AILET LLM 2025 Question Paper (Available) Download Solutions and Answer Key pdf

Question 1: What does the Basel Ban amendment address?

• (a) prohibits use of CFCs in industrial settings
• (b) imposition of strict limitation of anthropogenic emissions by sources and removals by sinks
• (c) prohibits movement of hazardous waste from OCD and non-OCD states
• (d) prohibition of activities that threaten biological diversity by regulating the transportation of invasive species

Question 2: “The state should focus on factoring in ways through which unequal consequences of sex differences can be eliminated. It is the state’s duty to ensure circumstances of safety which inspire confidence in women to discharge the duty freely in accordance with the requirements of the profession they choose to follow”. The above observation was made in:

• (a) Anuj Garg v. Hotel Association of India AR 2008 SC 663
• (b) SR Bommai v. Union of India AR 1994 SC 1918
• (c) DC Wadhwa v. State of Bihar AR 1987 SC 579
• (d) E. P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu AR 1974 SC 555

Question 3: Which of the following jurists gave the Bad Man theory?

• (a) HLA Hart
• (b) Spencer
• (c) Justice OW Holmes
• (d) Austin

Question 4: Which of the following is not a core international human rights treaty?

• (a) International Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Racial Discrimination
• (b) Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against Women
• (c) International Convention for the Protection of All Persons from Enforced Disappearance
• (d) Convention Relating to the Status of Refugees

Question 5: An Anton Piller order is:

• (a) An order for delivery-up of infringing goods
• (b) An order to arrest the infringer
• (c) An order to carry out search and seizure
• (d) A freezing order

Question 6: The Supreme Court’s judgment in Ramana Dayaram Shetty v. International Airport Authority [1979] 3 S.C.R. 1014 is considered a landmark case for establishing the principle of:

• (a) Public accountability in administrative actions
• (b) Non-arbitrariness in government contracts
• (c) Application of natural justice in administrative decisions
• (d) Preventing the delegation of essential legislative functions

Question 7: India adopted its National Competition Law Policy in the year:

• (a) 2012
• (b) 1991
• (c) It is yet to adopt a National Competition Law Policy
• (d) 2002

Question 8: Which of the following cases dealt with a challenge to the exclusion of couples from sexual and gender minority communities from marriage laws as being violative of fundamental rights under Articles 14, 15, 19, and 21 of the Constitution?

• (a) Supriyo v. Union of India 2023 NSC 920
• (b) Joseph Shine v. Union of India AR 2018 SC 4898
• (c) Naz Foundation v. Govt. of NCT of Delhi 2010 CR. L. J. 94, 2009
• (d) Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India AR 2018 SC 4321

Question 9: Under which Section of BNS 2023, an offence committed by a child of seven years of age is not to be considered a crime?

• (a) Section 22
• (b) Section 21
• (c) Section 19
• (d) Section 20

Question 10: The Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023 was enacted as an upshot of:

• (a) Kaushal Kishor v. State of Uttar Pradesh 2023 SCC OnLine SC 6
• (b) Anoop Baranwal v. Union of India (2023) 6 SCC 161
• (c) Subhash Desai v. Governor of Maharashtra 2023 SCC OnLine SC 607
• (d) Priyam v. Union of India 2023 SCC OnLine SC 1348

Question 11: Which of the following statement is correct under the Mediation Act 2023?

• (a) Terms of the mediated settlement agreement cannot extend beyond the disputes referred to mediation
• (b) Mediator must necessarily be of a nationality different from that of the parties
• (c) A mediated settlement agreement should be signed by the parties and authenticated by the mediator
• (d) Mediated settlement agreement resulting from online mediation requires additional approval from the mediation service provider

Question 12: Which of the following is true about Maternity Leave in India?

• (a) The leave is available to both private as well as government female employees.
• (b) The leave is available to both private as well as government female employees if they are working in establishments that employ 10 or more people.
• (c) The leave is not available to females adopting a child.
• (d) The Maternity Benefit Amendment Act, 2017 has increased the maximum period of leave from 12 weeks to 26 weeks.

Question 13: Match the following:


Select the correct option:

• (a) I-1, II, III-3, IV-4
• (b) I-3, II-1, III-4, IV-2
• (c) I-2, II-1, III-4, IV-3
• (d) I-3, II-4, III-2, IV-1

Question 14: Which of the following is an incorrect statement for explaining the condition and warranty under the Sale of Goods Act, 1930?

