AILET 2023 BA LLB Question Paper with Answer Key PDFs

Step 1: Understanding the context of the line.
The phrase "Aristotle outlined the basic form of syllogism" suggests that the writer is referring to the fundamental structure and key elements of Aristotle’s theory. Therefore, the writer is emphasizing the main points, not a detailed or paraphrased discussion.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) shared an introductory insight on: Incorrect. The writer is not simply sharing an introductory idea, but presenting the key aspects.
(B) paraphrased features of: Incorrect. The writer is not rephrasing Aristotle’s work but presenting its core ideas.
(C) wrote a detailed discussion on: Incorrect. The writer is not offering a detailed analysis but summarizing the essential points.
(D) presented the main aspects of: Correct. The writer refers to Aristotle’s basic form of syllogism, focusing on the main features.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (D) presented the main aspects of, as it accurately reflects the meaning of the line in the context of the paragraph. Quick Tip: When summarizing theories or ideas, focus on presenting the core concepts rather than offering detailed analysis or rephrasing.

Step 1: Understanding the tone of the sentence.
The exclamation "that’s ancient philosophy for you!" suggests a light, informal tone. The phrase is likely meant to make the concept of syllogism seem more accessible or amusing, thus creating a humorous tone.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) derogatory: Incorrect. The tone does not seem to express disapproval or criticism.
(B) humorous: Correct. The exclamation implies a casual or playful tone, making the concept of ancient philosophy sound light-hearted.
(C) sarcastic: Incorrect. Although sarcasm could be present in some contexts, here the tone feels more humorous than sarcastic.
(D) provocative: Incorrect. The writer’s tone is not intended to provoke a strong reaction but to present the idea in a humorous way.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (B) humorous, as the exclamation adds a playful and light tone to the passage. Quick Tip: When using exclamation marks in writing, consider the context to determine whether the tone is humorous, sarcastic, or another emotion.

Step 1: Analyzing the statements.
The statement (1) seems incorrect because a conclusion is not the main feature of a premise but rather the outcome of reasoning from premises. On the other hand, (2) is true as premises must indeed be proven true for a valid conclusion to follow.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) (1) is true but (2) is false: Incorrect. Statement (1) is not correct, making this option wrong.
(B) Both (1) and (2) are true: Incorrect. Statement (1) is not true.
(C) (2) is true but (1) cannot be inferred from the text: Correct. Statement (2) is true, and statement (1) cannot be inferred as true from the text.
(D) (1) is true but (2) cannot be inferred from the text: Incorrect. Statement (1) is false, which makes this option incorrect.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (C) (2) is true but (1) cannot be inferred from the text. Quick Tip: To analyze logical statements, focus on verifying the truth of premises before evaluating the conclusion.

Step 1: Understanding the context of the word 'hypothetical'.
The term 'hypothetical' refers to something based on a hypothesis or assumption, not proven. In this context, the correct synonym would be "conjectural," which means based on conjecture or assumption.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) conjectural: Correct. This term aligns with 'hypothetical' in meaning, referring to something based on assumptions or possibilities.
(B) climatic: Incorrect. This refers to climate or the final event, which is unrelated to the meaning of 'hypothetical.'

(C) conciliatory: Incorrect. This refers to making peace or calming tensions, unrelated to 'hypothetical.'

(D) corroborative: Incorrect. This refers to supporting or confirming something, not related to 'hypothetical.'


Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (A) conjectural, as it is the most accurate synonym for 'hypothetical.'
Quick Tip: When choosing synonyms, focus on context and meaning to select the most fitting word.

Step 1: Understanding 'quantifiers'.
A quantifier is a word or phrase that expresses quantity, such as "some," "all," "many," "few," etc. In this case, "a lot of" is a quantifier, as it indicates a large quantity.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) We saw a lot of birds at the sanctuary: Correct. "A lot of" is a quantifier indicating a large number of birds.
(B) The sanctuary is located beyond the city walls: Incorrect. This is a statement about location, not a quantifier.
(C) The birds migrate to the sanctuary in March: Incorrect. This is a statement about action, not quantity.
(D) We planned the trips to the bird sanctuary: Incorrect. This is a statement about planning, not quantity.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (A) We saw a lot of birds at the sanctuary. Quick Tip: Quantifiers express the amount or quantity of something, helping to quantify nouns in a sentence.

Step 1: Analyzing the premises.
The first premise states that "If it is sunny on any given day, I can go running." The second premise states that "It is not sunny today." From these two premises, we can infer that the condition for running is not met because it is not sunny, but we cannot definitively conclude anything about other activities like walking.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) I cannot go running today: This is not necessarily true. The premise only tells us that running is contingent upon it being sunny, but it doesn't mean that you cannot do other activities.
(B) I can go running today: Incorrect. Since it is not sunny today, running is not possible based on the given premises.
(C) I can go walking today: This is also not specified by the premises. The premises only discuss running, not walking.
(D) None of the above: Correct. None of the given options are conclusively true based on the premises.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (D) None of the above, as none of the statements must be true based on the given premises. Quick Tip: When analyzing logical premises, make sure to only draw conclusions that directly follow from the premises provided, without assuming extra information.

Step 1: Understanding the statement.
The statement "a majority of spoons are forks" implies that most spoons are also forks, but not necessarily all spoons. This allows for multiple possibilities for how spoons and forks might relate.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) A majority of forks are spoons: This is a possible scenario. If most spoons are forks, it is feasible that many forks could also be spoons, especially if there is significant overlap.
(B) A minority of forks are spoons: This could also be true. It is possible that only a few forks are spoons, but still, a majority of spoons are forks.
(C) All forks are spoons: This could also be true, as it is possible that all forks are spoons, making "a majority of spoons are forks" hold true as well.
(D) All the above: Correct. All the above statements are logically possible based on the given premise.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (D) All the above, as each of the provided options could be true given the premise. Quick Tip: In logical reasoning, multiple scenarios may be true at once, especially when dealing with categories that overlap.

