AILET 2024 PHD Question Paper with Solution PDF

Step 1: Understand the classification of legal sources.

- Legislation (statutes and acts passed by a competent legislature) is a universally recognized primary source of law.
- Precedent (judicial decisions that establish legal principles) is also a primary source, especially in common law systems.
- Academic writings and textbooks are considered \emph{secondary sources as they interpret, critique, or explain the law but do not have binding authority.
- Common law refers to judge-made law developed through precedent and is a primary source in jurisdictions that follow it. Quick Tip: Primary sources of law include legislation, judicial precedents, and customary law. Secondary sources like academic commentary help interpret but do not create binding legal rules.

Step 1: Understand the nature of action research.

- Action research is a reflective process conducted by practitioners (often teachers) to improve their own practices.
- It involves systematic data collection and analysis to inform decision-making.
- However, its findings are typically context-specific and not intended for broad generalization.
- The primary goal is to enhance local practices, not to produce universally applicable theories. Quick Tip: Action research emphasizes local problem-solving and professional growth. Unlike traditional research, its findings are not meant to be generalized across populations.

Step 1: Understand the definition of a fact in research methodology.

- A fact is considered an observation that can be verified through empirical evidence.
- This definition aligns with the positivist approach to research, emphasizing objectivity and verifiability.
- The phrase “empirically verifiable observation” is attributed to Good and Hart, who emphasized the importance of observable and testable data in social research. Quick Tip: In research, facts must be observable and testable. Theories interpret facts, while values influence their application.

Step 1: Understand the role of ATLAS.ti in research.

- ATLAS.ti is a computer-assisted qualitative data analysis (QDA) software.
- It helps researchers organize, code, and analyze large volumes of textual, audio, video, and graphical data.
- It is widely used in social sciences, education, and health research for thematic analysis and grounded theory development. Quick Tip: Qualitative analysis software like ATLAS.ti enhances the rigor and efficiency of coding, pattern recognition, and theory building in non-numeric research.

Step 1: Evaluate each statement for ethical implications.

- Statement I: Critical review is a healthy academic practice and ethically sound.
- Statement II: Citing without proper references is unethical and violates academic integrity.
- Statement III: Using research findings for policy is acceptable, but if done without rigorous validation, it may be ethically questionable.
- Statement IV: Screening practitioner conduct based solely on reported research may lead to unfair judgments if the research is flawed or misapplied.
- Statement V: Replication is a core principle of scientific integrity and is ethically encouraged.
- Statement VI: Regulating policy based on preliminary studies may be risky, but not inherently unethical if done transparently. Quick Tip: Ethical research demands proper citation, validated application of findings, and fair use of evidence. Misuse or misrepresentation of research undermines credibility and trust.

Step 1: Understand the logic of hypothesis testing.

- The null hypothesis (\(H_0\)) typically states that there is no effect or no relationship.
- The research hypothesis (\(H_1\)) posits that there is an effect—in this case, that child-rearing practices influence stress proneness.
- Rejection of the null hypothesis at the 0.01 level of significance means the evidence is strong enough to support the research hypothesis.
- Therefore, the research hypothesis is accepted as tenable based on the data. Quick Tip: Rejecting the null hypothesis implies accepting the research hypothesis, provided the test is valid and significance level is appropriately set.

Step 1: Understand the nature of qualitative research. It is primarily exploratory and seeks to understand phenomena from the perspective of participants.

Step 2: Evaluate each option:

(a) Incorrect. Standardized tools are typical of quantitative research, not qualitative.
(b) Incorrect. Probability sampling is used in quantitative studies; qualitative research often uses purposive or theoretical sampling.
(c) Correct. Qualitative research builds theories from the ground up using bottom-up empirical evidence.
(d) Incorrect. Top-down schematic evidence aligns more with deductive, quantitative approaches.


Conclusion: Option (c) aligns with the inductive, exploratory nature of qualitative research. Quick Tip: Qualitative research emphasizes depth over breadth. It often uses open-ended inquiry, non-probability sampling, and inductive reasoning to build theory from observed data.

Step 1: Understand the types of plagiarism:

Patch Writing: Rephrasing someone else's work too closely without proper citation.
Indirect Plagiarism: Paraphrasing someone else's ideas without acknowledgment.
Direct Plagiarism: Copying text word-for-word without citation.
Untainted Plagiarism: Not a recognized type. The term is not used in academic integrity literature.


Conclusion: Option (b) is not a valid or recognized form of plagiarism. Quick Tip: Plagiarism includes both direct copying and subtle misuse of others' ideas. Always cite sources properly and avoid close paraphrasing without attribution.

Step 1: Understand the principles of participatory research. It is a collaborative approach that involves participants as co-researchers and emphasizes empowerment, social change, and contextual relevance.

Step 2: Evaluate each statement:

(a) True. Participatory research values knowledge as a tool for empowerment and transformation.
(b) True. It is inherently a collective and democratic process of inquiry.
(c) True. It recognizes participants as experts of their own experiences.
(d) False. While knowledge production is important, participatory research also aims at empowerment, capacity building, and social change.


Conclusion: Option (d) is false because participatory research is not solely about producing knowledge—it is also about transforming realities. Quick Tip: Participatory research blends inquiry with action. It values collaboration, local knowledge, and aims to empower communities through shared learning and change.

Step 1: In statistical hypothesis testing, we begin by assuming the null hypothesis \( H_0 \) is true.

Step 2: The testing procedure evaluates whether the observed data provides sufficient evidence to reject \( H_0 \) in favor of the alternative hypothesis \( H_1 \).

Step 3: The alternative hypothesis is not directly tested; rather, it is accepted only when \( H_0 \) is rejected.


(a) Incorrect. The alternative hypothesis is not directly tested.
(b) Correct. Hypothesis testing focuses on evaluating the validity of the null hypothesis.
(c) Incorrect. Only the null hypothesis is subjected to formal testing.
(d) Incorrect. The null hypothesis is always tested in statistical procedures.


Conclusion: Option (b) is true in the context of hypothesis testing. Quick Tip: In hypothesis testing, always start with the null hypothesis. Use statistical evidence to decide whether to reject it in favor of the alternative hypothesis.

Step 1: Understand the definition of longitudinal research. It is a research design that involves repeated observations of the same variables over extended periods of time.

Step 2: Evaluate each option:

(a) Correct. Longitudinal research tracks changes and developments over a long duration.
(b) Incorrect. Short-term studies are typically cross-sectional, not longitudinal.
(c) Incorrect. Horizontal research is not a recognized term in this context.
(d) Incorrect. Longitudinal research clearly deals with long-term data collection and analysis.


Conclusion: Option (a) is correct as longitudinal research focuses on long-term study and observation. Quick Tip: Longitudinal studies are ideal for examining trends, development, and causal relationships over time. They are commonly used in psychology, sociology, and health sciences.

Step 1: Understand the core characteristics of research. Research is:

Active and purposeful (not passive)
Systematic and methodical
Problem-oriented — it begins with a question or issue to explore
A process involving multiple steps: identifying a problem, reviewing literature, collecting data, analyzing, and concluding


Step 2: Evaluate each statement:

(a) True. Research involves active inquiry and engagement.
(b) True. Research follows a structured and logical sequence.
(c) False. Research is inherently problem-oriented; this statement contradicts a key feature.
(d) True. Research is indeed a process, not a one-time event.


Conclusion: Option (c) is the only statement that does not correspond to the characteristics of research. Quick Tip: Effective research starts with a clear problem or question, follows a systematic process, and aims to generate new insights or solutions.

Step 1: Interdisciplinary research integrates concepts, theories, and methods from multiple disciplines to address complex problems.

Step 2: Evaluate each option:

(a) Incorrect. The goal is not simplification but deeper understanding.
(b) Correct. It promotes a holistic approach by combining diverse perspectives.
(c) Incorrect. While it may influence methodology, creating trends is not its primary aim.
(d) Incorrect. It does not reduce emphasis but rather expands the scope across subjects.


Conclusion: Option (b) is correct as interdisciplinary research seeks to provide a comprehensive, integrated understanding of research problems. Quick Tip: Interdisciplinary research fosters innovation by bridging gaps between fields. It’s ideal for tackling multifaceted issues like climate change, public health, and education reform.

Step 1: The scientific method is a systematic approach to research that involves observation, hypothesis formulation, experimentation, and analysis.

Step 2: One of its key goals is to ensure that observed relationships between variables are genuine and not due to confounding or coincidental factors.


(a) Incorrect. While data interpretation is important, it is not the primary aim.
(b) Incorrect. Triangulation is more relevant in qualitative or mixed-methods research.
(c) Incorrect. Introducing new variables is not a goal but a possible outcome.
(d) Correct. The scientific method aims to eliminate spurious (false or misleading) relationships to ensure valid conclusions.


Conclusion: Option (d) best reflects the core aim of the scientific method in research. Quick Tip: The scientific method helps researchers isolate true causal relationships by controlling variables and using rigorous testing to eliminate bias and error.