• (a) A condition is a stipulation essential to the main purpose of the contract, the breach of which gives rise to a right to treat the contract as repudiated.
• (b) A warranty is a stipulation collateral to the main purpose of the contract, the breach of which gives rise to a claim for damages but not to a right to reject the goods and treat the contract as repudiated.
• (c) Whether a stipulation in a contract of sale is a condition or a warranty does not depend on the construction of the contract.
• (d) A stipulation may be a condition, though called a warranty in the contract.

Question 15: Which of the following theories relate to the function of rights?

• (a) Only A and B
• (b) Only B and C
• (c) A, B, C, D
• (d) None of the above

Question 16: Subrogation under Section 92, Transfer of Property Act, 1882 confers a right upon a person only wherein mortgaged property has been:

• (a) Redeemed in full
• (b) Consented to be redeemed in full
• (c) Redeemed in part
• (d) None of the above

Question 17: The following is not true about the Cement Cartelization Case in India:

• (a) The Competition Commission of India imposed a penalty of 0.5 times of the net profits of certain cement-producing companies for the year 2009-10 and 2010-2011
• (b) Companies were engaging in unfair and not restrictive trade practices by controlling the price of cement by artificially curtailing their output capacity
• (c) The market was oligopolistic in nature, with the possibility of collusion between companies
• (d) None of the above

Question 18: _____ is concerned with ‘is law’, and ____ is concerned with ‘ought law’.

• (a) Expositorial Jurisprudence, Censorial Jurisprudence
• (b) Censorial Jurisprudence, Analytical Jurisprudence
• (c) Censorial Jurisprudence, Expositorial Jurisprudence
• (d) Expositorial Jurisprudence, Philosophical school of law

Question 19: Under which provision of the Income Tax Act, 1961 is the scope of the resident’s ‘total income’ covered?

• (a) Section 5
• (b) Section 10
• (c) Section 30
• (d) Section 8

Question 20: In which of the following cases was it held that “the tribunal has unfettered jurisdiction to adjudicate the dispute raised as well as to decide the legality of an order of the Central Government, or even the opinion of TRA or any other expert body”?

• (a) Cellular Operators Association of India v. Union of India 2003 (3) SCC 186
• (b) S.P. Gupta v. Union of India Supp SCC 87 1981
• (c) Tata Cellular v. Union of India 6 SCC 651 (1994)
• (d) SCAORA v. Union of India 4 SCC 441 (1993)

Question 21: The new definition of employees has been widened under the Code on Social Security but does not include:

• (a) International migrant workers
• (b) Construction workers
• (c) Film industry workers
• (d) Platform workers

Question 22: The following is true about pawnor and pawnee under Indian Contract Act, 1872:

• (a) The pawnor has the right of possession, enjoyment, and disposition of the property.
• (b) The pawnee has a limited right to retain possession till the debt is paid off.
• (c) The pawnee’s right of disposition is limited to the disposition of the pledge rights only, and the right to sell after giving reasonable notice to the pawnor.
• (d) All of the above.

Question 23: Indian Copyright Act, 1957 recognises the Moral rights of authors under _______ as ____________

• (a) Section 17, Economic Rights
• (b) Section 57, Author’s Special Rights
• (c) Section 69, Non-economic Rights
• (d) Section 14, Non-economic Rights

Question 24: Which of the following is not a State for the purposes of Article 54 (Election of President)?

• (a) National Capital Territory of Delhi
• (b) Union Territory of Puducherry
• (c) Chandigarh
• (d) Punjab

Question 25: Match the following:

Select the correct option:

• (a) I-1, II-2, III-3, IV-4
• (b) I-4, II-3, III-2, IV-1
• (c) I-2, II-1, III-3, IV-4
• (d) I-4, II-2, III-3, IV-1

Question 26: The following are Members in a company:

• (a) The subscriber to the memorandum of the company who shall be deemed to have agreed to become a member of the company, and on its registration, shall be entered as a member in its register of members
• (b) No other person who agrees in writing to become a member of the company and whose name is entered in the register of members of the company
• (c) Every person holding shares of the company and whose name is entered as a beneficial owner in the records of a depository
• (d) Both (a) and (c) will be members

Question 27: Which Section of BNS 2023, provides Solitary Confinement as a punishment?

• (a) Section 10
• (b) Section 11
• (c) Section 22
• (d) Section 14

Question 28: In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court observe that an order suspending internet services indefinitely is impermissible under the existing law, and any order suspending internet must adhere to the principle of proportionality and must not extend beyond the necessary duration?

