AILET 2023 BA LLB Question Paper PDF with answer key is available for download. The exam was successfully organized by Delhi National Law University on December 11, 2022, from 11.00 AM to 12:30 PM. According to the initial student reaction, AILET 2023 Question Paper was reported as moderate in terms of overall difficulty. Candidates had to answer a total of 150 questions covering three major sections- English Language, Current Affairs, and Logical Reasoning.

AILET 2023 BA LLB Question Paper with Solution PDFs

AILET 2023 BA LLB Question Paper with Solution PDF download icon Download Check Solution

Question 1:

In the line, 'Aristotle outlined the basic form of syllogism...' in paragraph 1, the writer means that Aristotle _______ the topic.

  • (A) shared an introductory insight on
  • (B) paraphrased features of
  • (C) wrote a detailed discussion on
  • (D) presented the main aspects of

Question 2:

The writer’s use of an exclamation mark in the line ‘... that’s ancient philosophy for you!’, from paragraph 2. What is the most likely tone this indicates?

  • (A) derogatory
  • (B) humorous
  • (C) sarcastic
  • (D) provocative

Question 3:

Select the option that is true for both (1) and (2) below, according to paragraph 3.

  • (1) A conclusion is the main feature of a premise.
  • (2) Premises need to be proven true for a conclusion to occur.
  • (A) (1) is true but (2) is false.
  • (B) Both (1) and (2) are true.
  • (C) (2) is true but (1) cannot be inferred from the text.
  • (D) (1) is true but (2) cannot be inferred from the text.

Question 4:

Select the option that substitutes the underlined word correctly in the given line.

‘These are syllogisms that rely on premises being hypothetical…’

  • (A) conjectural
  • (B) climatic
  • (C) conciliatory
  • (D) corroborative

Question 5:

Select the option that uses a ‘quantifier’, as mentioned in the last paragraph.

  • (A) We saw a lot of birds at the sanctuary.
  • (B) The sanctuary is located beyond the city walls.
  • (C) The birds migrate to the sanctuary in March.
  • (D) We planned the trips to the bird sanctuary.

Question 6:

Let the following premises be true: "If it is sunny on any given day, I can go running." and "It is not sunny today." Which of the following must be true?

  • (A) I cannot go running today.
  • (B) I can go running today.
  • (C) I can go walking today.
  • (D) None of the above

Question 7:

If a majority of spoons are forks, then which of the following could be true?

  • (A) A majority of forks are spoons
  • (B) A minority of forks are spoons
  • (C) All forks are spoons
  • (D) All the above

Question 8:

Assume that (A) a majority of blankets are sheets, (B) a majority of blankets are tablecloths, and (C) no non-blanket sheet (i.e., a sheet that is not a blanket) is a non-blanket tablecloth (i.e., a tablecloth that is not a blanket). Which of the following is true?

  • (A) No sheets are tablecloths
  • (B) Some sheets are tablecloths
  • (C) All sheets are tablecloths
  • (D) Cannot be determined

Question 9:

A minority of wallets are purses. A majority of wallets are perfumes. Which of the following could be true?

  • (A) No purses are perfumes
  • (B) All purses are perfumes
  • (C) Both a) and b)
  • (D) Neither a) nor b)

Question 10:

A majority of Formula 1 cars are race-cars. All race-cars drive on four wheels. All four-wheeled cars are twenty times as fast as cars that drive on any other number of wheels. Speed is the only determining factor for winning a race that involves cars. Which of the following is/are correct?

  • (A) In a Formula 1 race, a non-four-wheeled car (i.e., a car that does not drive on four wheels) will never be able to win.
  • (B) In a Formula 1 race, the winner of a race among 20 cars can be predicted using only the number of wheels that a car drives on.
  • (C) In an Indy500 race, where all participating cars are race-cars, the winner of a race among 50 cars can be predicted.
  • (D) Both a) and b).

Question 11:

A minority of folders are documents. Which of the following is not true?

  • (A) If there are folders, there are documents.
  • (B) If there are documents, there are at least 2 folders.
  • (C) If there are no documents, there are no folders.
  • (D) All of the above are true.

Question 12:

Elizabeth’s father had to ascend the throne because Edward had to step down. Select the correct reason he had to step down.

  • (A) Edward was a king without an heir.
  • (B) Edward was involved in a controversy.
  • (C) Edward objected to the line of succession.
  • (D) Edward wished to marry the same year as his father’s death.

Question 13:

The word ‘provoked’ in the line ‘provoked a constitutional crisis’, refers to _______.

  • (A) deliberately rousing anger
  • (B) giving rise to a reaction
  • (C) pressuring for a response
  • (D) denying responsibility

Question 14:

What can be inferred as common between the understanding of heir apparent and heir presumptive?

  • (A) brothers
  • (B) parental support
  • (C) age
  • (D) birth of another

Question 15:

The phrasal verb ‘stood in’ is used in the line, ‘...stood in for him at public events.’
Select the option that DOES NOT display a phrasal verb.

  • (A) get by
  • (B) break down
  • (C) double minded
  • (D) fall apart

Question 16:

Select the option that negates the given opinion, based on the textual information.

The Scots objected to Elizabeth’s accession.

