AILET 2024 BA LLB Question Paper with Solution PDF

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Shivam Yadav

Updated on - Nov 7, 2025

AILET 2024 LLB Question Paper with Solution PDF is available for download. NLU Delhi has conducted AILET 2024 on December 08, 2024. The question paper comprises a total of 150 questions divided among three sections.

AILET 2024 LLB Question Paper with Solution PDFs

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Question 1:

The primary reason for breaking up of the traditional community set up is:

  • (A) preference for expanding suburban neighbourhoods.
  • (B) attraction of the small family unit.
  • (C) changing concept of cohabiting in the modern world.
  • (D) the lack of desire to live with the oldest family members.
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

The breaking up of traditional community setups can primarily be attributed to the growing preference for the small family unit. In modern society, people are increasingly seeking privacy and independence, which makes the concept of a small nuclear family more attractive. This shift has led to the fragmentation of extended families and traditional community structures that relied heavily on multi-generational cohabitation. Quick Tip: In modern social dynamics, family structure is constantly evolving, influenced by factors such as urbanization, lifestyle preferences, and changing societal values.


Question 2:

The reason people do not know their neighbour very well is because:

  • (A) they are always in transit.
  • (B) their lifestyle is self-destructive.
  • (C) they are constantly preoccupied with their own affairs.
  • (D) their self-centredness keeps them from interacting with the neighbour.
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

The main reason people do not know their neighbors well is that they are often preoccupied with their own personal affairs. This constant focus on their own lives can result in a lack of time or energy for building relationships with those around them. In today's fast-paced, individualistic society, people tend to prioritize their personal responsibilities, work, and social circles over community interaction. Quick Tip: In modern society, social connections often take a backseat to individual concerns, making community interaction less frequent.


Question 3:

The writer’s attitude towards the ‘connections’ formed via social media is:

  • (A) disparaging
  • (B) concurrence
  • (C) apathetic
  • (D) elusive
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

The writer adopts a disparaging attitude towards the connections formed via social media. This suggests that the writer views these connections as superficial or insincere, possibly highlighting how they lack the depth or authenticity of real-life relationships. The tone may reflect concerns about the impact of social media on genuine social interactions. Quick Tip: When analyzing an author’s tone or attitude, pay attention to word choice and context. Disparaging attitudes are often conveyed through negative language or criticism.


Question 4:

Which of the following statements is incorrect with respect to the passage?

  • (A) The community provides a safe and healthy environment for positive interaction with the children.
  • (B) Crucial learning experiences and much needed support systems at home clash with the values of the community.
  • (C) The collective effort of the community raises children in nurturing, creative, and safe ways.
  • (D) Modern communities lack meaningful interactions, leaving the parents feeling isolated and alone in their struggles.

Question 5:

Statement 1: People are available to raise other people’s children.

Statement 2: The nature of communities has undergone tremendous transformation regardless of their location.

Choose the most appropriate answer:

  • (A) Both statements are true and 2 is the correct explanation of 1.
  • (B) Both statements are true but 2 is not the correct explanation of 1.
  • (C) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
  • (D) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Statement 1 is false because while people might help raise other people's children, it is not universally true that communities are structured in a way that fosters this kind of involvement. Statement 2, however, is true, as the nature of communities has indeed undergone significant transformation due to factors like urbanization, technological changes, and shifting social dynamics. These changes have altered traditional communal roles, making it less common for people to actively raise each other's children. Quick Tip: When evaluating the relationship between two statements, carefully analyze whether the second statement logically explains the first one.


Question 6:

Although the writer described herself as being a perfectionist, the eventual quality of her work was _________?

Choose the most appropriate answer:

  • (A) dilapidated.
  • (B) disappointing.
  • (C) devastating.
  • (D) distorted.
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

The most appropriate answer is "disappointing" because despite the writer's self-identification as a perfectionist, the quality of her work did not meet her high standards. This suggests that her work, though expected to be flawless, ended up being less than satisfactory or not as good as she hoped. Quick Tip: When interpreting descriptions of personal traits like perfectionism, consider how those traits might influence the outcome of the task at hand. Perfectionism can sometimes lead to unrealistic expectations, which may result in disappointment.


Question 7:

‘Overthinking’ posed a big hurdle for the narrator as:

  • (A) she would be coerced into being dull.
  • (B) she would sulk over her spoiled assignments.
  • (C) it would not allow her to start her work.
  • (D) it would make her anxious about her submission.
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

The correct answer is (C) because overthinking prevented the narrator from starting her work. When individuals overanalyze, they often become paralyzed by their thoughts, which stops them from taking action. This explains how overthinking posed a significant hurdle for the narrator. Quick Tip: When dealing with overthinking, it often leads to procrastination or hesitation, making it difficult to take the first step toward completing a task.


Question 8:

Identify the sequence of events that ultimately led to art school students submitting subpar work.

(1) quality of work compromised to meet the deadline

(2) large amount of time invested on planning

(3) mounting pressure to complete the task

(4) wasted half of the time in production

Choose the appropriate option:

  • (A) (2), (3), (4), (1)
  • (B) (2), (3), (1), (4)
  • (C) (2), (4), (3), (1)
  • (D) (2), (4), (1), (3)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

The correct sequence is (2), (4), (3), (1). The students first invested a large amount of time in planning (2), which caused them to waste half of their time in production (4). This led to mounting pressure to complete the task (3), and ultimately, the quality of their work was compromised to meet the deadline (1). Quick Tip: When analyzing a sequence of events, start by identifying the cause of the issue and trace it through to the final outcome, noting how each step leads to the next.


Question 9:

‘Ripple effect’ means:

  • (A) the continuing and spreading results of an event or action.
  • (B) the cumulative effect produced when one event sets off a chain of similar or other events.
  • (C) anything that can go wrong will go wrong.
  • (D) moving in a circular path towards the centre of the circle.
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

The term "ripple effect" refers to the continuing and spreading results of an event or action, much like the ripples that spread outward when a stone is thrown into water. This effect can be seen in various contexts where one event causes a chain reaction that impacts other events or situations. Quick Tip: When you encounter a phrase like "ripple effect," consider its literal meaning first — how something small can create a large impact or cause far-reaching consequences.


Question 10:

‘Time’ is referred to as a ‘luxury’ because:

  • (A) she had to work after classes and thus, could not spare any time.
  • (B) she had a lot of time on her hands to get things done slowly.
  • (C) time was a valuable commodity she paid a heavy price for.
  • (D) she was mostly running out of time because of overthinking.
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

The correct answer is (A) because "time" is referred to as a luxury in the context of the narrator's life where she had to work after classes, leaving her with little to no free time. This suggests that time was a scarce resource for her, and she could not afford to spare any. Quick Tip: When a concept like "luxury" is applied to something as intangible as time, it often means that the person in question has little access to it, making it a valuable and rare resource.


Question 11:

The writer had to innovate her “Finished, Not Perfect Method” (FNPM) since:

  • (A) she had to get better grades than her privileged classmates.
  • (B) her overthinking pattern was a dismal failure.
  • (C) she had very little time to spare.
  • (D) chasing perfection never got her work done.
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

The writer developed the “Finished, Not Perfect Method” (FNPM) because chasing perfection often prevented her from completing tasks. She realized that striving for perfection was counterproductive, and thus, adopted a more pragmatic approach — focusing on finishing the work rather than making it perfect. Quick Tip: Striving for perfection can lead to procrastination or incomplete tasks. Sometimes, completing a task, even imperfectly, is more valuable than spending excessive time refining it.


Question 12:

Segregating the various parts of the project helps:

  • (A) while consulting friends for their opinion.
  • (B) to work on each part separately and improve it.
  • (C) to reduce production time at the beginning.
  • (D) reduces stress that is usually accompanied by missed deadlines.
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Segregating the various parts of a project allows the individual to focus on each part separately, making it easier to improve the quality of each section. This approach helps to manage complex projects more effectively by breaking them down into smaller, manageable tasks, which can then be improved independently. Quick Tip: Breaking a large project into smaller tasks can make the work feel less overwhelming and help in ensuring that each component is well-developed.


Question 13:

This passage most likely appeared as part of a _________. Complete the sentence with an appropriate option.

  • (A) technology magazine feature
  • (B) medical school’s informational brochure
  • (C) government report on education
  • (D) debate on the future of medical training
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

The passage is most likely to have appeared in a medical school’s informational brochure. This is because it seems to focus on providing details about the medical field or training, which would typically be found in such brochures designed to inform prospective students about the program. Quick Tip: When determining the most likely source of a passage, look for clues in the content and tone. If the text focuses on providing information and guidance to prospective students, it’s probably from an educational brochure.