Step 1: Analyzing the given premises.
- A majority of blankets are sheets, so many blankets are also sheets. - A majority of blankets are tablecloths, so many blankets are also tablecloths. - No non-blanket sheet is a non-blanket tablecloth, which suggests that sheets and tablecloths share some overlap, but not all sheets are tablecloths.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) No sheets are tablecloths: This is not true, because some sheets are also tablecloths based on the premise.
(B) Some sheets are tablecloths: Correct. There is an overlap between sheets and tablecloths based on the given premises.
(C) All sheets are tablecloths: Incorrect. The premises suggest some overlap but do not confirm that all sheets are tablecloths.
(D) Cannot be determined: Incorrect. The premises provide enough information to conclude that some sheets are tablecloths.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (B) Some sheets are tablecloths, based on the premises provided. Quick Tip: When analyzing logical statements, look for overlap and exclusions based on the given premises.

Step 1: Analyzing the given premises.
- A minority of wallets are purses. This means that there are more wallets that are not purses. - A majority of wallets are perfumes. This means that most wallets are perfumes.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) No purses are perfumes: This could be true. Since a minority of wallets are purses, and the majority are perfumes, it's possible that purses are not perfumes.
(B) All purses are perfumes: This could also be true, because the majority of wallets are perfumes, and it’s possible that all purses could be among those perfumes.
(C) Both a) and b): Correct. Both statements (A) and (B) could be true based on the premises.
(D) Neither a) nor b): Incorrect. Both (A) and (B) could be true based on the given premises.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (C) Both a) and b), as both statements are logically possible based on the given information. Quick Tip: When dealing with logical possibilities, consider how the different groups and categories can overlap or exclude each other.

Step 1: Understanding the information provided.
The problem gives us that all race-cars drive on four wheels and that four-wheeled cars are faster than those with a different number of wheels. Based on this information, any car that does not drive on four wheels would logically be slower in a Formula 1 race.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) In a Formula 1 race, a non-four-wheeled car (i.e., a car that does not drive on four wheels) will never be able to win: Correct. As the race-cars drive on four wheels, any non-four-wheeled car will not be as fast and hence cannot win.
(B) In a Formula 1 race, the winner of a race among 20 cars can be predicted using only the number of wheels that a car drives on: Incorrect. While the number of wheels plays a role, other factors such as car performance, engine, and driver skills also matter.
(C) In an Indy500 race, where all participating cars are race-cars, the winner of a race among 50 cars can be predicted: Incorrect. While all cars are race-cars, prediction depends on more than just the number of wheels. Performance factors matter.
(D) Both a) and b): Incorrect. Since option (B) is incorrect, this combined option is also wrong.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (A). A non-four-wheeled car will not be able to win in a Formula 1 race based on the speed advantage of four-wheeled cars. Quick Tip: In racing, various factors determine the winner, not just the number of wheels on a car.

Step 1: Understanding the statement.
The statement "A minority of folders are documents" suggests that the majority of folders are not documents. This implies there could be folders without documents.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) If there are folders, there are documents: Incorrect. The minority of folders are documents, so some folders might not contain documents.
(B) If there are documents, there are at least 2 folders: Correct. Given that only a minority of folders are documents, there must be at least two folders for documents to exist.
(C) If there are no documents, there are no folders: Incorrect. There could still be folders without any documents, as only a minority are documents.
(D) All of the above are true: Incorrect. Since both (A) and (C) are not true, this option is incorrect.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (A). If there are folders, it does not necessarily mean that there are documents. Quick Tip: In logic problems involving categories and quantities, make sure to focus on the relationships between elements, not just their individual properties.

Step 1: Understanding the context.
Edward VIII abdicated the throne due to a controversy surrounding his wish to marry Wallis Simpson, a twice-divorced American woman. His marriage was not supported by the Church of England, leading to a constitutional crisis.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) Edward was a king without an heir: Incorrect. Edward VIII did not have an heir at the time, but that was not the reason he stepped down.
(B) Edward was involved in a controversy: Correct. The controversy was due to his intention to marry Wallis Simpson, leading to his abdication.
(C) Edward objected to the line of succession: Incorrect. Edward did not object to the line of succession itself, but rather to the restrictions on his personal life.
(D) Edward wished to marry the same year as his father’s death: Incorrect. The timing of the marriage was not the issue; the controversy arose from the person he wished to marry.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (B) Edward was involved in a controversy. Quick Tip: Historical events like Edward VIII’s abdication often involve personal choices that intersect with political and religious issues.

Step 1: Understanding the word ‘provoked’.
In the context of the constitutional crisis caused by Edward VIII’s actions, the word ‘provoked’ refers to something that triggered or gave rise to a significant reaction, which was the political and social consequences of his intended marriage.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) deliberately rousing anger: Incorrect. Although it could involve anger, the word 'provoked' in this case refers more broadly to causing a reaction, not just anger.
(B) giving rise to a reaction: Correct. The crisis arose as a result of Edward’s actions, provoking a strong political and social reaction.
(C) pressuring for a response: Incorrect. While ‘provoking’ may pressure for a response, it specifically refers to causing a reaction, not just the pressure itself.
(D) denying responsibility: Incorrect. The word ‘provoked’ does not imply denial of responsibility.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (B) giving rise to a reaction. Quick Tip: The word ‘provoked’ can be used in various contexts to indicate something that triggers or initiates a significant response or reaction.

Step 1: Understanding the terms ‘heir apparent’ and ‘heir presumptive’.
An ‘heir apparent’ is someone who is first in line to inherit a title, and their claim cannot be displaced by the birth of another heir. An ‘heir presumptive’, however, may lose their claim if a more direct heir is born. The common thread between these two is that both could be affected by the birth of another person in the line of succession.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) brothers: Incorrect. While brothers may both be heirs, this is not the primary commonality between heir apparent and heir presumptive.
(B) parental support: Incorrect. Parental support is not specifically relevant to the definitions of heir apparent or heir presumptive.
(C) age: Incorrect. Age is not the primary factor distinguishing heir apparent from heir presumptive.
(D) birth of another: Correct. The birth of another child can displace an heir presumptive, making this the common factor.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (D) birth of another. Quick Tip: The concepts of heir apparent and heir presumptive are primarily defined by the possibility of their positions being altered by the birth of another heir.

