AILET MA(Law) 2025 Question Paper (Available) Download Solutions and Answer Key pdf

Question 1.
Choose the best option in phrasal verbs to replace the underlined part of the sentence. More than 90000 people packed out the stadium to witness the grand finale on the closing day of the mega sports event.

• (a) Packed in
• (b) Packed into
• (c) Packed up
• (d) Packed off

Question 2.
Choose the best option in phrasal verbs to replace the underlined part of the sentence. The law finally caught on with the dreaded criminal who managed to elude the police for a long time.

• (a) Caught out
• (b) Caught over
• (c) Caught in
• (d) Caught up

Question 3.
Choose the best option in phrasal verbs to replace the underlined part of the sentence. Acting in an anonymous tip-off, police raided the den and arrested several people who were involved in the drug racket.

• (a) Acting for
• (b) Acting up
• (c) Acting on
• (d) Acting over

Question 4.
Choose the best option in phrasal verbs to replace the underlined part of the sentence. Being a gregarious person with an amiable temperament, John can strike out a friendship even with complete strangers.

• (a) Strike up
• (b) Strike at
• (c) Strike on
• (d) Strike back

Question 5.
Choose the best option in phrasal verbs to replace the underlined part of the sentence. The storm blew up after two days, much to the relief of the people living along the coast.

• (a) Blew apart
• (b) Blew in
• (c) Blew out
• (d) Blew over

Question 6.
Out of the 4 given forms, identify the grammatically correct sentence.

• (a) There were lesser children in the class than expected.
• (b) There were fewer children in the class than expected.
• (c) There were a little children in the class than expected.
• (d) There were a small children in the class than expected.

Question 7.
Out of the 4 given forms, identify the grammatically correct sentence.

• (a) These tomatoes does not taste very good.
• (b) These tomatoes do not taste very good.
• (c) These tomatoes are not tasting a very good.
• (d) These are tomatoes which are not tasting very good.

Question 8.
Out of the 4 given forms, identify the grammatically correct sentence.

• (a) I had wanted to repair the radio today but am having no time.
• (b) I want to repair the radio but had not time to do it today.
• (c) I want to repair the radio but haven’t no time to do it today.
• (d) I want to repair the radio today but I have no time to do it.

Question 9.
Out of the 4 given forms, identify the grammatically correct sentence.

• (a) The binoculars are handy during an eclipse.
• (b) The binoculars is handy during eclipse.
• (c) The binoculars was handy during eclipse.
• (d) The binoculars were handy during eclipse.

Question 10.
Out of the 4 given forms, identify the grammatically correct sentence.

• (a) An argument developed among his sister and him.
• (b) An argument developed between his sister and he.
• (c) An argument developed between his sister and his.
• (d) An argument developed between his sister and him.

Question 11.
Identify the best alternative for changing the given sentence from direct to reported speech. The speaker said, ―Be quiet and listen to my words.‖

• (a) The speaker ordered us to be quiet and listen to my words.
• (b) The speaker ordered us to be quiet and listen to them words.
• (c) The speaker ordered us to be quiet and listen to his words.
• (d) The speaker ordered to be quiet and listen to my words.

Question 12.
Identify the best alternative for changing the given sentence from direct to reported speech. Ravi said, ―I am very busy now.‖

• (a) Ravi said that he was very busy now.
• (b) Ravi said that he was very busy then.
• (c) Ravi said that he was very busy later.
• (d) Ravi said that he was very busy the next day.

Question 13.
Identify the best alternative for changing the given sentence from direct to reported speech. He says, ―I am glad to be here this evening.‖

• (a) He said that he was glad to be there that evening.
• (b) He questioned that he was glad to be there that evening.
• (c) He said that he was glad to be here that evening.
• (d) He said that he was glad to be there this evening.

Question 14.
Identify the best alternative for changing the given sentence from direct to reported speech. ―Where is the post office?‖ asked the stranger.

• (a) The stranger inquired that where is the post office.
• (b) The stranger inquired that where was the post office.
• (c) The stranger inquired that where the post office is.
• (d) The stranger inquired where is the post office.

Question 15.
Identify the best alternative for changing the given sentence from direct to reported speech. Tania said to her friend, ―Can you lend me an umbrella?‖

• (a) Tania asked her friend if she could she lend her an umbrella.
• (b) Tania asked her friend whether she could lend her an umbrella.
• (c) Tania asked her friend that she lend her an umbrella.
• (d) Tania asked her friend if she could lend her a umbrella.

Question 16.
Identify which of the following is not a synonym of the given word. PROCRASTINATE

• (a) Protract
• (b) Prolong
• (c) Expedite
• (d) Dawdle

Question 17.
Identify which of the following is not a synonym of the given word. EXPUNGE

• (a) Exterminate
• (b) Insert
• (c) Extinguish
• (d) Obliterate

Question 18.
Identify which of the following is not a synonym of the given word. WHEEDLE

• (a) Cajole
• (b) Persuade
• (c) Coax
• (d) Dissuade

Question 19.
Identify which of the following is not an antonym of the given word. SEGREGATE

• (a) Connect
• (b) Disassociate
• (c) Associate
• (d) Couple

Question 20.
Identify which of the following is not a synonym of the given word. PECUNIARY

• (a) Budgetary
• (b) Monetary
• (c) Fiscal
• (d) Conciliatory

Question 21.
Identify the best alternative for changing the voice of the given sentence. The farmers will plough the fields before the monsoons.

