inflationary trends and the increase of interest rates in developed country markets.
• (B) Since developed country markets have increased their interest rates, global investors have pulled their investments out of other economies, and routed them to such developed country markets.
• (C) As the demand for US dollars increases, it is likely the rupee-price of a dollar would increase substantially.
• (D) The Indian economy and currency are highly protected and have been insulated from the effects of global inflationary trends and the increase of interest rates in developed country markets.

Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the author’s arguments for why Indian exports may not be able to take advantage of a falling rupee?

• (A) Economies across the world are witnessing a slowdown, and in such economies, demand for imports decreases substantially.
• (B) Economies across the world are booming, and there is an increasing demand for Indian exports.
• (C) A reduction in the volume of exports would be more than offset by the increased value of dollars that Indian exporters would earn.
• (D) Countries across the world have managed to find ways to insulate themselves from the effects of the Russia-Ukraine war and will need a lot of Indian imports to sustain their new growth models.

Based on the author’s arguments, which of the following must necessarily be true?

• (A) The continuing depreciation of the Indian rupee at its current rate, coupled with worldwide inflationary trends, would result in immense political instability in India, and consequently, in all of South Asia.
• (B) If nothing else is done, the rise of interest rates in developed country markets, coupled with hardening of inflationary trends across the world, will result in a fall in the value of the rupee against the dollar.
• (C) If inflationary trends continue to harden across the world, and if interest rates in developed country markets continue to rise, portfolio investors will increase their investments in India, and this will have a positive impact on India’s foreign exchange reserves.
• (D) If nothing else is done, the rise of interest rates in developed country markets, coupled with hardening of inflationary trends across the world, will result in a rise in the value of the rupee against the dollar.

Which of the following is the author most likely to agree with?

• (A) The RBI must not focus solely on preventing the depreciation of the rupee, as that may result in negative impacts on other aspects of the economy.
• (B) The RBI must focus solely on preventing the depreciation of the rupee at all costs, since it is by far the most important indicator of the health of the Indian economy.
• (C) Periodic inflationary trends are normal in any economy, and the RBI need not worry about the inflationary effects in the Indian economy caused by the depreciation of the rupee.
• (D) The RBI need not do anything to reduce the rate of depreciation of the rupee, because the depreciation of an economy’s currency is not a major cause of concern in itself.

Which of the following is the author most likely to agree with?

• (A) The COVID-19 pandemic was an unmitigated disaster for the newspaper industry.
• (B) The COVID-19 pandemic had negative as well as positive effects on the newspaper industry.
• (C) The COVID-19 pandemic only had good effects on the newspaper industry.
• (D) The COVID-19 pandemic had no effect at all on the newspaper industry.

Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the author's arguments?

• (A) Social media is a reliable source of true and accurate news and information.
• (B) Social media is a highly unreliable source of true and accurate news and information and should not be trusted.
• (C) Social media and traditional newspapers are often in direct competition with each other.
• (D) Social media is a speedier source of news compared to newspapers.

Which of the following would be an effective way of making print media more competitive?

• (A) Slowing down the process of print media production.
• (B) Using more expensive printing methods that achieve better print quality, even if it results in newspapers becoming more expensive.
• (C) Only publishing newspapers on alternate days.
• (D) Developing ways of ensuring that print media can reach readers more speedily.

Based on the author’s arguments, which of the following, if true, would have resulted in the weakening, rather than deepening of public trust in newspapers since the pandemic?

• (A) Newspapers were very careful in ensuring they reported accurate and true news during the lockdowns.
• (B) Newspapers played a leading role in exposing lies and misinformation spread during the lockdown.
• (C) Newspapers actively disseminated misinformation during the lockdowns and made no efforts to expose lies spread by others.
• (D) Newspapers alerted the public to the fact that a number of sources were spreading crude forms of misinformation during the pandemic.

What would be the impact on the readership and revenues of the print media if the image were not dominant over text as a cultural phenomenon?

• (A) Print media would not suffer as much of a reduction in readership and revenue as readers shifted to other formats.
• (B) Print media would suffer a greater reduction in readership and revenue as readers shifted to other formats.
• (C) There would be no impact on the readership and revenues of the print industry.
• (D) There would be an increased demand from readers that newspapers carry more images and less text.

How does the author suggest newspapers can overcome the problem of being outpaced by speedier sources of information?

• (A) They offer direct means by which newspapers can become faster to publish and deliver to readers.
• (B) They encourage a complete and immediate shift to digital media as a way of ensuring newspapers are not outpaced by other sources of information.
• (C) They offer ways to reduce production costs, which would offset the losses caused by readers shifting allegiance to faster sources of information.
• (D) They offer alternative means for newspapers to become competitive and profitable, but do not solve the problem of how newspapers can become faster sources of information.