Question 14:

The author’s primary purpose in this passage is:

  • (A) To advocate for the complete replacement of traditional medical training with VR.
  • (B) To provide a balanced discussion of the advantages and challenges of using VR in medical education.
  • (C) To persuade readers to invest in VR technology for medical schools.
  • (D) To critique the high cost of VR equipment in medical education.
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

The author's primary purpose is to provide a balanced discussion of the advantages and challenges of using Virtual Reality (VR) in medical education. Instead of advocating for a complete shift or focusing solely on its costs, the author presents both sides of the argument, allowing the reader to form an informed opinion about VR's role in medical training. Quick Tip: When identifying the author's primary purpose, focus on the overall tone and structure of the passage. A balanced discussion will often present both the pros and cons of a topic, rather than advocating for one side.


Question 15:

The passage mentions “immersive experiences” to emphasise:

  • (A) The potential for escapism in VR.
  • (B) The intensity and realism of VR training.
  • (C) The need for virtual tours of medical facilities.
  • (D) The limited scope of VR simulations.
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

The term “immersive experiences” is used to highlight the intensity and realism of Virtual Reality (VR) training. The passage emphasizes how VR can create a highly engaging and realistic environment for medical training, which helps students experience scenarios that would be difficult or impossible to simulate in real life. Quick Tip: When encountering phrases like "immersive experiences," focus on what aspect of the experience is being emphasized — in this case, it’s likely to be the realism and intensity of the experience, not escapism or limitations.


Question 16:

Identify the sentence in the passage that contains a participial phrase.

  • (A) ‘Virtual reality technology has been steadily advancing.’
  • (B) ‘This immersive experience can significantly enhance their learning.’
  • (C) ‘It allows them to practice complex surgical procedures.’
  • (D) ‘The medical students, wearing VR headsets, feel as if they are in an operating room.’
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

The correct answer is (D) because the phrase “wearing VR headsets” is a participial phrase. It modifies "the medical students" and describes an action (wearing) happening simultaneously with the main action in the sentence. Quick Tip: A participial phrase usually consists of a participle (a verb form ending in -ing or -ed) and its complements or modifiers. It often functions as an adjective, providing more detail about a noun.


Question 17:

According to the passage, why is the cost of implementing VR in medical schools a challenge?

  • (A) VR technology is difficult to maintain.
  • (B) VR equipment is currently unavailable.
  • (C) VR requires a significant financial investment.
  • (D) VR simulations are not realistic enough.
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

The correct answer is (C) because the passage emphasizes that VR requires a significant financial investment. This high cost is one of the primary challenges in implementing VR technology in medical schools, as it can be difficult for institutions to afford the necessary equipment and technology. Quick Tip: When evaluating why a particular technology is challenging to implement, consider both its initial and ongoing costs. In the case of VR, both the hardware and software can be expensive and require regular updates or maintenance.


Question 18:

What does the passage suggest about the balance between VR training and hands-on clinical experience?

  • (A) VR training can entirely replace hands-on clinical experience.
  • (B) VR training should be the sole focus of medical education.
  • (C) Clinical experience is no longer relevant in medical education.
  • (D) A balance between VR training and real-world experience is essential.
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

The correct answer is (D) because the passage suggests that while VR training is beneficial, it should be used in conjunction with hands-on clinical experience. Both are important for a well-rounded medical education, as VR provides simulations and practice, but real-world experience is necessary for developing practical skills and judgment. Quick Tip: In evaluating a balance between two methods or techniques, consider how each can complement the other. In education, blending innovative tools like VR with traditional methods often leads to the most effective learning outcomes.


Question 19:

The author’s discussion of the challenges of VR in medical education is primarily intended to:

  • (A) Present a well-rounded view of the topic.
  • (B) Convince readers that VR is not suitable for medical training.
  • (C) Discourage investment in VR technology.
  • (D) Highlight the need for more research and development in VR.
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

The correct answer is (A) because the author discusses both the advantages and challenges of using VR in medical education, offering a balanced perspective on the topic. By presenting the challenges, the author provides a more comprehensive view of VR’s role in medical training, rather than focusing solely on its shortcomings or advocating for its complete adoption. Quick Tip: When an author addresses both pros and cons, the intention is often to present a well-rounded view, allowing the reader to form a more informed opinion on the topic.


Question 20:

Which word from paragraphs 4-5 in the passage could be substituted with ‘financially burden’, without changing the meaning?

  • (A) integration
  • (B) accuracy
  • (C) mimic
  • (D) strain
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

The correct answer is (D) because the word "strain" can be used to describe a situation where there is a financial burden. In this context, "strain" implies the pressure or difficulty caused by the financial costs, which aligns with the idea of being "financially burdened." Quick Tip: When a passage uses terms related to difficulty or pressure, like "strain," they can often be interchangeable with "burden" in a financial context.


Question 21:

In the passage, the phrase ‘fosters a deeper understanding’, is best defined as:

  • (A) Promotes a more profound insight.
  • (B) Creates a stronger resistance.
  • (C) Reduces the complexity of.
  • (D) Develops a superficial grasp of.
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

The correct answer is (A) because the phrase "fosters a deeper understanding" implies promoting or encouraging a more profound and insightful comprehension of a topic, which aligns with the meaning of "promotes a more profound insight." Quick Tip: When you encounter phrases like "fosters a deeper understanding," it often refers to encouraging a more thorough and thoughtful comprehension, rather than simplifying or just skimming the surface.


Question 22:

Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the conclusion that addressing the challenges is crucial for harnessing the full potential of VR in medical education?

  • (A) Medical schools are rapidly adopting VR without considering the costs.
  • (B) Traditional medical training methods are becoming less effective.
  • (C) VR technology is becoming more affordable and accessible.
  • (D) VR simulations can replace all aspects of clinical experience.
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

The correct answer is (C) because if VR technology is becoming more affordable and accessible, the financial challenges associated with its implementation in medical education would be less significant. This would weaken the argument that addressing challenges (particularly cost-related) is crucial for fully utilizing VR’s potential, as it suggests that cost is no longer a major barrier. Quick Tip: When evaluating how a piece of information weakens an argument, consider how it challenges the underlying assumptions or concerns of the conclusion. In this case, affordability undermines the importance of addressing financial challenges.


Question 23:

What is the tone of the passage?

  • (A) Informative
  • (B) Reflective
  • (C) Persuasive
  • (D) Ironic

Question 24:

What is the cause-and-effect relationship presented in the passage?

  • (A) Cause: Pursuit of awards and certificates, Effect: Increased self-worth
  • (B) Cause: Intrinsic motivation, Effect: Pursuit of awards
  • (C) Cause: Unquenchable sense of accomplishment, Effect: Extrinsic validation
  • (D) Cause: Ironic tone, Effect: Entertainment of readers
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

The correct answer is (A) because the passage suggests that the pursuit of awards and certificates (a form of external validation) leads to an increased sense of self-worth. This cause-and-effect relationship aligns with the broader theme of seeking validation through external accomplishments. Quick Tip: When identifying a cause-and-effect relationship, focus on the logical link between actions and their outcomes. Ask yourself: What action (cause) leads to this result (effect)?


Question 25:

What is the purpose of the word “relentless” in the passage?

  • (A) To describe the journey as short-lived.
  • (B) To emphasise the continuous and persistent nature of the pursuit.
  • (C) To indicate a sudden change in direction.
  • (D) To convey a sense of calm and tranquillity.
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

The correct answer is (B) because the word "relentless" is used to emphasize the continuous and persistent nature of the pursuit. It implies that the pursuit is ongoing, without rest or cessation, highlighting its intensity and unyielding character. Quick Tip: When analyzing specific words in a passage, consider their connotations. "Relentless" often implies something that is unceasing, persistent, and intense—highlighting an ongoing, unyielding effort.


Question 26:

Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the conclusion that external validation is superficial in determining self-worth?

  • (A) Individuals who possess numerous awards tend to have high self-esteem.
  • (B) The pursuit of awards and certificates is often driven by personal goals and intrinsic motivation.
  • (C) People who lack external validation through awards still maintain high levels of self-worth.
  • (D) Studies show that individuals with more certificates are perceived as more competent by employers.
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

The correct answer is (A) because if individuals with numerous awards tend to have high self-esteem, it would challenge the idea that external validation (such as awards) is superficial in determining self-worth. This suggests that external validation can have a meaningful impact on self-esteem and self-worth, weakening the argument that it is superficial. Quick Tip: To weaken a conclusion, consider evidence that contradicts the argument's underlying assumption. In this case, evidence linking external validation (e.g., awards) with high self-esteem directly undermines the claim that it has no real impact on self-worth.


