AILET PhD (Law) 2025 Question Paper (Available) Download Solutions and Answer Key pdf

Question 1.
Which method can be applicable for collecting qualitative data?

• (a) Artefacts
• (b) People
• (c) Media products
• (d) All of the above

Question 2.
The most persuasive secondary sources that are almost always acceptable to cite include:

• (a) Treatises, Nutshells, and Restatements
• (b) Treatises, Restatements, and Law Review Articles
• (c) Treatises, American Law Reports, and Encyclopaedias
• (d) Hornbooks, Nutshells, and Restatements

Question 3.
What are the conditions in which Type-I error occurs?

• (a) The null hypotheses get accepted even if it is false
• (b) The null hypotheses get rejected even if it is true
• (c) Both the null hypotheses as well as alternative hypotheses are rejected
• (d) None of the above

Question 4.
Which of the following legal sources includes short case descriptions arranged topically?

• (a) Reporters
• (b) Digests
• (c) Annotated Codes
• (d) Both Digests and Annotated Codes

Question 5.
The ultimate goal of legal research is to find:

• (a) Persuasive primary authority
• (b) Secondary authority
• (c) Persuasive secondary authority
• (d) Binding primary authority

Question 6.
You are researching a family law matter for a senior partner at your law firm. In your research, you have learned that the legal issue has not been addressed by a court of law in your state. Which kind of secondary source would be best to rely upon to determine how a court of law in your state might address this legal issue?

• (a) Federal environmental administrative regulations
• (b) A law review article that examines the legal issue you are researching
• (c) A non-legal website that addresses only the social issues and policies involved
• (d) A case or statute from another jurisdiction

Question 7.
What is the primary method of case law analysis?

• (a) Ambiguity clarification
• (b) Plain meaning rule
• (c) Both a) and b)
• (d) Analogical reasoning

Question 8.
What is the goal of objective legal writing?

• (a) To predict and argue
• (b) To educate and persuade
• (c) To argue and persuade
• (d) To educate and predict

Question 9.
What are the best practical tips to avoid plagiarism for legal writing?

• (a) Cite apart from the drafting process
• (b) Substitute short form cites as needed in final revisions
• (c) Insert long form cites while drafting
• (d) All of the above

Question 10.
In qualitative research, which of the following criteria is concerned with the question of whether the findings apply to other contexts?

• (a) Transferability
• (b) Credibility
• (c) Internal validity
• (d) Confirmability

Question 11.
Hypothesis is ........

• (a) Conclusion drawn from existing literature
• (b) Interpretation of data
• (c) Relation between variables
• (d) Comparison of assumptions

Question 12.
Quantitative research is otherwise known as .........

• (a) Ethnographic approach
• (b) Unstructured approach
• (c) Descriptive approach
• (d) Structured approach

Question 13.
On what basis did Jean Piaget give his theory of cognitive development of humans?

• (a) Evaluation Research
• (b) Fundamental Research
• (c) Applied Research
• (d) Action Research

Question 14.
Random sampling is helpful as it is ..........

• (a) Reasonably accurate
• (b) Free from personal biases
• (c) An economical method of data collection
• (d) All of the above

Question 15.
Sampling is advantageous as it ..........

• (a) Saves time
• (b) Helps in capital-saving
• (c) Increases accuracy
• (d) All of the above

Question 16.
Which tool is commonly used for quantitative data analysis?

• (a) Microsoft Word
• (b) Statistical Package for Social Sciences (SPSS)
• (c) Adobe Photoshop
• (d) PowerPoint

Question 17.
In which of the following research methods, process of hypothesis testing optimally safeguards the role of extraneous variables?

• (a) Ex-post Facto method
• (b) Experimental method
• (c) Historical method
• (d) Descriptive Survey method

Question 18.
What is the significance of research ethics?

• (a) To show gratitude towards the researcher
• (b) To ensure the integrity of research
• (c) To reduce plagiarism
• (d) To increase research findings

Question 19.
What is the difference between reliability and validity in research?