Step 1: Understanding phrasal verbs.
A phrasal verb is a verb combined with a preposition or adverb that changes its meaning. For example, 'stood in for' means 'to substitute for someone'.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) get by: A phrasal verb meaning to manage or survive.
(B) break down: A phrasal verb meaning to stop functioning or to analyze something.
(C) double minded: Incorrect. This is not a phrasal verb but rather an adjective describing indecision.
(D) fall apart: A phrasal verb meaning to break into pieces or lose control.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (C) double minded, as it is not a phrasal verb. Quick Tip: Phrasal verbs are combinations of verbs with prepositions or adverbs that often have meanings different from the original verb.

Step 1: Understanding the text.
The given opinion suggests that the Scots objected to Elizabeth’s accession, likely referring to political resistance. The correct answer should counter this by offering an alternative view.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) No, Elizabeth became the undisputed monarch as the heir of George VI: Correct. This option negates the idea of any objection by affirming Elizabeth’s clear succession.
(B) No, the Scottish people embraced Elizabeth because of her Scottish lineage: Incorrect. This option suggests the opposite of what is needed to negate the original opinion.
(C) No, Elizabeth was hastily crowned Queen at Buckingham Palace: Incorrect. This statement does not address the objection from the Scots, but rather describes the timing of her coronation.
(D) No, Philip only shared the news of the death of George VI with Elizabeth: Incorrect. This option does not negate the Scots' objection to Elizabeth’s accession.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (A) No, Elizabeth became the undisputed monarch as the heir of George VI. Quick Tip: To negate an opinion, provide a fact or statement that directly contradicts or clarifies the claim.

Step 1: Understanding the context.
The sentence mentions that Elizabeth was third in the line of succession, behind her uncle Edward and her father. This implies that her uncle Edward must have been born before her father.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) Her uncle Edward had a child: Incorrect. This is irrelevant to the context of the line of succession described.
(B) She was not the oldest child of her father: Incorrect. This statement doesn’t directly relate to the line of succession. Elizabeth being third in line suggests she was younger than both her uncle and father.
(C) Her uncle Edward was younger than her father: Incorrect. This contradicts the information, as Edward was older than Elizabeth’s father in the line of succession.
(D) Her father was younger than her uncle Edward: Correct. Since Elizabeth’s father was second in the line of succession, he must have been younger than her uncle Edward.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (D) Her father was younger than her uncle Edward. Quick Tip: The line of succession is based on birth order, with earlier born family members having precedence.

Step 1: Understanding the line of succession.
According to primogeniture, the eldest child is first in line, and subsequent children follow in order. Elizabeth, being the oldest of George VI’s children, would still be the heir presumptive if a son was born. However, this son would have been third in line after Elizabeth and her younger sister Margaret.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) The boy would have been third in line of succession – behind Elizabeth and Margaret: Correct. If a son was born, he would have been third in line after his older sisters.
(B) The boy would have been the heir presumptive: Incorrect. Elizabeth, being older, would have remained the heir presumptive until her son was born.
(C) Elizabeth would have been the heir presumptive since she was the oldest among the George VI’s children and the succession was determined by primogeniture: Correct. Elizabeth remains the heir presumptive, as she is the eldest child of George VI.
(D) Both a) and c): Correct. Both (A) and (C) are accurate.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (D) Both a) and c). Quick Tip: In a system of primogeniture, the eldest child inherits the throne, and the order of succession follows their birth order.

Step 1: Understanding the context.
The statement “He is the son of my mother’s daughter” implies that the individual in question is X’s son, but the phrasing implies that X’s mother’s daughter could be his sister. Therefore, X must be married to his sister.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) X is married to his sister: Correct. Based on the phrasing, X is referring to his son who is the child of his sister, indicating an incestuous relationship, which is uncommon in such legal contexts but can be inferred from the statement.
(B) X does not have any children: Incorrect. The statement clearly mentions X’s son, so this option is false.
(C) X does not have any siblings: Incorrect. The statement implies X does have a sibling (his sister).
(D) Both b) and c): Incorrect. As neither (B) nor (C) is correct, this option is incorrect.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (A) X is married to his sister. Quick Tip: When interpreting complex legal or familial relationships, carefully analyze the language to understand the underlying connections and implications.

Step 1: Analyzing the passage.
The passage contains historical facts about Queen Elizabeth II and Queen Elizabeth I. By examining the text, we can infer information about their rule over Scotland. Elizabeth II is known to have ruled over Scotland, while Elizabeth I was the queen of England but did not rule over Scotland.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) Elizabeth II ruled over Scotland: This is correct. Elizabeth II ruled over Scotland as part of the United Kingdom.
(B) Elizabeth I did not rule over Scotland: This is also correct. Elizabeth I ruled England, but Scotland had its own monarch during her reign.
(C) Both a) and b): Correct. Both statements are accurate based on the historical context.
(D) Neither a) nor b): Incorrect. Both (A) and (B) are correct.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (C) Both a) and b) since both statements can be deduced from the passage. Quick Tip: When reading historical passages, verify facts from well-known history to deduce accurate conclusions.

Step 1: Understanding the rule of primogeniture.
The rule of primogeniture dictates that the oldest child inherits first. Therefore, the line of succession follows the order of birth within the family.

Step 2: Analyzing the family structure.
- X and Y have three children: P, Q, and R (in increasing order of ages), so R is the oldest.
- P has three children: A, B, and C.
- R has one child: J.
- A, B, C, and J do not have children of their own.

Step 3: Determining the correct line of succession.
- First, the oldest child of X, which is R, comes first in the line of succession.
- R's child J follows next.
- Then, the next oldest child of X, which is Q, follows.
- After Q, the children of P (A, B, and C) follow in order of birth. Finally, P follows at the end.

Step 4: Conclusion.
The correct line of succession is (B) R, J, Q, C, B, A, P based on the rule of primogeniture. Quick Tip: In a line of succession based on primogeniture, the eldest child inherits first, followed by their descendants, and then the next oldest sibling.