• (a) The fields will be ploughed.
• (b) The fields will be ploughed by the farmers after the monsoons.
• (c) The fields will be ploughed by the farmers before the monsoons.
• (d) The fields shall be ploughed by the farmers before the monsoons.

Question 22.
Identify the best alternative for changing the voice of the given sentence. The delivery boy rang the bell.

• (a) The bell was rang by the delivery boy.
• (b) The bell was rung by the delivery boy.
• (c) The bell is ringing by the delivery boy.
• (d) The bell was ringing by the delivery boy.

Question 23.
Identify the best alternative for changing the voice of the given sentence. We have warned you.

• (a) You have been warned.
• (b) We have you warned.
• (c) Warned you have been.
• (d) Have you been warned.

Question 24.
Identify the best alternative for changing the voice of the given sentence. Has anybody answered your question?

• (a) Your question has been answered?
• (b) Anybody has answered your question?
• (c) Has your question been answered?
• (d) Have you answered your question?

Question 25.
Identify the best alternative for changing the voice of the given sentence. Marie was writing a letter to her father.

• (a) A letter was written to her father by Marie.
• (b) A letter has been written to her father by Marie.
• (c) A letter was being written to her father by Marie.
• (d) A letter was written by Marie to her father.

Question 26.
Based on information provided in the passage, all of the following are true, EXCEPT:

• (a) European television productions have the potential to become global hits.
• (b) Only half of Netflix's original programming in the EU is now produced in America.
• (c) International broadcasters dominate in Germany in terms of total television viewing hours.
• (d) Netflix has been able to transform itself into a truly European entity.

Question 27.
The author sees the rise of Netflix in Europe as:

• (a) A unifying force.
• (b) A looming cultural threat.
• (c) Filling an entertainment gap.
• (d) An economic threat.

Question 28.
Which one of the following research findings would weaken the author's conclusion in the final paragraph?

• (a) Research shows that Netflix has been gradually losing market share to other streaming television service providers.
• (b) Research shows there is a wide variance in the popularity and viewing of Netflix shows across different EU countries.
• (c) Research shows that older women across the EU enjoy watching romantic comedies on Netflix, whereas younger women prefer historical fiction dramas.
• (d) Research shows that Netflix hits produced in France are very popular with North American audiences.

Question 29.
Based only on information provided in the passage, which one of the following hypothetical Netflix shows would be the most successful with audiences across the EU?

• (a) A trans-Atlantic romantic drama set in Europe and America.
• (b) An original German TV science fiction production.
• (c) A murder mystery drama set in North Africa and France.
• (d) An Italian comedy show hosted by an international star.

Question 30.
The term “non-polyglots” mentioned in the passage refers to:

• (a) People who don’t view Netflix.
• (b) People who don’t know multiple languages.
• (c) People who know multiple languages.
• (d) People who don’t have an OTT subscription.

Question 31.
If in a certain code PARTNER is RDWAYRI, then LAWYER would be:

• (a) MDCGQF
• (b) NDBFPE
• (c) ODBEQG
• (d) PFDHRG

Question 32.
If in a certain code VISIT is YNATJ, then OPINION would be:

• (a) SVRZZIM
• (b) PSOWWFJ
• (c) RUQYYHL
• (d) QTOUUEI

Question 33.
If in a certain code SPEAK is ULKSU, then LISTEN would be:

• (a) MCZOMW
• (b) NEYLOB
• (c) NLVWHR
• (d) YVFGRA

Question 34.
If in a certain code TAIL is PJSK, then CABLE would be:

• (a) ZKMKV
• (b) YJLKU
• (c) WIJKT
• (d) ANMKL

Question 35.
Complete the following series: A5P, C10N, G21J, M40D, ......

• (a) U69V
• (b) U89T
• (c) S48Q
• (d) J58L

Question 36.
Complete the following series: H5, J9, M18, Q34, ......

• (a) S45
• (b) U52
• (c) V59
• (d) Z65

Question 37.
Complete the following series: L12, O15, R18, .......

• (a) U21
• (b) V22
• (c) W23
• (d) Z26

Question 38.
A premier law school is trying to make a weekly timetable for its incoming LL.M batch. The following subjects have to be accommodated: Research Methodology (RM), Comparative Public Law (CPL), Law and Social Transformation (LST), Advanced Criminal Law (ACL), and Advanced Corporate Law (ACoL). Which of the following schedules is feasible?

• (a) LST, ACL, CPL, ACoL, RM
• (b) RM, LST, ACL, CPL, ACoL
• (c) CPL, LST, ACL, ACoL, RM
• (d) LST, ACL, CPL, RM, ACoL

Question 39.
During a school festival, the Principal has to determine the sequence of events for the inaugural function. The events are: Dance, Magic Show, Singing, Skit, Drama. Which of the following schedules is feasible?

• (a) Singing, Skit, Magic Show, Drama, Dance
• (b) Magic Show, Skit, Dance, Drama, Singing
• (c) Skit, Magic Show, Singing, Dance, Drama
• (d) Drama, Singing, Skit, Magic Show, Skit

Question 40.
Some cars are trucks, some trucks are toys, all toys are machines, some machines are electric. Which of the following conclusions necessarily follow?