• (a) Reliability refers to the consistency of findings, while validity refers to the accuracy of findings
• (b) Reliability refers to the generalizability of findings, while validity refers to the relevance of findings
• (c) Reliability refers to the ease of using a research method, while validity refers to the difficulty of using a research method
• (d) Reliability refers to the cost of research, while validity refers to the benefits of research

Question 20.
Consider the following Assertion and Reasons:

Assertion: Data processing plays a vital role in converting raw data into meaningful information for analysis and interpretation.

Reason 1: Data processing involves organizing, cleaning, and transforming raw data into a format suitable for statistical analysis.

Reason 2: Effective data processing ensures that the research findings are valid and reliable.

Select the correct option:

• (a) Both Reason 1 and Reason 2 are correct
• (b) Both Reason 1 and Reason 2 are incorrect
• (c) Only Reason 1 is correct
• (d) Only Reason 2 is correct

Question 21.
In legal research, what is the primary purpose of utilizing specialized law libraries?

• (a) To access general information and literature on legal topics
• (b) To locate specific legal statutes, case law, and legal commentary
• (c) To conduct qualitative analysis of legal texts
• (d) To network with legal professionals for research collaboration

Question 22.
Your law firm is representing a client in a complex international business transaction. You need to research the laws of a foreign jurisdiction that are not readily available in English. Which of the following resources available in the law library would be the MOST effective starting point for your research?

• (a) International legal treatises and journals
• (b) Online legal translation tools
• (c) Foreign language legal dictionaries and encyclopaedias
• (d) Consulting with an attorney specializing in international law

Question 23.
You are conducting a survey research study on the relationship between student study habits and academic performance. You collect data on the number of hours each student studies per week and their final exam grades. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate statistical test to analyze this relationship?

• (a) Chi-square test
• (b) Correlation analysis
• (c) T-test
• (d) One-way ANOVA

Question 24.
What is the difference between primary and secondary data?

• (a) Primary data is collected first-hand, while secondary data is collected from existing sources
• (b) Primary data is qualitative, while secondary data is quantitative
• (c) Primary data is collected from government reports, while secondary data is collected from interviews
• (d) Primary data is more economical than secondary data

Question 25.
When considering the internal validity of a research design, what does the term “threats to internal validity” refer to?

• (a) Factors that limit the generalizability of research findings to broader populations
• (b) Biases or confounding variables that may affect the interpretation of study results
• (c) Issues related to the reliability and consistency of measurement instruments
• (d) Ethical considerations and guidelines governing research conduct

Question 26.
In the context of report writing in legal research, what is the primary purpose of incorporating jurimetrics?

• (a) To enhance the readability and accessibility of the report for a non-legal audience
• (b) To provide a comprehensive analysis of legal doctrines and precedents
• (c) To utilize quantitative methods for predicting legal outcomes and trends
• (d) To incorporate ethical considerations and guidelines into the research findings

Question 27.
Your research report analyzes the impact of a recent Supreme Court decision on lower court rulings using a qualitative approach. You want to strengthen your arguments by incorporating relevant quantitative data. Which of the following sources is the MOST appropriate and reliable for obtaining this data?

• (a) Government websites with legal statistics reports
• (b) Legal blogs and online commentary pieces
• (c) Scholarly articles published in peer-reviewed legal journals
• (d) Social media posts and online discussions about the court decision

Question 28.
What are the two main types of qualitative research methods?

• (a) Interviews and Surveys
• (b) Experiments and Case Studies
• (c) Case Studies and Content Analysis
• (d) Observations and Surveys

Question 29.
When researchers use designs that call for multiple groups, the most commonly employed test is:

• (a) Z-test
• (b) t-test for difference of means
• (c) Paired t-test
• (d) F-test

Question 30.
What is the expanded form of OSCOLA citation?

• (a) Oxford University Standard for the Citation of Legal Authorities
• (b) Oxford University System for the Citation of Legal Acts
• (c) Oxford Universal System for the Citation of Legal Authorities
• (d) Oxford University Standard for the Citation of Legal Authority

Question 31.
In the context of a literature review, what does the term “conceptual framework” refer to?