Which of the following is the author most likely to agree with?

• (A) People in the US are not worried at all about climate change.
• (B) People in the US are worried about climate change, and these concerns affect their energy consumption habits more than anything else.
• (C) Climate change has resulted in the increase of energy prices across the world, and as a result, governments have had to invest in finding newer sources of renewable energy.
• (D) Changes in the energy consumption habits of people in the US are affected more by energy prices than concerns of climate change.

Which of the following is most similar to the author’s statements about developed countries’ renewed interest in fossil fuels?

• (A) Developed countries should not, under any circumstances, invest any resources in fossil fuel energy extraction, and must immediately put a halt to all fossil fuel consumption.
• (B) Things could improve if developed countries recognise the difficulty of moving away from reliance on such sources of energy and make a conscious effort to move to alternate or renewable energy sources quickly.
• (C) Since investments in energy extraction of any kind are very expensive, developed countries must ensure that their needs are met before continuing investments in fossil fuels.
• (D) Developing countries must not, under any circumstances, be allowed to make claims on whatever carbon budget space remains.

If the information in the passage above is correct, which of the following must necessarily be true?

• (A) The fossil fuel industry in developing countries will face reduced sales in the short term, with increased sales in the long term.
• (B) The cost of making, installing, and using solar panels will reduce substantially in the coming years.
• (C) Passing a bill in the US is a huge effort, and it would not have been possible to pass the new climate bill unless the current energy crisis had compelled lawmakers to do so.
• (D) The fossil fuel industry in developing countries will see an increase in business, at least in the short term.

Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the author’s argument about why travel and fuel consumption in the US reduced in summer?

• (A) People like to travel regardless of season, and the only thing that would prevent them from travelling at any time of the year would be high costs.
• (B) Airlines raised ticket prices as a response to increase in fuel prices, and therefore, fewer people were able to buy air tickets to travel.
• (C) Strict lockdowns were imposed in the US in summer, because of which people travelled less; further, temperatures were moderate, and this meant people had to use less fuel to heat or warm their homes.
• (D) Widespread geopolitical tensions in the first half of the year meant that fuel prices were at an all-time high in summer; but prices have now eased off somewhat, making fuel slightly more affordable in the US.

Which of the following, if true, would resolve the ‘conundrum’ the author says developed countries face now?

• (A) The development of adequate renewable power sources in the near term that would lead to a reduction in consumption of fossil fuels.
• (B) Finding new sources of fossil fuels that will ensure there is no shortage of energy to heat homes in the winter.
• (C) Switching immediately to renewable power sources, even if it leads to a shortage in energy supply for people.
• (D) Providing adequate aid to poorer countries so that they can develop renewable power sources for their use.

Assuming the aim of the US climate bill is to reduce fossil fuel consumption, which of the following would be the strongest argument that it will fail to achieve such an aim?

• (A) The bill invests huge amounts in renewable energy but does not provide for enough increase in investments in developing more sources of fossil fuel-powered energy.
• (B) The bill is written in technical language, which ordinary people cannot easily understand.
• (C) The bill is self-defeating, since it makes investments in renewable energy conditional to more expenditure on oil and gas and making millions of acres of federal land available for drilling, which would lead to an increased consumption of fossil fuels.
• (D) The bill does not provide for mechanisms for shrinking carbon budgets, thereby increasing the carbon budget space remaining.

Which of the following is most likely to be true if the author’s statements about gendered networks in the workplace are true?

• (A) Mid-career women do not find it as easy to get access to senior leaders, who are usually male, as their male colleagues. They therefore find career progression or new opportunities easier to come by.
• (B) Mid-career women find it easier to get access to senior leaders, who are usually male, as their male colleagues. They therefore find career progression or new opportunities easier to come by.
• (C) Mid-career women do not find it as easy to get access to senior leaders, who are usually male, as their male colleagues. They therefore find career progression or new opportunities harder to come by.
• (D) Mid-career women find it easier to get access to senior leaders, who are usually male, as their male colleagues. They therefore do not find career progression or new opportunities harder to come by.

Which of the following is most likely to be an outcome of what the author describes as the “motherhood penalty”?

• (A) People are more hesitant to hire men from their mid 30s to their late 40s but may be more willing to hire women of the same age.
• (B) People are more hesitant to hire women from their mid 30s to their late 40s but may be more willing to hire men of the same age.
• (C) Women from their mid 30s to their late 40s always pursue a different career path than men of the same age and so are not really interested in promotions.
• (D) Women from their mid 30s to their late 40s have a higher chance of being promoted than men of the same age.