• (a) Anuradha Bhasin v. Union Of India AR 2020 SC 1308
• (b) Subhash Desai v. Governor of Maharashtra 2023 SCC OnLine SC 607
• (c) Nabam Rebia \& Bamang Felix v. Dy. Speaker, Arunachal Pradesh Legislative Assembly (2016) 8 SCC 1
• (d) Neeraj Chandra v. Union of India (2023) 5 SCC 1

Question 29: For an agreement without consideration to be valid under Section 25(3) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, it is necessary that:

• (a) agreement in question must refer to a debt which the creditor might have enforced, but for the limitation
• (b) there must be a distinct promise to pay
• (c) the promise is in writing, signed by debtor or his agent
• (d) All of the above are necessary

Question 30: Arrest by police without a warrant is covered under which Section of BNSS, 2023?

• (a) Section 35
• (b) Section 36
• (c) Section 37
• (d) Section 34

Question 31: In Janhit Abhiyan v. Union of India (2023) 5 SCC 1, the Supreme Court:

• (a) upheld the constitutional validity of the Constitution (One Hundred and Third Amendment) Act, 2019 that empowered the State to enact special provisions for the advancement of economically weaker sections (“EWS”) of society.
• (b) declared the EWS reservation under The Constitution (Ninety-ninth Amendment) Act, 2014 unconstitutional.
• (c) held that the EWS reservation exceeds the 50% cap on reservations and is therefore invalid.
• (d) ruled that only socially and educationally backward classes are eligible for reservation, excluding EWS.

Question 32: Paragraph 7 of the X Schedule to the Constitution of India was struck down in which of the following cases?

• (a) Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu and Others 1992 SCR (1) 686
• (b) Anjum Kadri v. U.O.I. 2024 INSC 831 (Nov. 2024)
• (c) Keisham Meghachandra Singh v. Speaker, Manipur Legislative Assembly ARonline 2020 SC 54
• (d) State of U.P. v. M/s Lalta Prasad Vaish and Sons. 2024 NSC 813 (Oct. 2024)

Question 33: The real test of determining distinction between lease and license was laid down by the Supreme Court in which of the following cases?

• (a) Nirmal Chandra v. Vimal Chand
• (b) Mangilal v. Sugan Chand
• (c) Associated Hotel of India v. R.N. Kapoor
• (d) None of the above.

Question 34: In A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India AR 1970 SC 150, the Supreme Court recognised the evolving nature of quasi-judicial powers, holding that certain powers previously deemed administrative could now be quasi-judicial. Which of the following best encapsulates the Court’s approach to the application of natural justice in administrative proceedings?

• (a) Natural justice is limited to formal quasi-judicial functions where a statute expressly mandates its application, excluding purely administrative decisions.
• (b) The procedural requirements of natural justice are irrelevant to administrative functions unless personal rights are specifically affected by a statute.
• (c) The distinction between administrative and quasi-judicial powers is no longer determinative, and natural justice principles must be applied whenever individual rights or interests are at stake, regardless of the classification of the power.
• (d) Natural justice principles apply to all quasi-judicial decisions, but administrative decisions are exempt unless there is a statutory provision requiring it.

Question 35: Who can be a Certifying Officer under the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946?

• (a) Industrial Tribunal
• (b) Labour Commissioner
• (c) A Regional Labour Commissioner
• (d) All of the above

Question 36: Which of the following statement best outlines the principle of Common But Differentiated Responsibilities and Respective Capabilities (CBDR-RC) in international environmental law?

• (a) Recognizes that while all countries are responsible for addressing environmental degradation, developed countries should take greater responsibility due to their historical contributions to global emissions and their greater capacity to act.
• (b) All countries must equally share the burden of combating environmental degradation regardless of their development status.
• (c) Mandates only developed countries contribute to global environmental efforts based on their capabilities.
• (d) Emphasizes that each country should be allowed to define its own environmental targets without any obligations to collaborate internationally.

Question 37: The following is not true about novation of contracts:

• (a) Acquiescence is a way of giving consent for the purposes of novation of a contract under Section 62 of the Contract Act.
• (b) Acquiescence means tacit or passive acceptance. It is an implied and reluctant consent to an act.
• (c) When acquiescence takes place, there is knowledge against a particular act. Based on this knowledge, a new contract comes into existence with renewed terms.
• (d) For an acceptance to be legally valid, it is optional for parties to have the knowledge of the terms which they are accepting.

Question 38: First information related to the commission of a cognisable offence is recorded under which provision of BNSS, 2023?

• (a) Section 173
• (b) Section 154
• (c) Section 155
• (d) Section 156

Question 39: Which of the following is not allowed as a deduction for computing profits and gains from business or profession under Section 37 of the Income Tax Act, 1961?