• (a) A theoretical model that guides the organization and interpretation of literature
• (b) A summary of research findings from previous studies
• (c) A database containing relevant research articles and publications
• (d) A statistical technique used to analyze data from multiple studies

Question 32.
Which of the following resources is LEAST likely to be a valuable source for a thorough review of literature in your research?

• (a) Peer-reviewed academic journals relevant to your topic
• (b) Government reports and data on relevant issues
• (c) Books and edited volumes written by established scholars in the field
• (d) Popular media articles and blog posts on the research topic

Question 33.
What is the primary responsibility of researchers regarding informed consent in research studies?

• (a) To obtain consent from all participants regardless of the nature of the study
• (b) To ensure that participants are fully informed about the risks and benefits of participation
• (c) To guarantee that participants remain anonymous throughout the study
• (d) To obtain consent only from vulnerable populations

Question 34.
A researcher is conducting a study on the psychological effects of social media use among teenagers. They plan to recruit participants from a popular social media platform without informing their parents or guardians. Which ethical principle is being violated in this scenario?

• (a) Informed consent: Participants have the right to know about the research and choose to participate freely
• (b) Data privacy: Researchers must ensure the confidentiality and security of participant data
• (c) Justice: Research benefits and burdens should be distributed fairly
• (d) Scientific integrity: Researchers must be honest and transparent in their research practices

Question 35.
Which research method is commonly used in socio-legal research to explore the experiences and perspectives of individuals affected by legal issues?

• (a) Experimental design
• (b) Survey research
• (c) Ethnographic research
• (d) Content analysis

Question 36.
Which of the following statements is not correct about a questionnaire?

• (a) Large amounts of information can be collected
• (b) It is quick and easy to collect results
• (c) An expensive method of collecting data
• (d) Set of questions for the purposes of a survey or statistical study

Question 37.
What distinguishes a well-formulated research problem from a poorly formulated one?

• (a) A well-formulated research problem is broad and general, while a poorly formulated one is specific
• (b) A well-formulated research problem is feasible and manageable, while a poorly formulated one is too complex or abstract
• (c) A well-formulated research problem has a clear and predetermined solution, while a poorly formulated one lacks direction
• (d) A well-formulated research problem is subjective and open-ended, while a poorly formulated one is objective and precise

Question 38.
What is the primary challenge in defining a research problem that is both relevant and significant?

• (a) Identifying a topic that has not been previously studied
• (b) Ensuring that the research problem aligns with the researcher’s personal interests
• (c) Balancing the scope of the research problem to address practical concerns without being too narrow or too broad
• (d) Selecting a research problem that has a predetermined solution

Question 39.
A researcher conducting participant observation in an online community forum encounters a heated discussion involving offensive language and discriminatory remarks. How should the researcher ethically respond to this situation while maintaining the integrity of the research?

• (a) Ignore the incident and continue collecting data as planned
• (b) Report the offensive comments to the forum moderators and potentially compromise the anonymity of participants
• (c) Discuss the situation with a research ethics committee and consider alternative data collection methods that do not expose participants to harmful content
• (d) Engage in direct confrontation with the participants using offensive language, reflecting the researcher’s personal values

Question 40.
Which of the following is a common challenge in qualitative research?

• (a) Ensuring replicability and generalizability of findings
• (b) Maintaining objectivity and minimizing researcher bias
• (c) Collecting large amounts of standardized data
• (d) Achieving consensus among researchers on data interpretation

Question 41.
A researcher is investigating the relationship between the length of criminal trials and the likelihood of conviction. They want to use jurimetrics to analyze this relationship. However, they encounter a dataset with missing information regarding the length of some trials. Which of the following approaches is the MOST appropriate and statistically sound method to address this missing data in the context of jurimetrics research?