  • (A) No, Elizabeth became the undisputed monarch as the heir of George VI.
  • (B) No, the Scottish people embraced Elizabeth because of her Scottish lineage.
  • (C) No, Elizabeth was hastily crowned Queen at Buckingham Palace.
  • (D) No, Philip only shared the news of the death of George VI with Elizabeth.

Question 17:

Which of the following is true for Queen Elizabeth in the period described in the first sentence of the passage, "During her grandfather’s reign, Elizabeth was third in the line of succession to the British throne, behind her uncle Edward and her father." ?

  • (A) Her uncle Edward had a child.
  • (B) She was not the oldest child of her father.
  • (C) Her uncle Edward was younger than her father.
  • (D) Her father was younger than her uncle Edward.

Question 18:

If, during the reign of George VI, George VI and his queen-consort had given birth to a boy, then: [for the purpose of this question, assume that heir presumptive and heir apparent are conceptually the same]

  • (A) The boy would have been third in line of succession – behind Elizabeth and Margaret (Elizabeth’s younger sister)
  • (B) The boy would have been the heir presumptive.
  • (C) Elizabeth would have been the heir presumptive since she was the oldest among the George VI’s children and the succession was determined by primogeniture, i.e., the eldest child is the heir presumptive.
  • (D) Both a) and c).

Question 19:

X was the reigning monarch of a country, which followed the rule of primogeniture for determining succession. The law of succession also holds that children born out of wedlock cannot be in the line of succession. Looking at a picture of the heir presumptive, he, i.e. X, said, “He is the son of my mother’s daughter.” Which of the following is correct? [for the purpose of this question, assume that heir presumptive and heir apparent are conceptually the same]

  • (A) X is married to his sister.
  • (B) X does not have any children.
  • (C) X does not have any siblings.
  • (D) Both b) and c).

Question 20:

Which of the following can be deduced from the passage?

  • (A) Elizabeth II ruled over Scotland.
  • (B) Elizabeth I did not rule over Scotland.
  • (C) Both a) and b)
  • (D) Neither a) nor b)

Question 21:

X and Y were married. They had three children: P, Q and R (in increasing order of ages). P had three children with her husband Q: A, B and C (in increasing order of ages). R had one child with her husband W: J. A, B, C and J do not have any children of their own. Which of the following is the correct line of succession after the death of X (the current monarch) assuming that the law regulating succession follows the rule of primogeniture?

  • (A) R, J, Q, C, B, A, C, P
  • (B) R, J, Q, C, B, A, P
  • (C) P, A, B, C, Q, R, J
  • (D) Q, A, B, C, P, R, J

Question 22:

Viserys is the current monarch of a country that follows the law of primogeniture. The laws of the country also prevent children born out of wedlock from being in the line of succession. Viserys’ family is as follows: his brother Daemon, his daughter Rhaenyra from his marriage with Aemma (who died while giving birth to a stillborn child, Baelon), his sons Aegon and Aemond, and his daughter Halaena (the three of them being born from his marriage with Alicent, who is currently the queen-consort). Rhaenyra, Aegon, Aemond and Halaena are unmarried and do not have any children. Alicent wants to make her eldest son, Aegon, the heir presumptive. Which of the following options would help her succeed in her plan? [For the purpose of this question, assume that heir presumptive and heir apparent are conceptually the same.]

  • (A) Kill Rhaenyra
  • (B) Kill Viserys
  • (C) Both a) and b)
  • (D) Neither a) nor b)

Question 23:

In the facts of the question above, assume that Rhaenyra had the following children out of wedlock: Jacaerys, Lucerys, and Joffrey (in decreasing order of ages). None of them have any children of their own. What would be the place of Daemon in the line of succession during Viserys’ lifetime?

  • (A) Fourth
  • (B) Fifth
  • (C) Eighth
  • (D) Ninth

Question 24:

Select the option that correctly completes the following.
Doctors : cardiologist :: ________

  • (A) lotteries : victims
  • (B) malware : victims
  • (C) social media : scam
  • (D) criminals : hackers

Question 25:

Select the appropriate option to complete the sentence.
This text is most likely to be published as a ________.

  • (A) news item
  • (B) personal narrative
  • (C) speech draft
  • (D) magazine article

Question 26:

Select the appropriate option to complete the sentence.
The purpose of the prolonged phishing game is to ________.

  • (A) develop believable profiles
  • (B) research the victims
  • (C) gain in-depth information
  • (D) establish faith

Question 27:

What about the victims often works favourably for phishers using emails?

  • (A) They face language issues
  • (B) They remain very busy
  • (C) They lack tech savviness
  • (D) They have delayed access

Question 28:

Replace the underlined word with its correct meaning from the given options.
‘Phishers scam people.’

  • (A) loot
  • (B) dupe
  • (C) harm
  • (D) betray

Question 29:

Which of the following logical relations is/are correct?

  • (A) Scamming is a superset of which phishing, vishing and smishing are mutually exclusive subsets.
  • (B) Scamming and phishing are mutually exclusive sets; vishing and smishing are subsets of phishing.
  • (C) Vishing and smishing are subsets of scamming.
  • (D) None of the above.

Question 30:

Which of the following emails (converted to code) is scam according to the filter?

  • (A) 55923423
  • (B) ersfjtncjlx
  • (C) 243434p123
  • (D) 3454xxx'

Question 31:

Which of the following emails (converted to code) is scam according to the filter?