• (a) Personal expenses
• (b) Capital expenditure
• (c) Expenses on Corporate Social Responsibility
• (d) All of the above

Question 40: Key managerial personnel in relation to a company do not include the following:

• (a) The Chief Executive Officer or the Managing Director or the Manager
• (b) The Company Secretary
• (c) The Whole-time Director
• (d) The Chief Financial Officer

Question 41: A fundamental principle of international humanitarian law is the principle of proportionality. Which of the following statement most appropriately describes the principle?

• (a) Prohibits attacks against military objectives which are expected to cause incidental loss of civilian life, injury to civilians, damage to civilian objects, or a combination, which would be excessive in relation to the concrete and direct military advantage anticipated.
• (b) Permits measures which are actually essential to accomplish a legitimate military purpose and are not otherwise prohibited by international humanitarian law.
• (c) Requires forces to, at all times, distinguish between the civilian population and combatants and between civilian objects and military objectives and accordingly direct operations only against military objectives.
• (d) Prohibits use of means and methods of warfare which are of such nature so as to cause superfluous injury or unnecessary suffering.

Question 42: Which of the following are the contents of a provisional specification, as provided under Section 10 of the Patent Act, 1970?

• (a) Title, Description, Abstract
• (b) Title, Description and Claims
• (c) Title, Description and Drawings (if any)
• (d) Title, Description, Drawing, Claims and Abstract

Question 43: What designs are prohibited from being registered under the Designs Act, 2000?

• (a) Designs which are not new and original
• (b) Designs which contain scandalous or obscene matter
• (c) Design which is significantly distinguishable from known designs or their combination
• (d) Only (a) and (b)

Question 44: Which of the following constitutes an offence of Rioting under BNS, 2023?

• (a) Use of force or violence by two persons to prosecute a common object.
• (b) Use of force or violence by five or more persons to prosecute a common object.
• (c) An unlawful gathering of five or more persons.
• (d) A single individual causing public disturbance.

Question 45: A class action suit may be filed by prescribed number of members of a company before the Tribunal on behalf of the members or depositors for seeking any of the following orders except:

• (a) To restrain the company from committing an act which is ultra vires the articles or memorandum of the company
• (b) To restrain the company from committing breach of any provision of the company’s memorandum or articles
• (c) To declare a resolution following the memorandum or articles of the company as void if the resolution was passed by suppression of material facts or obtained by mis-statement to the members or depositors
• (d) To restrain the company and its directors from acting on such resolution

Question 46: Pick the incorrect statement:

• (a) If an agreement is signed by a party without reading it, the agreement will not be void under S. 20 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872.
• (b) The defence of nudum pactum ex quo non oritur actio would not be available to the plaintiff when he signs any agreement without reading it.
• (c) The defence of nudum pactum ex quo non oritur actio would be available to the plaintiff when he signs any agreement without reading it.
• (d) An agreement without consideration is void.

Question 47: In relation to the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 match the following and identify the correct answer:

Select the correct option:

• (a) (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i), (D)-(ii)
• (b) (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(ii)
• (c) (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i)
• (d) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)

Question 48: A company may issue fully paid bonus shares to its shareholders and use the following funds:

• (a) Its free reserves
• (b) The securities premium account
• (c) The capital redemption reserve account
• (d) All of the above

Question 49: Which of the following reasonable restrictions is Article 25 of the Constitution of India subject to?

• (a) Public order and morality
• (b) Public order, morality, and health and to the other provisions of Part III
• (c) Public order, morality, and decency
• (d) Public order, security of the state, and decency

Question 50: Doctrine of ‘Cypres’ means the interference of Courts:

• (a) To carry out the purpose of accumulation in certain events
• (b) To supervise the event of accumulation
• (c) To implement the rules against accumulation
• (d) To see that the accumulated interest is properly expended

Question 51: In which of the following cases was the basic structure doctrine applied without a constitutional amendment being challenged?

• (a) Supreme Court Advocates-On-Record Association v. Union of India (1994) 1 SCC 268
• (b) SR Bommai v. Union of India (1994) 3 SCC 1
• (c) Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu and Others (1992) SCR (1) 686
• (d) Sankari Prasad Singh Deo v. Union of India (1951) SC 458

Question 52. Generally, time is not of the essence in contracts unless specified. Pick the correct option:

• (a) If completion of the work, which is the subject matter of the contract, is of essence to the contract, then the parties would not voluntarily extend the time.
• (b) The fact that the parties to the contract agreed to extend the time for the completion of the project indicates that the time was not of essence to the contract, as required under S. 55 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872.
• (c) If the party to the contract has clearly and repeatedly stipulated the fact that time is of utmost importance and that the sale consideration needs to be paid on the specified date, it will be established that time is of essence to the contract under S. 55 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872.
• (d) All of the above are correct.