Question 27:

The author would probably agree with which of the following statements?

  • (A) “Awards and certificates are the sole determinants of self-worth.”
  • (B) “Intrinsic motivation plays no role in the pursuit of external validation.”
  • (C) “The pursuit of awards and certificates is driven by societal pressures.”
  • (D) “Personal growth is solely influenced by external validation.”
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

The correct answer is (C) because the author suggests that societal pressures play a significant role in motivating individuals to pursue awards and certificates. While external validation is a factor, the author is likely to agree that societal expectations contribute to this pursuit, influencing people's behavior and decisions. Quick Tip: When analyzing an author’s perspective, consider their emphasis on external factors like societal pressures, which often shape decisions and behaviors. Look for statements that reflect broader influences, not just individual motivations.


Question 28:

The author implies that pursuing awards and certificates would be \underline{\hspace{2cm to personal growth.

Choose the most appropriate answer.

  • (A) detrimental
  • (B) irrelevant
  • (C) integral
  • (D) insignificant
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

The correct answer is (C) because the author implies that awards and certificates play an integral role in the pursuit of personal growth. While they may not be the sole determinants of self-worth, they are seen as contributing positively to one's development in a structured, goal-oriented way. Quick Tip: Look for clues in the passage that link awards and certificates to positive outcomes like growth, learning, or progress. The word "integral" suggests something essential or necessary, which fits this context.


Question 29:

Given the author’s position on the pursuit of awards and certificates, what stand would the author probably take on the issue of external recognition in academia?

  • (A) The author would argue for stricter external recognition criteria in academia.
  • (B) The author would likely advocate for a reduced emphasis on external recognition in academia.
  • (C) The author would insist on increasing the number of awards available in academia.
  • (D) The author would emphasise the importance of formal dress codes in academic institutions.
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

The correct answer is (B) because, based on the author’s views on awards and certificates, the author is likely to advocate for a reduced emphasis on external recognition. The author seems to suggest that personal growth and intrinsic motivation should take precedence over societal pressures and external validation. Quick Tip: When analyzing the author’s views, focus on the emphasis placed on intrinsic motivation and the critique of excessive reliance on external validation, such as awards and certificates.


Question 30:

In the passage, which sentence correctly uses the past perfect tense?

  • (A) “Our relentless pursuit of accolades is deeply woven into the fabric of our society.”
  • (B) “No matter how confident or self-assured one may be, the allure of external validation is irresistible.”
  • (C) “The human pursuit of accolades and certificates, an intricate interplay of self-worth, external validation, and societal pressures.”
  • (D) “These recognitions had been elusive until recently, but now they have become more attainable.”
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

The correct answer is (D) because the sentence "These recognitions had been elusive until recently, but now they have become more attainable" uses the past perfect tense ("had been"). This tense is used to describe an action that was completed before another point in the past. Quick Tip: The past perfect tense is formed using "had" followed by the past participle. It is used to indicate an action that occurred before another past event or time.


Question 31:

Which of the following substitutions for ‘emblematic of’ in the given sentence would NOT change the meaning of the quoted sentence?

“They are emblematic of the tireless hours, the unwavering dedication, and the indomitable spirit invested in chasing our dreams.”

  • (A) Similar to
  • (B) Proof of
  • (C) Representative of
  • (D) Conducive to
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

The correct answer is (B) because "proof of" would change the meaning of the sentence. While "emblematic of," "representative of," and "similar to" all convey a symbolic or illustrative meaning, "proof of" suggests evidence of something, which is a different nuance. "Representative of" fits perfectly as a synonym for "emblematic of." Quick Tip: When selecting synonyms, focus on the context of the sentence. "Emblematic of" suggests symbolism or representation, while "proof of" implies direct evidence, which shifts the meaning.


Question 32:

What is the writer’s aim in referring to people as “multi-dimensional identities”?

  • (A) To emphasise that individuals possess numerous facets that contribute to their complexity.
  • (B) To suggest that people are hard to understand and often contradictory.
  • (C) To indicate that individuals should focus on their external accomplishments.
  • (D) To convey that people have only one defining trait that leads them to success.
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

The correct answer is (A) because the phrase "multi-dimensional identities" emphasizes the complexity of individuals. It suggests that people are not defined by a single aspect, but rather have a range of characteristics that contribute to who they are. The writer is highlighting the intricate nature of human identity. Quick Tip: When analyzing phrases like “multi-dimensional identities,” consider the broader context in which the writer is describing people. Look for clues that indicate complexity and a variety of traits that make up the whole individual.


Question 33:

The popularity of EVs can be ascribed to it being:

the latest technology.
a sustainable mode of transportation.
a means of empowerment.
easily available.

Choose the most appropriate answer.

  • (A) (1) and (2)
  • (B) (1) and (4)
  • (C) (2) and (3)
  • (D) (2) and (4)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

The correct answer is (C) because the popularity of electric vehicles (EVs) is largely due to their sustainability as a mode of transportation and their ability to empower individuals in terms of environmental responsibility. These factors make EVs attractive choices in the context of global efforts to combat climate change. Quick Tip: When considering the reasons for a trend, think about the long-term values it promotes, such as sustainability or empowerment, rather than short-term or convenience-based reasons.


Question 34:

A significant limitation in Tier 2 cities is

  • (A) the lack of enough EVs
  • (B) the dearth of sufficient number of jobs
  • (C) the slow pace of development
  • (D) the absence of adequate number of entrepreneurs
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

The correct answer is (B) because a major challenge faced by Tier 2 cities is the lack of sufficient job opportunities. While other factors such as slow development or absence of entrepreneurs are also challenges, the availability of jobs is a key limitation that affects the overall economic growth and attractiveness of these cities. Quick Tip: When analyzing the limitations of a city or region, consider factors that directly impact economic growth and population stability, such as job availability and infrastructure development.


Question 35:

The use of the word “catalyst” conveys that it is something

  • (A) that initiates a sudden and important change.
  • (B) that becomes the end to justify the means.
  • (C) that contributes to sustainable growth.
  • (D) surfaces at regular intervals of time.
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

The correct answer is (C) because the word “catalyst” in this context refers to something that contributes to sustainable growth. While a catalyst can initiate a change, the emphasis here is on its role in fostering continuous or long-term growth, rather than a sudden or temporary effect. Quick Tip: The word "catalyst" often implies something that triggers or accelerates change in a positive, ongoing manner. Look for answers that align with long-term impact or sustainability.


Question 36:

Statement 1: EVs are extremely versatile and have a wider range to offer.

Statement 2: More women than men have bought EVs.

Choose the most appropriate answer.

  • (A) Both statements are true and 2 is the correct explanation of 1.
  • (B) Both statements are true but 2 is not the correct explanation of 1.
  • (C) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
  • (D) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

The correct answer is (C) because Statement 1 is true—electric vehicles (EVs) are indeed versatile and offer a wider range of features such as environmental benefits and various technological advancements. However, Statement 2 is false, as the data does not support the claim that more women have bought EVs than men. Therefore, Statement 2 does not explain Statement 1. Quick Tip: When analyzing statements, always check the factual accuracy of both parts and ensure that they logically correlate, especially when one statement is said to explain the other.


Question 37:

“Last-mile delivery” refers to the journey of the product

  • (A) reaching the customer’s doorstep.
  • (B) in the back of a delivery truck.
  • (C) from the warehouse shelf.
  • (D) at the manufacturing plant.
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

The correct answer is (A) because "last-mile delivery" refers to the final leg of the delivery journey, where a product is transported from a distribution center or warehouse to the customer's doorstep. This step is critical in ensuring timely delivery to end consumers. Quick Tip: “Last-mile delivery” is a key concept in logistics, and it specifically involves the final step of delivering goods to consumers. Think about the stage that directly impacts the customer’s experience.


Question 38:

In which of the following sentences is the word ‘avenue’ used in the same sense as given in the passage?

  • (A) As you go through the entrance, you are surrounded by an avenue of golden trees.
  • (B) The authors suggest several further avenues of research in which their findings could prove useful.
  • (C) In spite of the late hour, the lights at 22 Canning Avenue were still ablaze.
  • (D) One of these improvements consists of a central avenue cut across the old city to the waterfront.
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

The correct answer is (B) because in this context, the word "avenue" refers to a path, method, or approach, which aligns with the sense used in the passage. In this case, it suggests a direction for further research or exploration, much like a metaphorical "path" in an academic context. Quick Tip: When you see the word "avenue," think about whether it refers to a physical path or a figurative one. In academic and metaphorical contexts, "avenue" often refers to a method or direction, as seen in option (B).


