AILET BA LLB 2025 Question Paper (Available) Download Solutions and Answer Key pdf

Question 1: What is one of the major challenges faced in the transition to renewable energy?

• (A) The decreasing costs of fossil fuels
• (B) The need for advancements in energy storage
• (C) The complete lack of government interest
• (D) The sheer abundance of fossil fuel resources

Question 2: According to the passage, what is essential for a successful transition to renewable energy?

• (A) Collaboration among various stakeholders
• (B) Increased fossil fuel production
• (C) Over reliance on the existing infrastructure
• (D) Eliminating all government regulations

Question 3: Why is the transition to renewable energy described as becoming economically viable?

• (A) Because fossil fuels are becoming more expensive
• (B) Due to the decrease in costs of renewable technologies
• (C) Due to government subsidies for fossil fuels
• (D) Renewable energy sources are less reliable

Question 4: What does the term ‘intermittent nature’ refer to in the context of renewable energy sources?

• (A) Their ability to provide consistent energy supply
• (B) Their integration into existing infrastructure for production
• (C) Their complete dependence on fossil fuels for energy
• (D) Variability in energy production due to weather conditions

Question 5: Which of the following best describes the tone of the paragraph?

• (A) Skeptical
• (B) Dismissive
• (C) Balanced
• (D) Indifferent

Question 6: How does hypoxia affect female fish reproduction?

• (A) It increases egg production
• (B) It has no effect on reproduction
• (C) It decreases egg production
• (D) It improves the survival rate of embryos

Question 7: What term is used in the passage to describe areas with significantly low levels of oxygen?

• (A) Oxygen-rich zones
• (B) Dead zones
• (C) Marine reserves
• (D) Hypoxic waters

Question 8: What effect do altered hormone levels during gestation have on fish embryos in hypoxic conditions?

• (A) They promote the development of female traits
• (B) They cause all embryos to become hermaphrodites
• (C) They have no impact on gender determination
• (D) They inhibit female traits and promote male traits

Question 9: What broader ecological impact does declining oxygen levels have, as mentioned in the passage?

• (A) Increase in hypoxic fish populations
• (B) Enrichment of coral reefs
• (C) Disruption of entire ecosystems
• (D) Degradation of marine biodiversity

Question 10: Why is reproductive success critical for any species, according to the passage?

• (A) It ensures the continuation of genetic diversity
• (B) It determines the physical traits of the species
• (C) It affects the feeding habits of the species
• (D) It influences the increase in habitat size

Question 11: Which of the following implications of hypoxia is not mentioned in the passage?

• (A) Permanent loss of fish populations in affected areas
• (B) Changes in the gender ratio of fish populations
• (C) Increased competition among fish species
• (D) Decline in ecosystem services such as fisheries and tourism

Question 12: In the context of the passage, which of the following best characterizes the term ‘sustainability’ ?

• (A) Maintaining current fish populations at all costs including government initiatives
• (B) Ensuring the reproductive success of marine species for future generations
• (C) Focusing solely on economic benefits derived from marine resources
• (D) Prioritizing industrial growth over environmental health

Question 13: In ‘The Politics of Change,’ Dr. Emily Harper analyzes various grassroots movements. Which of the following factors does she most likely attribute to the success of these movements?

• (A) The use of traditional media over social media
• (B) The historical context of each movement’s emergence
• (C) The ability to engage a broad coalition of stakeholders
• (D) The lack of governmental opposition

Question 14: What major factors does Mark Stevens discuss in ‘The Change in Politics’ regarding the evolution of political engagement?

• (A) Historical events and their consequences
• (B) The role of technology and demographic changes
• (C) Economic theories and their application
• (D) Environmental issues affecting policy

Question 15: In ‘Politics and Change: A Global Perspective,’ what does Dr. Anika Patel emphasize about the influence of local political changes?

• (A) They have no impact on global politics
• (B) The broad implications for international relations
• (C) They only affect neighbouring countries
• (D) They are primarily driven by economic factors

Question 16: Which of the following strategies does Dr. Emily Harper argue is essential for social movements to effectively influence policy reform in ‘The Politics of Change’?

• (A) Sole reliance on traditional media
• (B) Engaging in public apathy
• (C) Utilizing digital platforms for outreach
• (D) Focusing exclusively on local issues

Question 17: Dr. Anika Patel’s ‘Politics and Change: A Global Perspective’ explores the effects of globalization on local politics. Which of the following concepts is most likely a focus of her analysis?

• (A) The isolation of national policies
• (B) The role of international organizations in local governance
• (C) The historical significance of colonialism on current political structures
• (D) The effectiveness of local movements in a globalized world

Question 18: In ‘The Change in Politics,’ Mark Stevens highlights demographic shifts as a transformative factor in politics. Which demographic change might he argue has the most significant influence on recent electoral outcomes?

• (A) The aging population’s impact on social security policy
• (B) The increasing diversity of voters in urban areas
• (C) The decline trend of rural populations
• (D) The rise in youth voter participation in midterm elections

Question 19: In ‘Politics and Change: A Global Perspective,’ Dr. Anika Patel emphasizes the interconnectedness of political systems. According to the passage, which approach would Dr. Anika Patel be most likely to use to assess the impact of local changes on global politics?

• (A) A purely economic lens focusing on trade relations
• (B) A cultural approach examining regional identities
• (C) A systemic analysis of international relations theories
• (D) A narrative approach emphasizing personal stories of political figures

Question 20: In ‘The Change in Politics,’ Mark Stevens highlights the role of digital platforms in political engagement. Which of the following outcomes would he most likely argue is a direct consequence of increased digital engagement?

• (A) A decrease in overall voter turnout due to information overload
• (B) Enhanced polarization among voters as a result of targeted content
• (C) A uniform political discourse across different demographics
• (D) An increase in apathy as digital engagement replaces real-world activism

Question 21: Dr. Anika Patel’s ‘Politics and Change: A Global Perspective’ posits that local political movements are interconnected with global trends. Which of the following would best illustrate this relationship?

• (A) Local protests against environmental policies influencing international climate agreements
• (B) National elections occurring independently of global economic conditions
• (C) Cultural differences leading to isolated local movements without global relevance
• (D) The presence of international influence in local governance decisions

Question 22: Considering Dr. Anika Patel’s arguments in ‘Politics and Change: A Global Perspective,’ which of the following statements would best summarize her perspective on the role of local leaders in a globalized world?

• (A) Local leaders are primarily responsible for maintaining national sovereignty
• (B) They have limited influence on global issues and should focus on local governance
• (C) Their actions can create a ripple effect that influences international policy
• (D) They are often overlooked in favour of national leaders in global discussions

Question 23: In the intricate world of modern manufacturing, the sub-subpart can be compared to:

• (A) The foundation of a building
• (B) The finishing touches on a masterpiece painting
• (C) The ingredients of a gourmet dish
• (D) The alphabet in a language

Question 24: According to the passage, what is the primary reason modern carpenters use computer-aided design (CAD)?

• (A) To select the most expensive wood species
• (B) To replace traditional woodworking tools
• (C) To revolutionize precision and enhance craftsmanship
• (D) To create unique, one-of-a-kind furniture designs

Question 25: What is the overarching message conveyed by the passage regarding the significance of sub-subparts in carpentry?

• (A) Sub-subparts are an outdated concept in modern carpentry
• (B) Sub-subparts are primarily aesthetic and don’t affect functionality
• (C) Sub-subparts play a pivotal role in ensuring the quality and functionality of woodworking projects
• (D) Sub-subparts are exclusively used in the automotive industry

Question 26: Which term best characterises the fusion of traditional craftsmanship and cutting-edge technology in the context of creating sub-subparts, as discussed in the passage?

• (A) Dichotomy
• (B) Outmodedness
• (C) Paradox
• (D) Synergy

Question 27: Assertion (A): Sub-subparts like dowels and screws are often overlooked in woodworking
Reasoning (R): Sub-subparts play a crucial role in determining the structural integrity and functionality of the final product
Select the option that applies correctly to the assertion and reasoning

• (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
• (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
• (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
• (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Question 28: The author would probably agree with which of the following statements?

