AILET 2024 Ph.D. (Social Sciences) Question Paper with Answer Key Pdf is available for download. NLU Delhi has conducted AILET 2024 on December 10, 2023. The question paper comprises a total of 100 MCQs divided into two parts: Part 1 and Part 2. 50 questions were from Research Methodology and 50 from other subject area i.e; Political Science, Sociology, Economics, Criminology and English.
AILET 2024 Ph.D. (Social Sciences) Question Paper with Answer Key PDFs
In a research proposal regarding the effect of child-rearing practices on stress proneness of children in competing school projects, the hypothesis formulated is that “child-rearing practices do influence stress proneness.”
At the data-analysis stage, a null hypothesis is advanced to find out the tenability of research hypothesis. On the basis of the evidence available, the null hypothesis is rejected at 0.01 level of significance.
What decision may be warranted in respect of the research hypothesis?
(A) The research hypothesis will also be rejected.
(B) The research hypothesis will be accepted.
(C) Both the research hypothesis and the null hypothesis will be rejected.
(D) No decision can be taken in respect of the research hypothesis.
Which one among the following statements is correct in context to research?
I. Research refers to a series of systematic activity or activities undertaken to find out the solution to a problem.
II. It is a systematic, logical and unbiased process wherein verification of hypotheses, data analysis, interpretation and formation of principles can be done.
III. It is an intellectual inquiry or quest towards truth.
A researcher attempts to evaluate the impact of implementation of Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection) Act, 2015 on children’s perception towards crime in India. Which method would be appropriate for this?
Which of the following citations adheres to APA style of referencing?
(A) Wagemann, J. \& Weger, U. (2021). Perceiving the other self: An experimental first-person account of non-verbal social interaction. The American Journal of Psychology, 134(4), 441–461
(B) Encarnação, João, and Gonçalo Calado. 2018. “Effects of Recreational Diving on Early Colonization Stages of an Artificial Reef in North-East Atlantic.” Journal of Coastal Conservation 22, no. 6 (December): 1209–1216. https://www.jstor.org/stable/45380397
(C) Tremblay, Richer, Lachance, \& Cote, 2010
(D) Jabro JD. Predicting saturated hydraulic conductivity from percolation test results in layered silt loam soils. J Environ Health. 2009;72(5):22–27.
What is the maximum punishment prescribed for violating UGC guidelines on plagiarism?
(A) Withdraw manuscript submitted for publication and shall not be allowed to publish any work for a minimum period of three years and in case of faculty, shall be denied a right to two successive annual increments and shall not be allowed to be a supervisor to any UG, PG, Master’s, M.Phil., Ph.D. student/scholar for a period of three years.
(B) Withdraw manuscript submitted for publication and shall not be allowed to publish any work for a minimum period of three years and in case of faculty, shall be denied a right to two successive annual increments and shall not be allowed to be a supervisor to any UG, PG, Master’s, M.Phil., Ph.D. student/scholar for a period of six years.
(C) Withdraw manuscript submitted for publication and shall not be allowed to publish any work for a minimum period of one year.
(D) Withdraw manuscript submitted for publication and shall not be allowed to publish any work for a minimum period of five years.
Which of the following is not true with regard to John Rawls's theory of Justice?
I. Justice is the first virtue of a good society and the only sufficient condition of a good society.
II. Primary goods include rights and liberties, powers and opportunities, income and wealth, means of self-respect etc.
III. His theory is substantive theory of justice.
IV. He supported utilitarianism in constructing his theory of justice.
Consider the following statements about the English School in International Relations:
1. Sovereign states form an anarchic society in which they do not have to submit to the will of a higher power.
2. There is a surprisingly high level of order and a surprisingly low level of violence between states.
3. International political system is more civil and orderly than realists and neo-realists suggest.
4. They are at odds with Utopians who believe in the possibility of perpetual peace.
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): India has not signed the Treaty on the Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons (TPNW).
Reason (R): India stands for comprehensive nuclear disarmament mechanism through the Conference on Disarmament.
In the context of the above two statements, which of the following is correct?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Consider the following statements regarding Susan Strange's book 'Retreat of the State':
I. It fundamentally challenged the Westphalian understanding of state sovereignty as an unimpeachable constant in international relations.
II. Big businesses, drug barons and accountants do not encroach on the sovereignty of the state.
III. Power of the state is diminishing in an increasingly interconnected and globalised world.
IV. State has been able to keep the non-state actors in check and thus its sovereignty remains unchallenged.
Which of the above-mentioned statements is/are true?
Which of the following are three pillars of soft power according to Joseph Nye?
I. Culture
II. Political Values
III. Foreign Policy
IV. Diaspora
Choose the correct option from below:
Who gave the idea of McDonaldization of society and what does it imply?