• (a) Some machines are toys
• (b) Some cars are electric
• (c) Some trucks are electric
• (d) Some cars are machines

Question 41.
All bread is butter, some butter is jam, all jam is eggs, some eggs are cheese. Which of the following conclusions necessarily follows?

• (a) Some bread is eggs
• (b) Some cheese is bread
• (c) Some jam is cheese
• (d) Some eggs are butter

Question 42.
All students issue books. Some who issue books study law. All who study law are enrolled at NLUs. M issues books. Examine the following conclusions:

• (a) Only I, II and III
• (b) Only II and IV
• (c) Only I, IV and V
• (d) Only III and IV

Question 43.
Situation: Pollution in India is rising.
Argument I: Many driver licenses have been issued in the past few years.
Argument II: The number of factories in India has increased dramatically in the last five years.

• (a) Only argument I is strong
• (b) Only argument II is strong
• (c) Both arguments are strong
• (d) Both arguments are weak

Question 44.
Situation: Demand for vegetables has substantially increased.
Argument I: Colleges have started serving more vegetable dishes as part of their mess meals.
Argument II: National Heart Foundation issued an advisory recommending higher consumption of vegetables for good health.

• (a) Only argument I is strong
• (b) Only argument II is strong
• (c) Both arguments are strong
• (d) Both arguments are weak

Question 45.
Situation: Technology is increasingly being utilised in courts.
Argument I: Administrative activities are more efficiently done by using technology.
Argument II: Use of technology reduced the number of errors made.

• (a) Only argument I is strong
• (b) Only argument II is strong
• (c) Both arguments are strong
• (d) Both arguments are weak

Question 46.
Situation: Gender-based violence is on the rise.
Argument I: Programmes on OTT platforms increasingly depict gender-based violence.
Argument II: There is increased reporting on gender-based violence.

• (a) Only argument I is strong
• (b) Only argument II is strong
• (c) Both arguments are strong
• (d) Both arguments are weak

Question 47.
Which of the following conclusions can be most appropriately inferred from the passage?
I. Spread of news through a journalist‘s writing had caused a massive influx of people traveling to Malgudi.
II. The city of Malgudi is a significant attraction which has led to a surge in visitors.
III. The railways did not have enough trains to deal with the sudden surges in passenger numbers.
IV. The transportation system was able to comfortably transport passengers to Malgudi.

• (a) I and III;
• (b) III and IV;
• (c) Only I;
• (d) Only II

Question 48.
Which of the following assumptions can be most appropriately inferred from the passage?
I. The author was not too bothered about the changes in his surroundings.
II. The need to run special trains indicated inefficiencies with railways in anticipating changes in passenger traffic.
III. Adequate economic opportunities were always present in Malgudi but could not be tapped for lack of a good transportation system.
IV. The influx of visitors is temporary and linked to a single occurrence, rather than a long-term trend of increased interest in Malgudi.

• (a) Only IV;
• (b) Only I;
• (c) I and III;
• (d) III and IV

Question 49.
Which of the following conclusions can be most appropriately inferred from the passage?
I. Intellectual humility is common among citizens of the present day.
II. Interest in intellectual humility as a key trait among citizens has grown exponentially since the early 2000s.
III. Willingness to acknowledge limits of one’s knowledge has been identified as a mark of a wise person.
IV. Willingness to acknowledge limits of one’s knowledge is increasingly relevant in the age of the internet and social media.

• (a) I and II;
• (b) I and III;
• (c) III;
• (d) IV

Question 50.
Which of the following assumptions can be most appropriately inferred from the passage?
I. There is a need to constantly guard against polarization and misinformation that social media can be used to propagate.
II. Willingness to acknowledge limits of one’s knowledge is a remedy for cognitive biases and flawed reasoning.
III. Rise in social media has led to increased interest in intellectual humility.
IV. Willingness to acknowledge limits of one’s knowledge is beneficial in all contexts.

• (a) II and III;
• (b) I and II;
• (c) III and IV;
• (d) Only I

Question 51.
Which of the following conclusions can be most appropriately inferred from the passage?
I. Art is a form of communication among humans.
II. Art is fundamentally a human endeavor, grounded in human life and activities of living.
III. Art is an experience, solely aimed at creating enjoyable or aesthetically pleasing works.
IV. AI Image generators have the ability to perceive the audience and customize its output for them.

• (a) I and III;
• (b) I and II;
• (c) Only II and III;
• (d) Only III and IV

Question 52.
Which of the following assumptions can be most appropriately inferred from the passage?
I. AI advancements, particularly in image generation, are reaching a level of sophistication that is causing concern among artists.
II. By their very nature, AI image generators cannot possess understanding of human activities and experience required to create art.
III. Art imitation or replication cannot be considered or understood as art creation.
IV. Art can be defined solely in terms of the technical skill involved in producing it.

• (a) Only II and III;
• (b) Only I and II;
• (c) Only III and IV;
• (d) Only I and IV

Question 53.
Principle: For a crime to occur, there must be both a wrongful act (actus reus) and a guilty mind or intention (mens rea).
Fact: While driving, Sunil was cut off by another vehicle, which resulted in a small dent on his car. In a fit of rage, Sunil overtook the other vehicle and blocked its path with his car. He then got out of the car with a cricket bat and repeatedly asked the driver of the other vehicle to come out of the vehicle, screaming, "Come out now, I will kill you."
Is Sunil guilty of a crime?