Step 1: Evaluate each statement in the context of research:

I. True. Research involves systematic activities aimed at solving a problem.
II. True. It is a structured and unbiased process involving hypothesis testing and data analysis.
III. True. Research is a form of intellectual inquiry that seeks truth and understanding.
IV. True. Research contributes to the expansion of knowledge across disciplines.


Conclusion: All four statements accurately describe the nature and purpose of research. Quick Tip: Research is a multifaceted process that combines systematic inquiry, intellectual curiosity, and practical problem-solving to generate new knowledge and insights.

Step 1: A viable research problem must be:

Original and contribute to existing knowledge
Feasible to investigate with available resources
Relevant and useful to society or the academic community


Step 2: Evaluate each option:

(a) Viable. Novelty and contribution to knowledge are essential.
(b) Viable. Researchability is a core requirement.
(c) Viable. Utility and relevance ensure the problem matters.
(d) Not necessarily viable. Merely having variables does not guarantee the problem is meaningful, feasible, or relevant.


Conclusion: Option (d) is the condition that does not ensure viability of a research problem. Quick Tip: A viable research problem must be clear, researchable, relevant, and contribute to knowledge. Presence of variables alone does not make it viable.

Step 1: Data analysis serves multiple purposes in research, including:

Description: Summarizing and organizing data to understand patterns and distributions.
Construction of Measurement Scale: Developing reliable and valid tools for quantifying variables.
Generating Empirical Relationships: Identifying associations and correlations between variables.
Explanation and Prediction: Building models to explain phenomena and forecast future outcomes.


Step 2: All four listed purposes are valid and commonly recognized in both qualitative and quantitative research contexts.

Conclusion: Option (d) includes all correct purposes of data analysis. Quick Tip: Data analysis transforms raw data into meaningful insights. It supports description, measurement, relationship discovery, and predictive modeling.

Step 1: Cross-cultural studies aim to compare cultural contexts, behaviors, or phenomena across different societies or groups.

Step 2: Evaluate each option:

(a) Incorrect. Case studies focus on in-depth analysis of a single unit or context.
(b) Correct. Comparative studies analyze similarities and differences across cultures, which is the essence of cross-cultural research.
(c) Incorrect. Experimental studies involve controlled testing of hypotheses, not cultural comparison.
(d) Incorrect. Longitudinal studies track changes over time, not across cultures.


Conclusion: Cross-cultural studies are best classified as comparative studies. Quick Tip: Comparative research helps identify universal patterns and culture-specific traits by analyzing data across different populations or societies.

Step 1: Survey research typically involves collecting data at a single point in time from a large population, making it cross-sectional.

Step 2: Evaluate the implications:

External Validity: High — because surveys often use large, diverse samples, making findings generalizable.
Ecological Validity: Low — because surveys are conducted in artificial settings (e.g., questionnaires), not natural environments.
Internal Validity: Often lower — due to lack of control over variables and potential confounding factors.
Replicability and Reliability: Can be high if standardized instruments are used, but not guaranteed.


Conclusion: Option (d) is correct — survey research is high in external validity but low in ecological validity. Quick Tip: Cross-sectional surveys are great for generalizing findings, but they may not reflect real-world behavior due to their structured and artificial nature.

Step 1: The research objective is to assess children's perception, which involves gathering subjective data from a population.

Step 2: Evaluate each method:

(a) Incorrect. Comparative method is used to compare across groups or contexts, not ideal for perception-based impact studies.
(b) Correct. Survey method is suitable for collecting data on attitudes, opinions, and perceptions from a large group.
(c) Incorrect. Experimental method requires manipulation of variables, which is not feasible or ethical in this context.
(d) Incorrect. Case study method focuses on in-depth analysis of a few cases, not broad perception analysis.


Conclusion: Option (b) is appropriate for evaluating the impact of a policy on public perception. Quick Tip: Survey methods are ideal for gauging public opinion, especially when studying the social impact of laws or policies across diverse populations.

Step 1: Supplementary pages in a thesis typically include materials that support the main content but are not part of the core chapters.

Step 2: Evaluate each option:

(a) Incorrect. Table of contents is a preliminary page, not supplementary.
(b) Correct. Bibliography and appendices are supplementary materials that provide references and additional data.
(c) Incorrect. List of tables and figures is also part of preliminary pages.
(d) Incorrect. Conclusions are part of the main body of the thesis.


Conclusion: Option (b) correctly identifies components of the supplementary section in thesis formatting. Quick Tip: Supplementary pages enhance the thesis by providing references, raw data, and extended analysis that support the main chapters without interrupting the flow.

Step 1: Research follows a systematic and logical progression. The standard sequence includes:

Problem formulation
Drafting hypothesis
Developing research design
Data collection
Data analysis
Drawing conclusions


Step 2: Evaluate each option:

(a) Incorrect. Analysis should come after data collection, not before.
(b) Incorrect. Problem formulation must precede design and hypothesis.
(c) Incorrect. Sampling decisions are part of research design, which comes after hypothesis.
(d) Correct. This sequence aligns with the logical flow of research methodology.


Conclusion: Option (d) presents the correct and logical order of research steps. Quick Tip: A well-structured research process ensures clarity, validity, and reliability. Always begin with a clear problem and hypothesis before designing and executing your study.

Step 1: A thesis is a comprehensive academic document that presents original research in detail, including methodology, data, analysis, and conclusions.

Step 2: Evaluate each option:

(a) Incorrect. Symposiums and workshops focus on discussion and idea exchange, not detailed documentation.
(b) Incorrect. Seminar papers may include brief methodology, but not in-depth.
(c) Incorrect. Conference papers are concise and often summarize methods rather than elaborate on them.
(d) Correct. A thesis requires a full, detailed account of the research methodology to ensure transparency and reproducibility.


Conclusion: Option (d) is correct as a thesis demands a thorough explanation of the research methodology. Quick Tip: A well-written thesis includes a detailed methodology section to justify research design, tools, sampling, and data analysis techniques.

Step 1: Every research process begins with identifying and articulating a clear research question. This defines the scope, direction, and purpose of the study.

Step 2: Evaluate each option:

(a) Incorrect. Research design is developed after the research question is established.
(b) Incorrect. Sampling techniques are chosen based on the research design and objectives.
(c) Incorrect. Hypothesis formulation depends on the research question and literature review.
(d) Correct. Formulating a research question is the first and essential step in any research process.


Conclusion: Option (d) is correct as it represents the initial mandatory requirement for undertaking research. Quick Tip: A well-defined research question guides the entire study. It helps in selecting methods, designing tools, and interpreting results meaningfully.

Step 1: A null hypothesis (\( H_0 \)) is a statement that assumes no difference or no effect between groups or variables.

Step 2: The statement "Male and female students perform equally well..." asserts no difference in performance, which aligns with the definition of a null hypothesis.


(a) Incorrect. A research hypothesis usually suggests a relationship or difference.
(b) Incorrect. A directional hypothesis predicts the direction of difference (e.g., males perform better).
(c) Correct. The statement reflects equality, which is the essence of a null hypothesis.
(d) Incorrect. While null hypotheses are tested statistically, this statement itself is not a statistical formulation.


Conclusion: Option (c) is correct — the statement represents a null hypothesis. Quick Tip: Null hypotheses are central to statistical testing. They assume no effect or difference and are rejected only when evidence strongly supports an alternative.

Step 1: Designing a questionnaire begins with clearly defining the research objectives:

IV. Writing primary and secondary aims helps clarify what the questionnaire should measure.
III. Reviewing literature ensures the questionnaire aligns with existing research and avoids redundancy.
I. Drafting the questionnaire translates objectives into measurable items.
II. Reviewing the draft helps refine questions for clarity, relevance, and validity.


Conclusion: Option (d) presents the correct and logical sequence for designing a questionnaire. Quick Tip: A well-designed questionnaire starts with clear objectives, builds on existing knowledge, and is refined through careful review and pilot testing.

Step 1: A well-written thesis must meet multiple academic standards:

I. Grammar and punctuation errors must be minimized to ensure clarity and professionalism.
II. References must be cited accurately to maintain academic integrity.
III. Logical consistency ensures that arguments and structure flow coherently.
IV. A clear format improves readability and presentation.


Step 2: All four elements are essential and sequentially contribute to the quality of thesis writing.

Conclusion: Option (a) includes all necessary components for proper thesis writing. Quick Tip: Strong thesis writing combines clarity, consistency, proper citation, and error-free language. Each element reinforces the credibility and impact of your research.

Step 1: Research design refers to the overall strategy that integrates different components of the research process in a coherent and logical way.

Step 2: It includes the blueprint for:

Defining the research problem
Selecting methods (qualitative or quantitative)
Planning data collection and analysis
Ensuring validity and reliability


Step 3: Evaluate each option:

(a) Incorrect. Research design is grounded in theory and logic.
(b) Incorrect. Presentation style is not part of research design.
(c) Partially correct. Method selection is one component, not the full definition.
(d) Correct. It is a comprehensive framework guiding all stages of research.


Conclusion: Option (d) best defines research design. Quick Tip: A strong research design ensures clarity, consistency, and credibility in your study. It’s the backbone of effective research planning.

Step 1: Socio-legal research combines legal analysis with social science methods. A thorough literature review is essential to understand existing frameworks, gaps, and debates.