• (a) Imputing missing values using the mean duration of all trials
• (b) Excluding cases with missing data from the analysis, potentially leading to biased results
• (c) Using a statistical technique like multiple imputation to estimate missing values based on available data
• (d) Ignoring the missing data altogether and focusing on cases with complete information, reducing the sample size and potentially affecting generalizability

Question 42.
Which of the following methods is used in empirical research?

• (a) Inductive method
• (b) Deductive method
• (c) Initiative method
• (d) Scientific method

Question 43.
A researcher is writing the abstract for their research report. Which of the following statements accurately reflects the MOST important characteristic of an effective abstract?

• (a) The abstract should be as detailed and lengthy as possible, providing a comprehensive overview of the entire research report
• (b) The abstract should primarily focus on the literature review and previous research on the topic
• (c) The abstract should be concise and informative, providing a clear summary of the research question, methodology, key findings, and conclusions
• (d) The abstract should prioritize technical jargon and complex terminology specific to the researcher’s field

Question 44.
Which of the following is an example of a null hypothesis?

• (a) There is a significant difference between Group A and Group B
• (b) There is no relationship between variables X and Y
• (c) The mean score of Sample A is higher than the mean score of Sample B
• (d) The experimental treatment has a positive effect

Question 45.
Which of the following is NOT a common citation style used in academic research?

• (a) APA (American Psychological Association)
• (b) MLA (Modern Language Association)
• (c) AP (Associated Press)
• (d) Chicago Manual of Style

Question 46.
What information is typically included in a citation for a journal article in Bluebook style?

• (a) Author’s name, publication year, journal title and date
• (b) Author’s name, book title, and page number
• (c) Author’s name, publication date, and website URL
• (d) Author’s name, title, volume number, journal, page and date

Question 47.
Which of the following is a non-probability sampling technique?

• (a) Cluster sampling
• (b) Snowball sampling
• (c) Systematic Random sampling
• (d) Simple Random sampling

Question 48.
In which of the following research methods are manipulation of variables and randomization of samples two of the basic requirements?

• (a) Ex-post facto research
• (b) Descriptive research
• (c) Case study research
• (d) Experimental research

Question 49.
Tippit table refers to as ...........

• (a) Table of random digits
• (b) The table used in sampling methods
• (c) The table used in statistical investigations
• (d) All of the above

Question 50.
What is the primary purpose of institutional review boards (IRBs) in research institutions?

• (a) To evaluate the statistical validity of research studies
• (b) To ensure that research studies comply with ethical standards and regulations
• (c) To provide funding for research projects
• (d) To recruit participants for research studies

Question 51.
“Delegated legislation is a growing child called upon to relieve the parent of the strain of overwork and capable of attending to minor matters, while the parent manages the main business.” Who made the above statement?

• (a) Sir Carleton Kemp Allen
• (b) Sir John William Salmond
• (c) James Finn Garner
• (d) Sir Cecil Carr

Question 52.
The expression ‘federative power’ used by John Locke is related to:

• (a) General rule-making power
• (b) Power of conducting foreign affairs
• (c) Legislative power
• (d) Judicial power

Question 53.
In which of the following decisions, the Supreme Court of India held that the Speaker of the Legislative Assembly of the State is a quasi-judicial authority while adjudicating the disqualification petition of any member of the Assembly?

• (a) Shrimanth Balasaheb Patil v. Hon’ble Speaker, Karnataka Legislative Assembly
• (b) Raja Ram Pal v. Hon’ble Speaker, Lok Sabha and Ors.
• (c) Dr. Kashinath G. Jalmi and Anr. v. Speaker and Ors.
• (d) G. Viswanathan v. Hon’ble Speaker, Tamil Nadu Legislative Assembly

Question 54.
Which provision of the Constitution of India provides definition of ‘Goods and Services Tax’?

• (a) Article 246(A)
• (b) Article 269(A)
• (c) Article 366(12A)
• (d) Article 279(A)

Question 55.
If a person is elected as the President of India and exercises powers and duties of the office of President, and subsequently such election is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, then by reason of that declaration all acts done in the exercise of the powers and duties of the office of President before the date of such decision of the Supreme Court shall be:

• (a) Void
• (b) Irregular
• (c) Invalid
• (d) Not invalid

Question 56.
Which of the following is not expressly given as a factor to be considered by the Governor for the purpose of the constitution of Municipalities under Article 243Q of the Constitution of India, for the purpose of notification of any area as a ‘transitional area’?