• (a) Yes, Sunil has exhibited both actus reus (getting out of the car with a bat) and guilty mind (screaming the threat to kill).
• (b) No, getting out with a bat might indicate an intention to harm but merely screaming does not indicate an intention to kill.
• (c) Yes, Sunil clearly had a guilty mind which is indicated by the threat to kill, and a bat can be used to kill.
• (d) There is insufficient information to decide.

Question 54.
Principle: In the event of a dispute between parties, a party can file a suit against the other party at the place where the contract was entered, or where the dispute arose, or where the respondent resides.
Fact: Nikhil, a resident of Nagpur, agreed to purchase from Pankaj, a resident of Mumbai, 200 printer cartridges. Nikhil was in Pune when he placed the order by phone. Pankaj responded in three days' time. The cartridges were to be delivered at a given address in Bhopal within two months. Pankaj delivered the cartridges, but Nikhil failed to make the payment within the agreed time. Where can Pankaj sue Nikhil?
(I) Pune, (II) Nagpur, (III) Bhopal, (IV) Mumbai

• (a) I/II/III
• (b) II and III
• (c) II/III/IV
• (d) II and IV

Question 55.
Principle: A master is liable for the acts done by his servants in the course of employment.
Facts: Praveen owns a premium moving company that specializes in transporting valuable antiques. One day, Ajay, one of his employees, is tasked with delivering a set of fragile and expensive sculptures to a client, Ankita. Praveen advises Ajay to drive carefully and avoid bumpy roads. When Ajay arrives at Ankita's house, she instructs him to take a very narrow, uneven driveway to unload the sculptures right at the entrance of her house. Ajay expresses his discomfort, but Ankita repeatedly insists. He follows Ankita's instructions and drives onto the uneven driveway. Due to the bumpy ride, one of the sculptures gets dislodged and is damaged during unloading. Ankita seeks to sue both Ajay and Praveen for negligence. claiming that they should be responsible for the damage to her antique. Select the most appropriate answer:

• (a) Ankita will succeed because the antiques were being moved by Ajay, who is an employee of Praveen.
• (b) Ankita will not succeed because she had instructed Ajay to go over an uneven driveway.
• (c) Ankita will succeed because Ajay was anyhow duty-bound to secure the antiques properly and drive carefully.
• (d) Praveen is not liable because he had asked Ajay to drive carefully. Ajay is not liable because he had expressed his discomfort and only proceeded on Ankita's insistence.

Question 56.
Principle: Any person who knowingly and voluntarily risks danger cannot recover for any resulting injury.
Facts: A, B, C, D, E, and F are sitting on G‘s tractor. While crossing an unmanned railway crossing, it was hit by a train, which led to extensive damage to the tractor and people sitting on it. All of them want to sue the railway for the damage caused. Will they succeed?

• (a) Yes, because it is the duty of the Railway to ensure every crossing is secured electronically or otherwise;
• (b) Yes, while using the tractor as a means of transportation, none of them undertook a voluntary risk of being hit by a train;
• (c) No, the tractor is not meant to be used for ferrying passengers, and anyone doing so voluntarily undertakes the risk of any injury;
• (d) No, they were crossing an unmanned railway crossing, which presents a known risk due to the possibility of trains passing without warning.

Question 57.
Principle: Any person who for his own purposes brings on his lands and collects and keeps there anything that is likely to cause mischief if it escapes must keep it at his peril, and if he does not do so, is prima facie responsible for all damages, irrespective of his fault, which is the natural consequence of its escape in respect of non-natural use of land.
Fact: Nisha owns a large water tank on her property, which she uses for irrigation. The tank is well-maintained and periodically serviced. One night, due to an unusual surge in water pressure from the municipal supply, the tank overflows. The excess water damages Raj's garden and seeps into his house, causing structural damage. Raj sues Nisha for damages. Will he succeed?

• (a) Yes, Nisha is liable for damages caused by tank overflow, regardless of fault;
• (b) Yes, Nisha is liable as she stored a large quantity of water on her property and should have foreseen the possibility of variation in the pressure of municipal water supply;
• (c) No, the overflow was a result of the surge in municipal water pressure;
• (d) No, the overflow was a result of an unforeseeable circumstance.

Question 58.
If PEEL = 76, GREAT = 102, FLIGHT = 124, then REMAINS =?

• (a) 132;
• (b) 158;
• (c) 174;
• (d) 228;

Question 59.
If BELT = 49, FLIGHT = 59, PEEL = 123, then BANANA =?

• (a) 153;
• (b) 53;
• (c) 123;
• (d) 73;

Question 60.
If DUST = 46, PICK = 93, DANCE = 72, then ROUTER =?

• (a) 124;
• (b) 148;
• (c) 79;
• (d) 57;

Question 61.
Assertion: A defensive strategy in Intellectual Property management focuses on ensuring a company‘s freedom to operate while minimizing the risk of competitors obtaining exclusive rights to crucial innovations.
Reason: Defensive strategies involve proactive measures to acquire exclusive rights to innovations and limit competition in the market.
Choose the correct answer:

• (a) Both the assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion;
• (b) Both the assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion;
• (c) The assertion is true, but the reason is false;
• (d) The assertion is false, but the reason is true.