  • (A) Thisemailisscam
  • (B) Thisemailisnotscam
  • (C) Thisemaililikellyscam
  • (D) None of the above

Question 32:

Which of the following statements is correct about the conditions used in the filter?

  • (A) Condition (ii) is redundant in light of Condition (iii)
  • (B) Condition (iii) is redundant in light of Condition (ii)
  • (C) Condition (i) is redundant because no codes have special characters in them in any event
  • (D) Both a) and b)

Question 33:

Can this bot be used to filter phishing emails?

  • (A) This bot will necessarily filter some (but not all) phishing emails.
  • (B) This bot may filter only some (but not all) phishing emails.
  • (C) This bot will not filter any phishing emails.
  • (D) This bot will filter all phishing emails.

Question 34:

The company that created the bot reverse-engineered the scheme of the scammer. The company wants to use the following steps to transform the "macro"-generated code into the original code.
i. Transform numbers 1 – 7 to letters t – z, respectively

ii. Transform letters a – i to numbers 1 – 9, respectively

iii. Transform letter j to number 0


What is the order in which these steps should be undertaken to fulfil the company’s aim?

  • (A) (i) followed by (ii) followed by (iii)
  • (B) (iii) followed by (ii) followed by (i)
  • (C) (ii) followed by (i) followed by (iii)
  • (D) These steps, in whichever order, cannot achieve the company’s aim

Question 35:

Select the appropriate option to complete the sentence.
The word ‘Great’ in the name ‘Great Pacific Garbage Patch’ alludes to the _______.

  • (A) vastness of the ocean
  • (B) magnitude of the issue
  • (C) uniqueness of the location of the garbage patch
  • (D) extent of the garbage patch

Question 36:

Which is the contextual clue that best helps us understand the meaning of ‘gyre’?

  • (A) continuously changing
  • (B) carried along
  • (C) clockwise rotation
  • (D) invisible bits

Question 37:

Select the appropriate option to fill the blank.
The ‘photo’ in photodegradation points to the role of _______ in the degradation of the plastic.

  • (A) water
  • (B) sun
  • (C) type of plastic
  • (D) duration of plastic at coast

Question 38:

Which of the given literary devices does the writer use in the line, ‘He found himself traversing a sea of plastics.’?

  • (A) pun
  • (B) symbolism
  • (C) irony
  • (D) imagery

Question 39:

Select the option that displays a title likely to belong to an article of the 2006 series.

  • (A) Marine Life Conservation
  • (B) Trash to Infiltrate the Food Chain
  • (C) Marine Debris and Trash
  • (D) Ocean Cleanups Around the World

Question 40:

Which of the following assumptions is/are necessary to conclude that plastic waste emerging from land would be the smallest in size as it accumulates in the Great Pacific Garbage Patch?

  • (A) Extent of photodegradation is inversely related to time spent by plastic in oceanic water.
  • (B) Plastic waste emerging from land and other sources are of somewhat equivalent sizes at the source of origin.
  • (C) Both a) and b)
  • (D) Neither a) nor b)

Question 41:

A researcher showed that for every thousand kilometres a piece of plastic travels through oceanic water, it breaks down into 100 pieces. Each of those pieces would then also break down into 100 more pieces upon traveling a thousand kilometres. This phenomenon is analogically equivalent to _______

  • (A) Reproduction of amoeba – each amoeba splits into two in a certain period of time; which then again split into two in the same period of time.
  • (B) A train locomotive accumulating two coaches at each station it crosses.
  • (C) Case-load of a Court increasing as a result of more fresh cases being filed every day compared to cases being disposed in the same day.
  • (D) All the above

Question 42:

It was found that between two pieces of plastic, the lighter one travels at twice the speed of the heavier one. If there are ten pieces of plastic (each with a different weight) that start from the same geographical location, the speed of the fastest piece would X times the speed of the slowest piece. X is

  • (A) 10
  • (B) \( 2 \times 10 = 20 \)
  • (C) \( 2 \times 9 = 18 \)
  • (D) \( 2^9 = 512 \)

Question 43:

Theoretically, filtering out all plastics from water bodies flowing into the sea and preventing direct disposal of any plastic from land into sea would

  • (A) Eliminate the Great Pacific Garbage Patch over a sufficiently long time period.
  • (B) Stop the growth of the size and depth of the Great Pacific Garbage Patch over a sufficiently long time period.
  • (C) Stop the speed of growth of the size and depth of the Great Pacific Garbage Patch over a sufficiently long time period.
  • (D) All the above

Question 44:

A teacher wants to demonstrate the futility of Ocean Cleanup. She believes that unless plastic-removal is faster than plastic-accrual, the overall size and depth of the Great Pacific Garbage Patch would stay stagnant or may even increase. Which of the following analogies can she draw to drive home her argument?