• (a) Density of the population
• (b) Percentage of schools, colleges and hospitals in proportion of the population
• (c) Percentage of employment in non-agricultural activities
• (d) Revenue generated for local administration

Question 57.
All minerals and other things of value underlying the ocean within the limits of the territorial waters or continental shelf of India shall vest in the:

• (a) President of India
• (b) Union of India
• (c) State(s) having territory adjacent to the ocean
• (d) Authority in accordance with the international convention

Question 58.
Which of the following statements regarding the test of intention to create legal relationship is untrue?

• (a) Intention is inferred when the parties to an agreement conform to the rules of law for formation of contracts
• (b) Intention to create legal relationship can be expressly negated by construction of the document from which that intention is to be inferred
• (c) A promisor who never intended to create legal relationship shall not be bound even if a reasonable person would consider that there was an intention to contract
• (d) Even the promisor who never intended to create legal relationship shall be bound if a reasonable person would consider that there was an intention to contract

Question 59.
Choose the correct answer regarding the ‘Contra Proferentem’ rule.

• (a) It is a rule of interpretation of words in favour of the drafter of the contract
• (b) It is a rule of interpretation of words against the drafter of the contract
• (c) It is a rule of interpretation of words to infer the real intention of the drafter of the contract
• (d) It is a rule of construction of words used in the contract to infer the prevailing customary effects

Question 60.
Where a wife borrows money to manage necessary family expenses in a reasonable manner, the husband shall be liable to repay the debt to its creditor under implied authority of borrowing. Consider the above statement and choose the correct answer.

• (a) Husband is liable as principal for the act of wife as agent under the principle of agency
• (b) Husband is liable as surety for the act of wife as debtor under the contract of guarantee
• (c) Husband is liable as master for the act of wife as servant under the principle of vicarious liability
• (d) Husband is not liable to repay debt

Question 61.
The expression ‘Mercantile Agent’ given under Section 178 of the Indian Contract Act 1872 has the same meaning as assigned under:

• (a) The General Clauses Act 1897
• (b) The Transfer of Property Act 1882
• (c) The Sale of Goods Act 1930
• (d) The Indian Partnership Act 1932

Question 62.
A bailor of goods lends it gratuitously for a specified time and purpose. On the faith of such bailment made for a specified time and purpose, the bailee has acted in such a manner that the return of the goods lent before the agreed time would cause him loss exceeding the benefit actually derived by him from the use of goods. The bailor compels the return of goods before the specified time and accomplishment of purpose. Consider the above statement and suggest the correct answer.

• (a) Bailor may not compel to return of goods before the specified time and accomplishment of purpose in any condition
• (b) Bailor must indemnify for the amount in which the loss so occasioned exceeds the benefit so derived
• (c) Bailor may compel to return of goods before the specified time and accomplishment of purpose without indemnifying bailee
• (d) Bailee is entitled to claim damages and compensation for the breach of promise

Question 63.
Section 25 of the Indian Contract Act 1872 provides the general rule that the agreement without consideration is void. However, the section contains ........... exceptions.

• (a) Two
• (b) Three
• (c) Four
• (d) Five

Question 64.
What is the consideration to enforce a contract of guarantee against the surety?

• (a) Consideration is not necessary in contract of guarantee
• (b) All existing and collateral securities in hands of the creditor against the principal debtor are sufficient consideration to the surety for giving the guarantee
• (c) All collateral securities are sufficient consideration to the surety for giving the guarantee
• (d) Anything done, or any promise made, for the benefit of the principal debtor, may be a sufficient consideration to the surety for giving the guarantee

Question 65.
A professional association of Medical Practitioners have developed bylaws for determining the entitlements, ethics, and discipline of members of such association. Such bylaws may be considered as:

• (a) Consensual Agreement
• (b) Legislation
• (c) Autonomic Legislation
• (d) Customary Law

Question 66.
Lon Luvois Fuller propounded the term ‘Eunomics’ and defines it as:

• (a) Doctrine of binding ultimate ends
• (b) The theory or study of good order and workable arrangements
• (c) Rationality and morality are the essence of law
• (d) Distinctive coalescence of form, value, and fact

Question 67.
Who shall discharge the function of making over the case for inquiry or trial under Section 212 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023?