Step 1: Understanding the family structure.
In this scenario, Viserys is the king, and his legal heirs are those born from his marriage with Alicent. However, Rhaenyra, his daughter from his first marriage, is still in the line of succession. Alicent’s desire is to make her son Aegon the heir presumptive.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) Kill Rhaenyra: Correct. If Rhaenyra were killed, Aegon would become the next in line as the eldest son of Viserys.
(B) Kill Viserys: Correct. If Viserys were killed, Aegon, as the eldest son, would immediately become the heir apparent.
(C) Both a) and b): Correct. Both actions would achieve Alicent's goal of placing Aegon in the line of succession.
(D) Neither a) nor b): Incorrect. Either of the above actions could help Alicent's plan.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (C) Both a) and b), as both killing Rhaenyra and killing Viserys would help Aegon succeed in the line of succession. Quick Tip: In monarchies that follow primogeniture, the eldest son is the primary heir to the throne. Any actions that eliminate competitors would make the desired heir the presumptive monarch.

Step 1: Understanding the line of succession.
In a monarchy following primogeniture, the line of succession is determined by the birth order of legitimate heirs. The children of Viserys (Rhaenyra, Aegon, Aemond, and Halaena) are in the line of succession, but Daemon, as Viserys’ brother, would be placed below them in the order of succession.

Step 2: Analyzing the position of Daemon.
Daemon is Viserys' brother, so he would be placed after the children of Viserys. Since Rhaenyra is his daughter and already in the line of succession, Daemon’s position would come after her, Aegon, Aemond, and Halaena.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Since Rhaenyra has three children (Jacaerys, Lucerys, and Joffrey), and Daemon follows them in the line, Daemon would be in the fifth position in the line of succession during Viserys’ lifetime. Quick Tip: The line of succession in monarchies is typically determined by birth order. In cases where children are not born to the reigning monarch but are born to other relatives, their position in the line is determined accordingly.

Step 1: Understanding the analogy.
Doctors and cardiologists are related in the sense that a cardiologist is a type of doctor. Similarly, criminals and hackers are related because hackers are a type of criminal.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) lotteries : victims: Incorrect. This option does not fit the analogy since victims are not a type of lottery.
(B) malware : victims: Incorrect. While malware may target victims, victims are not a type of malware.
(C) social media : scam: Incorrect. This is not a fitting relationship in the same way, as social media is not a type of scam.
(D) criminals : hackers: Correct. Hackers are a type of criminal, making this the correct analogy.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (D) criminals : hackers. Quick Tip: In analogies, ensure that both sides of the relationship reflect a similar structure.

Step 1: Understanding the text's purpose.
The text appears to be informative and intended for a public audience, fitting the description of a magazine article. A news item would typically be more concise, and a speech draft is written for oral delivery, while a personal narrative focuses on personal stories.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) news item: Incorrect. A news item is typically short and factual, and the text described doesn’t fit this format.
(B) personal narrative: Incorrect. A personal narrative focuses more on personal experiences, which doesn’t fit the context.
(C) speech draft: Incorrect. A speech draft is intended for oral presentation, not for publication.
(D) magazine article: Correct. This text would fit the format of a magazine article, which provides detailed and informative content for a general audience.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (D) magazine article. Quick Tip: When considering the format of a text, focus on its tone, length, and intended audience.

Step 1: Understanding phishing.
In phishing, the attacker often needs to build trust and establish credibility to deceive victims into revealing sensitive information. This often involves creating a sense of trust or “faith” in the attacker.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) develop believable profiles: Incorrect. While developing profiles is part of phishing, the primary purpose is to establish trust.
(B) research the victims: Incorrect. Research is a method used, but the ultimate purpose is to build trust and deceive.
(C) gain in-depth information: Incorrect. Gaining information is a goal, but it comes after establishing trust.
(D) establish faith: Correct. The purpose of the phishing game is to establish trust or faith so that the victim is more likely to fall for the scam.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (D) establish faith. Quick Tip: In phishing, the key tactic is to establish trust with the victim to deceive them into revealing personal information.

Step 1: Understanding the question.
Phishers often target busy individuals who may not take the time to scrutinize suspicious emails. Being busy makes victims more susceptible to phishing attacks.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) They face language issues: Incorrect. While language barriers can sometimes play a role, this is not the main factor that phishers exploit.
(B) They remain very busy: Correct. Busy individuals may overlook the warning signs of phishing emails, making them an easy target.
(C) They lack tech savviness: Incorrect. While a lack of technical knowledge could make someone more vulnerable, the question is asking for what works "favourably" for phishers in a broader sense.
(D) They have delayed access: Incorrect. Delayed access is not a significant factor that phishers exploit.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (B) They remain very busy. Quick Tip: Phishers often target people who are busy or distracted, as they are less likely to question suspicious emails or links.

Step 1: Understanding the word "scam".
The word "scam" refers to a fraudulent scheme intended to deceive or cheat people, typically for financial gain. In this context, "scam" is most closely associated with "dupe," which means to deceive or trick someone.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) loot: Incorrect. While phishing may result in financial loss, "loot" refers to stealing or plundering, which is not the exact meaning of "scam."

(B) dupe: Correct. To "dupe" someone is to deceive or trick them, which is the core meaning of "scam."

(C) harm: Incorrect. While scams may cause harm, the primary meaning of "scam" is deception, not harm.
(D) betray: Incorrect. "Betray" means to be disloyal or unfaithful, which is different from scamming or deceiving.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (B) dupe. Quick Tip: In the context of deception, "scam" and "dupe" are often used interchangeably to refer to tricking or deceiving someone.

Step 1: Understanding the terminology.
- Scamming refers to fraudulent schemes aimed at deceiving individuals for personal gain. - Phishing is a form of scam involving deceptive emails or messages designed to steal personal information. - Vishing is a type of phishing that uses voice calls to deceive the victim. - Smishing is another form of phishing that uses SMS (text messages) for the same purpose.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) Scamming is a superset of which phishing, vishing and smishing are mutually exclusive subsets: Incorrect. While scamming can involve phishing, vishing, and smishing, they are not mutually exclusive; vishing and smishing are forms of phishing.
(B) Scamming and phishing are mutually exclusive sets; vishing and smishing are subsets of phishing: Incorrect. Scamming and phishing are not mutually exclusive; phishing is a type of scam. Vishing and smishing are subsets of phishing, not separate from it.
(C) Vishing and smishing are subsets of scamming: Correct. Vishing and smishing are forms of scamming, specifically involving deceptive communication methods (calls and text messages).
(D) None of the above: Incorrect. Option (C) is the correct relation.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (C) Vishing and smishing are subsets of scamming, as both are specific types of scams. Quick Tip: In the context of cybercrime, phishing, vishing, and smishing are various forms of scamming, but scamming encompasses all of them.