  • (A) A filled bucket eventually empties as a result of an open outlet at the bottom of the bucket.
  • (B) Water level in a partially filled bucket with an outlet at its bottom rises if the amount of water coming through the inlet is faster than the amount of water that goes out through the outlet.
  • (C) Water level in a partially filled bucket with an outlet at its bottom goes down if the amount of water coming through the inlet is slower than the amount of water that goes out through the outlet.
  • (D) Both b) and c)

Question 45:

From the passage, it is clear that both plastic accumulation and oceanic pollution are negatively affecting marine life. As a scientist, you conduct a series of experiments to determine the extent (if any) of their contribution to degradation of marine life. The details of the experiments and their results are below:


i. Check if plastic accumulation in sterile, non-polluting conditions affects marine life. It turns out that marine life is negatively affected. The measurement of the effect is X units.
ii. Separately, check if any kind of pollution in some non-plastic environment affects marine life. It turns out that marine life is not affected at all.
iii. Separately, check if pollution absorbed by accumulated plastic affects marine life. It turns out that marine life is negatively affected. The measurement of the effect is 2X units.

What, if anything, can be concluded from the experiment?

  • (A) Pollution is always dangerous to marine life.
  • (B) Pollution is dangerous for marine life only if it takes place in an environment where plastic has accumulated.
  • (C) Plastic accumulation poses no threat in a non-polluted environment.
  • (D) None of the above conclusions can be drawn.

Question 46:

It is found in a series of experiments that big pieces of plastic (defined as being larger than 100cm\(^2\) in size) take T amount of time to break into halves due to photodegradation, and smaller pieces of plastic (defined as being smaller than 10cm\(^2\) in size) take T/3 amount of time to break into halves due to photodegradation, which of the following is correct?

  • (A) Rate of photodegradation is inversely related to size of original piece of plastic.
  • (B) Rate of photodegradation is directly related to size of original piece of plastic.
  • (C) Rate of photodegradation is independent of size of original piece of plastic.
  • (D) Rate of photodegradation is not dependent on any factor other than size of original piece of plastic.

Question 47:

Select the option that completes the following correctly.
Precedence: priority :: __________

  • (A) progeny : offspring
  • (B) lateral : vertical
  • (C) eligible : privileged
  • (D) primary : secondary

Question 48:

Select the option that can be the most suitable introductory line to this text.

  • (A) Inheritance laws served as important means of preserving both the size of the property and the power and prestige.
  • (B) What distinguishes the Western Property System from the systems of most is that its category of private property is a default category.
  • (C) Public regulation of land use has increased drastically in the 20th century.
  • (D) A will is valid if it meets the formalities of the law, which usually, but not always, requires that it be witnessed.

Question 51:

A ruler’s first-born son, at the moment of his birth, is first in the line of succession. This statement is _______

  • (A) Always correct with respect to the rule of primogeniture.
  • (B) Always correct with respect to the rule of house seniority.
  • (C) Capable of being correct in case of ultimogeniture.
  • (D) All the above

Question 52:

A ruler’s last-born son, at the moment of his birth, is first in the line of succession. This statement is __________

  • (A) Always correct with respect to the rule of ultimogeniture.
  • (B) Never correct with respect to the rule of house seniority.
  • (C) Capable of being correct in cases of primogeniture.
  • (D) All the above

Question 53:

Different rules of inheritance can never create situations where the same person is first in the line of succession. This statement is __________

  • (A) Correct if seen only in context of the rules of primogeniture and ultimogeniture.
  • (B) Not correct even if it is seen only in context of the rules of primogeniture and ultimogeniture.
  • (C) Correct if seen only in context of the rules of primogeniture and house-seniority.
  • (D) Both a) and c)

Question 54:

Y is the youngest child of X, the current ruler, who has 5 other children (each of them older than Y). Y is first in the line of succession. Which of the following inferences can be drawn for certain about their realm from the above two statements?

  • (A) If the rule of primogeniture is followed, then Y’s elder siblings have all been disowned.
  • (B) Even if one or more of Y’s elder siblings were not disowned, it is possible that the rule of primogeniture is followed.
  • (C) The only possible rule governing their realm is the rule of ultimogeniture.
  • (D) All the above

Question 55:

Which of the following scenarios is/are possible?

  • (A) A realm follows the rule of house-seniority. The ruler’s eldest brother.
  • (B) Even if one or more of Y’s elder siblings were not disowned, it is possible that the rule of primogeniture is followed.
  • (C) The only possible rule governing their realm is the rule of ultimogeniture.
  • (D) All the above

Question 56:

X is the ruler of a realm. X has three younger sisters: W, Y, and Z (in increasing order of ages). X is married to A, with whom he has three sons (B, C, and D in increasing order of ages)) and two daughters (E and F in increasing order of ages). F is younger than B. W is older than D. E is married to P and has two children: Q and R (in increasing order of ages). E dies. Stricken by grief after E's death, X dies. Assuming the realm follows gender-neutral ultimogeniture, the throne passes to __________.

  • (A) W
  • (B) F
  • (C) B
  • (D) Q

Question 57:

In the facts of the question above, if the realm followed the rule of house seniority, the throne would pass to __________.

  • (A) Z
  • (B) D
  • (C) F
  • (D) R

Question 58:

Select the option that correctly sorts facts (F) and opinions (O).

  • (i) Grand Prix is worth watching.
  • (ii) Formula One cars are beautifully designed unlike other types of cars.
  • (iii) Symmetry is unable to address the downforce between the front and rear of a racing car.
  • (iv) The weight of a racing car has to be far less than the ground force generated.
  • (A) F - (iii) & (iv); O - (i) & (ii)
  • (B) F - (i), (ii) & (iii); O - (iv)
  • (C) F - (ii) & (iii); O - (i) & (iv)
  • (D) F - (iv); O - (i), (ii) & (iii)

Question 59:

Select the idiomatic expression that addresses the given text, most appropriately.