Question 62.
Taylor has invented a new device that enhances the efficiency of solar panels by 30 percent when compared to prior art. He has properly documented his invention in order to ensure that a person with ordinary skill in the relevant field can replicate the device without undue experimentation. Taylor‘s invention has not been disclosed previously.
Which of the following options accurately reflects the criteria that would make Taylor‘s invention eligible for a patent based on the provided scenario?

• (a) Taylor‘s invention qualifies for a patent because it demonstrates practical utility and involves substantial experimentation;
• (b) Taylor‘s invention meets the patent criteria as it is fully described and can be reproduced without undue experimentation by a person skilled in the relevant art;
• (c) Taylor‘s invention is not eligible for a patent because it introduces complex technical processes and exhibits actual utility rather than practical utility;
• (d) Taylor‘s invention does not fulfill patent criteria since it lacks complexity and may be obvious to individuals with ordinary skill in the relevant art.

Question 63.
Which of the following inventions would be considered as patentable in India?

• (a) An invention whose secondary use is contrary to public order and morality;
• (b) A new use of a known substance;
• (c) Plant, animal, or seeds;
• (d) Algorithms and business methods.

Question 64.
Statement 1: A priority application for patents can be filed by a resident or national of a contracting party either in their own country‘s national patent office or the World Intellectual Property Organization‘s (WIPO) International Bureau in Geneva.
Statement 2: The priority date of a patent application is the date on which it is filed in the applicant‘s home country, granting advantages such as the ability to file applications for patent grants in other countries at a later date and to have applications examined based on the priority date.
Which of the following is correct from the below-mentioned options?

• (a) Both statements are true, and Statement 2 is the correct explanation of Statement 1;
• (b) Both statements are true, but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of Statement 1;
• (c) Statement 1 is true but Statement 2 is false;
• (d) Statement 1 is false but Statement 2 is true.

Question 65.
Which of the following statements accurately describes the process of securing protection for sound marks in India based on the information which has been provided?

• (a) Sound marks can only be registered in India if they are submitted in the form of a musical stave and not in any other form;
• (b) Sound marks in India must be submitted as MP3 file, along with its graphical representation such as musical stave;
• (c) Sound marks were historically registered in India using the MP3 file format but now we see there is a shift, as the recent trend requires that it is accompanied by musical stave;
• (d) The Yahoo! Yodel was the first sound mark to be registered in India, thus, setting forth a precedent for future sound mark registration.

Question 66.
Consider the scenario mentioned below: The CA logo is a collective mark which is used by members of the CA institute to distinguish their quality of services from those who do not belong to the group. Only individuals who are registered members of the institute are authorized to use the logo for professional purposes.
Which of the following statements captures the nature and usage of collective marks such as the CA logo?

• (a) Collective marks like the CA logo are open for use by any individual or organization that wishes to distinguish their products and services from that of competitors;
• (b) The CA logo is exclusively used by the CA Institute to signify its brand and identity and is not available for use by the members;
• (c) Collective marks like the CA logo are reserved for exclusive use by members of a particular group or organization to denote the quality of the service offered;
• (d) The CA logo is a trademark that can be used by any individual or organization after obtaining a license from the CA Institute irrespective of membership to the organization.

Question 67.
A significant change was introduced in the context of well-known trademark in India pertains to the following situation

• (a) Applicants were permitted to file trademark applications electronically;
• (b) The duration of the well-known mark registration was extended from 10 years to 20 years;
• (c) Applicants could now request the registrar of trademarks to determine the status of their trademark and declare it a well-known trademark. Such list is now made available by the trademark office;
• (d) The process of applying for a well-known mark was now made possible only by way of showing that the mark was well-known in all other jurisdictions.

Question 68.
Given below is a list of products, identify those which have received Geographical Indication status in India?
(i) Amroha Dholak (ii) Barabanki Handloom Products (iii) Tirur Betel Leaf (iv) Dharwad Peda (v) Pashmina of Kashmir
Choose the correct answer:

• (a) (i), (iv) and (v);
• (b) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv);
• (c) (v), (iii), (i) and (ii);
• (d) All of the Above.

Question 69.
Why is the registration process for the Geographical Indications (GIs) different from other types of intellectual property?

• (a) GIs are owned and managed by individual persons and organizations;
• (b) GIs are considered as collective public property and therefore the registration can only be made by a government agency;
• (c) GIs are solely controlled by organizations and hence, individual members of the organization cannot use the registered GIs;
• (d) GIs are collective private property, belonging to an entire region, state or country, rather than a single person or organization.

Question 70.
A company has successfully obtained registration for a geographical indication (GI) for its unique artisanal cheese produced in the specific geographic region of Mumbai. After 10 years, the company has decided not to renew the registration for GI. However, another company began producing a similar cheese using the same traditional methods and geographical location.
Which of the following is true regarding the situation of the GI registration?

• (a) The GI registration becomes invalid once the company fails to renew the same, thus, allowing other companies to freely produce similar products using the same geographical indication;
• (b) The GI registration remains valid for an indefinite period, whether or not the company renews its registration, thus, the other company cannot produce similar products using the same GI;
• (c) The GI registration becomes invalid once it lapses, however, other companies are free to produce similar products using the GI, if they obtain their own separate registration;
• (d) The GI registration remains valid for 10 years but the Company can reapply for its registration at any time in the future if they decide to renew it, thereby maintaining the exclusive rights to the GI.