Question 39:

In which sectors have electric vehicles (EVs) enabled women to generate income and empower their communities in Tier 2 markets?

  • (A) Healthcare and education
  • (B) Agriculture and farming
  • (C) Last-mile delivery, transportation, and local commuting
  • (D) Manufacturing and heavy industries
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

The correct answer is (C) because electric vehicles (EVs) have opened up opportunities for women in Tier 2 markets by enabling them to participate in sectors like last-mile delivery, transportation, and local commuting. These sectors offer flexible income-generating opportunities, empowering women to contribute economically and support their communities. Quick Tip: In analyzing the impact of new technologies like EVs, think about how they create opportunities for individuals in areas with limited access to traditional infrastructure. The flexibility of last-mile delivery and local transportation is a key enabler.


Question 40:

Based on the data from the National Health Survey, what could be a potential consequence for educational institutions if they don’t address the mental health challenges of their students?

  • (A) improved student performance
  • (B) No impact on the institution
  • (C) Decreased student enrolment
  • (D) Decreased academic success and retention rates
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

The correct answer is (D) because if educational institutions fail to address mental health challenges, it can lead to decreased academic success and retention rates. Mental health issues can negatively affect students' focus, performance, and overall well-being, resulting in lower grades and higher dropout rates. Quick Tip: Mental health challenges are a significant factor in students' academic success. Institutions should implement support systems and services to help students thrive, both academically and personally.


Question 41:

In what ways might educational institutions contribute to the rising trend in student mental health challenges, as mentioned in the paragraph?

  • (A) Higher educational institutions have no role in this trend
  • (B) By appointing dedicated mentors for all students
  • (C) Through insufficient awareness and support for student mental health
  • (D) By increasing the academic rigor
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

The correct answer is (C) because the rising trend in student mental health challenges can often be attributed to insufficient awareness and support for mental health within educational institutions. When institutions fail to provide adequate resources, counseling, and awareness, students may feel unsupported and overwhelmed, leading to increased mental health issues. Quick Tip: Educational institutions should prioritize mental health awareness and support systems. When students feel that their well-being is considered, they are more likely to thrive both academically and personally.


Question 42:

What broader implications can be drawn from the statistics in the paragraph for the overall well-being of society?

  • (A) An indication of the need for more stringent admission standards in educational institutions to address mental health concerns
  • (B) A potential decline in workforce productivity and innovation due to mental health issues
  • (C) An increased emphasis on academic rigor and competitiveness in the job market
  • (D) A call for re-evaluation of social support systems to address mental health challenges, as these issues extend beyond educational institutions
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

The correct answer is (D) because the broader implication suggested by the statistics is a need for society to re-evaluate and strengthen social support systems to address mental health challenges, which affect not only students but also the wider population. These issues extend beyond educational institutions and can influence various aspects of life, including employment and social interactions. Quick Tip: Mental health challenges are not isolated to any one group; they have far-reaching effects. Addressing mental health requires a holistic approach, including changes to social support systems, workplace policies, and educational practices.


Question 43:

According to research, what is the relationship between culturally relevant learning experiences and academic success?

  • (A) They have no correlation
  • (B) Culturally relevant learning experiences primarily hinder academic success
  • (C) Culturally relevant learning experiences can improve academic success
  • (D) They are only relevant for certain student populations
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

The correct answer is (C) because research suggests that culturally relevant learning experiences can positively influence academic success. When educational content and teaching strategies reflect students' cultural backgrounds and experiences, they are more likely to engage, feel valued, and perform better academically. Quick Tip: Incorporating culturally relevant practices in education can enhance engagement, motivation, and academic achievement. It’s important to consider students' cultural identities in the design of learning experiences.


Question 44:

What is the significance of a curriculum that allows students to deepen their connections to both their community’s cultural values and their learning environment?

  • (A) it hinders academic success
  • (B) it has no impact on the sense of belonging
  • (C) it helps students feel like they belong to both the institution and their culture
  • (D) it emphasizes academic rigidity
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

The correct answer is (C) because a curriculum that acknowledges and integrates students' cultural values allows them to feel a sense of belonging to both their community and the learning environment. This connection enhances their engagement and motivation, fostering a deeper academic and social connection with both their cultural identity and the institution. Quick Tip: A culturally responsive curriculum strengthens students' sense of identity and belonging. When students feel understood and valued in their learning environments, they are more likely to succeed.


Question 45:

What does the term ‘ever-evolving’ imply in the first paragraph?

  • (A) Linguistics is becoming stagnant and unchanging.
  • (B) Linguistics is a dynamic field that continuously develops and changes.
  • (C) Linguistics has reached its peak and will not change further.
  • (D) Linguistics is regressing and losing its significance.
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

The correct answer is (B) because the term ‘ever-evolving’ highlights the dynamic and constantly changing nature of the field of linguistics. It suggests that linguistics is an ongoing field of study that adapts and progresses as new insights and challenges emerge. Quick Tip: In academic fields like linguistics, 'ever-evolving' refers to the continuous development of new theories, methods, and discoveries that shape and redefine the discipline.


Question 46:

Which option does NOT correctly infer the meaning based on the following sentence from the first paragraph?
“The expanding purview of linguistics is a testament to its growing significance in understanding our world and enhancing our technological prowess.”

  • (A) Linguistics plays a significant role in our comprehension of the world and technological advancements.
  • (B) The scope of linguistics has grown, reflecting its increasing importance in understanding our world and advancing our technological capabilities.
  • (C) Linguistics has a declining influence on our understanding of the world and technological advancements.
  • (D) Expanding the field of linguistics has led to a greater focus on understanding the world and enhancing our technological capabilities.
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

The correct answer is (C) because the sentence emphasizes the growing importance and expanding scope of linguistics in both understanding the world and enhancing technology. Option (C) incorrectly suggests that linguistics has a declining influence, which contradicts the positive tone of the original sentence. Quick Tip: Pay attention to the overall tone and context when inferring meaning. The use of terms like “expanding purview” and “growing significance” suggests progress, not decline.


Question 47:

Why has the writer used the word “tapestry” in the phrase “revealing its intricate tapestry”?

  • (A) To emphasise the colourful and decorative nature of linguistic studies.
  • (B) To suggest that linguistics involves the crafting of physical artworks.
  • (C) To indicate the presence of hidden and mysterious aspects in linguistics.
  • (D) To imply that linguistics is like a woven fabric of interconnected elements.
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

The correct answer is (D) because the word "tapestry" is often used metaphorically to describe something complex and intricately woven, much like linguistics itself. The use of "tapestry" here implies that linguistics is made up of many interconnected aspects, each contributing to the overall structure and understanding of the field. Quick Tip: Metaphors like "tapestry" help to convey the complexity of a subject in a more visual and accessible way. Look for clues in the surrounding context to understand how they are being used.


Question 48:

Select the option that correctly analyses the impact of the writer’s use of words like “synergy” and “confluence”.

  • (A) To highlight the tension and conflicts between linguistics and computer science.
  • (B) To illustrate the collision of linguistic theories with computer science, creating chaos in both fields.
  • (C) To describe the harmonious collaboration between linguistics and computer science, resulting in transformative technologies.
  • (D) To depict the isolation of linguistics from other academic disciplines and its struggle to adapt.
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

The correct answer is (C) because the terms “synergy” and “confluence” emphasize the positive collaboration and merging of linguistics with computer science. These words suggest a productive and harmonious relationship between the two fields, leading to transformative technologies, rather than conflict or isolation. Quick Tip: Words like "synergy" and "confluence" are often used to indicate positive cooperation and the blending of ideas, especially when describing fields that complement each other.


Question 49:

How can the relationship between humans and machines be described as ‘symbiotic’ ? (paragraph 3)

  • (A) Because machines fully depend on humans for their functionality.
  • (B) As humans and machines work together, benefiting from each other’s capabilities.
  • (C) Because machines have replaced humans in various linguistic tasks.
  • (D) As humans have become overly reliant on machines for linguistic analysis.
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

The correct answer is (B) because a "symbiotic" relationship involves mutual benefit. In this case, humans and machines work together, with each benefiting from the other's capabilities—humans provide the creativity and context, while machines contribute with processing power and accuracy. Quick Tip: In symbiotic relationships, both parties benefit and rely on each other. Look for clues in the context that suggest mutual dependence or cooperation.