  • (A) A vicious cycle
  • (B) Two can play at the game
  • (C) Dot the i’s and cross the t’s
  • (D) The tip of the iceberg

Question 60:

What type of text could the given piece best be categorised under?

  • (A) Analytical
  • (B) Expository
  • (C) Descriptive
  • (D) Inspirational

Question 61:

In the line, “The alternative to this is to create the required force to stay grounded.” What is the nature of meaning for ‘staying grounded’ that the writer DOES NOT refer to?

  • (A) Metaphorical
  • (B) Exact
  • (C) Non-figurative
  • (D) Literal

Question 62:

Select the most appropriate option as a concluding remark for the given text.

  • (A) Racing regulations make it hard to gain an advantage over competitors.
  • (B) The total aerodynamic package of the race car is emphasized now more than ever before.
  • (C) We can understand the downforce concept both mathematically and logically.
  • (D) Downforce ensures that cars are firmly planted on the road at speed.

Question 63:

If the orientation of the wings in a Formula One car were reversed (and all other things remain equal), the effective weight pressing down on the track would be X times the weight of the car. X is

  • (A) = 1
  • (B) > 1
  • (C) < 1
  • (D) Cannot be determined

Question 64:

A supercar has a greater acceleration and top-speed compared to a Formula One car, but does not have wings that generate even half the downforce as compared to a Formula One car. The supercar would still handily lose a race against a Formula One car. Which among the following statements is correct about the race track?

  • (A) The race track is straight.
  • (B) The race track has at least a few turns.
  • (C) The race track is made of soft, rubbery surface.
  • (D) The race track is made of asphalt.

Question 65:

Without downforce-generating apparatus in a Formula One car, the drivers would ______

  • (A) A Formula One car without any apparatus affecting aerodynamics would act like an aeroplane
  • (B) Need to slow their car down to make turns
  • (C) Need to gain a lot of weight (or add weight to the car) to keep the car on the ground
  • (D) All the above

Question 66:

Assume that an object enters into free-fall if the force attracting it towards the earth is less than the force pushing it away from the earth. Further assume that all objects on earth are pushed away from it with a force equal to 1G. A Formula One car, therefore, _______?

  • (A) Is in free-fall at all times during a race
  • (B) Is not in free-fall at any time during a race
  • (C) Is in free-fall at some (but not all) times during a race
  • (D) Cannot be determined

Question 67:

Select the appropriate option to complete the sentence.
The writer uses the word ‘crunch numbers’ in the first paragraph to communicate that it involves __________.

  • (A) generating unique algorithms to develop recreation products
  • (B) solving algorithms that help solve money-matters
  • (C) large-scale processing of numerical data
  • (D) gathering numerical data for financial research

Question 68:

Select the option that correctly reflects what the idiom in the given sentence means.
‘Choosing the best graphics card isn’t as simple as picking the absolute most expensive card, you can locate and calling it a day.’

  • (A) not compromising on quality
  • (B) making informed choices
  • (C) getting confused
  • (D) ceasing work

Question 69:

Select the option that displays what aspect the text titled ‘What is best GPU for crypto mining’ DOES NOT present.
i. information
ii. prediction
iii. suggestion
iv. precaution
v. introduction

  • (A) i, ii and iv
  • (B) ii and v
  • (C) Only iii
  • (D) i and iii

Question 70:

What is the writer’s most likely intent of using question headings in this text?

  • (A) Retain a certain measure of deniability
  • (B) Compel the reader to agree with explanation that follows
  • (C) Create an atmosphere of uncertainty and suspense
  • (D) Present information in a systematic chronology

Question 71:

Select the option that displays words similar in meaning to ‘recuperate’, from the last line of the text.

  • (A) Represent, remove, regain
  • (B) Renew, return, represent
  • (C) Remove, retain, reinstall
  • (D) Regain, recover, retrieve

Question 72:

On the basis of this article, a rational person decided that X was a better GPU for crypto mining than Y. He found that the initial cost of X was much lower than Y. It therefore follows that:

  • (A) X’s hashrates were higher than Y’s
  • (B) X’s hashrates were lower than Y’s
  • (C) X’s hashrates were the same as Y’s
  • (D) Cannot be determined

Question 73:

If total cost of mining N bitcoins using GPU X was lower than the total cost of mining the same number of bitcoins using GPU Y, then it follows that:

  • (A) X’s per-unit-time electricity consumption is lower than Y’s per-unit-time electricity consumption
  • (B) X’s per-unit-time electricity consumption is more than Y’s per-unit-time electricity consumption
  • (C) X’s cost price is lower than Y’s cost price
  • (D) Cannot be determined

Question 74:

What is the relationship between profits made using crypto-mining and hashrates?

  • (A) High hashrates necessarily lead to high profits
  • (B) High hashrates necessarily lead to some profits
  • (C) Low hashrates cannot lead to profits
  • (D) None of the above

Question 75:

Assuming that the cost price and hashrates of two GPUs are identical, which of the following statements is true?