Question 53. A society that has codified its primitive law and cannot have any further modification or growth, will be a ___ society as per Henry Maine.

• (a) Stable
• (b) Strong
• (c) Static
• (d) Stereotypical

Question 54. Pick the incorrect option under the Companies Act, 2013:

• (a) Every company shall have a Board of Directors consisting of individuals as Directors
• (b) Every company shall have a Board of Directors consisting of corporate Directors
• (c) A minimum number of three Directors in the case of a public company and two Directors in the case of a private company are required
• (d) There can be a maximum of fifteen Directors in a company

Question 55. In 2023, the Supreme Court held that the fixed-term employees would be entitled to full maternity benefits under Section 5 of the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 (“Maternity Benefit Act”), even after the expiry of their contractual term in the case of:

• (a) Dr. Kavita Yadav v. The Secretary, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare Department and Ors.
• (b) Municipal Corporation of Delhi v. Female Workers (Muster Roll) & Another
• (c) Kapila Hingorani v. State of Bihar
• (d) Lieutenant Colonel Nitisha and Ors. v. Union of India

Question 56. The decision of the Supreme Court in PV Narasimha Rao v. State (1998) 4 SCC 626 that pertained to whether a Member of Parliament or the Legislative Assembly, as the case may be, can claim immunity from prosecution on a charge of bribery in a criminal court under Articles 105 and 194 of the Constitution was:

• (a) Overruled in Sita Soren v. Union of India (2024)
• (b) Upheld in Sita Soren v. Union of India (2024)
• (c) Overruled in Subhash Desai v. Principal Secretary (2023)
• (d) Upheld in Subhash Desai v. Principal Secretary (2023)

Question 57. The following is incorrect about malicious prosecution in tort law:

• (a) That the plaintiff was prosecuted by the defendant
• (b) That the proceedings terminated in plaintiff’s favour if they are capable of such termination
• (c) That there was reasonable or probable cause for the prosecution
• (d) That the prosecution was instituted with a malicious intention

Question 58. ‘Conditional order for removal of nuisance’ can be issued under which Section of the BNSS, 2023?

• (a) Section 155
• (b) Section 152
• (c) Section 149
• (d) Section 150

Question 59. Which legal principle did the Supreme Court deal with in the case of Motilal Padampat Sagar Mills Co. Ltd. v. State of UP (1979) 2 SCC 409?

• (a) Doctrine of Promissory Estoppel
• (b) Doctrine of Waiver
• (c) Doctrine of Legitimate Expectation
• (d) Doctrine of Public Trust

Question 60. Which of the following means ‘Fact’ as per BSA, 2023?

• (a) Observable physical events
• (b) Any mental condition of which a person is conscious
• (c) Legal documents, both recorded and written
• (d) A document filed in the Court

Question 61. Consider the following statements with respect to Geographical Indication protection:

(i) The WTO TRIPs Agreement identifies Geographical Indications as Intellectual Property

(ii) Lucknow Chikankari and Bikaneri Bhujia are recognised GIs in India

(iii) The GI registration can be obtained in respect of goods and services

(iv) The GI registration is valid for a period of 15 years only and is non-renewable


Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

• (a) (i) and (ii)
• (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
• (c) (iii) and (iv)
• (d) All of the above

Question 62. In which of the following cases was the registration of Hindu marriage made compulsory?

• (a) Ashok Kumar v. Vimla Devi
• (b) Seema v. Ashwini Kumar
• (c) Ashok Hurra v. Rupa Hurra
• (d) None of the above

Question 63.The Chancellor, Masters \& Scholars of the University of Oxford \& Ors. v. Rameshwari Photocopy Services and Ors. is a Delhi High Court decision dealing with:

• (a) Moral rights of authors
• (b) Idea expression dichotomy
• (c) Performers Rights
• (d) Fair Use exception

Question 64. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India may be removed:

• (a) at the Pleasure of the President
• (b) by the Parliament in the same manner and on the like grounds as that of a Supreme Court Judge as per Article 148
• (c) by the Parliament in the same manner and on the like grounds as that of the Prime Minister of India as per Article 149 of the Constitution
• (d) by the Parliament in the same manner and on the like grounds as that of a High Court Judge as per Article 148