Step 1: Applying the conditions for the filter.
Let’s check each condition to identify the scam code:
1. The code should not contain special characters: "ersfjtncjlx" does not contain any special characters. 2. The code should not contain any character appearing twice consecutively: "ersfjtncjlx" does not have any consecutive repeating characters. 3. The code should not contain any character appearing thrice consecutively: "ersfjtncjlx" does not violate this rule. 4. The code should not contain any string that contains a numeric character followed by an alphabetical character: "ersfjtncjlx" does not violate this condition either.
Thus, based on the conditions, the other codes must be checked. Since the other options do violate one or more of the conditions (such as containing numbers followed by letters), the correct answer is (B).

Step 2: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (B) ersfjtncjlx because this is the only code that does not violate any of the filter’s conditions. Quick Tip: When filtering scam codes, ensure that each condition is checked thoroughly, especially looking for repetitions and sequences involving numbers and letters.

Step 1: Checking each code against the filter conditions.
- Option (A): "Thisemailisscam" contains "ss" (consecutive repeating characters), so it violates condition ii. - Option (B): "Thisemailisnotscam" does not violate any conditions; all characters are unique and there are no numbers or consecutive repeating characters. - Option (C): "Thisemaililikellyscam" contains "iii" (consecutive repeating characters), so it violates condition iii.
Thus, option (D) is the correct answer, as none of the options except (B) have failed any condition.

Step 2: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (D) None of the above since none of the codes provided fit the scam criteria after being checked for the listed conditions. Quick Tip: When filtering scam emails, always look out for consecutive characters and ensure that any numeric characters are not immediately followed by alphabetical characters.

Step 1: Understanding the conditions.
The filter conditions include:
- (i) The code should not contain special characters. - (ii) The code should not contain any character appearing twice consecutively. - (iii) The code should not contain any character appearing thrice consecutively.
Conditions (ii) and (iii) address repeated characters, with condition (iii) covering a stricter case of condition (ii). Therefore, condition (iii) is redundant because it only adds a more specific check to what is already covered by condition (ii).

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) Condition (ii) is redundant in light of Condition (iii): Incorrect. Condition (ii) covers consecutive characters, and condition (iii) covers consecutive characters appearing three times, so condition (iii) is redundant, not (ii).
(B) Condition (iii) is redundant in light of Condition (ii): Correct. Condition (iii) checks for a more specific case of the same rule in condition (ii), so it is redundant.
(C) Condition (i) is redundant because no codes have special characters in them in any event: Incorrect. Condition (i) is not redundant because it covers the rule regarding special characters, which is different from conditions (ii) and (iii).
(D) Both a) and b): Incorrect. Option (A) is incorrect, so this combined option is also incorrect.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (B) Condition (iii) is redundant in light of Condition (ii). Quick Tip: When analyzing conditions in a filtering system, ensure that the checks are distinct and not redundant, to improve efficiency.

Step 1: Analyzing the bot's capabilities.
The bot uses a set of filtering conditions to identify scam emails. Since it applies specific checks (such as ensuring no consecutive characters or strings involving numbers followed by letters), it is likely designed to filter all phishing emails that match these conditions.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) This bot will necessarily filter some (but not all) phishing emails: Incorrect. The bot is designed to filter all emails matching the conditions, not just some.
(B) This bot may filter only some (but not all) phishing emails: Incorrect. This is a weaker statement that does not accurately reflect the bot’s complete filtering capabilities.
(C) This bot will not filter any phishing emails: Incorrect. The bot is designed to filter phishing emails, so this statement is false.
(D) This bot will filter all phishing emails: Correct. Based on the filter's conditions, it is designed to filter all phishing emails that meet these criteria.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (D) This bot will filter all phishing emails. Quick Tip: When using a filtering bot, ensure that its conditions are strict and comprehensive to filter all relevant emails.

Step 1: Understanding the transformation process.
The steps provided in the question are aimed at reversing the scammer's "macro" transformation to return the original code. However, the order of these transformations is crucial.

- Step (i) transforms numbers 1 – 7 into letters t – z, respectively.
- Step (ii) transforms letters a – i into numbers 1 – 9, respectively.
- Step (iii) transforms the letter j to number 0.

Step 2: Evaluating the order of transformations.
The primary issue with the given steps is that transforming letters a – i into numbers 1 – 9 (step ii) would overwrite the necessary transformations involving numbers 1 – 7, which should map to letters t – z (step i). Similarly, step iii would interfere with other transformations since it deals with specific letters and numbers.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The steps cannot be completed in any order to correctly reverse the scammer's "macro." The transformations would conflict with each other, and thus, these steps cannot achieve the company’s aim.

Step 4: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (D) These steps, in whichever order, cannot achieve the company’s aim. Quick Tip: When designing reversal transformations, ensure that the steps do not conflict with each other and that each step is unique and does not overwrite previous transformations.

Step 1: Analyzing the phrase.
The word “Great” refers to the large size of the Pacific Garbage Patch. The word “Great” is used to highlight the extent or size of the garbage patch, as opposed to its location, issue magnitude, or uniqueness.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) vastness of the ocean: Incorrect. The word "Great" does not refer to the ocean itself, but to the patch within it.
(B) magnitude of the issue: Incorrect. While the issue is significant, the word "Great" refers to the physical size of the patch, not the scale of the environmental issue.
(C) uniqueness of the location of the garbage patch: Incorrect. The word "Great" does not focus on the uniqueness, but on the size of the patch.
(D) extent of the garbage patch: Correct. "Great" is used to describe the large extent or size of the garbage patch.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (D) extent of the garbage patch. Quick Tip: When interpreting the meaning of specific words like "Great," pay attention to their context to determine if they refer to size, importance, or another characteristic.