• (A) Sub-subparts are irrelevant in modern carpentry
• (B) Modern techniques like laser cutting have improved precision in sub-subpart creation
• (C) Traditional craftsmanship has no place in woodworking today
• (D) Sub-subparts are only used for aesthetic purposes in carpentry

Question 29: Which of the following might the author cite as an example of the fusion of traditional craftsmanship and cutting-edge technology, as described in the passage?

• (A) The decline of traditional woodworking methods
• (B) The exclusive use of 3D printing in carpentry
• (C) The abandonment of sub-subparts in modern carpentry
• (D) The use of CAD for designing wood pieces

Question 30: Given the author’s position on the importance of sub-subparts in carpentry, what stand would the author probably take on the issue of using alternative materials in woodworking?

• (A) The author would likely advocate for alternative materials
• (B) The author would likely reject alternative materials in favour of traditional ones
• (C) The author’s stance on alternative materials is unclear
• (D) The author would likely argue for a balanced approach, incorporating both traditional and modern materials

Question 31: Which of the following lines best summarises the essence of the conclusion regarding the significance of sub-subparts in modern manufacturing?

• (A) Traditional craftsmanship is no longer relevant in today’s industries
• (B) Sub-subparts are insignificant in modern manufacturing compared to larger components
• (C) The fusion of tradition and innovation stresses the importance of sub-subparts in modern manufacturing
• (D) Manufacturers should prioritise speed and quantity over craftsmanship

Question 32: What did Kaldi observe that led to the discovery of coffee?

• (A) Monks brewing coffee in a monastery
• (B) Goats eating red berries and becoming energetic
• (C) Coffee beans being roasted in a coffee house
• (D) Coffee plantations being established

Question 33: How did the Industrial Revolution impact coffee consumption?

• (A) It led to the decline of coffee popularity
• (B) It resulted in the establishment of coffee plantations in Europe
• (C) It accelerated coffee production and introduced new brewing methods
• (D) It made coffee an exclusive drink for the wealthy

Question 34: Consider the following statement - Coffee originated in Ethiopia and quickly spread to the Arabian Peninsula and beyond, where it became popular. Which of the following best supports the statement?

• (A) Coffee houses transformed into vital centers of cultural exchange and economic activity within the Islamic world
• (B) Monastic communities utilized coffee as a means to enhance concentration during extended periods of prayer
• (C) The invigorating properties of coffee gained significant appreciation among intellectuals during the Age of Enlightenment
• (D) The dissemination of coffee from Ethiopia catalyzed its cultivation across various regions, including Turkey and Europe

Question 35: Statement 1: The introduction of coffee to the European market was met with immediate acceptance and no resistance from religious authorities
Statement 2: The cultural significance of coffee houses in Europe during the Age of Enlightenment extended beyond mere beverage consumption to become venues for political and philosophical discourse
Choose the correct option:

• (A) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true
• (B) Statement 1 is true, but Statement 2 is false
• (C) Statement 1 is false, but Statement 2 is true
• (D) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are false

Question 36: What does the phrase ‘emerging as social hubs’ mean in the context of the passage?

• (A) Gradually becoming popular locations for individual study and reflection
• (B) Gradually becoming isolated areas with limited social activity and interaction
• (C) Transforming into commercial businesses with some community involvement
• (D) Developing into centers for community interaction and cultural exchange

Question 37: Which of the following words is a synonym for “cultivation” as used in the context of the passage?

• (A) Development
• (B) Tending
• (C) Growth
• (D) Destruction

Question 38: Which among the following sentences uses the word ‘frolicking’ in the same sense as used in the passage?

• (A) The athletes were frolicking about their training regimen before the competition
• (B) The children were frolicking along the beach, their joy palpable in the cool evening air
• (C) She found the frolicking music to be very relaxing during her study session
• (D) The artist spent the afternoon frolicking with her paintbrushes on the canvas

Question 39: Statement 1: The spread of coffee cultivation in tropical regions was solely driven by domestic consumption in Ethiopia
Statement 2: The global demand for coffee prompted the establishment of plantations in various parts of the world, significantly influencing trade patterns
Choose the correct option:

• (A) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true
• (B) Statement 1 is true, but Statement 2 is false
• (C) Statement 1 is false, but Statement 2 is true
• (D) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are false

Question 40: What factors contributed to the transformation of coffee from a regional specialty to a major global commodity?

• (A) The establishment of colonial plantations and the growing global demand for coffee
• (B) The initial rejection of coffee by European consumers and its subsequent revival
• (C) The decrease in the prominence of coffee houses and a transition to home brewing
• (D) The popularity of instant coffee and a growing preference for tea instead of coffee

Question 41: In what ways has coffee maintained its cultural significance in modern society?

• (A) Coffee is only enjoyed in traditional ceremonies and has lost its daily appeal
• (B) Coffee is now primarily consumed in fast food chains, diminishing its cultural role
• (C) Coffee has become a luxury item, only accessible to wealthy consumers
• (D) Coffee remains a popular beverage and symbolizes social interaction

Question 42: Ensuring ‘even stitches and prevent puckering’ refers to the

• (A) Tension management
• (B) Colour selection
• (C) Yarn thickness
• (D) Stitch pattern

Question 43: What is the correct order of stitching steps to make a sleeve using the short-row technique?

• (A) Cast on stitches, create short rows, sew side seams, finish edges
• (B) Create short rows, cast on stitches, sew side seams, finish edges
• (C) Sew side seams, cast on stitches, create short rows, finish edges
• (D) Cast on stitches, sew side seams, finish edges, create short rows

Question 44: What is the primary focus of the Fair Isle method?

• (A) Creating seamless garments
• (B) Using multiple colours for intricate patterns
• (C) Speed and dexterity in knitting
• (D) Shaping complex garments using coloured yarns

Question 45: What does the emphasis on wrapping the stitch before turning suggest about the short-row technique?

• (A) It is a complicated method that requires extensive practice
• (B) It is only relevant for advanced knitters
• (C) Proper execution is crucial to ensure a polished finish
• (D) It is optional and can be skipped for faster results

Question 46: Based on the description of the Continental style, which of the following can be inferred about its efficiency?

• (A) It is slower than other knitting methods
• (B) It is best suited for complex patterns only
• (C) It requires more yarn than traditional methods
• (D) It enables quicker advancement in design

Question 47: Considering the techniques discussed, what might be inferred about the overall skill level required for mastering Fair Isle and Continental knitting?

• (A) Both techniques can be mastered without any prior experience
• (B) Advanced techniques require a strong foundation in basic knitting skills
• (C) They are accessible only to expert knitters with years of experience
• (D) No specific skills are necessary for these techniques

Question 48: Which option includes the most appropriate meaning of the underlined phrase in the given sentence? “With each stitch, simply pick the yarn with your right needle, forming a quick and fluid motion.”

• (A) Grasp the yarn firmly
• (B) Lift the yarn easily
• (C) Catch the yarn smoothly
• (D) Pull the yarn tightly

Question 49: What can be inferred about the relationship between mastering advanced knitting techniques and a knitter’s design capabilities?

• (A) Mastering advanced techniques limits a knitter’s creativity to specific patterns
• (B) Advanced techniques enhance a knitter’s ability to create innovative and varied designs
• (C) Mastery of these techniques is irrelevant to design capabilities
• (D) A knitter can achieve the same results using only basic techniques

Question 50: How might the integration of both the Fair Isle method and the short-row technique influence a knitter’s approach to garment construction?

• (A) It streamlines the process, making it easier for all skill levels to create garments
• (B) It fosters creativity through intricate designs, needing advanced skills to execute
• (C) It restricts the knitter to simple patterns, limiting creative possibilities
• (D) It minimizes the need for precision, allowing for a more relaxed approach to knitting

Question 51: Which nation became the first country to adopt Bitcoin as a legal tender?

• (A) Nigeria
• (B) El Salvador
• (C) Republic of Turkey
• (D) Central African Republic

Question 52: Which among the following is considered the world’s largest stateless population?

• (A) Chakmas
• (B) Feyli Kurd
• (C) Rohingyas
• (D) Tibetan Refugees

Question 53: Which athlete achieved the distinction of becoming the first Indian athlete from independent India to win two medals in a single edition of the Summer Olympics?