If professors’ evaluations are the most important criteria in awarding promotions, then which of the following would be the most likely outcome, based on the information provided in the passage?

• (A) Male professors are likely to be promoted at an even rate throughout their career, while women professors would experience a lower likelihood of promotion in the mid-career stage.
• (B) Since there is a wide disparity between the evaluations that male and female professors receive, the practice of relying upon such evaluations will quickly be abandoned.
• (C) Male and female professors will receive promotions at a similar rate throughout the course of their career.
• (D) Women professors are likely to be promoted at an even rate throughout their career, while male professors would experience a lower likelihood of promotion in the mid-career stage.

Which of the following is the author most likely to disagree with?

• (A) Women going through menopause often quit the workforce voluntarily.
• (B) Women going through menopause are more likely to be perceived negatively at the workplace and to have difficulty achieving professional success.
• (C) Women going through menopause should be permitted to take a mid-career sabbatical.
• (D) Women going through menopause are more likely to be perceived positively at the workplace and to achieve professional success.

Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the main argument in the passage?

• (A) Several independent studies conducted in different countries have shown that women in the workplace are perceived positively and are favourably treated as they age.
• (B) Several independent studies conducted in different countries have shown that women in the workplace are perceived negatively and are unfairly treated as they age.
• (C) The studies mentioned in the passage have been discredited after they were published, and no reliance should be placed on them.
• (D) The studies mentioned in the passage were conducted on very small sample sets and cannot be used to make general statements about the difference in perception between men and women.

Which of the following, if true, would most weaken Laura Kray’s arguments?

• (A) Women professors perceived as being ‘grandmotherly’ are regarded as being likeable and caring.
• (B) Women professors perceived as being ‘grandmotherly’ are treated better by their colleagues and students.
• (C) Women professors perceived as being ‘grandmotherly’ are regarded as being slow, inefficient, and outdated in their field.
• (D) Women professors perceived as being ‘grandmotherly’ are regarded very highly and receive much more respect than younger women professors.

Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the author’s arguments?

• (A) Behavioural traits that helped us in the days when we were hunter-gatherers continue to be present in modern-day humans.
• (B) Behavioural traits that helped us in the days when we were hunter-gatherers are no longer found in modern-day humans.
• (C) The negativity bias makes us more likely to be affected by depressing or sad news.
• (D) We have certain behavioural characteristics that affect how we perceive and are affected by sad news.

Which of the following is the author most likely to agree with?

• (A) Contemporary media continuously exposes us to exciting news and information, which may be just like the things we usually experience in our lives.
• (B) Contemporary media continuously exposes us to exciting news and information, which may be very unlike the kinds of things we usually encounter in our lives.
• (C) Contemporary media continuously exposes us to boring news and information, which may be very unlike the kinds of things we usually encounter in our lives.
• (D) Contemporary media continuously exposes us to boring news and information, which may be just like the things we usually experience in our lives.

Based only on the author’s statement that “we’d prefer having nice neighbours with boring lives”, and the author’s argument about the nature of news that modern media exposes us to, which of the following would the author be most likely to agree with?

• (A) Constantly being exposed to negative news gives us a warped perspective of the world.
• (B) In our hunting and gathering days, it was better for us to be unnecessarily scared rather than being scared too little.
• (C) The news modern media exposes us to is just like our day-to-day experiences.
• (D) The news modern media exposes us to is very different from our day-to-day experiences.

The author’s statements about negativity bias, if true, provide most support for which of the following conclusions?

• (A) We are more likely to notice a story about a billionaire donating their money to charity than a story about an airplane crash.
• (B) We are more likely to be attracted to a news article about a rise in life expectancy in our country than a news article about a murder in our city.
• (C) We are more likely to notice a story about increasing pollution levels than a story about improving educational levels in schools.
• (D) We are more likely to form our opinion of the world based on the information available to us rather than information we do not have access to.

Which of the following would be the most effective way of countering the effects of what the author describes as our ‘availability bias’?

• (A) Ensuring that we do not seek out news sources and stories that we may not otherwise have been exposed to.
• (B) Following only one news source and limiting our perspective of the world to that one source.
• (C) Avoiding all positive news stories, and instead only reading news stories about disasters and tragedies.
• (D) Ensuring that we seek out news sources and stories that we may not otherwise have been exposed to.

The author says that “The fact that we’re bombarded daily with horrific stories about aircraft disasters, child snatchers and beheadings — which tend to lodge in the memory — completely skews our view of the world.” The conclusion the author draws in this argument follows logically if which of the following is assumed?

• (A) Our ideas about the world are shaped by the information we are exposed to.
• (B) Modern media is concerned only with making massive profits.
• (C) Modern journalists generate news stories much faster than in the old days.
• (D) Humans once lived as hunter-gatherers.