Step 2: Evaluate each option:

(a) Incorrect. Theory is foundational in socio-legal research; avoiding it weakens conceptual grounding.
(b) Incorrect. Pilot studies are useful but not the first step.
(c) Incorrect. An open mind is valuable but not a methodological requirement.
(d) Correct. Reviewing literature is a mandatory initial step to build context and refine research questions.


Conclusion: Option (d) is correct — literature review is the essential starting point in socio-legal research. Quick Tip: In socio-legal research, a strong literature review helps bridge legal theory with social realities, guiding both methodology and analysis.

Step 1: Fundamental research (also called basic or pure research) aims to expand theoretical understanding without immediate practical application.

Step 2: Applied research uses principles and findings from fundamental research to solve real-world problems.


(a) Incorrect. Action research is context-specific and participatory, not primarily based on fundamental theory.
(b) Correct. Applied research builds on fundamental research to address practical issues.
(c) Incorrect. Philosophical research is abstract and conceptual, not necessarily grounded in empirical fundamentals.
(d) Incorrect. Historical research focuses on past events and sources, not on applying fundamental research principles.


Conclusion: Option (b) is correct — applied research utilizes the principles of fundamental research. Quick Tip: Fundamental research lays the groundwork for innovation, while applied research translates theory into practice across fields like law, medicine, and engineering.

Step 1: Sampling error refers to the difference between the sample estimate and the true population parameter due to using a subset of the population.

Step 2: Evaluate each option:

(a) Incorrect. Smaller samples tend to increase sampling error.
(b) Partially correct. Randomization helps reduce bias, but not necessarily sampling error.
(c) Correct. Larger sample sizes reduce variability and improve representativeness, thereby decreasing sampling error.
(d) Incorrect. Analysis affects interpretation, not the magnitude of sampling error.


Conclusion: Option (c) is correct — increasing sample size is a direct method to reduce sampling error. Quick Tip: To minimize sampling error, aim for a larger and more representative sample. This enhances the reliability and generalizability of your findings.

Step 1: Legal research is broadly categorized into recognized types such as:

Doctrinal research: Focuses on legal principles, statutes, and case law.
Non-doctrinal research: Empirical and socio-legal, involving fieldwork and data collection.
Comparative research: Compares legal systems, doctrines, or case laws across jurisdictions.


Step 2: Evaluate each option:

(a) Valid. Doctrinal research is a core legal research method.
(b) Valid. Non-doctrinal research is widely used in socio-legal studies.
(c) Valid. Comparative legal research is a recognized approach.
(d) Invalid. "Situational based legal research" is not a formally recognized category in legal methodology.


Conclusion: Option (d) is not a standard type of legal research. Quick Tip: Legal research methods are grounded in doctrinal, empirical, and comparative frameworks. Always refer to established categories when designing your study.

Step 1: According to Section 8 of the UGC (Promotion of Academic Integrity and Prevention of Plagiarism in Higher Educational Institutions) Regulations, 2018, plagiarism is categorized into levels based on similarity percentage.

Step 2: The regulation specifies:

Level 0: Similarity up to 10% — Minor similarities, no penalty.
Level 1: Similarity above 10% to 40% — Subject to penalties.
Level 2: Similarity above 40% to 60% — Higher penalties.
Level 3: Similarity above 60% — Severe penalties.


Conclusion: Option (b) is correct — similarity up to 10% is not penalized under the UGC Regulation 2018. Quick Tip: Always aim for originality in academic writing. Even minor similarities should be properly cited to maintain integrity and avoid penalties.

Step 1: Research ethics are a set of principles that guide responsible conduct in research. They emphasize transparency, fairness, and accountability.

Step 2: Key ethical values include:

Honesty: Reporting data and findings truthfully.
Integrity: Maintaining consistency and moral uprightness in research conduct.
Objectivity: Avoiding bias in data collection, analysis, and interpretation.


Step 3: Evaluate the outlier:

(a) Included. Honesty is a core ethical principle.
(b) Included. Integrity is fundamental to ethical research.
(c) Not included. Subjectivity introduces personal bias, which ethical research seeks to minimize.
(d) Included. Objectivity ensures impartiality and fairness.


Conclusion: Option (c) is correct — subjectivity is not part of research ethics. Quick Tip: Ethical research demands objectivity and transparency. Subjective bias can compromise the validity and credibility of findings.

Step 1: Controlled group conditions are used to isolate the effect of a variable by comparing outcomes between a treatment group and a control group.

Step 2: Evaluate each option:

(a) Incorrect. Survey research collects data from respondents but does not involve controlled conditions.
(b) Correct. Experimental research uses control and experimental groups to test hypotheses under controlled settings.
(c) Incorrect. Historical research analyzes past events and documents, not experimental setups.
(d) Incorrect. Descriptive research observes and describes phenomena without manipulating variables or using control groups.


Conclusion: Option (b) is correct — controlled group conditions are a hallmark of experimental research. Quick Tip: Experimental research is ideal for testing causal relationships. Control groups help ensure that observed effects are due to the independent variable.

Step 1: A hypothesis is a tentative assumption or proposition made for the sake of argument or investigation.

Step 2: Evaluate each option:

(a) Incorrect. A law is a well-established, proven principle.
(b) Incorrect. "Cannon" is not a relevant term in research methodology.
(c) Correct. A hypothesis is a supposition made on the basis of limited evidence, subject to testing.
(d) Incorrect. A postulate is assumed to be true without proof, often used in mathematics or logic.


Conclusion: Option (c) is correct — a hypothesis is a supposition that guides research inquiry. Quick Tip: A hypothesis sets the foundation for empirical testing. It’s a reasoned guess that researchers aim to confirm or refute through data.

Step 1: Scientific research is defined by a set of core principles that ensure reliability, reproducibility, and objectivity.

Step 2: Evaluate each feature:

Predictability: Scientific methods aim to predict outcomes based on hypotheses and models.
Objectivity: Research must be free from personal bias and based on observable phenomena.
Verifiability: Results must be testable and replicable by others.
Systematic: Research follows a structured and organized approach.


Conclusion: Option (d) is correct — all four features are essential to scientific research methodology. Quick Tip: Scientific research thrives on clarity and rigor. Predictability, objectivity, verifiability, and systematic planning ensure trustworthy and impactful results.

Step 1: Ethical research must protect participants' rights, especially their privacy and confidentiality.

Step 2: Evaluate each option:

(a) Incorrect. While biased research is discouraged, aiming to prove a point is not inherently unethical if done transparently.
(b) Incorrect. Low-quality research may be academically weak but not necessarily unethical.
(c) Correct. Failing to ensure privacy and anonymity violates ethical standards and participant trust.
(d) Incorrect. Poor data investigation affects validity but is a methodological flaw, not an ethical breach.


Conclusion: Option (c) is correct — protecting respondent privacy is a core ethical requirement. Quick Tip: Always obtain informed consent and safeguard participant data. Ethical lapses in privacy can invalidate research and harm credibility.

Step 1: Logical reasoning involves drawing conclusions based on evidence or patterns. Two primary methods are induction and deduction.

Step 2: Inductive reasoning moves from specific observations to general conclusions — a foundational method in scientific and legal research.


(a) Correct. Induction is a method of logical reasoning based on pattern recognition and generalization.
(b) Incorrect. Ex-post facto refers to a research design, not a reasoning method.
(c) Incorrect. Descriptive refers to a research type, not a logical reasoning process.
(d) Incorrect. Experiment is a research method, not a reasoning process.


Conclusion: Option (a) is correct — induction is a recognized method of logical reasoning. Quick Tip: Inductive reasoning helps build theories from observations. It's widely used in exploratory research and legal analysis.

Step 1: In heterogeneous populations, individuals differ significantly in characteristics relevant to the study.

Step 2: Stratified sampling divides the population into homogeneous subgroups (strata) based on shared traits, ensuring representation from each group.


(a) Incorrect. Cluster sampling is used for geographically dispersed populations, not necessarily heterogeneous ones.
(b) Correct. Stratified sampling ensures that each subgroup within a diverse population is adequately represented.
(c) Incorrect. Convenience sampling lacks scientific rigor and may introduce bias.
(d) Incorrect. Lottery method is a form of simple random sampling, which may not capture subgroup diversity.


Conclusion: Option (b) is correct — stratified sampling is ideal for heterogeneous populations. Quick Tip: Stratified sampling enhances precision and representativeness by ensuring all key subgroups are included in the sample.

Step 1: Primary data is collected firsthand by the researcher for a specific purpose. Secondary data refers to information already collected and made available by others.

Step 2: Existing company information — such as annual reports, financial statements, or published records — is precompiled and publicly accessible.


(a) Incorrect. Primary data would require direct collection through surveys, interviews, or experiments.
(b) Correct. Existing company information is secondary data since it was collected previously for other purposes.
(c) Incorrect. It cannot be both unless the researcher is also the original source.
(d) Incorrect. Tertiary data refers to summaries or indexes of secondary sources, such as encyclopedias.