• (A) Neeraj Chopra
• (B) Harmanpreet Singh
• (C) Lakshya Sen
• (D) Manu Bhakar

Question 54: Who is credited with being the first oncologist in India to have successfully performed a bone marrow transplant?

• (A) Dr. K. K. Agarwal
• (B) Dr. Suresh H. Advani
• (C) Dr. Mansoor Hasan
• (D) Dr. Indira Hinduja

Question 55: Which of the following is considered to be the closest equivalent of a ‘Nobel Prize’ in the field of Mathematics?

• (A) Hess-Leffler Medal
• (B) Gording-Harmander Award
• (C) Fields Medal
• (D) Shaw-Wolf Prize

Question 56: The 2024 International Booker Prize was awarded to the book ‘Kairos’ by Jenny Erpenbeck. Which of the following makes this win notable?

• (A) First book translated from German to win the prize
• (B) First book written by a stateless person to win the prize
• (C) First book to win both the Booker Prize and Pulitzer Prize in the same year
• (D) First autobiography to win the prize

Question 57: M.S. Dhoni is considered to be one of the most successful captain and player in the popular Indian Premier League (IPL). Which other franchise in addition to the Chennai Super Kings, has Dhoni played for?

• (A) Rising Pune Supergiants
• (B) Gujarat Titans
• (C) Rajasthan Royals
• (D) Sunrisers Hyderabad

Question 58: Which Indian football sporting club won the inaugural ASEAN Football Championship hosted by Indonesia in 2003?

• (A) Mohan Bagan AC
• (B) Salgaocar FC
• (C) NorthEast United FC
• (D) East Bengal FC

Question 59: Perseverance Rover, launched by NASA, is famous for its mission to explore the surface of which celestial body, particularly to seek signs of ancient life and collect samples for future return to Earth?

• (A) Mercury
• (B) Mars
• (C) Juno
• (D) Titan

Question 60: The Nobel Peace Prize for 2024 was awarded to:

• (A) Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons
• (B) Amnesty International
• (C) Nihon Hidankyo
• (D) UN Peacekeeping Force

Question 61: Which of the following is not a member of the United Nations?

• (A) Taiwan
• (B) United States of America
• (C) Honduras
• (D) Brazil

Question 62: The third Japan-India 2+2 Ministerial Meeting was held in New Delhi in 2024. Which is a core focus area for these meetings?

• (A) joint space exploration programme
• (B) bilateral security and defence cooperation
• (C) regional migration framework
• (D) joint climate change action plan

Question 63: The following listed items are joint military exercises conducted by India, with another foreign nation. Match the following:
Item Foreign Nation

• (A) Veer Guardian I) Mongolia
• (B) Nomadic Elephant II) United States of America
• (C) Vajra Prahar III) Japan
• (D) Exercise Maitree IV) Thailand

Question 64: Nupi Lan, also known as the ‘Women War’, was a significant revolt against the British and is often credited as one of the earliest uprisings in India to be led entirely by women. In which present-day state did the uprising take place?

• (A) Manipur
• (B) Arunachal Pradesh
• (C) Chhattisgarh
• (D) Tripura

Question 65: Who is the current Secretary General of the United Nations?

• (A) Ban-Ki Moon
• (B) Kofi Annan
• (C) Ursula von der Leyen
• (D) Antonio Guterres

Question 66: What is the international significance of 21st June?

• (A) Human Rights Day
• (B) Women’s Day
• (C) International Day of Yoga
• (D) World Day Against Child Labour

Question 67: According to the Swachh Survekshan 2023 rankings, which of the following cities was ranked as the cleanest in India?

• (A) Pune
• (B) Indore
• (C) Bhopal
• (D) Tirupati

Question 68: The following are various dance forms found in different parts of India. Match the following:

• (A) Bharatanatyam III) Tamil Nadu
• (B) Sattriya I) Assam
• (C) Kathakali IV) Kerala
• (D) Kuchipudi II) Andhra Pradesh
  Select the correct option:

Question 69: Vinesh Phogat was disqualified from the wrestling competition at the 2024 Paris Olympics after exceeding the weight limit by 100 grams during the weigh-in for her 50 kg final. Her disqualification was upheld on appeal. To which international body did Vinesh Phogat and the Indian Olympic Association appeal?

• (A) Court of Arbitration for Sports
• (B) International Sports Arbitration Tribunal
• (C) International Athletic Arbitration Authority
• (D) Tribunal Internacional de Arbitraje

Question 70: In September, 2024, a new scheme, Bio-RIDE, was approved in the area of biotechnology. Identify the components of the scheme
I. Biotechnology Research and Development
II. Industrial & Entrepreneurship Development
III. Biomanufacturing and Biofoundry
IV. Biotechnology parks and International Collaborations
Select the correct option:

• (A) I, II, III
• (B) II, III
• (C) I, III
• (D) I, II

Question 71: The quality of drinking water is regularly measured in terms of TDS. Higher the TDS poorer the quality of drinking water. What does TDS stand for?

• (A) Total Dilution Solubility
• (B) Total Dissolved Solids
• (C) Total De-Salination
• (D) Total Density Solution

Question 72: In 2004, the Government of India decided to create a new category of languages known as ‘Classical Languages’. What are the latest criteria, announced in 2024, for inclusion of languages within this category?
I. High antiquity of its early texts/recorded history over a period of 1500-2000 years
II. A body of ancient literature/texts, which is considered a heritage by generations of speakers
III. Knowledge texts, especially prose texts in addition to poetry, epigraphical and inscriptional evidence
IV. The classical languages and literature could be distinct from its current form or could be discontinuous with later forms of its offshoots
V. The literary tradition be original and not borrowed from another speech community
Select the correct option:

• (A) I, II, III
• (B) II, III
• (C) I, III
• (D) Only I, II, III and IV

Question 73: The movie ‘The Man who knew Infinity’ depicts the life story of

• (A) Apurba Ramchandran
• (B) Ramanbhai Patel
• (C) Srinivasa Ramanujan
• (D) Venki Ramakrishna

Question 74: Who was known as the ‘Bard of Brahmaputra’ ?

• (A) Tarali Sarma
• (B) Bhupen Hazarika
• (C) Bishakh Jyoti
• (D) Niranjan Rout

Question 75: In 2024, the Government of India introduced the Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar, recognizing key contributions in the field of science and technology in India. In the first edition, awards were presented in the following four categories:
I. Vigyan Ratna
II. Vigyan Shri
III. Vigyan Yuva
IV. Vigyan Team
V. Vigyan Aavishkar
Select the correct option:

• (A) Only I, II, III, IV
• (B) II, III, IV
• (C) I, III
• (D) I, II

Question 76: As part of its NTMHP initiative, the Government of India recently introduced the TELE-MANAS, a 24/7 toll-free helpline (14416). What does TELE-MANAS stand for?

• (A) Tele Mental Health Assistance and Networking Across States
• (B) Tele Medicine Assistance and National Support
• (C) Tele Mental Assistance and National Aid Service
• (D) Tele Medical Aid and Networking Across States

Question 77: Festivals in India are a vibrant reflection of its diverse culture, heritage, and traditions. Match the following festivals with the state with which it is most frequently associated
S.no Festival S.no State
I Kadalekayi Parishe A Gujarat
II Bohag Bihu B Orissa
III Uttarayan C Assam
IV Nuakhai D Karnataka
Select the correct option:

• (A) I-A, II-D, III-A, IV-B
• (B) I-D, II-C, III-A, IV-B
• (C) I-D, II-B, III-A, IV-C
• (D) I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B

Question 78: In the ongoing Israeli-Palestinian conflict, frequent references have been made to the ‘Iron Dome’. What does it refer to?

• (A) Ancient architectural buildings, particularly religious buildings featuring a dome
• (B) An advanced cyber shield ensuring multilayer protection against invasive cyberattacks
• (C) A continuous remote sensing surveillance technology to detect deep underground tunnels
• (D) Multipurpose missile defense system designed to protect against a wide range of indirect and aerial threats

Question 79: The Indian Air Force recently inaugurated a new training establishment, the Weapon Systems School (WSS), with the aim of recalibrating and transforming the Indian Air Force as a future-oriented force. In which city was the WSS located?