Question 65. Inference about the existence of the contract can be made from the letters, emails, and other correspondence between the parties. Pick the correct options:

• (a) The offer specifying the terms and conditions of the contract can be made through email and the unconditional acceptance of the offer can also be communicated through email
• (b) Mere absence of a formal, written, and signed agreement would not vitiate the validity of the unconditional acceptance of the offer nor the implementation of the contract
• (c) Both (a) and (b)
• (d) None of the above

Question 66. As per the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, sapinda relationship with reference to any person extends as far as:

• (a) the third generation (inclusive) in the line of ascent through the mother, and the fifth (inclusive) in the line of ascent through the father.
• (b) the fifth generation (inclusive) in the line of ascent through the mother and father, both.
• (c) the third generation (inclusive) in the line of ascent through the father, and the fifth (inclusive) in the line of ascent through the mother.
• (d) the fifth generation (inclusive) in the line of ascent through the mother, and the seventh (inclusive) in the line of ascent through the father.

Question 67. An arbitration would be an international commercial arbitration, if the dispute arises from a legal relationship considered as commercial under the laws in force in India and where at least one of the parties is

i. an individual who is a national of, or habitually resident in, any country other than India

ii. a body corporate which is incorporated in any country other than India

iii. an association or a body of individuals whose central management and control is exercised in any country other than India

iv. the Government of a foreign country


Select the correct option:

• (a) i, ii, iii, iv
• (b) Only i and iv
• (c) Only iii and iv
• (d) Only iv

Question 68. The expression ‘law’ under Article 13(3)((a) of the Constitution of India does include which of the following?

• (a) Only ordinances, bye-law, rule, regulation
• (b) Ordinance, custom or usage, constitutional amendments, etc.
• (c) Only ordinance, regulation, notification
• (d) Only ordinance, order, bye-law

Question 69. Which of the following statements is correct, as per Section 44 of BSA, 2023?

• (a) The question is, whether A was the legitimate son of B. The fact that A was always treated as such by members of the family, is not relevant.
• (b) The question is, whether A and B were not married. The fact that they were usually received and treated by their friends as husband and wife, is not relevant.
• (c) The question is, whether A and B were married. The fact that they were usually received and treated by their friends as husband and wife, is irrelevant.
• (d) The question is, whether A was the legitimate son of B. The fact that A was always treated as such by the members of the family, is relevant.

Question 70. In which of the following cases did a seven-judge bench of the Supreme Court uphold the constitutional validity of sub-classification in the Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe categories?

• (a) E.V. Chinnaiah v. State of Andhra Pradesh (2004)
• (b) State of Punjab v. Davinder Singh (2024)
• (c) The State of Bihar v. Gaurav Kumar (2024)
• (d) Janhit Abhiyan v. Union of India (2019)

Question 71. Identify the correct option under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882:

Select the correct option:

• (a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
• (b) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
• (c) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
• (d) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

Question 72. Which constitutional authority is allowed to empower any other court (except the Supreme Court) to exercise within the local limits of its jurisdiction all or any of the powers (to issue directions or orders or writs) exercisable by the Supreme Court under Article 32?

• (a) The Parliament of India
• (b) The President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India
• (c) The Supreme Court Collegium
• (d) The National Judicial Appointment Commission

Question 73. Find the odd one out:

• (a) According to Blackstone, it is an established rule to abide by the former precedents where the same points come again in litigation
• (b) Ratio decidendi really is that principle of law on which a judicial decision is based
• (c) Persuasive precedents are those precedents which the judges are under an obligation to follow but which they may take into consideration
• (d) A conditionally authoritative precedent is one which though ordinarily binding on the court to which it is cited, is liable to be disregarded in certain circumstances

Question 74. Match the following:

Select the correct option:

• (a) I-1, II-2, III-3, IV-4
• (b) I-3, II-1, III-4, IV-2
• (c) I-2, II-1, III-3, IV-4
• (d) I-3, II-4, III-2, IV-1

Question 75. An order for the maintenance of wives, children and parents is provided under which Section of BNSS, 2023?

• (a) Section 143
• (b) Section 144
• (c) Section 125
• (d) Section 127

Question 76. Which of the following cases held that a constitutional authority cannot do indirectly what it is not permitted to do directly, specifically in the context of repromulgation of ordinances, and considered this practice as a fraud on the Constitution?

• (a) Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980)
• (b) DC Wadhwa v. State of Bihar (1986)
• (c) Rameshwar Prasad v. Union of India (2006)
• (d) Kunhayammed \& Ors v. State of Kerala (2000)

Question 77: Which of the following is a ground for revocation of patent?