Conclusion: Option (b) is correct — existing company information is secondary data. Quick Tip: Always verify the source and relevance of secondary data before using it in research. It saves time but may require validation.

Step 1: After formulating a hypothesis, the next logical step is to gather empirical evidence to test it.

Step 2: Evaluate each option:

(a) Incorrect. Objectives are defined before hypothesis formulation.
(b) Incorrect. Data analysis occurs after data collection.
(c) Incorrect. Tool selection is part of research design, typically done before hypothesis formulation.
(d) Correct. Once the hypothesis is set, data must be collected to validate or refute it.


Conclusion: Option (d) is correct — data collection follows hypothesis formulation in the research process. Quick Tip: A hypothesis guides what data to collect. Without data, a hypothesis remains untested and speculative.

Step 1: APA style (7th edition) requires:

Author(s) last name, initials
Year in parentheses
Title in sentence case (not in quotation marks)
Journal name in italics, volume in italics, issue in parentheses, page range


Step 2: Evaluate each option:

(a) Correct. Follows APA format precisely.
(b) Incorrect. Uses Chicago-style formatting with full names and quotation marks.
(c) Incorrect. Incomplete citation — missing journal, title, and formatting.
(d) Incorrect. Uses AMA-style formatting, not APA.


Conclusion: Option (a) adheres to APA style referencing. Quick Tip: APA style emphasizes clarity and consistency. Always use initials for authors, sentence case for titles, and italicize journal names and volume numbers.

Step 1: According to the UGC (Promotion of Academic Integrity and Prevention of Plagiarism in Higher Educational Institutions) Regulations, 2018, plagiarism is categorized into four levels.

Step 2: For Level 3 plagiarism (similarity above 60%), the maximum penalties include:

Withdrawal of the manuscript.
Ban on publishing any work for a minimum of three years.
For faculty: denial of two successive annual increments.
Prohibition from supervising any UG, PG, Master's, M.Phil., or Ph.D. student for three years.


Conclusion: Option (a) accurately reflects the maximum punishment prescribed under the UGC guidelines. Quick Tip: Always use plagiarism detection tools and cite sources properly. UGC penalties are severe and can impact academic careers significantly.

Step 1: Referencing styles are standardized formats used to cite sources in academic writing. Common styles include APA, Chicago, Harvard, MLA, and IEEE.

Step 2: Evaluate each option:

(a) Valid. APA is widely used in social sciences.
(b) Valid. Chicago style is common in humanities and history.
(c) Valid. Harvard style is frequently used in academic and scientific writing.
(d) Invalid. "Antwerp style" is not a recognized referencing format.


Conclusion: Option (d) is correct — Antwerp style is not a known referencing style. Quick Tip: Choose your referencing style based on your discipline. APA for psychology, Chicago for history, Harvard for general academic writing.

Step 1: Research methodology authors are recognized for their contributions to designing, conducting, and analyzing research.

Step 2: Evaluate each option:

(a) Valid. John W. Creswell is a leading scholar in qualitative, quantitative, and mixed methods research.
(b) Not primarily known for methodology. Booth, Colomb, and Williams are known for academic writing and rhetoric, especially their book *The Craft of Research*, which focuses more on writing than on research methodology itself.
(c) Valid. Goode and Hatt authored *Methods in Social Research*, a foundational text in sociological research methods.
(d) Valid. Deo and Bhatt have contributed to Indian literature on research methodology.


Conclusion: Option (b) is correct — while influential in academic writing, these authors are not primarily known for contributions to research methodology. Quick Tip: Distinguish between research methodology and academic writing. Methodology guides how research is conducted; writing guides how it's communicated.

Step 1: Hypothesis testing involves statistical procedures to determine whether a claim about a population parameter is supported by sample data.

Step 2: Common hypothesis tests include:

t-test: Compares means between two groups.
F-test: Compares variances across groups, often used in ANOVA.
Chi-square test: Tests relationships between categorical variables.


Step 3: Evaluate the outlier:

(d) Incorrect. "Circle test" is not a recognized statistical test for hypothesis testing.


Conclusion: Option (d) is correct — circle test is not used for hypothesis testing. Quick Tip: Always choose your statistical test based on data type and hypothesis structure. Familiarity with t, F, and chi-square tests is essential for sound analysis.

Step 1: A census is a complete enumeration method where data is collected from every unit in the population.

Step 2: Evaluate each option:

(a) Correct. Census involves collecting data from all individuals or units in the population.
(b) Incorrect. A sample survey collects data from a subset of the population.
(c) Incorrect. Transactional tracking refers to monitoring specific activities, not full population enumeration.
(d) Incorrect. "Universal survey" is not a standard statistical term.


Conclusion: Option (a) is correct — census is the method where data is collected from every unit of the population. Quick Tip: Census provides complete accuracy but is time-consuming and costly. Sample surveys are more efficient for large populations.

Step 1: Survey research is prone to various types of errors that can affect the validity and reliability of results.

Step 2: Recognized error types include:

Sample errors: Occur when the sample does not accurately represent the population.
Data collection errors: Arise from faulty instruments, interviewer bias, or respondent misunderstanding.
Data processing errors: Include mistakes in coding, entry, or analysis of data.


Step 3: Evaluate the distractors:

Source errors: Not a standard classification in survey methodology.
Observational errors: More relevant to observational studies than structured surveys.


Conclusion: Option (d) is correct — sample, data collection, and data processing errors are key types in survey research. Quick Tip: Minimize survey errors by using validated instruments, training data collectors, and double-checking data entry and analysis procedures.

Step 1: Unethical research practices involve actions that compromise integrity, transparency, and fairness in scholarly work.

Step 2: Common unethical practices include:

Falsification: Manipulating research data or results.
Fabrication: Inventing data or findings.
Plagiarism: Using others' work without proper attribution.


Step 3: Evaluate the outlier:

(d) Correct. Acknowledging credit is an ethical practice that promotes transparency and respect for intellectual contributions.


Conclusion: Option (d) is correct — acknowledging credit is ethical, not unethical. Quick Tip: Ethical research demands honesty, transparency, and proper attribution. Always cite sources and avoid data manipulation.

Step 1: Match each TRIPS article with its correct subject:

Article 9.2 — Clarifies that copyright protection does not extend to ideas, procedures, or methods of operation, only to expressions.
Article 22.1 — Defines geographical indications as signs identifying goods from a specific location with qualities or reputation due to origin.
Article 12 — Specifies the term of protection for copyrighted works.
Article 4 — Covers Most-Favoured Nation (MFN) treatment in intellectual property rights.


Step 2: Match accordingly:

A1–B2
A2–B1
A3–B4
A4–B3


Conclusion: Option (b) is correct — it accurately matches each TRIPS article with its corresponding provision. Quick Tip: Understanding TRIPS provisions helps in navigating international IP law. Focus on definitions, protections, and treatment principles.

Step 1: Article 10 of the TRIPS Agreement recognizes computer programs as literary works under the Berne Convention.

Step 2: This protection applies to both:

Source Code: Human-readable instructions written by programmers.
Object Code: Machine-readable binary form generated from source code.


Step 3: TRIPS ensures copyright protection for the expression of ideas in both forms, not the underlying ideas or algorithms.

Conclusion: Option (c) is correct — both source code and object code are protected under TRIPS. Quick Tip: Under TRIPS, software is protected as intellectual property. Always secure both source and object code to safeguard your work.

Step 1: The Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB) was abolished under the Tribunal Reforms Act, 2021.

Step 2: To address the vacuum in IP adjudication, the Delhi High Court became the first to establish a dedicated Intellectual Property Division (IPD).


(a) Incorrect. Madras High Court followed later.
(b) Incorrect. Bombay High Court did not initiate the first IPD.
(c) Incorrect. Calcutta High Court has IP benches but was not the first.
(d) Correct. Delhi High Court pioneered the IPD model post-IPAB dissolution.


Conclusion: Option (d) is correct — Delhi High Court was the first to establish a special IP Division. Quick Tip: The Delhi High Court's IP Division ensures specialized handling of complex IP matters, setting a precedent for other courts.

Step 1: Under Section 31 of the Trade Marks Act, 1999, registration of a trademark serves as prima facie evidence of its validity.

Step 2: However, passing-off is a common law remedy available even for unregistered trademarks. Section 27 of the Act explicitly preserves the right to sue for passing-off.


Assertion (A): True. Registration provides legal presumption of validity.
Reason (R): False. Passing-off suits can be filed for unregistered marks.


Conclusion: Option (a) is correct — A is true, but R is false. Quick Tip: Trademark registration strengthens legal protection, but even unregistered marks can be defended through passing-off actions.

Step 1: The Bolar exemption allows generic manufacturers to use patented inventions without infringement for the purpose of regulatory approval before the patent expires.

Step 2: Section 107A of the Indian Patents Act, 1970 provides this exemption. It permits use of a patented invention for development and submission of information required under any law.


(a) Incorrect. Section 48 defines the rights of a patentee.
(b) Incorrect. Section 84 deals with compulsory licensing.
(c) Incorrect. Section 92 relates to compulsory licensing in public interest.
(d) Correct. Section 107A contains the Bolar provision.