• (A) Gorakhpur, UP
• (B) Begumpet, Hyderabad
• (C) Tezpur, Assam
• (D) Jodhpur, Rajasthan

Question 80: Which of the following statements best describes the nature of the National Automated Clearing House (NACH) implemented by the National Payment Corporation of India (NPCI)?

• (A) It is a web-based solution to facilitate interbank, high volume, electronic transactions which are repetitive and periodic in nature
• (B) It is utilized to modify in real time individual transactions between bank accounts
• (C) It facilitates direct government disbursements to beneficiaries under various schemes
• (D) It is an RBI mobile app to facilitate international wire transfers and foreign remittances

Question 81: Some Hyenas are Lions. All Lions are Cats. Some Cats are Wolves. Examine the following statements:
I. Some Cats are Lions
II. Some Wolves are Lions
III. Some Cats are Hyenas
Select the correct option:

• (A) Both I & II follows
• (B) Only III follows
• (C) Both I & III follows
• (D) Both II & III follows

Question 82: All Squirrels are Herbivores. Some Herbivores are Elephants. All Elephants are Mammals. Some Mammals are Carnivores. Examine the following statements:
I. Some Mammals are Herbivores
II. All Elephants are Squirrels
III. Some Carnivores are Herbivores
Select the correct option:

• (A) Only I follows
• (B) Only III follows
• (C) Both I & III follows
• (D) Both II & III follows

Question 83: All Engineers are Mathematicians. Some Mathematicians are Authors. No Author is a Scientist. Some Engineers are Scientists. Examine the following statements:
I. No Author is an Engineer
II. Some Scientists are Engineers
III. Some Mathematicians are not Scientists
Select the correct option:

• (A) Only I follows
• (B) Only III follows
• (C) Both II & III follows
• (D) Both I & III follows

Question 84: All gadgets are machines. Some gadgets are tools. All machines are useful. Examine the following statements:
I. Some tools are useful
II. All that is useful are machines
III. All tools are gadgets
Select the correct option:

• (A) Only I follows
• (B) Only III follows
• (C) Both I & III follows
• (D) Both II & III follows

Question 85: All International Court of Justice (ICJ) judgments are binding on parties involved in the case. Some ICJ judgments have persuasive value in domestic courts. Judgments of domestic courts can be referenced by the ICJ, but they are not binding. Examine the following statements:
I. Some ICJ judgments are binding on domestic courts
II. Some domestic court judgments are binding on the ICJ
III. ICJ judgments can be used to strengthen arguments in domestic courts
Select the correct option:

• (A) Only I follows
• (B) Only II follows
• (C) Both I & III follows
• (D) Only III follows

Question 86: All drivers are Tall. Some Tall persons violate traffic lights. All who violate traffic lights are fined. B is Tall. Examine the following statements:
I. B is a driver
II. B may violate a traffic light
III. B will definitely violate traffic light
IV. If B is a driver, he will get fined
V. B will definitely get fined
Select the correct option:

• (A) Only I
• (B) Only II
• (C) Both I & III follows
• (D) Only III follows

Question 87: A consumer advocacy group published a report accusing Alpha Electronics Company of producing faulty products, misleading advertising, and failing to provide adequate customer service. The report presented various customer testimonials and product reviews as evidence of these issues. Which of the following assumptions, if true, most strengthens the advocacy group’s claims?

• (A) Alpha’s competitors made larger profits than Alpha in the immediately previous year
• (B) Alpha had recently changed its advertising strategy to highlight customer satisfaction more prominently
• (C) Alpha was recently fined by a regulatory body for not complying with consumer protection standards
• (D) Alpha recently appointed a new CEO

Question 88: In scientific inquiry, the hypothesis is a testable statement that predicts the relationship between variables. According to the scientific method, the validity of a hypothesis is determined by its ability to withstand empirical testing and produce consistent results. Critics of this approach argue that relying solely on empirical data can lead to the neglect of theoretical frameworks that provide context for understanding phenomena. Which of the following assumption would allow the above statements to be properly made?

• (A) Empirical data alone can be sufficient to explain complex scientific phenomena
• (B) Theoretical frameworks often provide critical insights that cannot be derived from empirical testing alone
• (C) Many scientific theories are based on assumptions that cannot be empirically tested
• (D) Both (B) and (C) above

Question 89: Recent studies indicate that the implementation of remote work policies has led to an increase in employee productivity in many companies. Factors contributing to this trend include reduced commuting time, greater flexibility in work hours, and the ability for employees to create personalized work environments. However, the studies also note that employees who work remotely may experience feelings of isolation and disconnection from their colleagues, which could impact team cohesion and communication. Companies that have adopted remote work policies are now considering whether to continue, modify, or return to traditional in-office work arrangements. Which of the following conclusion can be most accurately drawn from the above?

• (A) Remote work policies are universally beneficial for all companies and employees
• (B) The increase in productivity from remote work is solely due to employees’ ability to create personalized work environments
• (C) Companies that implement remote work policies may need to address potential feelings of isolation among employees to maintain team cohesion
• (D) Traditional in-office work arrangements are more effective in promoting team communication and collaboration than remote work

Question 90: In education policy, the concept of inclusive education advocates for integrating students with disabilities into mainstream classrooms to promote diversity and equal opportunities. However, critics claim that focusing too much on inclusion can strain resources and may lead to a decline in educational quality for students both with and without disabilities. Which of the following arguments would most strengthen the critics’ position?

• (A) Many parents prefer traditional classrooms for their children over inclusive settings
• (B) Schools often lack the resources needed to effectively implement inclusive education practices
• (C) The academic performance of students without disabilities is negatively impacted by inclusive classrooms
• (D) The academic performance of students with disabilities is negatively impacted by inclusive classrooms

Question 91: In business strategy, the concept of diversification involves expanding a company’s operations into new markets or product lines to reduce risk and enhance growth potential. Though, diversification can lead to increased revenue streams and a more resilient business model, critics contend that diversification can dilute a company’s core competencies and result in inefficiencies, ultimately harming overall performance. Which of the following assumption would allow the above statements to be properly drawn?

• (A) Companies often face significant challenges when trying to manage multiple product lines effectively
• (B) Diversification strategies usually require little investment and resources
• (C) A strong focus on core competencies is essential for maintaining optimal output
• (D) Both (A) and (C) above

Question 92: A recent survey of smartphone users revealed that 70% of respondents believe that data privacy is important. However, only 30% actively use privacy settings on their devices. The survey indicates that a major reason for this is that many users find privacy settings confusing and difficult to navigate. Which of the following assumption would allow the above statements to be properly drawn?

• (A) The majority of smartphone users are not concerned about data privacy at all
• (B) Users who care about data privacy often do not have the technical skills to manage privacy settings
• (C) Most smartphone manufacturers do not provide sufficient information on privacy settings
• (D) Many users believe that their data is safe without needing to adjust privacy settings

Question 93: Urban gardening has gained traction in recent years as a way for city dwellers to grow their own food and improve their mental well-being. This movement was partly fuelled by growing concerns about food deserts, environmental sustainability, and the desire for a connection to nature. However, critics argue that urban gardening often does not address the systemic issues of access to fresh food and can sometimes lead to gentrification, where original community members are displaced as property values rise. Despite these criticisms, many individuals find personal fulfilment and community among fellow urban gardeners.
Conclusion:
I. Urban gardening can heighten food insecurity in cities.
II. Many individuals benefit emotionally and socially from participating in urban gardening.
III. Urban gardening can unintentionally contribute to the gentrification of neighbourhoods, harming long-term residents
Which conclusion necessarily follows?

• (A) Only I follows
• (B) Only II follows
• (C) Both I and III follows
• (D) Both II and III follows

Question 94: A fundamental principle of artificial intelligence (AI) development is to ensure that AI systems are designed with fairness and inclusivity in mind. Developers are expected to implement algorithms that do not discriminate against any demographic group, as bias in AI can lead to significant societal harm. Furthermore, transparency in how AI models make decisions is essential to building trust among users and stakeholders
Conclusion:
I. It is inappropriate to criticize AI developers for biased outcomes if they have made efforts to promote fairness and transparency in their models.
II. AI developers must prioritize eliminating biases in their algorithms as a key objective.
Which conclusion necessarily follows?