Question 50:

What is an example of an interdisciplinary collaboration mentioned in the passage? (Paragraph 4)

  • (A) Collaboration between linguistics and art history to study language’s visual representation.
  • (B) Collaboration between linguistics and chemistry to analyse language composition.
  • (C) Collaboration between linguistics and psychology, neuroscience, and anthropology to understand the interplay between language and human cognition.
  • (D) Collaboration between linguistics and astronomy to explore the influence of celestial bodies on human languages.
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

The correct answer is (C) because the passage highlights the interdisciplinary collaboration between linguistics and fields like psychology, neuroscience, and anthropology. This collaboration helps understand how language interacts with human cognition, a key area of study in linguistics. Quick Tip: Look for clues about how different disciplines come together to address complex issues. Interdisciplinary collaborations often involve blending methods or perspectives from multiple fields.


Question 51:

The ‘COP26’ conference has been a significant global event. What is its primary focus?

  • (A) An annual event celebrating cinematic achievements
  • (B) A global summit addressing climate change and environmental sustainability
  • (C) A technology conference for the gaming industry
  • (D) A forum for discussions on international trade agreements

Question 52:

A key thrust area for the Supreme Court of India has been towards securing diversity and inclusion in its ranks. Who was the first woman judge of the Supreme Court of India?

  • (A) Justice Ranjana Prakash Desai
  • (B) Justice BV Nagarathna
  • (C) Justice M Fathima Beevi
  • (D) Justice Sujata V Manohar

Question 53:

What does the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) measure?

  • (A) Total government revenue collection and expenditure incurred during a financial year
  • (B) Total money in circulation in the economy at any given point of time
  • (C) Is a measure of income distribution and inequality within a country
  • (D) Broadly understood as the final value of the goods and services produced within the geographic boundaries of a country during a specified period of time

Question 54:

The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) were adopted by the United Nations in 2015 as a universal call for peace and prosperity. Which of the following statements about SDGs is NOT true?

  • (A) Plan of action for people, planet, and prosperity
  • (B) Development must balance social, economic, and environmental sustainability
  • (C) Creativity, knowhow, technology, and financial resources from all of society are necessary to achieve the goals in every context
  • (D) Rank countries according to their economic growth and GDP per capita

Question 55:

In 1960, a Stanford Professor, Walter Mischel, conducted an interesting experiment called the ‘Marshmallow Experiment’ to test the connection between delayed gratification and better success later in various facets of life. The outcome of the experiment can also be referred to as:

  • (A) Present Bias
  • (B) G.i.Joe Fallacy
  • (C) Cognitive Dissonance
  • (D) Confirmation Bias

Question 56:

Which international agreements remain central in efforts to enable a permanent solution to the geopolitical tensions between Russia and Ukraine?

  • (A) Minsk Agreements
  • (B) Geneva Conventions
  • (C) Baku Accords
  • (D) Moscow Peace Treaty

Question 57:

The world’s tallest statue, an ode to Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, situated in Kevadia, Gujarat is also referred to as:

  • (A) Statue of Equality
  • (B) Statue of Independence
  • (C) Statue of Unity
  • (D) Statue of Belief

Question 58:

In 2022, India introduced the KAVACH system, which is:

  • (A) Indigenously developed Automatic Train Protection (ATP) System
  • (B) Software network developed by DRDO and used by intelligence agencies to intercept and analyse internet traffic
  • (C) Constellation of remote sensing satellites to monitor weather patterns and early warning of natural disaster
  • (D) Indigenously developed counter-drone systems most recently deployed during the G20 summit

Question 59:

The ‘Five Eyes Alliance’ is a global intelligence network, pooling resources and sharing sensitive information to collectively secure peace and combat global threat. The following countries make up the alliance:

  • (A) US, UK, France, Germany, Japan
  • (B) US, UK, Australia, Japan, India
  • (C) US, UK, Germany, Australia, New Zealand
  • (D) US, UK, Canada, Australia, New Zealand

Question 60:

The G20 Summit in India brought together leaders from the world’s major economies to address pressing global issues. India used this platform to underscore its commitment to fostering global growth and stability. Which of the following areas was NOT a focus of the summit?

  • (A) Managing Global Debt Vulnerabilities
  • (B) Eliminating Hunger and Malnutrition
  • (C) Bridging the Gender Digital Divide
  • (D) Making space exploration more equitable

Question 61:

The Indian Premier League is a professional T20 cricket league. It was established in 2008, and has since become one of the most popular cricketing leagues in the world. Which of the following players has played for the same team (franchise) since the inaugural edition?

  • (A) David Warner
  • (B) Virat Kohli
  • (C) Ben Stokes
  • (D) Hardik Pandya

Question 62:

The NASA OSIRIS-REx mission (Origins, Spectral Interpretation, Resource Identification, and Security – Regolith Explorer) recently brought back a capsule of rocks and dust collected from:

  • (A) Asteroid Bennu
  • (B) Mars
  • (C) Saturn’s rings
  • (D) Halley’s comet

Question 63:

Which is the longest river in India?

  • (A) Godavari
  • (B) Ganga
  • (C) Narmada
  • (D) Mahanadi

Question 64:

A key Indian foreign policy initiative is the ‘Act East Policy’. Which statement correctly captures its objective?

  • (A) is to promote economic cooperation, cultural ties and develop strategic relationship with countries in the Indo-Pacific region
  • (B) securing an active intelligence sharing network between India, Sri Lanka, and Bangladesh
  • (C) promotes a key partnership to combat human and drug trafficking through South East Asian nations
  • (D) promotes India as a hub of scientific education by attracting best minds from various South East Asian nations

Question 65:

The Jnanpith Award recognizes the most outstanding contributions in the field of:

  • (A) Medicine
  • (B) Literature
  • (C) Science and Engineering
  • (D) Public Affairs

Question 66:

Which of the following global companies is NOT led by a CEO of Indian origin?

  • (A) Starbucks
  • (B) Microsoft
  • (C) Chanel
  • (D) RedBull GmbH

Question 67:

The Reserve Bank of India, having regard to the needs of securing monetary stability in the country, prescribes the CRR (Cash Reserve Ratio). Which of the following most closely explains this ratio?

  • (A) percentage of bank’s total deposits that is required to be maintained either in cash or as deposits with the Reserve Bank of India
  • (B) minimum rate at which Reserve Bank of India lends funds to commercial banks
  • (C) minimum percentage of net profit to cash flow that banks require to maintain over a financial year
  • (D) maximum percentage of deposits that can be extended as loans by a bank at any given point of time

Question 68:

Which author made history by being the first Indian (non-expatriate) to win the Booker Prize?

  • (A) Arundhati Roy – God of Small Things
  • (B) Kiran Desai – The Inheritance of Loss
  • (C) Arvind Adiga – White Tiger
  • (D) Chetan Bhagat – Five Point Someone

Question 69:

Who among the following is NOT a recipient of a Nobel Prize?

  • (A) Mother Teresa
  • (B) Kailash Satyarthi
  • (C) Amartya Sen
  • (D) Mahatma Gandhi

Question 70:

Pick the iNCORRECT combination.

  • (A) New Horizons – Pluto
  • (B) Cassini Huygens – Saturn
  • (C) Juno – Jupiter
  • (D) ignis – Sun

Question 71:

Which of the following countries is NOT a member of SAARC?

  • (A) Afghanistan
  • (B) Bhutan
  • (C) Cambodia
  • (D) Bangladesh

Question 72:

Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam, known as the Missile Man of India, was instrumental in the creation of which of these offices? He was also the first person to hold this office.

  • (A) Principal Scientific Advisor to the Government of India
  • (B) Director of the Indian Space Research Organisation
  • (C) Director of the Defence Research and Development Organisation
  • (D) Secretary to the Department of Atomic Energy

Question 73:

Which of the following countries have neither signed nor ratified the Rome Statute?

i. India

ii. United States of America

iii. Russian Federation

iv. Azerbaijan

  • (A) i, ii, iv.
  • (B) Only i.
  • (C) Only i and iv.
  • (D) All of the above.

Question 74:

Omar al-Bashir was the first Head of State to be indicted by the International Criminal Court. He was indicted by the Court in relation to which of the following incidents?