• (a) Chief Judicial Magistrate
• (b) Court of Session
• (c) High Court
• (d) Executive Magistrate

Question 68.
‘Petty offence’ means any offence punishable only with fine not exceeding:

• (a) Five Thousand Rupees
• (b) Three Thousand Rupees
• (c) Two Thousand Rupees
• (d) One Thousand Rupees

Question 69.
Who is empowered to determine the language of courts under Section 307 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023?

• (a) Ministry of Law and Justice, Government of India
• (b) Supreme Court of India
• (c) High Court
• (d) State Government

Question 70.
‘Generalia Specialibus Non Derogant’ means:

• (a) Special law will always prevail over general law
• (b) General law will always prevail over special law
• (c) General words are to be understood in a general way
• (d) Incorrect grammar does not vitiate a deed

Question 71.
Consider the following statements:

i. The identification of an accused by a witness in court is substantive evidence.

ii. The evidence of identification in test identification parade is primary evidence but not substantive evidence.

iii. Test identification parade can be used only to corroborate identification of the accused by a witness in the court.

Choose the correct answer.

• (a) (i) and (ii) are correct but (iii) incorrect
• (b) (i) and (ii) are incorrect but (iii) is correct
• (c) (i) and (iii) are correct but (ii) incorrect
• (d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 72.
Which of the following Latin maxims is related to relevancy of dying declaration?

• (a) Actus Curias Neminem Gravabit
• (b) Nemo Moriturus Praesumitur Mentire
• (c) Nullum Tempus Aut Locus Occurrit Regi
• (d) Lex Non Cogit Ad Impossibilia

Question 73.
Choose the correct answer regarding the doctrine of restitution under Section 144 of the Code of Civil Procedure 1908.

• (a) The expression ‘restitution’ is clearly defined under Section 144 of the Code of Civil Procedure 1908
• (b) Section 144 confers a new substantive right on the parties for the tortious act caused due to erroneous decree or order passed by the court
• (c) Section 144 does not confer any new substantive right. It merely regulates the power of the court to restore the parties so far as they can be restored
• (d) The courts do not have the inherent power to make restitution under Section 144 of the Code of Civil Procedure 1908

Question 74.
Which of the following maxims is not related to the doctrine of res judicata?

• (a) Nemo Debet Bis Vexari Pro Una Et Eadem Causa
• (b) Nemo Tenetur Se Ipsum Prodere
• (c) Interest Reipublicae Ut Sit Finis Litium
• (d) Res Judicata Pro Veritate Occipitur

Question 75.
Where the court has passed a decree for the payment of money and the decree is silent with respect to the payment of interest during the period from the date of the decree to the date of payment, it shall be deemed that:

• (a) Court has refused such interest and therefore no separate suit shall be instituted for the payment of interest
• (b) Court has refused such interest; however, a separate suit may be instituted for the payment of interest
• (c) Court has not refused such interest; however, a separate suit may be instituted for the payment of interest
• (d) Court has not refused such interest but adjusted the payment of interest in the cost of the suit

Question 76.
All questions relating to executability or non-executability of a decree have been conferred within the exclusive jurisdiction of the court executing the decree by virtue of the provision ........... of the Code of Civil Procedure 1908.