• (A) Only I follows
• (B) Only II follows
• (C) Both I and III follows
• (D) Both II and III follows

Question 95: The discovery of electricity centuries ago led to profound changes in communication, transportation, and industry, significantly altering daily life and economic structures. It is also important to note that the rapid industrialization that followed was accompanied by notable environmental degradation, giving rise to early conservation movements that sought to protect natural resources. Some modern political movements propagate a narrative that portrays technological progress as inherently beneficial, often overlooking the environmental costs associated with it
Conclusion:
I. Many political movements today ignore the environmental impacts of technological advancements
II. It is not possible to have industrial progress without environmental degradation
III. The discovery of electricity has had both positive and negative effects on society
Which conclusion necessarily follows?

• (A) Only I follows
• (B) Only II follows
• (C) Both II and III follows
• (D) Both I and III follows

Question 96: The invention of antibiotics in the early 20th century revolutionised healthcare by drastically reducing mortality rates from infectious diseases and enabling more complex surgeries. However, the overuse of antibiotics in recent decades has contributed to the rise of drug-resistant bacteria, posing new health risks. Simultaneously, public health policies have had to balance the benefits of antibiotic use with the dangers of resistance. Some modern pharmaceutical practices focus primarily on maximizing profits, often sidelining the long-term risks of resistance
Conclusion:
I. Profit-driven motives always undermine public health priorities
II. Overuse of antibiotics has resulted in significant health challenges
III. Advances in healthcare can introduce unintended risks over time
Which conclusion necessarily follows?

• (A) Only I follows
• (B) Only II follows
• (C) Both I and III follows
• (D) Both II and III follows

Question 97: A consumer advocacy group published a report accusing Alpha Electronics Company of producing faulty products, misleading advertising, and failing to provide adequate customer service. The report presented various customer testimonials and product reviews as evidence of these issues. Which of the following assumptions, if true, most strengthens the advocacy group’s claims?

• (A) Alpha’s competitors made larger profits than Alpha in the immediately previous year
• (B) Alpha had recently changed its advertising strategy to highlight customer satisfaction more prominently
• (C) Alpha was recently fined by a regulatory body for not complying with consumer protection standards
• (D) Alpha recently appointed a new CEO

Question 98: In scientific inquiry, the hypothesis is a testable statement that predicts the relationship between variables. According to the scientific method, the validity of a hypothesis is determined by its ability to withstand empirical testing and produce consistent results. Critics of this approach argue that relying solely on empirical data can lead to the neglect of theoretical frameworks that provide context for understanding phenomena. Which of the following assumption would allow the above statements to be properly made?

• (A) Empirical data alone can be sufficient to explain complex scientific phenomena
• (B) Theoretical frameworks often provide critical insights that cannot be derived from empirical testing alone
• (C) Many scientific theories are based on assumptions that cannot be empirically tested
• (D) Both (B) and (C) above

Question 99: Recent studies indicate that the implementation of remote work policies has led to an increase in employee productivity in many companies. Factors contributing to this trend include reduced commuting time, greater flexibility in work hours, and the ability for employees to create personalized work environments. However, the studies also note that employees who work remotely may experience feelings of isolation and disconnection from their colleagues, which could impact team cohesion and communication. Companies that have adopted remote work policies are now considering whether to continue, modify, or return to traditional in-office work arrangements. Which of the following conclusion can be most accurately drawn from the above?

• (A) Remote work policies are universally beneficial for all companies and employees
• (B) The increase in productivity from remote work is solely due to employees’ ability to create personalized work environments
• (C) Companies that implement remote work policies may need to address potential feelings of isolation among employees to maintain team cohesion
• (D) Traditional in-office work arrangements are more effective in promoting team communication and collaboration than remote work

Question 100: Statement: The rise of independent bookstores in recent years has sparked a renewed interest in reading and community engagement, offering curated selections that reflect local tastes and values. These bookstores often host events, such as author readings and book clubs, creating spaces for meaningful conversations and connections among readers. However, some critics argue that the increasing popularity of online retailers poses a significant threat to the survival of these independent stores, potentially leading to a homogenisation of literary culture. Others believe that the unique experiences and personal touch offered by independent bookstores can sustain their relevance in a digital age
Conclusion:
I. Independent bookstores play a crucial role in fostering community and promoting local culture
II. The unique experiences provided by independent bookstores can help them thrive despite digital competition
III. Online retailers will inevitably lead to the decline of independent bookstores
Which conclusion necessarily follows?

• (A) Only I follows
• (B) Only II follows
• (C) Both I and II follows
• (D) Both I and III follows

Question 101: Statement: The rise of global tourism has significantly impacted local economies by providing job opportunities and boosting income for many communities. However, it has also led to challenges such as environmental degradation and cultural dilution, as traditional practices and lifestyles are altered to cater to tourists. As a result, many experts advocate for sustainable tourism practices that balance economic benefits with the preservation of local culture and the environment
Conclusion:
I. All communities benefit equally from the economic opportunities presented by global tourism
II. Sustainable tourism practices are essential to minimize the negative impacts of tourism on local cultures and environments
III. The rise of tourism has no significant negative effects on local communities
Which conclusion necessarily follows?

• (A) Only I follows
• (B) Only II follows
• (C) Both I and II follows
• (D) Both I and III follows

Question 102: BCXHADBT is written as 23681422 in a certain code. How is KTLVPTBA written in that code?

• (A) 22347221
• (B) 68563427
• (C) 22893221
• (D) 92675221

Question 103: Complete the following series: B, DEF, HIJKLMN, ?

• (A) PQRSTUVWXYZABCDEF
• (B) PQRSTUVWXYZAB
• (C) QRSTUVWXYZABC
• (D) PQRSTUVWXYZABCD

Question 104: Complete the following series: X2A, V6C, T12E, R20G, ?

• (A) O42H
• (B) P30I
• (C) P24J
• (D) P40I

Question 105: Complete the following series: A3B, C5E, G9H, M15K, ?

• (A) Q21N
• (B) P23N
• (C) U23N
• (D) U19L

Question 106: Complete the following series: 2A, 4C, 8F, 16J, ?

• (A) 32O
• (B) 30N
• (C) 30P
• (D) 32P

Question 107: Complete the following series: 1A, 2B, 4D, 8H, ?

• (A) 10H
• (B) 16P
• (C) 16I
• (D) 14K

Question 108: Complete the following series: Z2, X5, U10, Q17, ?

• (A) L26
• (B) M25
• (C) L25
• (D) N23

Question 109: Complete the following series: 9, 19, 39, 79, ?

• (A) 149
• (B) 159
• (C) 169
• (D) 153

Question 110: All buildings constructed with EarthTech materials are energy efficient. Buildings that are energy efficient qualify for government tax rebates. None of the buildings constructed by Cloudline Developers are energy efficient. What necessarily follows if the above is true?

• (A) Some buildings constructed by Cloudline Developers may qualify for government tax rebates
• (B) All buildings that qualify for government tax rebates use EarthTech materials
• (C) None of the buildings constructed by Cloudline Developers use EarthTech materials
• (D) Some buildings constructed with EarthTech materials do not qualify for government tax rebates

Question 111: In recent years, research in nutrition and health has highlighted the importance of dietary habits in influencing physical well-being and preventing long-term diseases. Studies indicate that a balanced diet rich in fruits, vegetables, whole grains, and lean proteins is associated with lower rates of obesity, diabetes, and heart disease. Moreover, food choices are often shaped by factors such as socioeconomic status, availability of healthy food options, and cultural preferences, suggesting that environmental influences play a critical role in dietary habits. If the paragraph above is true, which of the following statements is most contradicted by the paragraph?