(a) According to Max Weber, it refers to the increase in the number of McDonald’s restaurants due to changes in the capitalist ideas in society.
(b) According to George Simmel, it refers to the process of increasing modern culture of fast-food consumption in our contemporary society.
(c) According to George Ritzer, it refers to the process of moving from traditional to rational modes of thought, increase in McDonald’s restaurants, and includes the four elements of efficiency, calculability, predictability, and control.
(d) According to Karl Marx, an increase in capitalism will lead to the emergence of McDonaldization.
(A) It refers to the increasing amelioration of the conditions of poor women.
(B) It indicates that there is a trend of increasing inequality in living standards between men and women due to the widening gender gap and poverty.
(C) It refers to the growing trend of the feminist movement as it is increasingly being joined by economically marginalized women.
(D) It portrays the increasing demand for widening the scope of the contemporary feminist movement by including women from socially marginalized sections of society.
Karl Marx says “Christianity preaches cowardice, self-contempt, submissiveness and humbleness to the proletariat”. What does it imply about his understanding of religion in a capitalist society?
(A) Religion shaped the economic structure wherein the proletariat found themselves dominated.
(B) Religion shaped the economic structure because of which proletariat accepted the domination by the Bourgeoisie.
(C) Religion is an instrument used by only economically dominant to oppress the proletariat.
(D) Religion is an instrument used by the economically and politically dominant to oppress the proletariat.
In Economic Sociology, substantivism and formalism can be distinguished as:
(A) Formalism is based on inductive understanding and substantivism is based on experience.
(B) Formalism is based on a deductive mode of thinking and substantivism can be understood through one’s experiences.
(C) Formalism is based on embeddedness and substantive economy is based on the idea that economy can be understood through one’s social relationships.
(D) Formalism is a rational understanding of the economy of non-capitalist societies and a substantive understanding is the study of the embeddedness in people’s exchange relationships in a capitalist society.
The Critical theory or Frankfurt School’s idea of understanding the “culture industry” influenced postmodernism. What does this “culture industry” refer to?
(A) The culture industry is the cultivation of false psychological needs that can only be met and satisfied by the products of capitalism
(B) The process through which the culture has undergone increasing changes because of industrialization.
(C) The ways in which culture is increasingly becoming uniform across the world due to globalization
(D) The pluralistic nature of our modern culture in our society
In our Indian society, an increasing challenge to same-sex marriage reflects our society’s parameters for recognizing marriage as a valid social institution. These judgments, challenges and thought processes can be understood through which perspective?
“Gaslighting” has been the most used word among Americans in recent times with 35 states googling its meaning the most. Which theory will help us in understanding of “gaslighting” sociologically?
E.B. Tylor opined that in the early stages of human history, the son-in-law was obliged to certain restricted relations with his mother-in-law; This was because of which of the following reasons?
Who gave the idea of “liquid modernity” and how can it be understood?
(A) According to Baudrillard, the liberal nature of today’s modernity due to the process of modernization can be understood as liquid modernity
(B) According to Bauman, the idea of liquid modernity can be understood as the separation of power from politics resulting from the independence of capital
(C) According to Anthony Giddens, liquid modernity results from the process of globalization due to the mobile nature of cash flow
(D) According to Dahrendorf, the idea of liquid modernity can be understood as the fluid nature of modern ideas which are accommodative in nature
As per a report, if we include both central and state regulations, the number of Acts that apply to organizations and enterprises ranges from 1,536 Acts to about 69,233 compliances and about 6,000 filings. For labor alone, companies have to maintain 42 different registers, with another 5-6 for wages. There are other instances of duplication as well, e-commerce companies operating across India need to get GST (Goods and Services Tax) registrations in every state. According to Avantis, a small firm in India, with one factory and up to 500 employees, needs about 23 licenses, has to abide by over 750 compliances, and has to submit about 120 filings a year, while medium firms (up to 5,000 employees) have to grapple with over 5,500 compliances.
(A) The negative impact of bureaucratization in a capitalist society as theorized by Karl Marx
(B) An “iron cage” as postulated by Max Weber
(C) As the idiosyncratic nature of a democratic state as given by Stuart Hall
(D) Pluralism as conceptualized by C. Wright Mills
“Dominant caste” in India can be understood along the lines of the following characteristics:
(A) Sizeable amount of arable land, high place in local hierarchy, Western education, and highly revered because of their knowledge of religious scripture.
(B) Strength of numbers, high place in local hierarchy, jobs in the administration, political dominance, and urban sources of income.
(C) Economic and religious level of dominance alone.
(D) Numerical strength, economic power through ownership of land, Western education, political power, and jobs in the administration.