Step 1: Understanding 'gyre'.
A "gyre" refers to a large system of rotating ocean currents. The clue that best describes a "gyre" is its rotation, which is typically clockwise in the northern hemisphere.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) continuously changing: Incorrect. While gyres involve movement, they are not typically described as continuously changing.
(B) carried along: Incorrect. This refers more to the movement of particles within the water, not the rotation of a gyre.
(C) clockwise rotation: Correct. The key feature of a gyre is the circular, rotating motion of ocean currents, often clockwise in the northern hemisphere.
(D) invisible bits: Incorrect. "Invisible bits" refers to small particles, which is not the main characteristic of a gyre.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (C) clockwise rotation. Quick Tip: When interpreting scientific terms, focus on the primary characteristic or feature that defines the term, such as movement, rotation, or specific patterns.

Step 1: Understanding the term 'photodegradation'.
Photodegradation refers to the breakdown of materials through the influence of sunlight. The "photo" in "photodegradation" refers specifically to the role of sunlight or UV radiation in causing the degradation of materials, such as plastic.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) water: Incorrect. Water plays a role in degradation but not specifically in the term "photodegradation."

(B) sun: Correct. "Photodegradation" specifically refers to the degradation caused by sunlight or UV rays.
(C) type of plastic: Incorrect. While the type of plastic may affect the rate of degradation, the term "photodegradation" focuses on sunlight's role.
(D) duration of plastic at coast: Incorrect. The duration at the coast may influence degradation, but "photodegradation" refers to the effect of sunlight.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (B) sun. Quick Tip: When studying processes like photodegradation, always connect the prefix "photo-" to light or sunlight, which is the driving factor.

Step 1: Understanding the literary devices.
- A pun is a play on words, typically for humorous effect. - Symbolism is when an object, person, or situation has a deeper meaning. - Irony involves a discrepancy between appearance and reality or expectations and results. - Imagery involves the use of vivid language to create mental pictures, often related to the senses.

Step 2: Analyzing the line.
The line "He found himself traversing a sea of plastics" uses vivid language to help the reader visualize the overwhelming presence of plastics. The phrase "sea of plastics" evokes a strong image of the vastness of plastic waste. Therefore, this is an example of imagery.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (D) imagery. Quick Tip: Imagery helps readers create mental images and appeals to the senses, often enhancing the emotional or thematic impact of the text.

Step 1: Understanding the context.
The question seems to refer to topics related to marine pollution and the impact of trash on marine life. "Trash to Infiltrate the Food Chain" suggests an article discussing how pollutants, especially plastic trash, enter the marine food chain. This title is fitting for an article about environmental concerns in the 2006 series.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) Marine Life Conservation: Incorrect. While important, this title doesn’t focus on the pollution aspect of the issue, which the question suggests.
(B) Trash to Infiltrate the Food Chain: Correct. This title directly addresses the harmful effects of pollution and trash in marine ecosystems, likely a topic of concern in the 2006 series.
(C) Marine Debris and Trash: Incorrect. This title is relevant, but it is more general and does not specifically highlight the food chain connection.
(D) Ocean Cleanups Around the World: Incorrect. This title focuses more on solutions (cleanups) rather than the environmental impact of trash.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (B) Trash to Infiltrate the Food Chain. Quick Tip: When analyzing article titles, focus on those that directly address the primary issue or theme in the context provided.

Step 1: Understanding the relationship.
In order to conclude that plastic waste from land would be the smallest in size as it accumulates in the Great Pacific Garbage Patch, two key assumptions need to hold:

1. The extent of photodegradation must be inversely related to time spent in oceanic water (i.e., the longer the plastic spends in the water, the more it degrades and becomes smaller).
2. The plastic waste emerging from land and other sources must be of somewhat equivalent sizes at the source of origin so that any size differences arise due to the environmental process of degradation.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) Extent of photodegradation is inversely related to time spent by plastic in oceanic water: Correct. This assumption ensures that plastic waste degrades the longer it stays in the water, leading to smaller sizes.
(B) Plastic waste emerging from land and other sources are of somewhat equivalent sizes at the source of origin: Correct. If the waste size is already similar at the origin, the size difference observed in the patch can be attributed to degradation.
(C) Both a) and b): Correct. Both conditions are necessary to reach the conclusion that plastic waste from land will be the smallest.
(D) Neither a) nor b): Incorrect. Both assumptions are necessary for the conclusion.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (C) Both a) and b). Quick Tip: When drawing conclusions about environmental degradation, always check for the assumptions regarding both the environmental conditions and the initial state of the materials involved.

Step 1: Understanding the phenomenon.
The process described for plastic breaking into smaller pieces repeatedly is analogous to a biological process where an entity splits into multiple parts over time. This type of repetitive division closely mirrors the reproduction of amoeba, where one amoeba divides into two, and then each of those divides again in the same time period.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) Reproduction of amoeba – each amoeba splits into two in a certain period of time; which then again split into two in the same period of time: Correct. This is a biological analogy where the splitting process happens repeatedly.
(B) A train locomotive accumulating two coaches at each station it crosses: Incorrect. This option describes accumulation, not repeated division, and does not match the analogy.
(C) Case-load of a Court increasing as a result of more fresh cases being filed every day compared to cases being disposed in the same day: Incorrect. This describes accumulation but not division or multiplication, so it is not a suitable analogy.
(D) All the above: Incorrect. Only option (A) provides an appropriate analogy.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (A) Reproduction of amoeba – each amoeba splits into two in a certain period of time; which then again split into two in the same period of time. Quick Tip: When drawing analogies, ensure that the behavior being compared involves the same type of process—such as division, multiplication, or accumulation.

Step 1: Understanding the relation.
The lighter piece of plastic travels at twice the speed of the heavier one. This means that each subsequent piece of plastic travels at double the speed of the one before it. If there are ten pieces, the speed of the fastest piece can be calculated using this doubling relationship.

Step 2: Calculating the speed relation.
The relationship between the speeds is exponential, and for 10 pieces, the speed of the fastest piece is \( 2^9 \) times the speed of the slowest piece. This is because there are 9 "steps" between the slowest and fastest pieces.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (D) \( 2^9 = 512 \). This is the correct multiplier for the speed of the fastest piece relative to the slowest piece. Quick Tip: In cases where a quantity doubles with each step, the total number of steps determines the power of 2 used in the calculation.