• (A) Cultural influences can significantly impact the types of foods that people choose to eat
• (B) Genetic predispositions play a significant role in determining an individual’s dietary preferences
• (C) Individuals from lower socioeconomic backgrounds may have limited access to healthy food options
• (D) Regular consumption of processed foods can lead to negative health outcomes

Question 112: The field of psychology has increasingly recognized the role of emotional intelligence (EI) in personal and professional success. Research indicates that individuals with high EI are better equipped to manage stress, communicate effectively, and resolve conflicts. Furthermore, EI has been linked to improved leadership qualities and team dynamics. While cognitive intelligence (IQ) remains important, many experts argue that EI may be a better predictor of success in the workplace. However, the measurement of emotional intelligence can be subjective and varies across different cultural contexts. Which of the following statements is the most inconsistent with the information provided in the paragraph above?

• (A) The influence of cognitive intelligence is diminishing in workplace success assessments
• (B) High emotional intelligence enhances skills in managing stress and resolving conflicts
• (C) Many experts believe emotional intelligence surpasses cognitive intelligence as a success predictor
• (D) The evaluation of emotional intelligence may vary significantly across different cultural environments

Question 113: Many students find that their study habits significantly impact their academic performance. Those who establish a consistent study schedule often report better retention of information and higher grades. Additionally, the use of active learning techniques, such as summarizing material and teaching concepts to peers, enhances understanding. However, some students struggle to find the right balance between studying and leisure activities, which can lead to stress and decreased productivity. Based on the paragraph, which of the following statements would most reasonably complete the sentence below?
The variation in student performance suggests that

• (A) Some students prioritize leisure over studying, which negatively affects their grades
• (B) Consistent study routines are not always sufficient to guarantee academic success
• (C) Active learning techniques are universally effective for all students
• (D) A lack of balance between studying and leisure can create unnecessary stress for students

Question 114: Effective teamwork is crucial for project success in any organization. Research indicates that diverse teams, which include members with different backgrounds and skill sets, often produce more innovative solutions than homogeneous teams. However, team dynamics can be affected by conflict if not managed properly. Studies show that teams with effective conflict resolution strategies tend to achieve their goals faster and with higher satisfaction levels among team members. In organizations, it is essential to implement training programs that teach conflict resolution techniques to enhance team performance. Which of the following can be inferred from the above passage?

• (A) Organizations should avoid forming diverse teams to reduce conflict
• (B) Homogeneous teams are always more effective than diverse teams
• (C) Conflict within teams is always detrimental to project outcomes
• (D) Training programs on conflict resolution can improve team dynamics

Question 115: All mobile phones with advanced camera features are popular among social media influencers. Mobile phones that are popular among social media influencers often have high storage capacity. None of the mobile phones manufactured by Brand B have advanced camera features. Which of the following necessarily follows if the above is true?

• (A) Some buildings constructed by Cloudline Developers may qualify for government tax rebates
• (B) All buildings that qualify for government tax rebates use EarthTech materials
• (C) None of the mobile phones manufactured by Cloudline Developers are popular among social media influencers
• (D) All mobile phones with high storage capacity also have advanced camera features

Question 116: The study of ancient civilisations reveals much about human history and cultural development. Archaeological findings indicate that societies that engaged in trade and cultural exchange often experienced advancements in art, architecture, and technology. For instance, the exchange of ideas and goods between the Egyptians and Mesopotamians led to significant innovations in farming and engineering. However, some civilisations that isolated themselves from others faced stagnation in cultural and technological progress. Which of the following can be inferred from the above passage?

• (A) Isolation leads to greater cultural advancements than interaction with others
• (B) All ancient civilisations experienced the same level of development regardless of their interactions
• (C) Trade and cultural exchange can be key drivers of societal progress
• (D) Art and architecture have no relationship to the progress of technology in ancient societies

Question 117: The exploration of space has captivated humanity for decades, sparking advancements in various scientific fields. Astronomers have discovered numerous celestial bodies, expanding our understanding of the universe and our place within it. Additionally, space missions have led to significant developments in technology, such as satellite communications and materials science. While the costs of space exploration can be high, the potential benefits, including inspiring future generations and fostering international collaboration, are profound. Which of the following can be inferred from the above passage?

• (A) The financial costs of space exploration can sometimes outweigh its benefits
• (B) Space exploration primarily serves scientific communities more than the society in general
• (C) Technological advancements resulting from space missions are limited to astronomy
• (D) The potential benefits of space exploration include inspiring future generations and promoting global cooperation

Question 118: Art has long served as a powerful means of expression and communication. Throughout history, artists have utilised various mediums—such as painting, sculpture, and music—to convey their thoughts, emotions, and critiques of society. Many art movements have emerged in response to cultural and political changes, highlighting the dynamic relationship between art and the world around it. Additionally, exposure to diverse forms of art can enhance creativity and foster empathy among individuals, making it a vital aspect of human experience. Which of the following can be inferred from the above passage?

• (A) Art only serves to reflect societal norms and values
• (B) Exposure to diverse art forms can enhance creativity and promote empathy
• (C) Engaging with different art forms has limited impact on individual creativity
• (D) The relationship between art and societal changes is static and unchanging

Question 119: Select the correct option:
If Tree : forest then

• (A) Bee : honey
• (B) Star : galaxy
• (C) Door : cabinet
• (D) Book : knowledge

Question 120: Select the correct option:
If Lotus : water then

• (A) Toe : feet
• (B) Tea : beverage
• (C) Grasshopper : insect
• (D) Lice : hair

Question 121: Select the correct option:
If Cheese : milk then

• (A) Omelette : eggs
• (B) Coffee : sugar
• (C) Bread : rice
• (D) Rice : farm

Question 122: Select the correct option:
If Cement : buildings then

• (A) Wood : fire
• (B) Clay : pots
• (C) Gas : food
• (D) Soil : crops

Question 123: Select the correct option:
If Photographer : camera then

• (A) Carpenter : sofa
• (B) Chef : food
• (C) Painter : brush
• (D) Doctor : hospital

Question 124: Select the correct option:
If Familiar : strange then

• (A) Warm : hot
• (B) Careful : careless
• (C) Sturdy : muscular
• (D) Intelligent : emotional

Question 125: A company, GreenFuel, argues that its new biofuel product is entirely eco-friendly because it is made from renewable resources. GreenFuel claims that since the product is derived from organic matter, it has zero negative impact on the environment
Which of the following, if true, most weaken GreenFuel’s argument above?

• (A) The process of producing the biofuel emits significant greenhouse gases due to the energy required for extraction and processing
• (B) Although the biofuel is renewable, its widespread cultivation leads to deforestation and the destruction of natural habitats
• (C) Production of biofuel is significantly more costly than extraction of fuel from non-renewable sources
• (D) Both (A) and (B) above

Question 126: Advocates for early coding education argue that teaching programming skills to children from a young age will enhance their problem-solving abilities and prepare them for a technology-driven future. Therefore, coding should be introduced as a mandatory subject in elementary schools
Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the argument above?

• (A) Coding languages evolve slowly, and therefore what is taught today is likely to remain relevant in future as well
• (B) Many successful programmers learned coding only in their adulthood and excelled without early exposure
• (C) Children are fast learners and likely understand coding languages easily
• (D) Early exposure to problem-solving techniques enhances cognitive development in children

Question 127: Recent research indicates that excessive consumption of processed foods is linked to an increased risk of obesity. A five-year study tracked two groups: one that regularly consumed processed foods and another that followed a whole-foods-based diet. The study found that the processed-food group had a 25% higher rate of obesity by the end of the study. Therefore, the study concluded that processed food consumption directly causes obesity
Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the argument above?

• (A) Some participants in the whole-foods group occasionally consumed small amounts of processed foods
• (B) Both groups were matched for physical activity levels, age, and overall caloric intake during the study period
• (C) Other studies have shown that regular exercise reduces the risk of obesity, regardless of diet
• (D) Processed foods are often high in sugars and unhealthy fats, which contribute to weight gain

Question 128: Prakash has been working as a software engineer at Company A for 10 years. Recently, he discovered that a new hire, who has less experience and fewer qualifications, is being paid more than him. Prakash approached his manager with this concern and was told that the new hire’s pay is based on market demand for talent in that particular programming language. Prakash believes he is being treated unfairly based on his seniority and qualifications
Which of the following, if true, most strengthens Prakash’s claim of unfair treatment?