  • (A) The profits made by crypto-mining using the GPUs in different time-periods and thereafter selling the GPUs would be identical.
  • (B) The profits made by crypto-mining using the GPUs in the same time-period and thereafter selling the GPUs would be identical.
  • (C) The profits made by crypto-mining using the GPUs in the same time-period and thereafter selling the GPUs could be different.
  • (D) None of the above

Question 76:

GPUs are made of infinitesimally small chips made out of semiconductors. Due to the pandemic, companies manufacturing these chips had to shut down. Assuming that the prices of cryptocurrencies and electricity remained constant, this would lead to

  • (A) Higher cost prices of GPUs
  • (B) Lower profits made by people mining cryptocurrency
  • (C) Lesser hashrates of GPUs
  • (D) Losses for people mining cryptocurrency

Question 77:

A certain extremely expensive GPU has the best hashrates among all GPUs. This GPU would

  • (A) Have high resale value
  • (B) Have high electricity consumption
  • (C) Give less profit in crypto-mining
  • (D) None of the above

Question 78:

What does the writer convey via the use of exclamation marks in the first paragraph of the text?

  • (A) dramatic effect
  • (B) ambiguity
  • (C) astonishment
  • (D) conviction

Question 79:

Which aspect of the text indicates that the writer is engaging with the reader?

  • (A) The paragraphing
  • (B) The punctuations
  • (C) The conclusion
  • (D) The headlines

Question 80:

In the text titled ‘And what about third cousins?’, what does the word ‘chart’ allude to?

  • (A) pictures or photographs
  • (B) anecdotes
  • (C) pedigree
  • (D) family communication

Question 81:

The confusing relationships in the text can best be applied to ________.

  • (A) Ted talk
  • (B) Stand up show
  • (C) Debate
  • (D) Awareness rally

Question 82:

Select the appropriate option to fill the blank. When the writer offers a ‘knack’ to remember which cousin in which, she recognises the fact that the information can be ________ will be welcome.

  • (A) Dense and a method to paraphrase it
  • (B) Mind-boggling and a tip to simplify it
  • (C) Irrelevant and a reminder suggesting otherwise
  • (D) Mundane and a digression

Question 83:

Talking about the woman in a picture, X says, "Oh, I do miss my great-aunt! Doesn’t she look awesome in this picture? You know, her daughter and my mother taught me how to play cricket." Which of the following assumptions would need to be made to determine that the woman in the picture was X’s great-aunt on the maternal side?

  • (A) The woman in the picture was X’s mother’s aunt
  • (B) The woman in the picture was X’s grandmother’s aunt
  • (C) X’s great-aunt’s daughter and X’s mother were siblings
  • (D) None of the above

Question 84:

X’s grandson’s paternal grandson’s sister’s father’s father’s father is X’s __________

  • (A) Son
  • (B) Daughter
  • (C) One of (A) or (B)
  • (D) Grandson

Question 85:

X and Y are sisters. A is X’s grandson’s niece. Y is A’s __________

  • (A) Great-grand-aunt
  • (B) Great-great-aunt
  • (C) Great-great-niece
  • (D) Great-grand-niece

Question 86:

Who among the following would be X’s second cousin, once removed?

  • (A) X’s father’s father’s brother’s grandchild
  • (B) X’s father’s father’s brother’s son
  • (C) X’s father’s father’s sister’s granddaughter
  • (D) None of the above

Question 87:

X is A’s first cousin. Y is X’s first cousin. Z is Y’s first cousin. What is the closest relationship possible between X and Z?

  • (A) Sibling
  • (B) First cousin
  • (C) Second cousin
  • (D) Third cousin

Question 88:

Who is the common ancestor between X and Y, who is X’s first cousin twice removed?

  • (A) X’s grandparent’s grandparent and Y’s grandparent
  • (B) X’s grandparent and Y’s grandparent’s grandparent
  • (C) Either a) or b)
  • (D) Neither a) nor b)

Question 89:

X’s father’s aunt is X’s __________.

  • (A) Great-aunt
  • (B) Grand-aunt
  • (C) Great-great-aunt
  • (D) None of the above

Question 90:

The text is an example of a passage that is

  • (A) literary
  • (B) descriptive
  • (C) argumentative
  • (D) informative

Question 91:

Select the words from the text that correctly substitute the underlined words in the following sentence:

She gained exemption from the accountability of paying excessive maintenance, when the apartment owner changed.

  • (A) power, defence
  • (B) privilege, offeree
  • (C) respect, contract
  • (D) immunity, liability

Question 92:

Which option includes a foreign word used in the English language from the text?

  • (A) Correlative
  • (B) Plaintiff
  • (C) Vis-a-vis
  • (D) Grantee

Question 93:

Select the option that can be used as a title from the text.

  • (A) All Rights Reserved
  • (B) Fine Print
  • (C) Letter of the Law
  • (D) Burden of Proof

Question 94:

Select the option that includes information that is an appropriate fit into the passage.

  • (A) Hegel, Kant, Hume and others say that ‘right’ refers to the power of self-expression. However, Duguit opposes this vehemently. Another theorist of Rights is Ihering, a great German jurist.
  • (B) Human rights are those which considering their rationality, faith, age, race is intrinsic to all human beings. One of the great achievements of the U.N. is the creation of a comprehensive body of human rights law.
  • (C) A legal right is an interest accepted and protected by law. If these rights get violated then the person has the right to move the Court for enforcing rights.
  • (D) Any debasement of any legal right is punishable by law. Employment and discrimination laws provide the legal framework defining an employee’s rights to freedom from being discriminated against by the employer.