• (a) Section 10
• (b) Section 11
• (c) Section 33
• (d) Section 47

Question 77.
‘A’, the owner of ‘X’, ‘Y’, and ‘Z’ properties, mortgages them to ‘B’ and then sells ‘Z’ property to ‘C’. ‘A’ commits default in payment of mortgage amount then ‘B’ exercises his remedy against the mortgaged properties. In the absence of a contract to the contrary, ‘C’ may demand that the due mortgage amount be satisfied out of:

• (a) ‘X’, ‘Y’ and ‘Z’ properties in equal proportion
• (b) ‘Z’ property only for half part of mortgage amount
• (c) ‘X’ and ‘Y’ properties only
• (d) ‘X’ and ‘Y’ properties so far as the same will extend to satisfy the due mortgage amount

Question 78.
Section 135 of the Transfer of Property Act 1882 deals with the provision for the assignment of rights under the policy of ........... insurance.

• (a) Life
• (b) Marine
• (c) Agriculture
• (d) Fire

Question 79.
‘X’ transfers his property in favor of an unborn person ‘Y’ in accordance with the principle of Section 13 of the Transfer of Property Act 1882. ‘Y’ acquires interest in the property upon his birth, although ‘Y’ is not entitled to enjoy the property immediately on his birth. The interest of ‘Y’ in the property is:

• (a) Contingent interest
• (b) Vested interest
• (c) Future interest
• (d) Irregular interest

Question 80.
The general rule for the apportionment of income between the transferor and transferee under Section 36 of the Transfer of Property Act 1882 is that such income shall be deemed to accrue due from:

• (a) Day to day basis
• (b) Every fortnight basis
• (c) Monthly basis
• (d) Yearly basis

Question 81.
A tortious act infringes:

• (a) Right in personam
• (b) Right in rem
• (c) Both Right in personam and Right in rem
• (d) Neither Right in personam nor Right in rem

Question 82.
‘Malice in fact’ means:

• (a) A wrongful act done intentionally without just cause
• (b) A wrongful act done intentionally with evil motive
• (c) A wrongful act done intentionally with just cause
• (d) A wrongful act done intentionally without evil

Question 83.
Consider the following statements:
i. Libel is addressed to the eye.

ii. Slander is addressed to the ear.

iii. Slander is a criminal wrong.
Choose the correct answer.

• (a) (i) is correct but (ii) and (iii) are incorrect
• (b) (i) and (ii) are correct but (iii) is incorrect
• (c) (ii) and (iii) are correct but (i) is incorrect
• (d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 84.
Which of the following is not necessary to establish the liability for negligence under the law of torts?

• (a) Breach of duty
• (b) Duty of care
• (c) Intentional act or omission
• (d) Causing injury to another

Question 85.
What must be shown before the court to obtain an injunction to stop nuisance?

• (a) Convenience of the applicant
• (b) Guilt of the defendant
• (c) No alternative legal remedy exists
• (d) Gravity and permanent character of injury complained

Question 86.
Choose the correct answer regarding the purpose of the United Nations.

• (a) To establish trade harmony
• (b) To ensure internal peace and security of every State
• (c) Prevention and removal of threats to international peace
• (d) To achieve international cooperation in solving domestic humanitarian problems of States

Question 87.
Which of the following is/are correct according to the ‘Constructive Theory of Recognition’?
i. Recognition is a key to membership of the international community.

ii. It is constitutive of a new international legal personality.

iii. States are under a legal obligation to grant recognition to a newly emerging State.

iv. Recognition clothes the government of the recognized State with authority and opportunity to conduct international relations.
Choose the correct answer.

• (a) i, ii and iv are correct
• (b) i and ii are correct
• (c) ii and iv are correct
• (d) i, iii and iv are correct

Question 88.
Consider the following statements:
i. Citizenship is the concern of municipal law.

ii. Nationality is the concern of international law only.

iii. There is no provision for nationality in the Constitution of India.
Choose the correct answer.

• (a) i, ii and iii are correct
• (b) i and ii are correct
• (c) ii and iii are correct
• (d) i and iii are correct

Question 89.
Which of the following marginal note to Section 4 of the Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam 2023 deals with the same doctrine as was contained under section 6 of the Indian Evidence Act 1872?