• (A) The new hire was offered a higher salary to meet the industry standard for that particular programming language
• (B) Prakash has consistently taken on high-responsibility projects and delivered strong results throughout his tenure at Company A
• (C) Prakash and the new hire obtained their basic and advanced degrees from the same institution
• (D) Both (A) and (B) above

Question 129: Sarab and her brother Sateesh have been sharing household chores for several years. Recently, Sarab noticed that Sateesh consistently gets lighter tasks, such as taking out the trash, while she is assigned more time-consuming duties, like cooking and cleaning the entire house. When Sarab brought this up to their parents, they explained that Sateesh is assigned tasks based on his school workload and extracurricular activities, which are more demanding than Sarab’s. Sarab believes she is being treated unfairly and that the division of chores is biased
Which of the following, if true, most strengthens Sarab’s claim of unfair treatment?

• (A) Sarab is involved in several extracurricular activities and has an equally demanding schedule as Sateesh
• (B) Sateesh volunteered to help Sarab with her chores on several occasions but has rarely been assigned the more time-consuming tasks himself
• (C) Sateesh voluntarily took on additional extracurricular activities, which were not mandatory part of the school work
• (D) Sarab’s parents often help her in completion of household chores

Question 130: An enterprise has the responsibility to ensure the safety of its products before selling them to the public. While no product can be entirely risk-free, if an enterprise knows that a product has significant defects that could harm consumers, it is their duty to either fix those defects or provide clear warnings. Unfortunately, some enterprises prioritize profits over safety and release products that may pose serious risks to the public
Which of the statements below is most consistent with the paragraph above?

• (A) Consumers are solely responsible for assessing the risks of the products they buy
• (B) It is acceptable for enterprises to release potentially harmful products if the risk of harm is low
• (C) Enterprises should always prioritize consumer safety over profit, even if it affects their financial performance
• (D) Enterprises have no obligation to warn consumers about every possible risk, only significant defects

Question 131: A wildfire has broken out in a large national park, spreading quickly due to dry conditions and strong winds. The forest officers only have a limited amount of firefighting resources, including helicopters, water trucks, and personnel. They must decide where to allocate these resources to save as much of the park as possible. To maximize their efforts, they prioritise the areas of the park that are home to endangered species and ecosystems that would be the hardest to recover if destroyed by the fire
Which of the following most mirrors the principle in the passage above?
I. A university offers a limited number of scholarships each year. To ensure the best use of its funds, it prioritizes applicants from underprivileged backgrounds and those with academic potential, believing this will have the most significant long-term impact on the community
II. A charitable foundation receives an influx of donations for disaster relief. In distributing the funds, it focuses on the hardest-hit communities where homes were completely destroyed, providing them with emergency shelter and rebuilding services before addressing other needs
III. A large grocery store faces a major food supply shortage due to transportation issues. To minimize the impact on customers, the store decides to limit the sale of high-demand items like milk, bread, and meat, allowing each shopper to purchase only a small amount to ensure everyone can get basic supplies
Select the correct option:

• (A) Only I
• (B) Only II
• (C) Both I and II
• (D) Both I and III

Question 132: Where public safety or the protection of human life is at stake, it is justified to limit personal freedoms and privacy in order to ensure the well-being of the broader public
Based on the above principle, which of the following actions would be justified?

• (A) Pinto, a public health official, enforced a temporary closure of all schools during a severe flu outbreak to prevent the spread of the virus among students, despite protests from parents
• (B) Laila, a private company CEO, ordered the installation of surveillance cameras inside employee restrooms to prevent theft in the workplace, arguing it would protect company assets
• (C) Sanju, a police officer, initiated random searches of people’s homes without a warrant, arguing that it was necessary to prevent potential burglaries in the neighbourhood
• (D) Sarita, a local politician, proposed limiting internet access in her town to prevent residents from accessing certain websites, claiming it would improve public morality and safety

Question 133: The rapid advancement of technology has significantly changed the way people interact with one another. While technology facilitates communication and connects people across distances, it can also lead to feelings of isolation and disconnection in face-to-face relationships. Many individuals find that they are more comfortable sharing their thoughts and feelings online rather than in person, which can diminish the quality of their real-world interactions
Based on the above passage, which conclusion necessarily follows?

• (A) Technology has completely replaced the need for in-person communication
• (B) People prefer online interactions over face-to-face conversations
• (C) While technology can enhance connections, it may also hinder personal relationships
• (D) All of the above

Question 134: Principle: The impact of leadership styles on historical events can shape the course of nations and influence the outcomes of conflicts
Facts: During the late 20th century, two prominent leaders emerged during a territorial dispute: X advocated for peaceful negotiations and diplomacy, while Y supported aggressive military action to assert dominance. After a series of failed internal talks, Y’s approach led to a major conflict, resulting in significant casualties and territorial loss for both sides. In contrast, X’s proposed solution, although initially rejected, eventually gained support and led to de-escalation of the conflict
Based on the above, which of the following statements is most accurate?

• (A) Y’s aggressive strategy ultimately resulted in a favourable outcome for his side
• (B) X’s diplomatic approach was ineffective since it did not prevent the conflict from escalating
• (C) The historical context suggests that both X and Y acted correctly based on the circumstances they faced
• (D) The eventual support for X’s solution highlights the importance of diplomacy in conflict resolution

Question 135: Principle: A property owner is responsible for maintaining the safety of their premises and is liable for any injuries that occur due to hazardous conditions in the premises, unless the injured party was trespassing
Facts: Tara owns a retail store, and a heavy rainstorm caused a leak in the ceiling of the store. Tara was aware of the leak but did not have time to fix it before customers arrived the next morning. She placed a sign warning customers of the wet floor. However, Aman, who entered the store to browse, slipped on the wet floor and injured his leg. Aman did not see the warning sign
Based on the above, which of the following statements is most accurate?

• (A) Tara is liable for Aman’s injury since the wet floor was a hazardous condition
• (B) Tara is not liable because she placed a warning sign, informing customers of the hazard
• (C) Aman is not entitled to compensation because he failed to notice the sign
• (D) Tara is not liable since the injury occurred due to a natural event beyond her control

Question 136: Principle: A party to a contract is responsible for fulfilling their obligations under the agreement and is liable for damages if they fail to do so
Facts: Richa enters into a contract with a catering company, Big Bites, to provide catering services for her wedding reception. The contract specifies that Big Bites will provide food for 125 guests on a specific date. On the day of the event, Big Bites only delivers food for 75 guests due to road closure on account of VIP movement. Richa is forced to make last-minute alternate arrangements to feed the additional guests, incurring extra costs
Select the most appropriate option:

• (A) Richa can recover costs incurred to make alternate arrangements from Big Bites
• (B) Richa is not required to pay any amount to Big Bites since the contract was not fulfilled
• (C) Richa is entitled to recover damages since Big Bites failed to deliver the agreed-upon amount of food
• (D) There is insufficient information to decide

Question 137: Principle: A party who receives a benefit at the expense of another party is required to make restitution to prevent unjust enrichment
Facts: Anita hires a construction company, Best Builders, to renovate her swimming pool. The contract states that Best Builders will install new water purifiers for a total cost of INR 10,000. During the renovation, Best Builders installs high-end purifiers worth INR 15,000 instead of the standard ones specified in the contract. When the project is completed, Anita enjoys the upgraded purifiers but only pays the agreed-upon amount of INR 10,000
Select the most appropriate option:

• (A) Best Builders is entitled to receive the full value of the purifiers INR 15,000 since Anita is using the purifier
• (B) Anita can keep the purifiers and is entitled to a refund of INR 10,000, since the purifiers installed by Best Builders are not as agreed under the original contract
• (C) Anita can keep the purifiers without paying any additional amount since they were not part of the original contract
• (D) None of the above

Question 138: Principle: The opportunity cost of a decision is the value of the next best alternative that is forgone when a choice is made
Facts: Shyam is an aspiring artist who has a chance to exhibit his paintings at a local gallery for two months. He can either take this opportunity, which would allow him to showcase his work and potentially sell pieces for a total profit of INR 50,000, or he can accept a temporary job offer for the same duration of two months, that would earn him INR 30,000 in total. After careful consideration, Shyam decides to exhibit his paintings at the gallery
Which of the following statements is true regarding Shyam’s decision?