Question 95:

If X has a right vis-à-vis everyone else, and Y has a privilege vis-à-vis X, then X has a __________ vis-à-vis Y.

  • (A) No-right
  • (B) Duty
  • (C) No-duty
  • (D) None of the above

Question 96:

X and Y enter into a contract that provides as follows: “The quantum and time of payment, if any, shall be determined by A on the basis of the parties’ performance under this contract.” Here, A has __________ vis-à-vis X and Y.

  • (A) Immunity
  • (B) Right
  • (C) Power
  • (D) Disability

Question 97:

Every person can travel on any road, unless it is blocked by a person who owns that road. Every person has __________ vis-à-vis the owner of the road.

  • (A) A right
  • (B) A privilege
  • (C) An immunity
  • (D) None of the above

Question 98:

In the facts of the question above, the owner of the road has __________ vis-à-vis everyone else.

  • (A) A right
  • (B) A privilege
  • (C) An immunity
  • (D) None of the above

Question 99:

If A has a right to claim damages from B, then B has __________ to pay damages to A.

  • (A) Duty
  • (B) Liability
  • (C) Immunity
  • (D) Disability

Question 100:

The owner of land can lease the property to any other person. Under that lease, the owner can allow sub-leasing. The owner of the land has __________ vis-à-vis the property.

  • (A) Right
  • (B) Power
  • (C) Immunity
  • (D) Liability

Question 101:

If X infringes Y’s copyright, Y can sue X. Y has __________ vis-à-vis X.

  • (A) Right
  • (B) Power
  • (C) No-duty
  • (D) Immunity

Question 102:

Select the option that corresponds to a ‘feat’.

  • (A) The diversion of traffic
  • (B) A student’s tribute to the mentor
  • (C) An acrobatic performance
  • (D) The cancellation of a flight booking

Question 103:

The writer refers to the compass as a “key” breakthrough, to highlight its __________.

  • (A) importance
  • (B) scientific nature
  • (C) ease of use
  • (D) novelty

Question 104:

Select the option that can be used both as a noun as well as a verb, in the given form.

  • (A) Uniform, magnetic, point
  • (B) Only uniform
  • (C) Uniform and core
  • (D) Point, iron, and core

Question 105:

Identify the meaning of the adjective in the given line from the text. ‘..... compasses at Greenwich pointed true north.’

  • (A) Aimed
  • (B) Precise
  • (C) Topmost
  • (D) Sharp

Question 106:

Which action suitably corresponds with ‘undulates’?

  • (A) Praying
  • (B) Walking a dog
  • (C) Sharing a secret
  • (D) Dancing

Question 107:

Based on the above information, which tower is in the centre?

  • (A) A
  • (B) B
  • (C) C
  • (D) Insufficient information

Question 108:

If one seeks to travel to D from A, one has to go

  • (A) East
  • (B) South-east
  • (C) West
  • (D) South

Question 109:

If one seeks to travel to B from A, one has to go

  • (A) East
  • (B) South-east
  • (C) West
  • (D) Cannot be determined

Question 110:

At sunset, A’s shadow points __________

  • (A) Towards B
  • (B) Towards C
  • (C) Towards D
  • (D) Towards E

Question 111:

A compass (circular in shape) consists of two parts: a magnetic needle that points towards the magnetic north, and a circular piece of paper with directions written on it. If, somehow, the piece of paper rotates a quarter-circle counter-clockwise, which geographic direction does the needle point towards?

  • (A) Approximately east
  • (B) Exactly east
  • (C) Approximately west
  • (D) Exactly west

Question 112:

A is holding a compass at the time of sunrise. He points it towards the direction of the sunrise and sees that it reads “SW.” This means that the compass has rotated __________.

  • (A) 135 degrees counter-clockwise or 225 degrees clockwise
  • (B) 135 degrees clockwise or 225 degrees counter-clockwise
  • (C) 45 degrees clockwise or 315 degrees counter-clockwise
  • (D) 45 degrees counter-clockwise or 315 degrees clockwise

Question 113:

In the facts of the question above, what actual direction is "NW" on the compass pointing towards?

  • (A) North
  • (B) South
  • (C) East
  • (D) West

Question 114:

Who won the Nobel Peace Prize, 2022?

  • (A) Ales Bialiatski
  • (B) Annie Ernaux
  • (C) Svantee Paabo
  • (D) John Clauser

Question 115:

In order to reduce plastic waste in India, the Indian government in July, 2022 banned

  • (A) All plastic bags
  • (B) Single-use plastic
  • (C) Only polythene bags
  • (D) Only toothbrushes

Question 116:

There is a fear that certain nanoplastics would become a part of human food, thereby causing severe harm to the human body. What is the size of one nanometre?

  • (A) \( 10^{-9} \, m \)
  • (B) \( 10^{-6} \, m \)
  • (C) \( 10^{-12} \, m \)
  • (D) \( 10^{-3} \, m \)

Question 117:

X water body connects the Pacific Ocean to the Atlantic Ocean. Identify X.