• (a) That the patent was obtained wrongfully in contravention of rights of petitioner
• (b) That the invention, so far as claimed in any claim of the complete specification, was claimed in a valid claim of earlier priority date contained in the complete specification of another patent granted in India
• (c) That the invention, so far as claimed in any claim of the complete specification, is not useful
• (d) All of the above
   

Question 78: As per \hspace{3cm} of the Copyright Act, 1957, copyright in a design shall cease to exist if the article to which the design has been applied has been reproduced more than \hspace{3cm} by an industrial process.

• (a) Section 15, fifty times
• (b) Section 11, thirty times
• (c) Section 32, five times
• (d) Section 52, fifteen times
   

Question 79: In which of the following cases, talaq-e-biddat was declared as unconstitutional by the Supreme Court?

• (a) Shah Bano v. Union of India
• (b) Shayara Bano v. Union of India
• (c) Shamim Ara v. State of Uttar Pradesh
• (d) Noor Saba Khatoon v. Mohd. Quasim
   

Question 80: Under the Legal Services Authorities Act 1987, which of the following persons who have to file or defend a case is entitled to legal services under the Act:

I. member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe

II. victim of trafficking in human beings or beggar as referred to in article 23 of the Constitution

III. woman or a child

IV. industrial workman

Select the correct option:

• (a) I, II and III
• (b) I, II and IV
• (c) I, III and IV
• (d) I, II, III and IV

Question 81: Under Section 35 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, the transferor or his representative may require the transferee to make his election if the transferee does not signify the same:

• (a) Within two years
• (b) Within one year
• (c) Within a reasonable time
• (d) None of the above

Question 82: Which of the following rights did the Supreme Court recognise for non-minorities in the T.M.A. Pai Foundation case (2002) 8 SCC 481 regarding the establishment and administration of educational institutions?

• (a) Right to equality under Article 14 and right to property under Article 300A
• (b) Right to freedom of religion under Article 25 and right to establish institutions under Article 30
• (c) Right to freedom of speech under Article 19(1)((a) and right to privacy under Article 21
• (d) Right to carry on any occupation under Article 19(1)(g) and right to manage charitable institutions under Article 26
   

Question 83: Match the following offences with the corresponding Sections under BNS, 2023.

Select the correct options:

• (a) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
• (b) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
• (c) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
• (d) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
   

Question 84: At the heart of the Paris Agreement climate change regime is Intended Nationally Determined Contributions (INDC). Which of the following best describes an INDC?

• (a) Legally binding targets for reducing greenhouse gas emissions for all countries, regardless of their economic status
• (b) Fixed regional targets set by the United Nations that countries must comply with to mitigate climate change
• (c) Voluntary commitments made by countries outlining their plans to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and adapt to climate impacts, based on national circumstances
• (d) Financial mechanism to provide developing countries with funding for climate adaptation and mitigation efforts
   

Question 85: Match the following with the relevant provisions of the Protection of Plant Variety and Farmers Rights Act, 2001:

• (a) I-C, II-A, III-D, IV-B
• (b) I-C, II-A, III-B, IV-D
• (c) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D
• (d) I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A
  \end{tabular}

Question 86: As per the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956, which of the following statement is false?

• (a) A Hindu male or a female who is of sound mind and is not a minor can adopt a son or daughter.
• (b) Only the father, mother or the guardian of the child has the capacity to give the child in adoption.
• (c) If the adoption is by a male and the person to be adopted is a female, or if the adoption is by a female and the person to be adopted is a male, the person adopting shall be at least eighteen years older than the person to be adopted.
• (d) The person being adopted shall necessarily be Hindu.

Question 87: Which Constitutional Amendment Act introduced the concept of consequential seniority in promotions for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes?

• (a) 85th Amendment Act, 2001
• (b) 77th Amendment Act, 1995
• (c) 86th Amendment Act, 2002
• (d) 81st Amendment Act, 2000

Question 88: Which of the following is correct regarding the ‘Accomplice’ under BSA, 2023?