• (A) Shyam’s opportunity cost for choosing to exhibit his paintings is INR 50,000, as that was the profit he could have earned from the gallery
• (B) By choosing to exhibit his paintings, Shyam has no opportunity cost since he is pursuing his passion
• (C) Shyam’s decision to exhibit his paintings resulted in a net gain of INR 20,000 in opportunity cost
• (D) Shyam’s opportunity cost for choosing to exhibit his paintings is INR 30,000, as that was the amount he could have earned from the temporary job

Question 139: Principle: Confirmation bias is the tendency to search for, interpret, and remember information in a way that confirms one’s pre-existing beliefs
Facts: Mala is an avid believer in the benefits of a plant-based diet and often shares articles and studies that support her view on social media. When she comes across a scientific study that suggests a balanced omnivorous diet can also provide significant health benefits, she dismisses it without reading, focusing instead on the findings of studies that align with her beliefs
Which of the following statements is true regarding Mala’s behaviour?

• (A) Mala is exhibiting confirmation bias by ignoring evidence that contradicts her views
• (B) Mala is making a rational decision by focusing on information that supports her beliefs
• (C) Mala should only trust information that aligns with her beliefs to ensure consistency in her opinions
• (D) Mala’s behaviour is beneficial because it strengthens her knowledge of plant-based diets

Question 140: Principle: The Dunning-Kruger effect is a cognitive bias wherein individuals with low ability at a task overestimate their ability, while those with high ability may underestimate their competence
Facts: Tutu, a new employee at a tech company, recently completed a basic coding course. Feeling confident, she frequently shares her opinions about software development with her colleagues, often dismissing their suggestions as unnecessary. Meanwhile, Saba, a senior developer with years of experience, is careful about her own ideas and often second-guesses her suggestions during team meetings
Which of the following statements is true regarding Tutu and Saba’s behaviours?

• (A) Tutu alone is exhibiting Dunning-Kruger effect
• (B) Saba alone is exhibiting Dunning-Kruger effect
• (C) Both Tutu and Saba are demonstrating Dunning-Kruger effect
• (D) Neither Tutu nor Saba are demonstrating Dunning-Kruger effect

Question 141: Principle: Any person who publishes false statements that result in significant financial losses to a business shall be guilty of an offense
Facts: Jatin publishes a news article claiming that a popular restaurant has been serving unsafe food. Jatin sincerely believes this to be true. The restaurant suffers significant financial losses as a result. However, it is later revealed that the statements in Jatin’s article were false
Has Jatin committed an offence?

• (A) Yes, because he published false statements that caused financial losses, and his intention or knowledge is immaterial
• (B) No, because he was unaware of the consequences
• (C) Yes, if it can be proven that his false statements directly led to financial losses
• (D) There is insufficient information to decide

Question 142: Principle: A ban on cell phones in schools is necessary as it distracts students from their academics, it is unnecessary as in an emergency the school landlines can be used. A break from social media during the school day would remove the stress and help students build their concentration and enhance their learning
What is the assumption being made about cell phones?

• (A) That cell phones are harmful to students and their ability to focus and remain stress free
• (B) That cell phones can be replaced by landlines in an emergency
• (C) A break from cell phones is necessary to build concentration
• (D) Cell phones are necessary for learning

Question 143: Principle: Caroline Hoxby has produced a large body of research looking at college applications by low-income students. In “The Missing One-Offs,” she and Christopher Avery showed that students with high grades and low economic standing often refrain from applying to more prestigious schools, despite those schools’ better financial support
Which of the following can be properly inferred from the passage?

• (A) Low Income Students refrain from applying to prestigious schools, because they are underinformed or they are intimidated by the culture of prestigious colleges
• (B) Low Income Students refrain from applying to prestigious schools, because they are more influenced by peer pressure to conform to certain choices
• (C) Low Income Students refrain from applying to prestigious schools, because they are influenced by the public relations
• (D) Low Income Students refrain from applying to prestigious schools, because they are repelled by the culture of prestigious colleges

Question 144: Principle: University Academic Department is finalizing class schedules for the incoming batch. The subjects are Criminal Law, Property Law, Economics, Legal Methods, and English. The following considerations are kept in mind:
I. All subjects must be held once
II. Legal Methods and English cannot immediately precede or follow each other
III. Economics must immediately precede Property Law
IV. Economics must immediately follow English
V. Criminal Law cannot be the second or the last subject
Which of the following schedule is valid?

• (A) Legal Methods, Criminal Law, English, Economics, Property Law
• (B) Property Law, Economics, English, Criminal Law, Legal Methods
• (C) Economics, Property Law, Legal Methods, English, Criminal Law
• (D) Criminal Law, English, Economics, Property Law, Legal Methods

Question 145: Principle: Vinay is trying to decide the sequence in which to watch the following movies – Sholay (SH), RRR, Slumdog Millionaire (SM), PK, and Dangal (DL). The sequence must adhere to the following conditions:
I. SH and DL must not immediately precede or follow each other
II. RRR must go after SM
III. PK cannot be the first or the last movie
IV. DL must necessarily be one removed from SM
Which of the following is a valid sequence?

• (A) SH, RRR, PK, DL, SM
• (B) PK, DL, RRR, SM, SH
• (C) DL, SM, PK, RRR, SH
• (D) DL, PK, SM, RRR, SH

Question 146: Principle: Sanjana is attempting to create an exercise plan for a 5-day week. She has decided on the following exercises – A, X, B, Y, C, in accordance with the following conditions:
I. A and Y cannot be on the consecutive days
II. C must always be followed by B
III. B and A cannot be done on alternate days
IV. X cannot be done on the first day of the week
V. No exercise can be repeated in the week
Which of the following is a valid plan?

• (A) A, Y, B, C, X
• (B) Y, C, B, X, A
• (C) Y, C, B, A, X
• (D) X, C, B, A, Y

Question 147: Principle: All Rabbits are Sleepers. All Tortoise paints. Some Rabbits are Tortoise. Siri is a Rabbit. Examine the following statements:
I. Siri paints
II. Siri does not paint
III. Siri is a Sleeper
IV. Siri is not a Sleeper
V. Siri is a Tortoise
VI. Siri is not a Tortoise
Choose the most appropriate answer:

• (A) Only III
• (B) Only V
• (C) Only I, IV, VI
• (D) Only II, III, VI

Question 148: Principle: All Cherry are Pink. Some Pink are made into cake. All cake is eaten. Banana is Pink. Examine the following statements:
I. Banana is a Cherry
II. Banana is not a Cherry
III. Banana may be made into cake
IV. Banana will definitely be made into a cake
V. If Banana is Cherry, then it will be eaten
Choose the most appropriate answer:

• (A) Only III
• (B) Only II and III
• (C) Only IV and V
• (D) Only V

Question 149: Principle: Assertion: The rise of OTT platforms is challenging the traditional movie theatre business
Argument 1: OTT platforms and traditional movie theatres present completely different experiences and therefore are unlikely to affect each other
Argument 2: OTT platforms ensure instant availability of diverse content, which a traditional movie theatre cannot emulate
Choose the most appropriate answer:

• (A) Only Argument 1 is strong
• (B) Only Argument 2 is strong
• (C) Both Arguments are strong
• (D) Neither Argument is strong

Question 150: Issue: Is football the most popular sport in the world?
Argument 1: Yes, Football World Cup (FIFA) has over five times global viewership compared to Formula 1 Grand Prix (Car racing) or the Wimbledon Championships (Tennis)
Argument 2: Yes, Lionel Messi is the most followed footballer across social media platforms
Argument 3: No, the Cricket World Cup has been the most profitable sports event worldwide for the last three decades
Choose the most appropriate answer:

• (A) Only Argument 1 is strong
• (B) Only Argument 2 is strong
• (C) Only Argument 3 is strong
• (D) Both Arguments 1 and 3 are strong