Conclusion: Option (d) is correct — Section 107A provides the Bolar exemption under Indian patent law. Quick Tip: The Bolar exemption balances patent rights with public access by allowing early preparation for generic entry post-patent expiry.

Step 1: The concept of "performers" under the Copyright Act, 1957 includes actors, musicians, dancers, and other individuals who present live performances.

Step 2: In Star India Pvt. Ltd. v. Piyush Agarwal \& Ors., the Delhi High Court recognized that players, umpires, and commentators in a live cricket match qualify as performers under Section 2(q) of the Act.


(a) Incorrect. This case dealt with constitutional status of BCCI, not copyright or performers.
(b) Correct. This case clarified the legal status of cricket participants as performers.
(c) Incorrect. This case was related to administrative and regulatory issues, not copyright.
(d) Incorrect. The correct case is listed in option (b).


Conclusion: Option (b) is correct — the Delhi High Court laid down this principle in Star India Pvt. Ltd. v. Piyush Agarwal \& Ors. Quick Tip: Under Indian copyright law, live sports participants can be recognized as performers, granting them certain rights over their performance.

Step 1: The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2023 aims to decriminalize minor offences and simplify compliance across various laws, including intellectual property statutes.

Step 2: Section 60 of the Copyright Act, 1957 allowed for civil remedies against groundless threats of legal proceedings. This section was considered redundant and was abolished under the Jan Vishwas reforms.


(a) Correct. Section 60 has been repealed to streamline enforcement and reduce litigation over non-substantive threats.
(b) Incorrect. Section 63 deals with criminal penalties for copyright infringement and remains in force.
(c) Incorrect. Section 68 relates to penalties for contravention of copyright society provisions.
(d) Incorrect. Section 69 concerns offences by companies and is still active.


Conclusion: Option (a) is correct — Section 60 was abolished by the Jan Vishwas Act, 2023. Quick Tip: The Jan Vishwas Act promotes ease of doing business by reducing criminal liability for technical and procedural violations.

Step 1: Under Section 11 of the Designs Act, 2000, the initial term of copyright in a registered design is 10 years from the date of registration.

Step 2: However, this 10-year term includes a provision for renewal. The initial copyright protection is granted for 5 years, and it may be extended for another 5 years upon application.


(a) Correct. The initial term is 5 years, which can be renewed.
(b) Incorrect. 10 years is the maximum term after renewal, not the initial term.
(c) Incorrect. 20 years is not applicable under the Designs Act.
(d) Incorrect. 3 years is not a recognized term under the Act.


Conclusion: Option (a) is correct — the initial term of copyright in a design is 5 years from the date of registration. Quick Tip: Design copyright starts with 5 years and can be renewed once for another 5, totaling 10 years of protection.

Step 1: Section 2(k) of the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 defines "producer" to include:

Persons who produce, exploit, process, or package agricultural, natural, or manufactured goods.


Step 2: Transportation is not part of the definition of production under the Act. It is a logistical activity, not a creative or transformative one.


(a) Included. Packaging is explicitly mentioned.
(b) Included. Manufacturing is part of industrial production.
(c) Included. Exploiting natural goods is covered.
(d) Not included. Transporting goods is not part of the statutory definition of "producer."


Conclusion: Option (d) is correct — transporting agricultural goods does not qualify one as a "producer" under the Act. Quick Tip: Only those who contribute to the creation, processing, or packaging of GI goods are considered producers under the law.

Step 1: H.L.A. Hart, in his seminal work *The Concept of Law*, distinguishes between the psychological feeling of being obliged and the normative status of having an obligation.

Step 2:

Being obliged refers to situations where individuals feel compelled to act due to external pressures or threats.
Having an obligation implies a rule-based duty recognized within a legal system, independent of coercion.


Step 3: This distinction is central to Hart’s critique of Austin’s command theory and his development of the internal aspect of rules.


(a) Incorrect. Cause and effect is a scientific distinction, not central to Hart’s legal theory.
(b) Incorrect. Theory and fact are epistemological categories, not part of Hart’s core legal analysis.
(c) Correct. Hart’s jurisprudence hinges on this distinction to explain legal normativity.
(d) Incorrect. Corporeal and incorporeal rights are property law classifications.


Conclusion: Option (c) is correct — Hart distinguishes between being obliged and having an obligation to clarify the nature of legal rules. Quick Tip: Hart’s internal point of view helps explain why legal rules are followed not just out of fear, but out of recognition of duty.

Step 1: In his work *The Province of Jurisprudence Determined* (1832), John Austin sought to define the boundaries of legal study.

Step 2: Austin argued that jurisprudence should be confined to the study of positive law — laws set by political superiors to subjects — and should exclude moral, divine, or customary laws.


(a) Incorrect. Austin aimed to narrow, not expand, the scope of jurisprudence.
(b) Incorrect. His focus was on the nature of law, not its geographic applicability.
(c) Correct. Austin excluded divine and moral laws from the scope of jurisprudence.
(d) Incorrect. Including divine laws contradicts Austin’s positivist stance.


Conclusion: Option (c) is correct — Austin excluded divine laws from the domain of jurisprudence. Quick Tip: Austin’s positivism separates law from morality. Jurisprudence, for him, is about what law *is*, not what it *ought to be*.

Step 1: The declaratory theory of law asserts that judges do not create law but merely declare what the law has always been.

Step 2: This theory was classically supported by:

Sir Edward Coke: Emphasized that common law is discovered through judicial reasoning, not invented.
William Blackstone: Argued that judges are the "living oracles" of the law, whose role is to declare, not make, law.



(a) Incorrect. Bacon and Dicey contributed to legal thought but not specifically to the declaratory theory.
(b) Incorrect. Gray and Salmond leaned toward realist and analytical jurisprudence.
(c) Correct. Coke and Blackstone are the principal proponents of the declaratory theory.
(d) Incorrect. Duguit and Pound are associated with sociological and functionalist theories.


Conclusion: Option (c) is correct — Coke and Blackstone supported the declaratory theory of law. Quick Tip: Declaratory theory reflects a conservative view of judicial power, emphasizing continuity and precedent over innovation.

Step 1: The phrase "Law is a jealous mistress" is a famous metaphor used to describe the demanding and all-consuming nature of legal study and practice.

Step 2: It was coined by Justice Joseph Story, a prominent U.S. Supreme Court Justice and legal scholar of the 19th century.


(a) Incorrect. Francis Bacon contributed to legal philosophy but did not coin this phrase.
(b) Incorrect. Dryden was a poet and playwright, not associated with legal aphorisms.
(c) Correct. Joseph Story used this phrase to emphasize the devotion required in the legal profession.
(d) Incorrect. John Selden was a legal historian, but not the source of this quote.


Conclusion: Option (c) is correct — the phrase is attributed to Joseph Story. Quick Tip: Legal mastery demands time, discipline, and focus — as Joseph Story warned, law tolerates no distractions.

Step 1: Match each statement with the correct jurist:

I. Julius Stone described the sociological school as "metajuristic" — going beyond traditional legal analysis.
II. Bentham is known for his formal analysis of English law and utilitarian principles.
III. Kelsen referred to jurisprudence as a lawyer’s extraversion, emphasizing its outward-facing conceptual structure.
IV. Austin distinguished between expositorial (descriptive) and censorial (evaluative) approaches to law.


Step 2: Apply the correct code:

I–1 (Julius Stone)
II–2 (Bentham)
III–4 (Kelsen)
IV–3 (Austin)


Conclusion: Option (d) is correct — it matches each statement with the appropriate jurist. Quick Tip: Understanding who said what in jurisprudence helps trace the evolution of legal thought across schools and systems.

Step 1: In the case of SK Sajed Ali v. State of West Bengal, the Supreme Court emphasized the urgent need for a standardized code of investigation for police authorities across India.

Step 2: The Court observed that lack of uniformity and procedural lapses often result in acquittals due to technicalities, undermining justice.

Step 3: The Bench called for legislative and administrative reforms to ensure consistency, accountability, and fairness in criminal investigations.


(a) Incorrect. Rajesh v. State of M.P. did not address this issue.
(b) Incorrect. Sarangapani case focused on different procedural matters.
(c) Correct. SK Sajed Ali case highlighted the need for a code of investigation.
(d) Incorrect. Javed Shaukat Ali Qureshi case dealt with state-level procedural concerns.


Conclusion: Option (c) is correct — the Supreme Court raised the issue in SK Sajed Ali v. State of West Bengal. Quick Tip: A uniform code of investigation can help reduce acquittals due to technical lapses and strengthen the criminal justice system.

Step 1: In the case of Nagaraj v. State of Karnataka, the Supreme Court of India addressed the rights and healthcare needs of persons living with HIV/AIDS.

Step 2: The Court directed the Central Government to issue comprehensive guidelines for:

Diagnostic facilities for HIV/AIDS
Antiretroviral therapy (ART)
Opportunistic Infection Management


Step 3: These directions were issued under the mandate of the HIV and AIDS (Prevention and Control) Act, 2017 to ensure effective implementation and protection of health rights.