Question 71.
Match the following enactments with the corresponding year: A) The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection Act) B) The Trademark Act C) The Copyright Act D) The Patent Act
Choose the correct option:

• (a) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3;
• (b) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1;
• (c) A-4, B-3, D-2, C-1;
• (d) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1;

Question 72.
Consider the scenario mentioned below: Sita, an aspiring software programmer, has just completed her software code in object and source code. She is excited about her accomplishment but wonders about the protection of her creative work. She decided to do some research and learn more about copyright, patent, and trademark.
Which of the following statements is best suitable for Sita’s situation?

• (a) Sita's software will be protected by copyright as soon as she creates it, thus, she has automatic protection of her rights and no copyright registration is required for obtaining remedies under the Copyright law in India.
• (b) Sita must file for a patent to protect her software, as patents offer broader protection for creative works as compared to copyright since object/source code can be protected as a computer programme per se in India.
• (c) Sita's software will be automatically protected by copyright upon its creation, but she should also consider applying for a trademark in India on object and source codes to enhance her rights and ensure that she has international recognition.
• (d) Sita should register her software with the Copyright Office of India to ensure its protection, as copyright laws vary from country to country and without registration her rights might get infringed and she may not have any remedy under copyright law in India.

Question 73.
Ram and Shyam, graduates of IIT Madras and Bombay, respectively, develop separate code for food delivery apps around the same time. Both apps are unique in their expressions of the idea. However, neither Ram nor Shyam holds copyright over the idea of a food delivery app itself.
What does this scenario imply regarding the copyright ownership?

• (a) Ram and Shyam each hold copyright over their respective code for the food delivery apps, as they represent unique expressions of their ideas. However, neither Ram nor Shyam holds the copyright over the idea of a food delivery app.
• (b) Ram holds the copyright over his code, while Shyam holds the copyright over his code. Additionally, they both collectively hold the copyright over the idea of a food delivery app.
• (c) Ram and Shyam share copyright as joint authors over both codes and ideas of a food delivery app since they both independently developed similar applications.
• (d) Neither Ram nor Shyam holds copyright over their respective codes or the idea of the food delivery app, as the software is a subject matter which is not granted copyright protection under law.

Question 74.
Which of the following statements accurately describes the approach that has been adopted by India for applying originality in the context of copyright?

• (a) India follows the Sweat of the Brow doctrine which lays emphasis on the author's rights through the act of creating a work without requiring originality or creativity.
• (b) India strictly adheres to the Modicum of Creativity test which requires a minimum level of creativity in the work to be eligible for copyright protection.
• (c) India takes a balanced approach and strikes a balance between public interest and the author's rights without adhering to a specific ground rule for determining the level of originality as long as there is minimal creativity.
• (d) India follows a stringent standard for originality, thus, requiring that the work must showcase the significant level of creativity as well as originality to gain protection.

Question 75.
What rights do performers, such as actors and singers, possess according to performers' rights in India?

• (a) Performers have the right to record their performances, translate them into different languages, and sell or rent out the recordings.
• (b) Performers have the right to record their performances, sell or rent out such recordings, and broadcast or communicate the performance to the public, unless it has already been broadcasted with their permission.
• (c) Performers have the right to perform publicly, create derivative works based on their performances and distribute the copies of their performances.
• (d) Performers have the right to adapt their performances into different formats, collaborate with other performers and license their performances for commercial use.

Question 76.
Anu, an author, transferred her economic rights in the novel to ABC publishing house. Despite the transfer, Anu still maintains certain rights that persist even after the transfer.
Which moral right allows the author to prevent any modification, distortion, or mutilation of work that could adversely affect their reputation?

• (a) Paternity Right, since no person can modify, distort, or mutilate without permission of the author although it causes no harm to their reputation.
• (b) Divulgation Right, since the author can stop the publication of the work that modifies, distorts, or mutilates.
• (c) Integrity Right, since no person can modify, distort, or mutilate in a way that causes harm to the author’s honor and reputation.
• (d) Attribution Right, since anyone can modify, distort, or mutilate after attributing it to the author.

Question 77.
Which of the following statements about the copyright registration of mobile applications (apps) is correct according to the Copyright Office of India?

• (a) Mobile applications can only be registered if screenshots of the app are provided along with the source code and object code.
• (b) Mobile applications are registered as standalone works without considering the source code and object code.
• (c) Mobile applications can be registered as computer software works, if the source code and object code are provided and the registration covers the screen display which has been generated by the App, with the condition that the owners of the computer programme and the screen display are the same.
• (d) Mobile applications cannot be registered for copyright protection due to the dynamic nature of app development.

Question 78.
Which of the following is the best description of derivative work based on the information that has been provided under copyright?

• (a) Derivative works include only translations and adaptations of existing literary works, such as English to Hindi translations of Harry Potter Books.
• (b) Derivative works encompass motion pictures, sound recordings, and cinematograph films, which are based on a pre-existing literary, dramatic, artistic, or musical work and maintain the same degree of copyright protection as original works.
• (c) Derivative works consist solely of recording of songs, which combine original musical and literary works and are considered derivative works by the order of the court.
• (d) Derivative work extends copyright protection to original literary, dramatic, artistic, or musical works but does not include motion pictures, sound recordings, or adaptations of existing works.

Question 79.
Match the following:

Choose the correct option:

• (a) 1-A, 2-D, 3-C, 4-B
• (b) 1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B
• (c) 1-B, 2-D, 2-C, 4-A
• (d) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D

Question 80.
Which of the following statements regarding Open Source Software (OSS) and copyright protection is accurate based on the information that has been given below?