• (a) Is not a competent witness against an accused person
• (b) Is a competent witness against an accused person but any conviction based on that is illegal
• (c) Is a competent witness against an accused person and conviction is not illegal if it proceeds upon the corroborated testimony of an accomplice
• (d) Is not a competent witness against an accused person but its conviction is not illegal

Question 89: Marshalling securities under Section 81 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 means the entitlement of subsequent mortgagee to have the prior mortgage debt satisfied out of the property:

• (a) Not mortgaged to him but to the prior mortgagee alone
• (b) Mortgaged commonly to him and to the prior mortgagee
• (c) Not mortgaged to him, but owned by the mortgager
• (d) None of the above

Question 90: Decide the incorrect statement with respect to Hart-Fuller debate on the Nazi Grudger case:

• (a) Hart argued from a positivist approach that moral issues should not be considered within a legal system and that a law should not be invalidated on moral judgment. The wives could not be punished on the ground that it was not law but later could be punished on the ground that it was retrospective legislation.
• (b) Fuller explained that the wives were correctly sentenced because at the time there was no Nazi law as it was devoid of morality and thus had no legitimacy.
• (c) Fuller contended that the women in the case would become criminally liable not because what they did was illegal but because a later statute rendering it illegal by repealing the Nazi law and assuming retrospective effect.
• (d) Hart admits that it could be wrong to punish a person when what they did was then permitted by statute because of the Latin principle of Nulla Poena Sine Lege which means there can be no punishment without law.

Question 91: Match the following:

Select the correct option:

• (a) 1-A, 2-D, 3-B, 4-C
• (b) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D
• (c) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D
• (d) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D

Question 92: Match the following School of Jurisprudence with the correct Description:

Select the correct option:

• (a) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
• (b) 1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A
• (c) 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A
• (d) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A

Question 93: Which of the following statement best describes a social media intermediary?

• (a) A platform that provides e-commerce services and facilitates online shopping by connecting online retailers with buyers.
• (b) An intermediary which enables online interaction between two or more users and allows them to create, upload, share, disseminate, modify, or access information using its services.
• (c) An intermediary that primarily facilitates financial transactions between individuals and businesses.
• (d) A website that hosts digital content but does not enable any interaction between users.

Question 94: A key pillar of international Refugee law is that “No Contracting State shall expel or return […] a refugee in any manner whatsoever to the frontiers of territories where his life or freedom would be threatened on account of his race, religion, nationality, membership of a particular social group or political opinion.” This is also referred to as:

• (a) Principle of non-refoulement
• (b) Right to asylum
• (c) Access to durable solution
• (d) Protection against discrimination

Question 95: A transfer of property may be made without writing in every case in which writing is not expressly required by law. Which of the following would be such a case?

• (a) Gift of immovable property
• (b) Transfer of actionable claim
• (c) Sale of immovable property of the value of less than \₹100
• (d) Simple mortgage irrespective of the amount secured

Question 96: What does the principle of non-regression mean in international environmental law?

• (a) Measures of environmental protection already achieved should not be reversed or diminished
• (b) All environmental laws must be continuously revised to be more lenient
• (c) Acknowledges inherent flexibility whereby stringent environmental standards may be reversed to accommodate developmental concerns
• (d) Requires that states moderate their commitments to international environmental agreements over time

Question 97: Which of the following statement best captures the key difference between a Lok Adalat and Permanent Lok Adalat?

• (a) Permanent Lok Adalat mediates, while Lok Adalats conciliates
• (b) Jurisdiction of Permanent Lok Adalat includes any civil matter, while Lok Adalats is limited to public utility services
• (c) Permanent Lok Adalat has the power to adjudicate the matter if the dispute does not relate to any offence, while Lok Adalat has no powers of adjudication
• (d) Award of a Permanent Lok Adalat cannot be appealed against, while decision of the Lok Adalat is subject to regular appeal process

Question 98: “Associate company” in relation to another company means a company:

• (a) In which that other company has a significant influence, but which is not a subsidiary company of the company having such influence and includes a joint venture company.
• (b) Where control of at least twenty per cent of total voting power, or control of or participation in business decisions is given under an agreement.
• (c) Where a joint arrangement whereby the parties that have joint control of the arrangement have rights to the net assets of the arrangement.
• (d) All of the above.

Question 99: What is the condition prescribed under Section 6 of the Income Tax Act, 1961 for an individual to be classified as a ‘Resident’ in India for tax purposes?

• (a) The individual stays in India for 90 days or more during the relevant financial year.
• (b) The individual stays in India for 182 days or more during the relevant financial year.
• (c) The individual has stayed in India for at least 150 days in the past 4 years.
• (d) The individual must own property in India.

Question 100: Pick the correct statement:

• (a) A pure monopoly may be either regulated such as power generation or unregulated having control over natural resources or technology-driven firms
• (b) Monopolistic competition is characterised by product differentiation, brand loyalty and there is no price competition
• (c) In an oligopoly, there are few sellers in the market who are highly sensitive to each other’s pricing and marketing strategies
• (d) All of the above are correct