(a) Incorrect. This case involved insurance disputes, not HIV/AIDS protocols.
(b) Incorrect. This case was related to military service matters.
(c) Incorrect. This case dealt with mineral industry regulation.
(d) Correct. The Supreme Court issued HIV/AIDS healthcare directives in this case.


Conclusion: Option (d) is correct — the Supreme Court issued the directive in Nagaraj v. State of Karnataka. Quick Tip: Judicial activism plays a vital role in enforcing health rights for vulnerable communities under statutory mandates.

Step 1: Article 5 of the Constitution of India defines citizenship by domicile at the commencement of the Constitution.

Step 2: It includes:

Persons domiciled in India.
Persons born in India.
Persons whose parents were born in India.
Persons who had been ordinarily resident in India for not less than 5 years immediately preceding the commencement of the Constitution.


Step 3: Post-commencement residence due to employment does not qualify for citizenship by domicile under Article 5.


(a) Included. Birth in India qualifies.
(b) Included. Parentage qualifies.
(c) Not included. Post-commencement residence due to work is not covered.
(d) Included. 5-year residence before commencement qualifies.


Conclusion: Option (c) is correct — such persons are not citizens by domicile under Article 5. Quick Tip: Citizenship by domicile is determined by residence and connection to India before the Constitution came into force.

Step 1: The concept of "instrumentality or agency of the State" under Article 12 of the Constitution was first judicially elaborated in Sukhdev Singh v. Bhagatram, AIR 1975 SC 1331.

Step 2: In this case, the Supreme Court held that statutory corporations like ONGC, LIC, and IFCI, though not government departments, perform public functions and are subject to constitutional obligations.

Step 3: The Court laid down criteria such as financial control, functional control, and administrative control to determine whether a body is an instrumentality of the State.


(a) Incorrect. Ramana Dayaram Shetty case refined the doctrine but was not the first.
(b) Correct. Sukhdev Singh case introduced the foundational principles.
(c) Incorrect. Rajasthan SEB case discussed Article 12 but did not lay down detailed tests.
(d) Incorrect. Som Prakash Rekhi case applied the doctrine but came later.


Conclusion: Option (b) is correct — Sukhdev Singh v. Bhagatram was the first to lay down principles for identifying state instrumentalities. Quick Tip: To test if a body is a “State” under Article 12, examine its financial, functional, and administrative ties to the government.

Step 1: In Srilekha Vidyarthi v. State of Uttar Pradesh, AIR 1991 SC 537, the Supreme Court examined the arbitrary termination of government-appointed public prosecutors.

Step 2: The Court held that even contractual appointments made by the State must comply with the principles of non-arbitrariness and fairness under Article 14.

Step 3: The judgment emphasized that the State cannot act arbitrarily in terminating contracts, and every action must be just, fair, and reasonable.


(a) Incorrect. The case was not about gender or sex-based contracting rights.
(b) Correct. The decision was grounded in Article 14 — equality before law and protection against arbitrariness.
(c) Incorrect. While the case involved advocates, the core issue was not about the right to practice.
(d) Incorrect. The case did not primarily deal with compensation or damages.


Conclusion: Option (b) is correct — the case is based on the right to equality under Article 14. Quick Tip: Even contractual decisions by the State must uphold constitutional values of fairness and equality under Article 14.

Step 1: The Constitution \(81^{st}\) Amendment Act, 2000 was enacted to address the backlog of reserved vacancies in government jobs.

Step 2: It introduced Article 16(4B), which allows the State to treat unfilled reserved vacancies from previous years as a separate class and carry them forward without affecting the ceiling of 50% reservation in the current year.


(a) Incorrect. Article 15(4) was added by the First Amendment Act, 1951.
(b) Incorrect. Article 16(4A) was added by the Seventy-Seventh Amendment Act, 1995.
(c) Incorrect. Article 16(4) is part of the original Constitution.
(d) Correct. Article 16(4B) was added by the \(81^{st}\) Amendment Act, 2000.


Conclusion: Option (d) is correct — Article 16(4B) was added to facilitate backlog vacancy management in reservations. Quick Tip: Article 16(4B) ensures that reserved vacancies from previous years don’t lapse and can be filled without breaching the 50% ceiling.

Step 1: Article 20 of the Indian Constitution provides protection in respect of conviction for offences, including:

Protection against ex post facto laws
Protection against double jeopardy
Protection against self-incrimination


Step 2: Article 11(1) of the UDHR states: “Everyone charged with a penal offence has the right to be presumed innocent until proved guilty according to law in a public trial…”

Step 3: Both provisions aim to safeguard the rights of accused persons and ensure fairness in criminal justice.


(a) Correct. Article 11(1) of UDHR aligns with the protections in Article 20 of the Indian Constitution.
(b) Incorrect. Article 16 of ICCPR deals with recognition as a person before the law.
(c) Incorrect. Article 15(1) of the U.S. Constitution relates to voting rights, not criminal justice.
(d) Incorrect. Article 50 of the Japanese Constitution deals with legislative immunity.


Conclusion: Option (a) is correct — Article 20 of the Indian Constitution closely relates to Article 11(1) of the UDHR. Quick Tip: Fundamental rights in the Indian Constitution often mirror global human rights standards like those in the UDHR.

Step 1: Originally, Article 21 guaranteed protection of life and personal liberty only through “procedure established by law.”

Step 2: In Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978), the Supreme Court expanded the interpretation of Article 21 to include the concept of due process of law, ensuring that laws must be just, fair, and reasonable.

Step 3: Due process is a fundamental attribute of liberty, ensuring that no person is deprived of life or liberty arbitrarily.


Assertion (A): True. Article 21 now includes substantive and procedural due process.
Reason (R): True. Due process is essential to protect liberty.
Explanation Link: Correct. The reason explains why Article 21 must include due process.


Conclusion: Option (a) is correct — both statements are true and R explains A. Quick Tip: Maneka Gandhi case transformed Article 21 into a powerful shield for individual liberty by embedding due process into Indian constitutional law.

Step 1: The Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV, Articles 36–51) are classified into three categories:

Gandhian Principles
Socialistic Principles
Liberal-Intellectual Principles


Step 2: Gandhian principles reflect Mahatma Gandhi’s vision of self-reliant rural India and include:

Organization of village panchayats (Art. 40)
Promotion of cottage industries (Art. 43)
Prohibition of cow slaughter (Art. 48)


Step 3: The Uniform Civil Code (Art. 44) is a liberal-intellectual principle, not a Gandhian one.


(a) Gandhian Principle
(b) Not a Gandhian Principle — Liberal-Intellectual
(c) Gandhian Principle
(d) Gandhian Principle


Conclusion: Option (b) is correct — the Uniform Civil Code is not a Gandhian Directive Principle. Quick Tip: Gandhian principles focus on rural upliftment, self-sufficiency, and traditional values rooted in village life.

Step 1: Article 123 of the Constitution empowers the President to promulgate ordinances when either House of Parliament is not in session.

Step 2: An ordinance must be laid before both Houses of Parliament when they reassemble.

Step 3: The ordinance ceases to operate six weeks from the reassembly of Parliament, unless it is approved earlier by both Houses.


(a) Incorrect. Six months is not the constitutional limit.
(b) Incorrect. One year is not prescribed anywhere in Article 123.
(c) Incorrect. Six weeks alone is misleading without reference to Parliament’s reassembly.
(d) Correct. The ordinance remains valid for six weeks from the date Parliament reconvenes.


Conclusion: Option (d) is correct — the ordinance remains in force for six weeks from the date Parliament assembles. Quick Tip: Ordinances are temporary laws and must be ratified by Parliament within six weeks of its reassembly to continue in force.

Step 1: Article 254 of the Constitution of India deals with inconsistency between laws made by Parliament and laws made by State Legislatures on matters in the Concurrent List.

Step 2: If a State law is repugnant to a Parliamentary law on the same subject, the Parliamentary law prevails.

Step 3: However, under Article 254(2), if the State law has received the assent of the President, it shall prevail in that State, even if repugnant to the earlier Parliamentary law.


(a) Incorrect. The Constitution allows such laws with Presidential assent.
(b) Incorrect. Governor’s permission is not sufficient under Article 254(2).
(c) Incorrect. Prior permission is not required — assent after passage is.
(d) Correct. Presidential assent validates repugnant State laws on Concurrent subjects.


Conclusion: Option (d) is correct — State legislatures can enact repugnant laws on Concurrent subjects if they receive Presidential assent. Quick Tip: Article 254(2) empowers States to override Parliamentary laws on Concurrent subjects — but only with Presidential assent.

Step 1: Article 21 guarantees the right to life and personal liberty, which has been judicially interpreted to include a wide range of socio-economic rights.

Step 2: The Supreme Court has expanded Article 21 to include:

Protection against bonded labour and unfair working conditions — People’s Union for Democratic Rights v. Union of India.
Right to rehabilitation of bonded labourers — Bandhua Mukti Morcha v. Union of India.
Right to a clean and decent environment — Subhash Kumar v. State of Bihar, and right to shelter — Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation.


Step 3: All three rights listed are judicially recognized as part of the expansive interpretation of Article 21.