• (a) Relevancy of facts forming part of the same transaction
• (b) Closely connected facts
• (c) Facts under res gestae
• (d) Proximate facts

Question 90.
Under the recent criminal law, the ‘community service’ is a ............

• (a) Moral teaching not amounting to punishment
• (b) Form of punishment
• (c) Non-significant term
• (d) Form of rehabilitation of offender in the society

Question 91.
When the acceptor of a negotiable instrument is also a drawer, in that case a notice of dishonor is:

• (a) Necessary
• (b) Not necessary
• (c) Not always necessary but under certain circumstances it is must
• (d) Depending on option of the parties

Question 92.
‘Mesne profits’ of property does not include:

• (a) Profits which the person in wrongful possession of such property actually received
• (b) Profits which the person in wrongful possession of such property might with ordinary diligence have received
• (c) Profits due to improvements made by the person in wrongful possession of such property
• (d) Interest on profits which the person in wrongful possession of such property actually received

Question 93.
What is the basis for determining whether a person is a partner in a firm?

• (a) The real relation between the parties, as shown by all relevant facts taken together
• (b) The sharing of profits arising from the property by persons holding common interest in such property
• (c) The sharing of profits arising from the property by persons holding joint interest in such property
• (d) The receipt by a person of a share of the profits of a business

Question 94.
Which of the following international conventions co-ordinates cybercrime investigations among States parties?

• (a) United Nations Convention Against Transnational Organized Crime
• (b) Rome Statute of the International Criminal Court
• (c) Agreement on the Enforcement of Sentences with the International Criminal Court
• (d) Budapest Convention on Cybercrime

Question 95.
In which of the following cases has the Supreme Court of India directed the Central Government to constitute a National Tribunals Commission (NTC), an independent body to supervise the functioning of Tribunals in India?

• (a) K. K. Verma v. Union of India
• (b) R. S. Joshi v. Union of India
• (c) Union of India v. R. S. Verma
• (d) Union of India v. T. N. Seshan

Question 96.
In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court of India directed to install CCTV Cameras and recording equipment in the office of agencies which carry out interrogations and holding of accused takes place in the same manner as it would in a police station?

• (a) State of Maharashtra v. Keshao Vishwanath Sonone, 2020 SCC OnLine 1040
• (b) Paramvir Singh Saini v. Baljit Singh, AIR 2020 SC 64
• (c) Rohtas v. State of Haryana, [2019] 16 S.C.R. 861
• (d) Chaman Lal v. State of Himachal Pradesh, (2004) 7 SCC 525

Question 97.
Appointing a person as director against the director of a company during his absence for a period of not less than three months from India is known as:

• (a) Alternate Director
• (b) Additional Director
• (c) Resident Director
• (d) Nominee Director

Question 98.
Consider the following Assertion [A] and Reasoning [R]:
[A] Socialism is implicit in the preamble and directive principles of state policy under the Constitution of India.

[R] The term \textit{economic justice denotes social and economic liberties of the people.
Choose the most suitable answer.

• (a) Both [A] and [R] are true
• (b) Both [A] and [R] are false
• (c) [A] is false, but [R] is true
• (d) [A] is true, but [R] is false

Question 99.
Consider the following Assertion [A] and Reasoning [R]:
[A] The Judge of a High Court is not a Government Servant.

[R] The relationship of Master and Servant between the Government and Judge would defeat judicial independence.
Choose the most suitable answer.

• (a) Both [A] and [R] are true
• (b) Both [A] and [R] are false
• (c) [A] is false, but [R] is true
• (d) [A] is true, but [R] is false

Question 100.
Which of the following statements regarding the application of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 is not true?

• (a) Provision of the Sanhita shall apply to any offence committed by any person in any place without and beyond India committing offence targeting a computer resource located in India
• (b) Provision of the Sanhita shall not apply to any offence committed by any person in any place without and beyond India committing offence targeting a computer resource located in India
• (c) Provision of the Sanhita shall apply to any offence committed by any citizen of India in any place without and beyond India
• (d) The word ‘Offence’ includes every act committed outside India which, if committed in India, would be punishable under this Sanhita