The Indian sociologist D.P. Mukherjee studied the Indian history through the following method:
(A) “Verstehen” method in analyzing the meanings Indians (those who experienced Colonialism) assigned to their experiences of Independence.
(B) “Dialectical analysis” to throw light on the interaction between tradition and modernity in understanding the contradictory forces that were unleashed during the colonial era.
(C) “Dialectical analysis” to understand how the independence movement resulted from the contradiction between the state’s attempt to induct more Indians into their administration and resistance from the public.
(D) “Verstehen” method to analyze the ideological underpinnings of the Britishers.
How can we understand “subaltern perspective” in third-world countries and who used it for the first time?
(A) The subaltern perspective was used to understand the circumstances of the marginalized group of people who suffer due to their inferior social and economic backgrounds. This perspective was used to study South Asian history by David Hardiman.
(B) The subaltern perspective was used to understand the circumstances of the economically marginalized group of people. This perspective was used by B.R. Ambedkar for the first time to study the circumstances of the economically downtrodden Dalit community.
(C) The subaltern perspective was used to understand the circumstances of the socially marginalized group of people. This was used for the first time by Sundarlal Bahuguna to study the socially marginalized women who suffered owing to deforestation.
(D) The subaltern perspective was used to understand the plight of the marginalized group of people who suffer due to their minority positions in society. This perspective was used for the first time by Partha Chatterjee to understand the minority community of West Bengal.
Which of the following is a theory that explains why countries specialize in producing and exporting goods and services in which they have a comparative advantage?
What is the difference between a hypothesis test and a confidence interval?
(A) A hypothesis test is used to determine whether a difference between two groups is statistically significant, while a confidence interval is used to estimate the population mean.
(B) A hypothesis test is used to determine whether a correlation between two variables is statistically significant, while a confidence interval is used to estimate the population proportion.
(C) A hypothesis test is used to determine whether a regression model is statistically significant, while a confidence interval is used to estimate the population variance.
(D) A hypothesis test is used to determine whether a model fits the data well, while a confidence interval is used to estimate the population standard deviation.
What is the difference between a Type I error and a Type II error?
(A) A Type I error is the error of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true, while a Type II error is the error of failing to reject the null hypothesis when it is false.
(B) A Type I error is the error of accepting the null hypothesis when it is false, while a Type II error is the error of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true.
(C) A Type I error is the error of overestimating the population mean, while a Type II error is the error of underestimating the population mean.
(D) A Type I error is the error of overestimating the population proportion, while a Type II error is the error of underestimating the population proportion.
What is the difference between a consumer surplus and a producer surplus?
(A) Consumer surplus is the difference between the maximum price a consumer is willing to pay for a good and the price they actually pay, while producer surplus is the difference between the minimum price a producer is willing to accept for a good and the price they actually receive.
(B) Consumer surplus is the difference between the average price a consumer pays for a good and the price they would be willing to pay for the last unit of the goods, while producer surplus is the difference between the average price a producer receives for a good and the price they would be willing to accept for the last unit of the goods.
(C) Consumer surplus is the difference between the total value a consumer receives from consuming a good and the total price they pay for the goods, while producer surplus is the difference between the total value a producer receives from producing a good and the total cost of producing the goods.
(D) Consumer surplus is the difference between the marginal benefit a consumer receives from consuming a good and the marginal cost of producing the goods, while producer surplus is the difference between the marginal revenue a producer receives from producing a good and the marginal cost of producing the goods.
What is the term for the process of assessing the mental state of a defendant at the time of the crime and their ability to understand and participate in legal proceedings?
What is the term for a false memory or belief, often created unintentionally, due to leading questions or suggestive techniques during an interview or interrogation?
For classical criminologists, crime is solved through:
(A) The arbitrary use of power, harsh punishment and control
(B) An effective and efficient use of a just and fair process, culminating in punishing the offender only as much as is necessary to pay for the crime they committed
(C) Ensuring that the intentions of the offender are central to deciding whether to convict and how much punishment to use
Which theorist saw deviance as a normal and necessary part of people living together in social groups and thought that a certain level of deviance is an indication of a healthy society?
What term is used to describe the process by which criminals rationalize or justify their illegal actions to themselves?
(A) Criminal intent
(B) Criminal profiling
(C) Criminal mindset
(D) Neutralization
Correct Answer: (D) Neutralization
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding Neutralization.
Neutralization is a concept from criminology that explains how individuals justify or rationalize their deviant or illegal behaviors. According to this theory, criminals often use various justifications to neutralize feelings of guilt, thereby allowing them to continue engaging in illegal activities. These justifications can include claims like "everyone does it" or "the victim deserved it."
Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) Criminal intent: Incorrect. Criminal intent refers to the intention behind committing a crime, but it is not about rationalizing or justifying illegal actions.