• (a) Open Source Software (OSS) does not fall under copyright protection because its source code is open for anyone to modify and only contractual licensing will govern OSS terms and conditions.
• (b) The source code of Open Source Software (OSS) is not subject to copyright protection but the object code is protected under copyright.
• (c) Open Source Software (OSS) allows anyone to see, inspect, or modify its source code but all the rights available to owners of copyright are applicable under an OSS licensing agreement.
• (d) Open Source Software (OSS) provides access to its source code and the rights available to the owners of copyright are made available under an OSS licensing agreement, although the terms and conditions may vary with each license.

Question 81.
Rahul, a renowned author, published a series of novels that gained widespread popularity and critical acclaim. The copyright protection of the novel is set to expire soon. His representatives/estate are concerned about the future of the works once they enter the public domain. They wish to maintain some control over the use and distribution of the novels even after the expiration of the copyright period.
Which of the following summarizes the correct proposition?

• (a) The author‘s estate should seek trademark protection for the titles of the novel to retain control on the content after the expiration of the copyright.
• (b) The author‘s estate should explore the option of extending the term of protection through legal means such as contract law to maintain control over the ownership, use and distribution of novels.
• (c) The author‘s estate should consider remedies of passing-off since post expiry of copyright and printing and publishing by others can mislead the public as to the original publisher of the book by a different publisher.
• (d) The author‘s estate should understand that once the copyright protection expires, the work will enter the public domain, thus making it freely available for anyone to use and no remedy is available.

Question 82.
Which of the following elements can be considered as part of Industrial Design?

• (a) Chemical composition of materials used in production.
• (b) Textures and materials that are used for manufacturing.
• (c) Shapes, patterns, ornaments and composition of lines and colors which have an aesthetic appeal.
• (d) Marketing strategies and advertising campaigns which have an aesthetic appeal.

Question 83.
Which of the following would NOT be eligible for registration as an industrial design?

• (a) The design of a bed-sheet features intricate patterns and motifs.
• (b) The design of a 3D printer, including its mode or principle of construction.
• (c) The design of wallpaper with vibrant colours and unique patterns.
• (d) The design of electrical appliances manufactured through assembly line processes with an aesthetic appeal.

Question 84.
Which of the following is true about the remedies that are available for design piracy as has been mentioned in the provided information?

• (a) Design piracy involves the unauthorized use of a registered design and may result in penalties such as imprisonment and fines.
• (b) The remedies for design piracy include injunction, recovery of contract debt up to Rs. 25,000/- and damages for the unauthorized use of a registered design.
• (c) Design piracy is a civil offence that does not entail any other legal consequences for the infringing party.
• (d) Remedies for design piracy primarily involve the confiscation of the infringing products and suspension of the infringer‘s business operations.

Question 85.
In the context of registering fashion designs in India, which of the following statements reflects the distinction/overlap between copyright protection and industrial design protection?

• (a) Fashion designs can only be registered under the Designs Act and are not eligible for copyright protection, including in its underlying artistic works.
• (b) Copyright protection for fashion designs lasts for the lifetime of the author plus 60 years after the author‘s death while Industrial Design protection ceases to exist after the creation of more than 50 copies by an industrial process in case of an unregistered design.
• (c) Fashion designs intended for reproduction more than 50 times should be registered under the Copyright Act to ensure lifelong protection for the author plus 50 years since industrial designs protection term is lower.
• (d) Copyright protection for fashion designs is more suitable for limited reproduction scenarios while industrial design protection is advisable for designs intended for mass production exceeding 50 copies.

Question 86.
In the context of fair and unfair competition practices under commercial law, which of the following scenarios best describes unfair competition?

• (a) Company A introduces a new product with superior quality and increases its prices compared to that of its competitors.
• (b) Company B spreads false rumours about the safety of Company A‘s products to dissuade customers from purchasing their products.
• (c) Company C advertises its products using catchy slogans and creative marketing techniques to attract more customers than its competitors.
• (d) Company D reduces its prices temporarily in a predatory way to match those of its competitors during a seasonal sale event.

Question 87.
A top dairy brand can be held liable for generic disparagement in its advertisements in the context of frozen desserts. Which of the following statements best summarizes the reason for considering generic disparagement in India?

• (a) The advertisements claim that frozen desserts were made of harmful ingredients while the dairy brand‘s ice cream was made of real milk, hence leading to unfair competition.
• (b) The advertisements promote the health benefits of the dairy brand‘s products without making disparaging remarks about its competitor‘s products.
• (c) The advertisements convey a false and negative message about frozen desserts as a category, thus adversely affecting the businesses of companies producing frozen desserts.
• (d) The advertisements highlight the superior quality and taste of the brand‘s ice creams compared to its competitors' frozen desserts thus, leading to consumer confusion.

Question 88.
Which of the following scenarios best demonstrates the concept of ‘passing-off’?

• (a) A company uses a similar logo and product name to that of an established brand to confuse consumers into buying its products thinking they are from the original brand.
• (b) A competitor copies the design and look of a new product line to make it appear as if it is part of the original brand’s collection.
• (c) A company creates a product with an identical color scheme and label as an established brand’s product.
• (d) A business uses a similar website design and domain name that is strikingly similar to that of an established brand’s website.