Question 75:

A big roadblock towards concluding Brexit was the failure of the UK and the EU to agree on transport of goods to Ireland (a member of the EU) through Northern Ireland (one of the constituent countries of the UK). This problem was resolved with the conclusion of the Windsor framework, effectively the final step in the Brexit process. Which of the following statements about the Windsor Framework are accurate?
I. It is a tripartite agreement between England, Northern Ireland, and the United Kingdom. 
II. The agreement proposes to establish red and green lanes for goods moving into Northern Ireland to reduce checks and paperwork related hurdles on such goods. 
III. The agreement does not provide for separation of goods entering Northern Ireland from those entering Ireland.
IV. The agreement is concluded between the United Kingdom and the European Union.
Choose the most appropriate answer.


Question 76:

Which of the following statements about BRICS is not incorrect?
I. South Africa is not an original member of the BRICS coalition. 
II. The bloc was started as an attempt to strategically assist the United States of America as allies. 
III. The BRICS member countries represent at least 40% of the world’s population. 
IV. The acronym for the bloc was coined in 2001 by then Goldman Sachs chief economist Jim O’Neill in a research paper that underlined the growth potential of Brazil, Russia, India and China. 
Choose the most appropriate answer.


Question 77:

India recently hosted the G20 Conference in New Delhi as it served as the President for the coalition. Which of the following is the only country to have permanent guest invitee status at the G20?


Question 78:

A change in exchange rate leads to a change in supply and demand of foreign goods in the domestic market and domestic goods in the foreign market. This also leads to an imbalance in the balance of payments. What is Balance of Payments?


Question 79:

The gaming industry witnessed its largest acquisition in recent history involving the following major entities:


Question 80:

ISRO’s PSLV has been the workhorse for the Indian space programme, launching many critical payloads including the recent Chandrayaan mission. What does PSLV stand for?


Question 81:

All Supreme Court judgements are binding on all High Courts. All High Court judgements have persuasive value in other High Courts. Some High Court judgements also have persuasive value in the Supreme Court. Examine the following statements:
I. Some High Court judgments are binding on the Supreme Court. 
II. Some judgements with persuasive value are binding on High Courts.
III. Some High Court judgements are persuasive in both the Supreme Court and the High Courts. 
Choose the most appropriate answer.


Question 82:

All ducks are birds. Some birds fly, and no reptiles are birds. A snake is a reptile. If the above are true, which of the following would also be true?


Question 83:

All Cats are singers. All birds dance. Some Cats are birds. Albert Einstein is a Singer. Examine the following statements:
I. Albert Einstein does not dance
II. Albert Einstein dances
III. Albert Einstein is a bird
IV. Albert Einstein is not a bird
V. Albert Einstein is not a cat
VI. Albert Einstein is a cat
Which of the following conclusion(s) is necessarily correct? Choose the most appropriate answer.


Question 84:

All Watches are Chronographs. Some Chronographs are antiques. All Antiques are expensive. D is a Chronograph. Which of the statements necessarily follows?


Question 85:

All Philosophers are logicians. Some logicians are critical thinkers. All Critical thinkers are rationalist. Z is a rationalist. Examine the following
statements:
I. Z is a logician
II. Z may be a logician
III. Z is a Philosopher
IV. Z is a critical thinker
Choose the most appropriate answer.


Question 86:

Some Rivers are Ponds. All Ponds are Ocean. No Ocean is Sea.

Conclusions:
I) Some Ponds are Sea
II) All Rivers are Ocean
III) Some Sea may be a River
Which of the conclusions necessarily follows ?

Choose the most appropriate answer:


Question 87:

Some Ships are Boats. All Boats are submarines. Some Submarines are Yachts. Examine the following statements:
I) Some Yachts are Boats
II) Some Submarines are Ships
III) Some Yachts are Ships
Choose the most appropriate answer:


Question 88:

All States are Countries. Only some Countries are States. Some States are democratic. Given that X is democratic, examine the following conclusions:

X is a State.
X is a Country.
X is not a State.
X is not a Country.

Choose the most appropriate answer:


Question 89:

Statement I: All books are valuables.

Statement II: Some souvenirs are books.

Statement III: Some books are souvenirs.

Statement IV: No valuables are souvenirs.

Choose the most appropriate answer:


Question 90:

All lions are animals. No animal is a zombie. All zombies are rainbows. All rainbows are zombies.

Given this information, which of the options necessarily follows?


Question 91:

‘Frankly, technology is often baffling to me, too. Luckily, I have kids who delight in parenting me – advising, explaining and guiding me, on all things digital. But studies suggest that this helpfulness might not be as beneficial as we think. Grappling with new and baffling things forces the ageing brain to work in novel ways. A recent study from the University of Texas involving more than 200 elderly adults found that those who engaged with technology had better cognition and memory than their non-engaging peers.’

Which of the following assumption is made in the above passage?


Question 92:

Depression among the elderly is on the rise and often goes unnoticed. Most Gerontologists now believe that it is an extremely common psychiatric disorder among the elderly – with half of all cases going undiagnosed. When elderly parents become depressed (many of them come from a generation not accustomed to talking about their mental health), it can be difficult to know how to respond.

Which of the following assumption is made in the above passage?


Question 93:

Players have long been able to buy virtual items with real money in video games, such as special weapons and features. But Nintendo raised the ire of parents and Regulators in 2018 when it added so-called loot boxes—a virtual lottery for in-game items—to its kid-friendly game ‘Animal Crossing: Pocket Camp.’ That same year, the US Federal Trade Commission said it would investigate loot boxes, which critics liken to a slot machine or a scratch ticket that’s more accessible to children. The video game industry pushed back hard, arguing that loot boxes are an integral part of the strategy and skills players use to compete.

The passage assumes which of the following:


Question 94:

Any attempt at fighting the camp’s psychopathological influence on the prisoner by psychotherapeutic or psychogenic methods has to aim at giving inner strength by pointing out to him a future goal to which he could look forward. Instinctively some of the prisoners attempted to find one on their own. It is a peculiarity of man that he can only live by looking to the future. And this is his salvation in the most difficult moments of his existence, although he sometimes has to force his mind to the task.

Which one of the following conclusions can be properly inferred from the passage?


Question 95:

The problem with eugenics and genetic engineering is that they represent the one-sided triumph of wilfulness over giftedness, of dominance over reverence, of moulding over beholding. But why, we may wonder, should we worry about this triumph? Why not shake off our unease with enhancement as so much superstition? What would be lost if biotechnology dissolved our sense of giftedness ?Which of the following conclusions can be properly inferred from the passage?
I. Genetically engineered kids would be ungifted.
II. Genetic engineering might make people more focussed on controlling things and less respectful of natural abilities.
III. Controlling and dominating abilities through genetic engineering should be seen as natural part of human progress.
Choose the most appropriate answer.


Question 96:

Statements: Young adults spend most of their time on social media. Young adults should spend more time making connections in the real world.

Conclusions:
i. Young adults should avoid social media.

ii. Young adults cannot make real life connections because they spend most of their time on social media.

Which of the following conclusions can be properly inferred? Choose the most appropriate answer.


Question 97:

While television and print media are still bound by regulations that require a modicum of truthful content, social media is a battleground of facts, lies, and deception, where governments, journalists, law enforcement, and activists are on an uneven playing field. Lack of stringent regulation or periodic verification, enable unbridled access to social media, resulting in unchecked dissemination of information with elusive credibility.

Which of the following conclusions can be properly inferred from the passage?
i. Anyone can post anything on social media.

II. It is generally difficult to ascertain the accuracy of content posted on social media.

III. People are easily influenced by what they read on social media.

Choose the most appropriate answer.


Question 98:

Fitness tracking devices often recommend we take 10,000 steps a day. But the goal of taking 10,000 steps, which many of us believe is rooted in science, in fact rests on coincidence and sticky history rather than research. Research suggests use of time, not steps, and suggests we exercise for at least 150 minutes a week, or half an hour most days, in addition to any moving around we do as part of our normal daily lives.

Which of the following conclusions can be properly inferred from the passage?


Question 99:

Human beings are entitled to dignity and rights while non-human animals are not, because human beings are autonomous while animals are heteronomous. In other words, animals are not in control of their actions and are guided entirely by pleasure and pain, while human beings are capable of acting, for moral reasons, even contrary to pleasure and consonant with pain.

Which of the following assumption is made in the above passage?


Question 100:

The negative psychological effects of pornography, including addiction and emotional distress, are well-documented. We have a moral obligation to protect our society from these potential harms. Banning pornography is a responsible step to safeguard the mental well-being of individuals, especially our youth.

Which of the following assumption is made in the above passage?