(B) Criminal profiling: Incorrect. Criminal profiling is a technique used to identify suspects based on behavioral patterns but does not refer to justifying illegal actions.
(C) Criminal mindset: Incorrect. While the criminal mindset refers to the way criminals think, it doesn't specifically refer to the rationalization or justification process.
(D) Neutralization: Correct. Neutralization refers to the process through which criminals justify their illegal actions to themselves and others.
Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (D) Neutralization, as it best describes the process criminals use to justify their illegal actions. Quick Tip: Neutralization theory is crucial in understanding criminal behavior because it shows that many criminals do not necessarily see themselves as wrongdoers, often rationalizing their actions to avoid guilt.
Question 242:
In Ramamurthy v. State of Karnataka, the Supreme Court of India has given direction for:
(A) Juvenile Justice Reforms
(B) Prison Reforms
(C) Judicial Reforms
(D) Police Reforms
Correct Answer: (D) Police Reforms
View Solution
Step 1: Case Overview.
The case of Ramamurthy v. State of Karnataka is significant because the Supreme Court of India issued directions aimed at improving police practices, especially with respect to the rights of the accused and the overall functioning of the police force. The Court recognized the need for comprehensive police reforms to ensure fairness, accountability, and transparency in law enforcement.
Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) Juvenile Justice Reforms: Incorrect. While juvenile justice reforms are a critical issue in Indian law, this case is not related to juvenile justice.
(B) Prison Reforms: Incorrect. Although prison reforms are crucial, this case does not directly address issues in the prison system.
(C) Judicial Reforms: Incorrect. Judicial reforms involve changes in the functioning of courts, but this case specifically deals with police reforms.
(D) Police Reforms: Correct. The Ramamurthy case focuses on the need for reforms in the police system, including accountability, handling of suspects, and procedural fairness.
Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (D) Police Reforms, as the Supreme Court directed specific actions aimed at improving police practices in the country. Quick Tip: The Ramamurthy case is a key example of the Indian judiciary's efforts to enhance police accountability and ensure that law enforcement agencies work in line with constitutional principles.
Question 243:
What does the “dark triad” refer to?
(A) Three common psychological disorders found in criminals including anxiety, mood, schizophrenia
(B) A group of famous criminal psychologists Robert D. Hare, David Canter, Stanton E. Samenow
(C) A cluster of personality traits including narcissism, Machiavellianism, and psychopathy
Justice Krishna Iyer in _______ observed that "corporal death is alien to fundamental rights".
(A) Rajendra Prasad v. State of UP
(B) Baachan Singh v. State of Punjab
(C) Mithu v. State of Punjab
(D) Machi Singh & others v. State of Punjab
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the context.
Justice Krishna Iyer’s statement, “corporal death is alien to fundamental rights”, refers to his concern about the death penalty and human rights in India.
Step 2: Analyzing the options.
- (A) Rajendra Prasad v. State of UP: Correct. This case involved Justice Krishna Iyer's observation on the unconstitutionality of the death penalty in the context of fundamental rights.
- (B) Baachan Singh v. State of Punjab: This case dealt with the constitutionality of the death penalty but did not contain Justice Iyer's observation.
- (C) Mithu v. State of Punjab: Mithu case was related to the mandatory death penalty but not to Justice Krishna Iyer’s observation.
- (D) Machi Singh & others v. State of Punjab: Incorrect. This case involved the application of the death penalty but not the observation by Justice Iyer.
Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (A) Rajendra Prasad v. State of UP, where Justice Krishna Iyer observed that “corporal death is alien to fundamental rights”. Quick Tip: Justice Krishna Iyer's observation in Rajendra Prasad v. State of UP highlighted the constitutional issues surrounding the death penalty in India.
Step 1: Understanding the Crime Scene Investigation Process.
Crime scene investigation follows a systematic and methodical approach to ensure that all critical evidence is preserved and analyzed. The first step is to recognize the crime scene and identify what evidence may be relevant. Then, the scene is preserved to prevent contamination. After this, evidence is collected, followed by its interpretation. The final step involves reconstructing the crime based on the evidence gathered.
Step 2: Explanation of the Sequence.
Option (B) represents the correct sequence of actions in a crime scene investigation. Recognizing the scene, preserving it, collecting evidence, interpreting it, and finally reconstructing the events from the evidence is the standard investigative approach.
Step 3: Conclusion.
Thus, the correct answer is (B), as it reflects the proper sequence of steps in crime scene investigation. Quick Tip: In crime scene investigations, the sequence is crucial for ensuring that the integrity of the evidence is maintained throughout the process.
Question 251:
The literature called Anglo-Saxon belongs to which of the following tribes that invaded England?
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