Step 1: Understanding the implications of filtering plastics.
By filtering out all plastics from water bodies and preventing further disposal, the growth of the Great Pacific Garbage Patch would be slowed down. However, this measure alone will not immediately eliminate the patch or stop it from growing in terms of size and depth.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) Eliminate the Great Pacific Garbage Patch over a sufficiently long time period: Incorrect. While stopping plastic disposal would help reduce the patch, it would not eliminate it completely within a short or medium time frame.
(B) Stop the growth of the size and depth of the Great Pacific Garbage Patch over a sufficiently long time period: Incorrect. This would slow the growth, but it does not address stopping the speed of its growth, which is the focus of the question.
(C) Stop the speed of growth of the size and depth of the Great Pacific Garbage Patch over a sufficiently long time period: Correct. The aim of filtering out plastics would primarily be to stop the speed of growth of the patch over time, slowing its expansion.
(D) All the above: Incorrect. Since options (A) and (B) are not fully accurate, this option is incorrect.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (C) Stop the speed of growth of the size and depth of the Great Pacific Garbage Patch over a sufficiently long time period. Quick Tip: While filtering out plastics will not eliminate the patch instantly, it can help to slow or stop its expansion.

Step 1: Understanding the context.
The teacher is using an analogy to show that unless plastic removal is faster than the rate at which plastic is accumulating in the ocean, the garbage patch would not shrink and could even grow. The analogy needs to demonstrate a situation where the input and output are in a continuous process of imbalance.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) A filled bucket eventually empties as a result of an open outlet at the bottom of the bucket: Incorrect. This analogy does not align with the teacher’s argument since it doesn't involve a process where the input exceeds the output or vice versa. It merely describes a process of emptying without considering the input rate.
(B) Water level in a partially filled bucket with an outlet at its bottom rises if the amount of water coming through the inlet is faster than the amount of water that goes out through the outlet: Correct. This analogy supports the idea of accumulation exceeding removal, showing that if more plastic enters than is removed, the patch will continue to grow.
(C) Water level in a partially filled bucket with an outlet at its bottom goes down if the amount of water coming through the inlet is slower than the amount of water that goes out through the outlet: Correct. This shows a reversal of the scenario where the input is slower than the output, which aligns with the teacher's analogy of plastic removal being faster than accumulation.
(D) Both b) and c): Correct. Both (B) and (C) represent scenarios where there is a direct relationship between the input and output, which supports the teacher's argument about the balance between plastic removal and accrual.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (D) Both b) and c). Quick Tip: When drawing analogies, consider how the rate of accumulation versus removal affects the overall system and choose scenarios that reflect this dynamic.

Step 1: Analyzing the experimental results.
From the results:
- i. Plastic accumulation in sterile conditions affects marine life, but it is unclear if plastic alone causes harm without pollution.
- ii. Pollution in non-plastic environments does not affect marine life, suggesting that pollution alone may not be harmful without plastic.
- iii. Pollution absorbed by accumulated plastic worsens the impact, showing that plastic amplifies the effects of pollution.

Step 2: Evaluating the options.
(A) Pollution is always dangerous to marine life: Incorrect. The experiment shows that pollution in non-plastic environments does not affect marine life.
(B) Pollution is dangerous for marine life only if it takes place in an environment where plastic has accumulated: Incorrect. The results show that plastic accumulation enhances the negative effects of pollution but doesn’t conclusively prove that pollution alone is safe in non-plastic environments.
(C) Plastic accumulation poses no threat in a non-polluted environment: Incorrect. While plastic accumulation in a non-polluted environment was tested, the impact is not clearly established without pollution being present.
(D) None of the above conclusions can be drawn: Correct. The experiments don't provide conclusive evidence to support any of the other options.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (D) None of the above conclusions can be drawn. Quick Tip: When interpreting experimental results, avoid over-generalizing conclusions and ensure that all variables are considered.

Step 1: Understanding the experiment.
The experiment shows that larger pieces of plastic (larger than 100cm\(^2\)) take more time (T) to break down, while smaller pieces of plastic (less than 10cm\(^2\)) take less time (T/3). This suggests that the photodegradation rate (i.e., how quickly the plastic breaks down) increases as the size of the plastic decreases.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) Rate of photodegradation is inversely related to size of original piece of plastic: Correct. Since smaller pieces degrade faster, this implies that the rate of photodegradation is inversely related to the size of the original piece of plastic.
(B) Rate of photodegradation is directly related to size of original piece of plastic: Incorrect. The rate of photodegradation is faster for smaller pieces, meaning it is not directly related to the size.
(C) Rate of photodegradation is independent of size of original piece of plastic: Incorrect. The experiment shows a clear relationship between the size of the plastic and its degradation rate.
(D) Rate of photodegradation is not dependent on any factor other than size of original piece of plastic: Incorrect. The question does not mention other factors influencing degradation, so this option is too broad.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (A) Rate of photodegradation is inversely related to size of original piece of plastic. Quick Tip: Photodegradation rates are often affected by the size of the material; smaller materials tend to degrade faster when exposed to sunlight.

Step 1: Understanding the analogy.
The analogy involves two sets of words where the second word represents something that is a natural or direct result of the first. "Precedence" is related to "priority," as both refer to a concept of something being given preference or importance. Similarly, "progeny" refers to offspring, which is a direct result of progeny.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) progeny : offspring: Correct. This is a direct analogy, as progeny naturally leads to offspring, just as precedence leads to priority.
(B) lateral : vertical: Incorrect. This option involves opposites, not a direct result of one another.
(C) eligible : privileged: Incorrect. While these words are related, one does not directly result from the other.
(D) primary : secondary: Incorrect. These are comparative terms, not direct results of each other.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (A) progeny : offspring. Quick Tip: When solving analogies, look for relationships where one term is a natural consequence or result of the other.