  • (A) Panama Canal
  • (B) Strait of Magellan
  • (C) Both (A) and (B)
  • (D) Neither (A) nor (B)

Question 118:

The following Indian driver is currently participating in Formula Two series:

  • (A) Narain Karthikeyan
  • (B) Jehan Daruvala
  • (C) Jack Doohan
  • (D) Karun Chandhok

Question 119:

Before adopting Riyal as its currency, Qatar’s currency was equivalent to which foreign (to Qatar) currency?

  • (A) US Dollars
  • (B) Canadian Dollars
  • (C) Indian Rupee
  • (D) UAE Dirham

Question 120:

As a result of air pollution and nearby sewage, the __________ is reported to be turning yellow. Built in the 17th century, it is one of the seven wonders of the world.

  • (A) Taj Mahal
  • (B) Statue of Liberty
  • (C) Christ the Redeemer (statue)
  • (D) The White House

Question 121:

Who among the following rely on medicines to cure mental illnesses?

  • (A) Psychologists
  • (B) Psychiatrists
  • (C) Both a) and b)
  • (D) Neither a) nor b)

Question 122:

Twitter, a social media platform, was recently acquired by Elon Musk. Which of the following entities is not owned/controlled by Elon Musk?

  • (A) Solar City
  • (B) Neuralink
  • (C) Waymo
  • (D) The Boring Company

Question 123:

Which of the following statements is correct about Fundamental Duties in the Constitution of India?

  • (A) Fundamental Duties were part of the original Constitution
  • (B) A person can be sued merely for failure to abide by Fundamental Duties
  • (C) Both a) and b)
  • (D) Neither a) nor b)

Question 124:

Human Rights Day is celebrated on

  • (A) 26 January
  • (B) 10 December
  • (C) 1 March
  • (D) None of the above

Question 125:

How many Youth World Titles in Chess have been won by Grand Master Praggnanandhaa?

  • (A) None
  • (B) One
  • (C) Two
  • (D) Three

Question 126:

The first Indian to have won a Medal in Asian Cup Table Tennis is

  • (A) Sreeja Akula
  • (B) Archana Kamat
  • (C) Manika Batra
  • (D) S. Gnanasekaran

Question 127:

After winning Gold Medal in Olympics, Neeraj Chopra has also won the Javelin throw in

  • (A) Commonwealth
  • (B) Diamond League
  • (C) Both (A) and (B)
  • (D) None

Question 128:

The first Indian to win a Medal in Olympics Badminton is:

  • (A) P. V. Sindhu
  • (B) Prakash Padukone
  • (C) Saina Nehwal
  • (D) Gopichand Pullela

Question 129:

The first Indian to have won the All England Badminton Championship is:

  • (A) Gopichand Pullela
  • (B) Prakash Padukone
  • (C) P. V. Sindhu
  • (D) Saina Nehwal

Question 130:

The Prime Minister of which country was in news for dancing in a 'wild party'?

  • (A) Finland
  • (B) New Zealand
  • (C) Canada
  • (D) None

Question 131:

The present Chairman of the National Human Rights Commission is

  • (A) Justice Arun Kumar Mishra
  • (B) Justice H. L. Dattu
  • (C) Justice Pinaki Chandra Ghose
  • (D) Justice P. C. Pant

Question 132:

How many Amendments have been made to the Indian Constitution so far?

  • (A) 103
  • (B) 104
  • (C) 105
  • (D) 106

Question 133:

The Supreme Court in __________ upheld the constitutional validity of the EWS reservation.

  • (A) State of Tamil Nadu v. Union of India
  • (B) EWS Association v. Union of India
  • (C) Janhit Abiyan v. Union of India
  • (D) State of Maharashtra v. Union of India

Question 134:

The new Election Commissioner who joined in November 2022 is

  • (A) Rajiv Kumar
  • (B) Arun Goel
  • (C) Sushil Chandra
  • (D) Justice Kuldeep Singh

Question 135:

How many World Heritage sites are there in India?

  • (A) 12
  • (B) 28
  • (C) 40
  • (D) 52

Question 136:

India’s rank in the Global Hunger Index out of 121 countries is

  • (A) 89
  • (B) 107
  • (C) 98
  • (D) 112

Question 137:

The 2022 G20 Meeting was held in November 2022 in

  • (A) Bali
  • (B) Rome
  • (C) Beijing
  • (D) New Delhi

Question 138:

The National Education Policy, 2020, excluded the following disciplines from its ambit:

  • (A) Law
  • (B) Medicine
  • (C) Technical
  • (D) Both (A) and (B)

Question 139:

Which among the following states admitted more foreign tourists in 2021?

  • (A) Goa
  • (B) Karnataka
  • (C) Maharashtra
  • (D) Kerala

Question 140:

Recently the IMF approved a loan of US
( 2.9 billion to

  • (A) Myanmar
  • (B) Sri Lanka
  • (C) India
  • (D) Nepal

Question 141:

The Foreign Universities can set up their institutions in

  • (A) GIFT city
  • (B) Metropolitan Cities
  • (C) District Headquarters
  • (D) Municipal Towns

Question 142:

The name of the privately built rocket that was launched from Sriharikota in November 2022 is

  • (A) Skyroot
  • (B) Vikram – S
  • (C) Arya – B
  • (D) Chand – I

Question 143:

The Voters Day in India is celebrated on

  • (A) 26th January
  • (B) 26th November
  • (C) 25th January
  • (D) 25th November