Question 101:

Excessive use of mobile phones has been associated with a range of health issues. Prolonged screen time and constant connectivity can lead to physical problems like eye strain, neck and back pain, and disrupted sleep patterns. Additionally, excessive use of mobile phones raises concerns about the potential long-term health effects of exposure to electromagnetic radiation. Therefore, one should not use mobile phones.

Which of the following assumption is made in the above passage?


Question 102:

Dark comedy should be banned. Dark comedy often relies on humour that is edgy and insensitive, making light of serious or sensitive topics such as death, mental illness, or tragedy. It can normalize insensitivity and desensitize people to the gravity of these issues. Over time, individuals may become less empathetic or more willing to dismiss the real-life pain and suffering of others as mere punchlines.

Which of the following assumption is made in the above passage?


Question 103:

An environmental organization claims that replacing traditional light bulbs with LED bulbs in households will significantly reduce electricity consumption.

Which of the following, if true, would most support this claim?


Question 104:

A research study concluded that regular exercise leads to better mental health. The study found that individuals who exercised on average for 30 minutes every day reported lower levels of stress and anxiety.

Which of the following, if true, would undermine the study’s conclusion?


Question 105:

Gun violence in schools is a significant and concerning issue, and discussing ways to prevent it and ensure the safety of students and faculty is crucial. An important way of limiting it is by implementing background checks and waiting periods for gun purchases. This can prevent individuals with mental health issues from obtaining firearms.

Which of the following is the most appropriate assumption required by the above passage?


Question 106:

The question of whether colonialism was ‘good’ is a complex and debated topic. Some argue that colonialism led to advancements in technology, infrastructure, and education in some regions. However, it also brought about immense suffering, exploitation, and the loss of sovereignty for many indigenous populations. The negative consequences, including cultural erosion, displacement, and violence, often outweigh any potential benefits. In contemporary discourse, it is generally recognized that the harms of colonialism far outweigh any perceived ‘good,’ and its legacy continues to shape global inequalities and injustices. Which of the following is/are most appropriate conclusion(s) of the above passage?
Which of the following is/are most appropriate conclusion(s) of the above passage? 
I. It is important to see both the ‘good’ and ‘bad’ of colonialism to understand its true impact. 
II. Irrespective of the ‘good’ that colonialism brought, it can never justify the ‘bad’ it perpetrated. 
III. It was necessary to do ‘bad’ to attain the good in colonialism. 
IV. discussions on effects of colonialism must end with attainment of independence, otherwise it tends to become a continuing excuse.
Choose the most appropriate answer


Question 107:

The Examination Department at prominent National Law School is considering setting its class schedules for the incoming batch. The subjects are Sociology, Contracts, Political Science, Constitutional Law and Administrative Law. The following considerations are kept in mind:
I. All classes must be held every day
II. Political Science must immediately follow Contracts on any day
III. Sociology cannot be the first or the last subject on any day
IV. Constitutional Law and Administrative law cannot immediately precede or follow each other
If Administrative Law is the third class of the day, what does the class schedule for that day looks like

  • (A) Constitutional Law, Sociology, Administrative Law, Contracts, Political Science
  • (B) Contracts, Political Science, Administrative Law, Constitutional Law, Sociology
  • (C) Contracts, Constitutional Law, Administrative Law, Sociology, Political Science
  • (D) Sociology, Contracts, Administrative Law, Political Science, Constitutional Law

Question 108:

Before announcing its policy of Non-Performing Assets (NPA), the Finance Ministry has decided to consult heads of six of the largest banks in the
country (A,B,C,D,E,F). It is a well-known fact that not all heads get along very well with each other and prefer not to sit next to each other in any
meeting. During the meeting they all will sit in a line facing the finance minister. You have been tasked to devise a seating plan keeping in mind
the following conditions.
I. A cannot be on the immediate left or right of B
II. D cannot be at either end
III. E and F would ideally like to sit next to each other
IV. C would prefer to sit one seat removed from E
Which of the following is a possible seating arrangement?

  • (A) D, A, F, E, B, C
  • (B) E, F, A, B, D, C
  • (C) A, D, E, F, C, B
  • (D) F, E, C, A, D, B

Question 109:

Cities are the engines of a nation’s progress. However, many cities are poorly managed and struggle to provide a basic standard of living to many residents. At the core of the problem is the question of autonomy of cities that are almost always dependent on central or state governments for even basic needs. A new report suggests that this can be remedied through constitutional amendments to provide more autonomy, means of revenue-generation and discretion in spending to cities.

Which of the below facts, if true, most weakens the above argument?


Question 110:

A town was faced with the problem of an excessive number of rats. To solve this, the town started offering a financial reward for every rat killed, which was to be proved by showing the severed tail of the rat.

Which of the following facts, if true, would be an argument in favour of the town’s policy?


Question 111:

Not wearing a seatbelt in a moving vehicle is illegal and punishable. However, X argues that since not wearing a seatbelt can at most only harm the person who has chosen not to wear a seatbelt, and does not harm any other person, it should not be illegal or punishable.

Which of the following facts, if true, would weaken X’s argument?


Question 112:

Certain tennis tournaments have started a policy for equal pay for men and women players. Supporters of the policy argue that lack of equal pay would violate the principle of equal pay for equal work.

Which of the following arguments most weakens the supporters’ argument?


Question 113:

Certain tennis tournaments have started a policy for equal pay for men and women players. Critics of the policy argue that because men’s matches generate more revenue than women’s matches, this policy is ill-conceived.

Which of the following most weakens the critics’ argument?


Question 114:

Statement: “Nudge theory” is the theory that by shaping the environment, also known as the choice architecture, one can influence the likelihood that one option is chosen over another by individuals, without adding any significant incentives or disincentives for any option. For example, a retail store may place its more expensive items at eye-level, and cheaper items at a lower shelf. Perhaps the most frequently mentioned example of nudge theory is the setting of defaults, which are pre-set courses of action that take effect if nothing is specified by the decision-maker.

Which of the following facts, if true, best supports the above statements?

i. If a default option is provided, decision-makers are likely to choose that option.

ii. Consumers in a retail store are likely to choose items that are placed at eye level rather than items which are placed on a lower shelf.

Choose the most appropriate answer.


Question 115:

Some children’s books which were published in the 1950s contain racist and sexist language that would be unacceptable today. These books should be re-published with the racist and sexist language omitted.

Which of the following most strengthens the above argument?


Question 116:

Darshan is attempting to build a 5-day meal-plan from 6 dishes - U, V, W, X, Y, and Z - in accordance with the following conditions:

i. No dish may be repeated unless two other dishes are cooked before the repetition.

ii. W and V must not be made on consecutive days.

iii. U and Z must not be made on alternate days.

iv. Y must always be followed by X.

Which of the following is a valid meal-plan if V must be included?


Question 117:

Joseph must decide which songs - A, B, C, D, and E - to sing in a 5-day performance schedule, with each song being performed only on one day, in accordance with the following conditions:

i. C and D must not be scheduled on adjacent days.

ii. B may immediately follow E, but not vice-versa.

iii. The first day must either be A or C.

iv. The last day cannot be D.

If B is the mid-point of the performance schedule, which of the following is a valid 5-day schedule?


Question 118:

Anisha must decide how to seat her friends - V, W, X, Y, Z - at a circular wedding table in accordance with the following conditions:

i. Z and W must sit next to each other.

ii. Y may only sit with V if Y is also sitting with Z.

iii. X is happy to sit with anyone.

If Y and X arrive early and take seats 1 and 3, which of the following is a valid arrangement?


Question 119:

Arjun is prioritizing his set of tasks for the day - V, W, X, Y, and Z - in accordance with the following conditions:

i. X must not be the last task.

ii. If Z is the first task, then it must be followed by either V or Y.

iii. X and W cannot be prioritized sequentially.

iv. V must be followed by either W or Y.

If Arjun assigns Y to position 3, which of these is a possible ordering for the tasks?


Question 120:

Principle 1: Whoever enters into another person’s property with intent to intimidate, insult or annoy that person, commits “criminal trespass”.

Principle 2: An act which causes harm which is so slight that no person of ordinary sense and temper would complain of such harm, is deemed not to amount to intimidation, insult or annoyance.

Facts: X enters into Y’s property at midnight, uninvited, and points a gun at Y. A few minutes later, he reveals that the gun is a toy gun.

Choose the most appropriate answer:


Question 121:

Principle: Any person who knowingly disseminates false information with the intent to defraud shall be guilty of an offence.

Facts: Dravid shares a news article containing false information about a popular cryptocurrency investment scheme. He claims it’s a groundbreaking opportunity. Many people invest and later lose money.