Choose the correct option (use figures from the Oxfam India note for urban areas):

• (A) Women’s average earnings in urban areas in casual work is 30% lower than that of men
• (B) Men’s average earning in urban areas in self-employment is nearly 2.5 times that of earnings of women
• (C) In casual work, women earn more in rural areas than in urban areas
• (D) The difference in earnings of men and women in regular/salaried employment in urban areas is Rs.~3{,}500

Of the regular employed in urban areas, the earnings of a non-SC/ST worker is what percent more than that of an SC/ST worker?

• (A) Between 20% and 25%
• (B) Less than 15%
• (C) Between 30% and 35%
• (D) More than 35%

Often in casual employment, if a man’s urban average earnings is deposited at 16% simple interest for 20 years, in how many years (same rate, simple interest) must an SC/ST worker deposit their urban casual average earnings to earn the same amount as the man earns in 20 years?

• (A) 24 years
• (B) 22.5 years
• (C) 21 years
• (D) 23.2 years

If the number of women in India in 2020–2021 is 670 million which is 24% more than in 2004–2005, what is the difference in the number of women in LFPR (female labour force participation rate) between 2004–05 and 2020–21?

• (A) Less than 5 crores
• (B) Between 6 and 8 crores
• (C) Between 10 and 12 crores
• (D) More than 15 crores

In 2019–20, males aged 15+ are 76% of total males; females aged 15+ are 72% of total females. The total male population is 1.05 times the total female population. Given that 60% of males aged 15+ and 19% of females aged 15+ have regular salaried/self-employed jobs (from the passage), what is the ratio of females to males aged 15+ who have such jobs?

• (A) 2 : 7
• (B) 3 : 10
• (C) 5 : 9
• (D) 1 : 3

What was the world fruit production in 2000?

• (A) 474 million tonnes
• (B) 517 million tonnes
• (C) 573 million tonnes
• (D) 406 million tonnes

Of the five fruit species mentioned, the share of bananas and plantains increased by 1% from 2000 to 2019. Watermelons in 2019 were 6 percentage points lower than bananas and plantains in 2000. Apples remained stable at 10%, and oranges + grapes together were half of bananas and plantains in 2019. What was the percentage share of bananas and plantains in 2019?

• (A) 17%
• (B) 18%
• (C) 16%
• (D) 21%

Of the watermelons in 2000, \( \frac{1}{8} \) perished, \( \frac{1}{5} \) of the remainder was sold for juicing, and 30% of the remaining after that was exported. If the share of oranges in 2000 was equal to the percentage share of watermelons in 2019, how many watermelons were retained for home sale and consumption?

• (A) 39.2 million tonnes
• (B) 1.6 million tonnes
• (C) 16.8 million tonnes
• (D) 2.7 million tonnes

Assume all grapes and apples were sold through a single organisation in 2000. Grapes and apples were sold to 4 different customers: a certain number of apples to the 1st customer; the same number of apples to the 2nd customer and then a certain number of grapes to the 2nd customer after which apples were over; twice the grapes sold to the 2nd were sold to the 3rd; and twice the grapes sold to the 3rd were sold to the 4th. The total quantity of grapes sold equals the total quantity of apples sold (any leftover grapes were stored). How many grapes were sold to each customer?

• (A) 19.1 million tonnes
• (B) 8.2 million tonnes
• (C) 28.6 million tonnes
• (D) 9.4 million tonnes

Frutopia and Fruitifix both sold oranges at the same selling price. Frutopia gave a 15% discount on its marked price, while Fruitifix gave a 20% discount on its marked price. If the marked price on Frutopia is \(Rs.\,75/kg\), what is the marked price on Fruitifix?

• (A) Rs.~78
• (B) Rs.~82
• (C) Rs.~90
• (D) Rs.~80

Player S is from the weight group:

• (A) 1
• (B) 9
• (C) 5
• (D) 10

If \(S\) leaves the group and two new players join the group, their average weight increases to \(68\) kg. These players can NOT be from which groups?

• (A) 1 and 3
• (B) Both from group 7
• (C) 4 and 10
• (D) 5 and 9

What is the average weight of all the players taken together (the original 10 players plus the two newcomers)?

• (A) 68 kg
• (B) 66 kg
• (C) 69 kg
• (D) Cannot be determined

In the average of all the groups together, which group contributes most in overall average?

• (A) 10
• (B) 8
• (C) 1
• (D) Cannot be determined

If one of the new two players is from group 4 (\(60–64\) kg), which group is the other player from?

• (A) 5
• (B) 7
• (C) 10
• (D) None of the above

Correct Answer: (C) 10
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