Conclusion: Option (a) is correct — all three rights are included under the Right to Life. Quick Tip: Article 21 is a living provision — its scope evolves to protect dignity, livelihood, and environmental well-being.

Step 1: The Indian Contract Act, 1872 outlines the essential elements of a valid contract:

Offer: One party proposes terms.
Acceptance: The other party agrees to those terms.
Consideration: Something of value is exchanged.
Agreement: A legally enforceable understanding is formed.


Step 2: The chronological order is:

Offer
Acceptance
Consideration
Agreement (which becomes a contract if enforceable by law)



(a) Incorrect. Agreement precedes consideration in this option, which is not the correct legal sequence.
(b) Incorrect. Agreement cannot precede offer and acceptance.
(c) Incorrect. Consideration must follow acceptance.
(d) Correct. This reflects the proper legal sequence.


Conclusion: Option (d) is correct — it reflects the correct sequence in contract formation. Quick Tip: A contract begins with an offer and ends with a legally binding agreement — but only if consideration is present.

Step 1: Under Section 2(d) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, consideration is defined as something done or abstained from at the desire of the promisor.

Step 2: For consideration to be valid:

It must have some value in the eyes of the law.
It must be something that the parties mutually agree upon as valuable.


Step 3: Courts do not require consideration to be adequate, but it must be real and lawful.


(a) Correct. Both legal and mutual recognition of value are essential.
(b) Incorrect. Parties’ agreement is also necessary.
(c) Incorrect. The law must also recognize the value.
(d) Incorrect. Adequacy is not required — only legal sufficiency.


Conclusion: Option (a) is correct — consideration must be something both the law and the parties regard as having value. Quick Tip: Consideration need not be adequate, but it must be real, lawful, and recognized by both the law and the parties.

Step 1: Section 74 of the Indian Contract Act deals with compensation for breach of contract where a penalty is stipulated.

Step 2: The explanation to Section 74 clarifies that a stipulation for payment of compound interest on default of simple interest does not constitute a penalty.

Step 3: This means such a clause is enforceable and not subject to reduction under the penalty doctrine.


(a) Correct. Section 74 explicitly excludes such stipulations from being treated as penalties.
(b) Incorrect. Section 75 deals with compensation for premature revocation of contracts.
(c) Incorrect. Section 76 is not relevant to interest or penalty clauses.
(d) Incorrect. Section 74 directly addresses this issue.


Conclusion: Option (a) is correct — compound interest stipulations on default are not penalties under Section 74. Quick Tip: Not all harsh terms are penalties — Section 74 excludes compound interest on default from penalty scrutiny.

Step 1: Section 65 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 provides that when an agreement is discovered to be void, or a contract becomes void, any person who has received any benefit under such agreement or contract is bound to restore it or compensate the other party.

Step 2: The term “benefit” refers to any gain, advantage, or enrichment received under the void agreement or contract.


(a) Incorrect. “Advantage” is not the term used in the statute.
(b) Correct. “Benefit” is the precise term used in Section 65.
(c) Incorrect. Consideration refers to the value exchanged, not necessarily what is received.
(d) Incorrect. “Favour” is not a legal term used in this context.


Conclusion: Option (b) is correct — Section 65 uses the term “benefit” for restitution under void contracts. Quick Tip: Section 65 ensures fairness by requiring restitution of benefits received under void agreements.

Step 1: Under Section 52 of the Indian Insurance Act, 1938, the law provides that in case of a fire insurance policy, the assignee of the policy — if the property insured is absolutely vested in them — shall have all rights of suit as if the contract was made directly with them.

Step 2: This provision facilitates the transfer of actionable rights along with the insured property, ensuring continuity of protection.


(a) Correct. Fire insurance policies are covered under this statutory provision.
(b) Incorrect. Livestock insurance is not governed by this assignment clause.
(c) Incorrect. Theft insurance does not fall under this specific rule.
(d) Incorrect. Life insurance assignment is governed separately under Section 38 of the Insurance Act.


Conclusion: Option (a) is correct — the provision applies to fire insurance policies. Quick Tip: Assignment of fire insurance policies transfers not just the policy but also the right to sue under it.

Step 1: Section 127 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 deals with gifts made subject to conditions.

Step 2: When a gift consists of multiple items transferred together, and one of them carries a burden (obligation), the donee must accept the entire gift — including the burden — to validate the transfer.

Step 3: Partial or conditional acceptance is not permitted in such cases. The law requires full acceptance for the gift to take effect.


(a) Correct. Full acceptance is mandatory under Section 127.
(b) Incorrect. Conditional acceptance is not valid in this context.
(c) Incorrect. “Substantial” acceptance is not a recognized legal standard here.
(d) Incorrect. Partial acceptance invalidates the entire gift.


Conclusion: Option (a) is correct — the donee must accept the gift fully, including any burden attached. Quick Tip: In composite gifts with burdens, the law insists on full acceptance — no picking and choosing.

Step 1: Section 91 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 outlines who may sue for redemption of mortgaged property.

Step 2: Besides the mortgagor, the following persons are entitled to redeem:

A person with any interest in the property or in the right to redeem.
A surety for the mortgage debt.
A creditor who has obtained a decree for sale of the mortgaged property in a suit for administration of the mortgagor’s estate.



(a) Included. Covered under Section 91.
(b) Included. Sureties are explicitly mentioned.
(c) Included. Interest holders or charge holders are eligible.
(d) Correct. All listed categories are eligible to redeem.


Conclusion: Option (d) is correct — all listed persons may redeem or sue for redemption under Section 91. Quick Tip: Redemption rights extend beyond the mortgagor to protect other stakeholders with legal or financial interests in the property.

Step 1: Section 55 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 outlines the duties of a seller in a transaction involving immovable property.

Step 2: These duties include:

Clause (1)(a): Duty to disclose material defects in the property or title.
Clause (1)(b): Duty to produce title documents for examination.
Clause (1)(c): Duty to answer relevant questions about the property or title.



(a) Included. Seller must answer buyer’s queries truthfully.
(b) Included. Seller must allow inspection of title documents.
(c) Included. Seller must disclose hidden defects not discoverable by ordinary care.
(d) Correct. All listed duties are legally binding on the seller.


Conclusion: Option (d) is correct — all the listed obligations are part of the seller’s statutory duties under Section 55. Quick Tip: Transparency and good faith are key duties of a seller under property law — especially in disclosing defects and producing title documents.

Step 1: Section 6 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 lays down the general rule that property of any kind may be transferred.

Step 2: However, it also lists exceptions — certain types of interests and rights that cannot be transferred, such as:

A mere right to sue
Public office and salary of a public officer
Easement apart from the dominant heritage



(a) Incorrect. A mere right to sue is non-transferable.
(b) Correct. This is the general principle stated in Section 6.
(c) Incorrect. Easements cannot be transferred independently.
(d) Incorrect. Public offices and salaries are non-transferable.


Conclusion: Option (b) is correct — property of any kind may be transferred unless restricted by law. Quick Tip: Section 6 of the Transfer of Property Act sets the default rule of transferability — with specific exceptions.

Step 1: Section 13 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 prohibits the creation of successive life interests for unborn persons.

Step 2: The law allows transfer to an unborn person only if it is the absolute interest — not a limited one like a life estate.

Step 3: In this case, the eldest son of the intended marriage is unborn at the time of transfer and is given only a life interest, which violates Section 13.


(a) Incorrect. The law is clear — it does not depend on circumstances.
(b) Incorrect. The court applies Section 13 directly; no discretion.
(c) Incorrect. The interest violates the statutory rule.
(d) Correct. The life interest for the unborn eldest son is void.


Conclusion: Option (d) is correct — the interest created for the eldest son does not take effect. Quick Tip: Under Section 13, an unborn person can only receive full ownership — not a life interest or limited estate.

Step 1: Section 21 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 defines contingent interest as an interest created to take effect only on the happening or non-happening of a specified uncertain event.

Step 2: The interest does not vest immediately but depends on the fulfillment of the condition.

Step 3: If the condition is fulfilled, the interest becomes vested; otherwise, it fails.


(a) Correct. This is the statutory definition of contingent interest.
(b) Incorrect. Express interest refers to clearly stated terms, not conditional ones.
(c) Incorrect. Perfect interest implies unconditional and vested rights.
(d) Incorrect. Implied interest is not a recognized category under this provision.


Conclusion: Option (a) is correct — the person acquires a contingent interest under Section 21. Quick Tip: Contingent interests depend on uncertain future events — they are not vested until the condition is fulfilled.

Step 1: Section 17 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 deals with the rule against excessive accumulation of income.

Step 2: It states that any direction to accumulate income from transferred property beyond the lifetime of the transferor or 18 years from the date of transfer — whichever is longer — is void to the extent it exceeds that period.

Step 3: After the permissible period, the property and accumulated income must be disposed of as if the accumulation period had ended.


(a) Incorrect. “Bad” is not a legal term used in this context.
(b) Incorrect. The direction is not “illegal” — it is void under statute.
(c) Correct. The law declares such excessive accumulation directions void.
(d) Incorrect. “Voidable” implies discretion, which is not applicable here.