Is Dravid guilty of an offence?


Question 122:

Principle: Any individual who recklessly operates a motor vehicle, causing injury to another person, shall be guilty of an offense.

Facts: Salman, while driving, becomes momentarily distracted and accidentally hits a pedestrian, causing minor injuries. Salman argues that it was a genuine accident and not reckless behaviour.

Is Salman guilty of an offense?


Question 123:

Which of the following will NOT result in vicarious liability?

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: Vicarious liability applies when an employee commits a tort in the course of employment.

Step 2: Option (a) involves a personal errand on a weekend using a private vehicle, clearly outside the scope of employment.

Step 3: Option (b) occurs during work hours between deliveries, which may be considered incidental to employment.

Step 4: Option (c) involves a company-authorized vehicle and a commute directly tied to work, which may fall within employment scope.

Step 5: Therefore, only (a) does not result in vicarious liability. Quick Tip: Vicarious liability depends on whether the act occurred “in the course of employment.” Personal errands and off-duty conduct usually fall outside this scope.


Question 124:

Which of the following may result in vicarious liability?

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: Vicarious liability applies when an employee commits a tort in the course of employment.

Step 2: Option (a) involves a personal holiday trip, clearly outside the scope of employment .

Step 3: Option (b) involves a personal motive (revenge), even though the act occurred during work hours — courts often exclude such acts from employer liability .

Step 4: Option (c) involves an intentional act during the course of employment (trying to make deliveries), which may be considered within scope .

Step 5: Therefore, only (c) may result in vicarious liability. Quick Tip: Vicarious liability depends on whether the wrongful act occurred in the course of employment and was related to job duties—not driven by personal motives.


Question 125:

An unknown person knocks down a few hundred jars of baby food in the supermarket. Many of the jars shattered, making a big, slippery mess on the floor. Laila, the supermarket manager, closes down the aisle with bright orange cones and orders all available stock personnel to clean the mess. Arun, who is not paying attention while shopping in the supermarket, wanders past the orange cones, slips, and breaks his arm.

Is the supermarket vicariously liable?

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: Vicarious liability applies when an employee commits a wrongful act in the course of employment.

Step 2: In this case, Laila acted responsibly by closing the aisle and initiating cleanup.

Step 3: Arun ignored clear warnings (bright orange cones) and entered a restricted area.

Step 4: Since Laila did no wrong and the supermarket took reasonable precautions, there is no basis for vicarious liability. Quick Tip: Vicarious liability requires employee wrongdoing. If the employee acted reasonably and the harm was due to the injured party’s own negligence, liability may not apply.


Question 126:

Phogat works as a bouncer at the Hot Spot, a local nightclub. One night Dash arrives outside the Hot Spot with a group of his friends. Dash is intoxicated and acting obnoxiously, hooting at the women going in and out of the club. Dash’s behaviour annoys Phogat, who asked Dash twice to stop acting in this way, but Dash ignored him on both occasions. Phogat then punches Dash in the face, breaking his nose. Dash sues the Hot Spot and Phogat, claiming that the Hot Spot is vicariously liable.

Is the Hot Spot vicariously liable for the actions of Phogat?

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: Vicarious liability applies when an employee commits a tort in the course of employment.

Step 2: Phogat was performing his duties as a bouncer, managing unruly patrons.

Step 3: While the act was intentional, it occurred in response to misbehavior and within the scope of his role.

Step 4: Bouncers may use reasonable force to maintain order, and such actions—even if excessive—can still fall within employment scope.

Step 5: Therefore, the Hot Spot may be vicariously liable. Quick Tip: Vicarious liability can apply even to intentional acts if they are closely connected to the employee’s duties and occur during the course of employment.


Question 127:

Which of the following observation is incorrect?


Question 128:

Which of the following observation is incorrect, if the Xs operate the criminal justice system to the disadvantage of the Ys?


Question 129:

Assume that criminal punishments will have different effects on Xs and Ys. Which of the following is incorrect?


Question 130:

Assume that semi-voluntary punishment is a reliable signal of a Y’s loyalty to the other Ys. Which of the following is an incorrect observation?


Question 131:

Consider the following principle:

In a dispute between Anil and Sunil, Sunil can sue Anil in:

i. the city where the dispute arose, OR

ii. in the city of Anil’s place of business.

Facts: Anil and Sunil enter into a contract for delivery of specialised machinery. Anil was to deliver the machinery to Sunil’s warehouse within a stipulated period of time. Anil’s residence is in Delhi, but his place of business is Bengaluru, whereas Sunil is a resident of Mumbai. Anil fails to deliver the machinery during the agreed time.

Where can Sunil sue Anil?


Question 132:

“All paintings jump. Some paintings are plants. All basketballs are plants.” Football is a basketball.

Which of the following is true?


Question 133:

“All paintings jump. Some paintings are plants. All basketballs are plants.” Mona Lisa jumps.

Which of the following is true?


Question 134:

“All paintings jump. Some paintings are plants. All basketballs are plants.” Dragon is a plant that jumps.

Which of the following is true?


Question 135:

“All paintings jump. Some paintings are plants. All basketballs are plants.” Aloe Vera is a basketball and a painting.

Which of the following is true?


Question 136:

“It is well known that the world isn’t the same anymore — politically, economically or, for that matter, financially. Macroeconomic settings have turned adverse — from ultra-low to higher-for-longer interest rates — and raised the levels of debt, especially public debt, uncertainties, and volatility.

It follows that these conditions will bear upon future growth. The breaking up of trade supply chains and their reshaping, for example, will be costly for the world in general, according to calculations, and costlier for the emerging and the developing countries.”

Which of the following assumption is made in the above passage?


Question 137:

“Travelling in a bus can be an enjoyable experience if you have your own seat, the vehicle is not crowded, and there is a nice breeze. But if the bus is packed with people, you can get irritable. Something similar happens to atoms: if they are contained in a vessel at a low density, they behave in a certain way, but if they are packed densely together, with little moving space, something new happens.”

Which of the following assumption is made in the above passage?


Question 138:

“The issue of “tamperability” of EVMs has been doing the rounds ever since they were first introduced. Every time a political party loses an election, it blames the machine. However, none of them has been able to prove their allegations against the credibility of EVMs, and neither do they apologise when they win the elections where the same EVMs have been used. All that this manages to do, however, is shake the trust of people in the system. Many critics, giving the example of Germany, say that EVMs have been declared illegal by the German Supreme Court.”

Which of the following assumption is made in the above passage?


Question 139:

“The art of war is of vital importance to the State. It is a matter of life and death, a road either to safety or to ruin. Hence it is a subject of inquiry which can on no account be neglected.”

Which of the following assumption is made in the above passage?


Question 140:

In a survey of IT professionals in Bangalore, those who regularly practiced yoga reported fewer instances of work-related stress than those who did not. Priyanka, an IT professional from Bangalore, rarely feels work-related stress.

Which of the following can be inferred?


Question 141:

In English tort law, the principle of ‘strict liability’ is applied to hold a person legally responsible for the consequences flowing from an activity, even in the absence of fault or criminal intent on the person’s part. In 1987, the Supreme Court of India introduced a new principle—‘absolute liability’, a far more stringent rule of liability without any exceptions, particularly to deal with industrial accidents. This principle imposed a liability on individuals who engaged in an inherently dangerous or hazardous activity for any harm done to any person while carrying out the activity.

Which one of the following assumptions is necessary to ensure the above argument logically follows?


Question 142:

A study conducted on a group of students found a strong correlation between the number of hours spent studying and their exam scores. However, one student who studied significantly less than the others achieved a top score.

Which of the following, if true, would weaken the general applicability of the study’s findings?


Question 143:

Company A announced record-breaking profits this year, attributing its success to a new marketing strategy. However, Company B, a competitor in the same market segment, also reported significant profits without changing its marketing approach.

What conclusion can most likely be drawn about the effectiveness of respective marketing strategies?


Question 144:

The recent surge in demand for electric vehicles has led to increased lithium-ion battery production.

Which of the following can be inferred?


Question 145:

The education system needs comprehensive reform to address the diverse learning needs of students.

Which of the following can be inferred?


Question 146:

The education system must prioritize critical thinking skills to prepare students for the challenges of the modern world.

Which of the following can be inferred?


Question 147:

If in a certain code LiGHT is NFLAE, then TABLE would be _________


Question 148:

If in a certain code TALK is YUPC, then LISTEN would be _________


Question 149:

TALE : XGTO :: LONG : ?


Question 150:

BELL : DATV :: MATE : ?

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