Question 89.
Which of the following is NOT considered an act of unfair competition?

• (a) A company introduces a superior product with better features, higher quality, and customer satisfaction.
• (b) A business engages in price-fixing with competitors to prevent market competition.
• (c) A competitor imitates the packaging of a successful product to confuse consumers into buying their product.
• (d) A company uses false advertising to discredit a competitor’s product.

Question 90.
Which of the following statements about intellectual property protection is TRUE?

• (a) Trademarks only protect the visual representation of a product’s name or logo, not the product itself.
• (b) Patents protect new inventions and innovations in technology and allow exclusive rights for a limited time.
• (c) Copyright protection applies only to literary and artistic works and cannot cover scientific inventions.
• (d) Trade secrets offer no protection against unauthorized disclosure, copying, or use by others.

Question 91.
When a former employee of a renowned fast-food chain AFK, discloses the secret recipe of its famous herbs and spices to the competitors, in a situation where there was no employment contract warranting non-disclosure, which civil action can be taken?

• (a) No civil action is available as there is no contract after expiry of employment. However, the former employee may face criminal charges for theft of property.
• (b) The former employee may be charged with copyright infringement for disclosing proprietary recipes without authorization.
• (c) An action for breach of confidence is available and an injunction may be granted as the disclosed information provides a competitive advantage to competitors even if there is no contract.
• (d) The former employee may be sued under consumer protection laws for compromising the quality of AFK‘s products.

Question 92.
Which Indian legislation specifically protects the layout designs of semiconductor integrated circuits?

• (a) The Semiconductor Manufacturing and Export Control Act, 1981
• (b) The Semiconductor Integrated Circuits-Layout Designs Act, 2000
• (c) The Integrated Circuit Protection and Layout Designs Act, 1995
• (d) The Electronic Components Protection Act, 2005

Question 93.
A semiconductor layout design will not be protected under the Semiconductor Integrated Circuits-Layout Designs Act, 2000 if it is:

• (a) Original and commercially exploited in India or any country.
• (b) Not original or commercially exploited in India or any other country prior to registration.
• (c) Original but not inherently distinctive.
• (d) Inherently distinctive but not capable of being distinguishable from any other registered layout design.

Question 94.
Shyam, a farmer conserves, preserves and sells a traditional variety of rice which is native to his region without seeking any registration under the Plant Varieties and Farmers‘ Rights Act (PPVFRA). Consider the statements given below and choose the one which aligns best with the prevalent law.

• (a) The farmer is entitled to apply for registration of the traditional rice variety developed by them and claim exclusive rights over its use and distribution.
• (b) The farmer may only use the traditional rice variety for personal consumption but cannot engage in any activity of exchange or sell related to its produce if the variety is registered.
• (c) The farmer has the right to save, use, exchange or sell the produce grown from the traditional rice variety, regardless of its registration status under the Act.
• (d) The farmer is required to seek permission from the government authorities before conserving or preserving any traditional rice variety.

Question 95.
How long is the protection period provided for Trees and Vines for Plant Variety in India?

• (a) 6 years and extendable up to 15 years.
• (b) 9 years and extendable up to 18 years.
• (c) 12 years and extendable up to 21 years.
• (d) 15 years and extendable up to 24 years.

Question 96.
Jane‘s patent for a new type of solar panel has recently lapsed due to her failure to pay the renewal fee within the specified period. Which of the following actions can she take to restore her patent?

• (a) No restoration of a lapsed patent is possible.
• (b) Apply through Form 15 for restoration to the Controller General of Patents within eighteen months of the lapse and pay the unpaid renewal fee.
• (c) Apply through Form 12 for restoration to the Controller General of Patents within twenty-four months of the lapse and pay the unpaid renewal fee.
• (d) None of the above.

Question 97.
Which elements are necessary for a successful action for passing-off involving an unregistered trademark?

• (a) The passing-off action is successful only when the registered trademark targets/misrepresents customers about the products or services of a competitor, causing harm to the goodwill of the competitor and is likely to confuse the consumers.
• (b) The passing-off action is successful when an unregistered trademark targets/misrepresents customers about the products or services of a competitor, causing harm to the goodwill of the competitor and is likely to confuse the consumers.
• (c) The passing-off action is successful only when an unregistered trademark is a well-known trademark notified by the relevant authority, which targets/misrepresents customers about the products or services of a competitor and causing harm to the goodwill of the competitor and is likely to confuse the consumers.
• (d) The trademark must be unregistered, causing harm to the goodwill of the competitor, misrepresents the source, but is not likely to confuse consumers as to its true place of origin.

Question 98.
The concept of first sale doctrine means:

• (a) The ability of IP owners to derive royalties on every subsequent sale after the first sale has been made.
• (b) Non-ability of IP owners to derive royalties on every subsequent sale after the first sale has been made.
• (c) Ability of IP owners to derive royalties after the first sale but cannot stop any subsequent sale made by the buyer.
• (d) None of the above.

Question 99.
Intellectual Property rights are generally considered as:

• (a) Negative rights towards exclusion
• (b) Positive rights towards exclusion
• (c) Rights to manufacture the product or process protected by intellectual property
• (d) All of the Above

Question 100.
Intellectual Property Rights are historically classified as:

• (a) Industrial Property and Copyright
• (b) Intellectual Property and Copyright
• (c) Industrial Intellectual Property and Copyright
• (d) None of the above