Conclusion: Option (c) is correct — the direction is void under Section 17 of the Transfer of Property Act. Quick Tip: The law limits accumulation of income to prevent indefinite withholding of property benefits — beyond 18 years or the transferor’s life, it’s void.

Step 1: Section 56 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 deals with the doctrine of marshalling of securities.

Step 2: The rule allows a subsequent mortgagee to compel the prior mortgagee to satisfy their debt out of properties not mortgaged to the subsequent mortgagee — provided it does not prejudice the prior mortgagee or third parties.

Step 3: The limitation is that marshalling cannot affect the rights of:

The first mortgagee
Any person who has acquired an interest for consideration



(a) Correct. This reflects the statutory limitation under Section 56.
(b) Incorrect. Prejudicing the first mortgagee is not allowed.
(c) Incorrect. The second mortgagee is the one seeking marshalling.
(d) Incorrect. The law protects the first mortgagee, not the second.


Conclusion: Option (a) is correct — marshalling must not prejudice the rights of the first mortgagee or others with consideration-based interests. Quick Tip: Marshalling protects subsequent mortgagees — but not at the cost of harming prior mortgagees or bona fide purchasers.

Step 1: Subrogation refers to the substitution of one person in place of another with respect to a lawful claim or right.

Step 2: Under Section 92 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, subrogation can be:

Legal subrogation: When a person with an interest (e.g., co-mortgagor, surety) pays off the mortgage to protect their own rights.
Conventional subrogation: When a stranger pays off the mortgage debt under an agreement (express or implied) to be subrogated to the mortgagee’s rights.



(a) Incorrect. Marshalling is a different doctrine under Section 56.
(b) Incorrect. Family arrangement is unrelated to mortgage or subrogation.
(c) Correct. This is a textbook case of conventional subrogation.
(d) Incorrect. Legal subrogation applies when the payer has an interest to protect.


Conclusion: Option (c) is correct — the situation describes conventional subrogation. Quick Tip: Conventional subrogation arises from agreement — legal subrogation arises from necessity.

Step 1: Section 63A of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 deals with improvements made by the mortgagee in possession.

Step 2: When the mortgaged property is a renewable leasehold and the mortgagee spends money to renew the lease, such expenditure can be added to the principal amount.

Step 3: If the mortgage deed does not specify the rate of interest, the law provides a default rate of six percent per annum on the additional amount.


(a) Incorrect. 8% is not the statutory default rate.
(b) Incorrect. 9% is not mentioned in the Act.
(c) Correct. 6% is the default rate under Section 63A.
(d) Incorrect. 7% is not the prescribed rate.


Conclusion: Option (c) is correct — the default interest rate is 6% per annum in the absence of a contract. Quick Tip: When a mortgagee renews a leasehold, the cost can be added to the principal — with 6% interest if no rate is fixed.

Step 1: Section 122 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 defines a gift as a voluntary, gratuitous transfer of property from donor to donee.

Step 2: A key requirement is that the gift must be accepted by the donee or on their behalf during the lifetime of the donor and while the donor is capable of giving.

Step 3: If the donee dies before acceptance, the gift fails — it is void as there is no valid acceptance.


(a) Incorrect. “Not complete” is vague — the correct legal term is “void.”
(b) Correct. Without acceptance, the gift is void.
(c) Incorrect. The gift is not illegal — it simply fails due to lack of acceptance.
(d) Incorrect. Voidable implies it can be rescinded — here, it never takes effect.


Conclusion: Option (b) is correct — the gift is void if the donee dies before acceptance. Quick Tip: No acceptance, no gift — under Section 122, acceptance during the donor’s lifetime is essential for validity.

Step 1: The \(102^{nd}\) Constitutional Amendment Act, 2018 created the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) and led to ambiguity about whether states retained the power to identify OBCs.

Step 2: In response to a Supreme Court ruling that interpreted the \(102^{nd}\) Amendment as removing this power from states, Parliament enacted the \(105^{th}\) Constitutional Amendment Act, 2021.

Step 3: The \(105^{th}\) Amendment explicitly restored the authority of state governments to identify Socially and Educationally Backward Classes (SEBCs), including OBCs.


(a) Incorrect. The \(102^{nd}\) Amendment created confusion over state powers.
(b) Incorrect. The \(103^{rd}\) Amendment dealt with EWS reservations.
(c) Incorrect. The \(104^{th}\) Amendment extended SC/ST reservation in Lok Sabha.
(d) Correct. The \(105^{th}\) Amendment restored state power to identify OBCs.


Conclusion: Option (d) is correct — the \(105^{th}\) Constitutional Amendment Act restored the states’ power to identify OBCs. Quick Tip: The \(105^{th}\) Amendment reaffirmed federalism by allowing states to maintain their own OBC lists.

Step 1: The doctrine of reasonableness under constitutional law requires that any restriction imposed on fundamental rights must be proportionate and justified.

Step 2: Two key tests are applied:

The restriction must have a rational nexus with the objective of the legislation.
The restriction must not be excessive or go beyond what is necessary to achieve the intended goal.


Step 3: Both conditions (a) and (b) are essential to determine substantive reasonableness. Hence, option (c) is correct. Quick Tip: In constitutional law, the test of reasonableness often involves proportionality and necessity. Always check if the restriction aligns with the legislative purpose and is not excessive.

Step 1: Article 20(2) of the Constitution of India provides protection against double jeopardy, specifically the rule of autrefois convict — meaning no person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once.

Step 2: Section 300 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, extends this protection by including both autrefois acquit and autrefois convict. It bars the trial of a person for the same offence if they have already been tried and either convicted or acquitted.

Step 3: Hence, Article 20 covers only the rule of autrefois convict, while Section 300 covers both. Quick Tip: Remember: Article 20(2) protects against double punishment (autrefois convict), while Section 300 CrPC protects against double trial — covering both acquittal and conviction.

Step 1: The case of State (NCT) of Delhi v. Union of India, (2018) 8 SCC 501, dealt with the constitutional status and powers of the Government of the National Capital Territory (NCT) of Delhi.

Step 2: The Supreme Court interpreted Article 239AA, which was inserted by the 69th Constitutional Amendment, to clarify the distribution of powers between the Lieutenant Governor and the elected government of Delhi.

Step 3: The Court held that the Lieutenant Governor is bound by the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers of Delhi in matters where the Delhi Legislative Assembly has the power to make laws, except in matters of land, police, and public order. Quick Tip: Article 239AA grants special status to Delhi, establishing a Legislative Assembly and delineating powers between the LG and the elected government. It is central to federalism debates involving Union Territories.

Step 1: The Outer Space Treaty of 1967 prohibits national appropriation of outer space, including the Moon and other celestial bodies, by any means — including sovereignty claims, use, or occupation.

Step 2: Article I affirms that outer space shall be free for exploration and use by all States. Article II explicitly states that outer space is not subject to national appropriation.

Step 3: Article III requires that activities in outer space be conducted in accordance with international law. Article IV prohibits military installations, weapon testing, and maneuvers on celestial bodies.

Step 4: Therefore, statement (b) is incorrect as it contradicts Article II of the Treaty. Quick Tip: The Outer Space Treaty ensures space remains a global commons — no nation can claim sovereignty, and all activities must be peaceful and lawful.

Step 1: Article 3 of UNCLOS (1982) provides that every coastal State has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles from its baselines.

Step 2: Article 33 defines the contiguous zone as an area extending up to 24 nautical miles from the baselines, which includes the 12 nautical miles of territorial sea.

Step 3: Article 76 allows the continental shelf to extend up to 200 nautical miles, and in certain geological conditions, up to 350 nautical miles — but not universally.

Step 4: Article 57 defines the Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) as extending up to 200 nautical miles from the baseline, not 250 nautical miles.

Step 5: Therefore, only statement (b) is entirely correct. Quick Tip: UNCLOS defines maritime zones precisely: Territorial Sea (12 NM), Contiguous Zone (24 NM), EEZ (200 NM), and Continental Shelf (up to 350 NM in special cases). Always check the article number and distance limits.

Step 1: The Draft Guidelines on Prevention and Regulation of Dark Patterns, 2023, issued by the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, identify specific deceptive design practices used by online platforms.

Step 2: Among the listed dark patterns are:

False urgency – creating a false sense of time pressure.
Confirm shaming – guilt-tripping users into making choices.
Basket sneaking – adding items to a cart without user consent.


Step 3: These are explicitly mentioned in the draft guidelines, while the other options are not. Quick Tip: Dark patterns manipulate user behavior. Always check if the interface uses urgency, guilt, or hidden charges to push decisions.

Step 1: Section 135(1) of the Companies Act, 2013 mandates CSR obligations for companies meeting any of the following thresholds:

Net worth of \textcurrency500 crore or more, or
Turnover of \textcurrency1000 crore or more, or
Net profit of \textcurrency5 crore or more during any financial year.


Step 2: Such companies must constitute a CSR Committee comprising at least three directors, including one independent director (if applicable). There is no requirement for a woman director specifically.

Step 3: Therefore, option (a) is correct. Quick Tip: CSR compliance is triggered by net worth, turnover, or profit thresholds. The committee must have at least three directors, not necessarily a woman director.