Step 1: Analyzing the text.
The introductory line should align with the theme of property and inheritance laws. The text discusses the Western Property System and its focus on preserving property size and related power. Option (A) connects well with this theme by discussing inheritance laws and their role in preserving property size and prestige.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) Inheritance laws served as important means of preserving both the size of the property and the power and prestige: Correct. This option introduces the text in a way that ties directly to the subject of property and inheritance laws.
(B) What distinguishes the Western Property System from the systems of most is that its category of private property is a default category: Incorrect. While related to property systems, this option is too specific and does not serve as a broad introductory line.
(C) Public regulation of land use has increased drastically in the 20^th century: Incorrect. This option shifts the focus to public regulation, which is not the main subject of the text.
(D) A will is valid if it meets the formalities of the law, which usually, but not always, requires that it be witnessed: Incorrect. This option focuses on wills, which is a more narrow aspect compared to the broader subject of inheritance laws.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (A) Inheritance laws served as important means of preserving both the size of the property and the power and prestige. Quick Tip: When choosing introductory lines, ensure they set the tone for the main subject and flow naturally into the details that follow.

Step 1: Understanding the rules of succession.
- Primogeniture: The first-born son is always first in the line of succession. - Ultimogeniture: The last-born child is first in line, making the first-born potentially only second. - House Seniority: Seniority rules depend on the family hierarchy.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) Always correct with respect to the rule of primogeniture: Incorrect. Primogeniture would indeed always place the first-born son first.
(B) Always correct with respect to the rule of house seniority: Incorrect. House seniority can vary based on family traditions, so it’s not always correct.
(C) Capable of being correct in case of ultimogeniture: Correct. While in ultimogeniture, the first-born is not always first, the statement can still be true in certain situations.
(D) All the above: Incorrect. Not all of the options are correct.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (C) Capable of being correct in case of ultimogeniture. Quick Tip: Primogeniture and ultimogeniture are two competing rules of succession. Primogeniture favors the first-born, while ultimogeniture favors the last-born.

Step 1: Understanding the rules of succession.
- Ultimogeniture: The last-born child is first in the line of succession. - Primogeniture: The first-born is typically first, not the last-born. - House Seniority: Seniority is based on position within the family, which does not necessarily make the last-born first.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) Always correct with respect to the rule of ultimogeniture: Incorrect. Ultimogeniture favors the last-born, but this statement is not always true under other rules.
(B) Never correct with respect to the rule of house seniority: Incorrect. House seniority can place the last-born in line depending on the family rules.
(C) Capable of being correct in cases of primogeniture: Correct. Under primogeniture, the first-born is the most likely to be in line, not the last-born, but there may be exceptions where the last-born is considered in a different system of succession.
(D) All the above: Incorrect. Not all options are correct.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (C) Capable of being correct in cases of primogeniture. Quick Tip: Understand the differences between primogeniture and ultimogeniture, as well as the influence of house seniority on determining the heir.

Step 1: Understanding inheritance rules.
- Primogeniture and Ultimogeniture refer to the rules that govern who becomes first in line for succession based on birth order. Under these rules, only the first-born or last-born child is in line for succession. The statement in question implies that no person can be in the line of succession according to these rules, but this is not true.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) Correct if seen only in context of the rules of primogeniture and ultimogeniture: Incorrect. The rules of both can result in the first-born or last-born child being first in line.
(B) Not correct even if it is seen only in context of the rules of primogeniture and ultimogeniture: Correct. Both rules only allow the first or last-born child to be first in line; no other person can be first.
(C) Correct if seen only in context of the rules of primogeniture and house-seniority: Incorrect. House seniority can lead to other arrangements for determining succession, but this statement does not hold.
(D) Both a) and c): Incorrect. Both options are wrong.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (B) Not correct even if it is seen only in context of the rules of primogeniture and ultimogeniture. Quick Tip: Always distinguish between different rules of succession, and understand that primogeniture and ultimogeniture have rigid, non-overlapping systems for who becomes first in line.

Step 1: Understanding the rules of succession.
- Primogeniture: The first-born child in line to the throne inherits the realm. However, if the first-born is disqualified, then the next child becomes the heir. - Ultimogeniture: The last-born child is always first in line, regardless of the birth order of others.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) If the rule of primogeniture is followed, then Y’s elder siblings have all been disowned: Incorrect. Primogeniture does not require elder siblings to be disowned; it simply means the first-born child would have been the heir if not disqualified.
(B) Even if one or more of Y’s elder siblings were not disowned, it is possible that the rule of primogeniture is followed: Correct. Y could still be the heir under primogeniture if the elder siblings were disqualified in some way, such as through disownment or some other legal means.
(C) The only possible rule governing their realm is the rule of ultimogeniture: Incorrect. The statement does not confirm that ultimogeniture is the only possibility, as primogeniture could also be in effect.
(D) All the above: Incorrect. Since (A) and (C) are incorrect, this option cannot be correct.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (B) Even if one or more of Y’s elder siblings were not disowned, it is possible that the rule of primogeniture is followed. Quick Tip: Primogeniture doesn't automatically require disownment of elder siblings, but it may happen due to other factors such as legal or moral disqualification.

Step 1: Analyzing the possible scenarios.
This question is testing the possibility of different rules being in effect for the realm, based on the earlier explanation of the rules of primogeniture, ultimogeniture, and house-seniority.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) A realm follows the rule of house-seniority. The ruler’s eldest brother: Incorrect. House-seniority doesn't guarantee that the eldest brother is next in line; it’s based on a seniority hierarchy, which might include younger siblings as well.
(B) Even if one or more of Y’s elder siblings were not disowned, it is possible that the rule of primogeniture is followed: Correct. Primogeniture could still apply even if elder siblings are not disowned, as they could have been legally bypassed in some manner.
(C) The only possible rule governing their realm is the rule of ultimogeniture: Incorrect. This is not the only possible rule; primogeniture could also apply in this case.
(D) All the above: Incorrect. Since (A) and (C) are incorrect, this option is not correct.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (B) Even if one or more of Y’s elder siblings were not disowned, it is possible that the rule of primogeniture is followed. Quick Tip: Understand that multiple rules of succession can exist in a realm and that each rule can have different interpretations based on the specific context of the family or realm.

Step 1: Understanding the rules of ultimogeniture.
Ultimogeniture means the last-born child inherits the throne. It is important to focus on the most recent child in the line of succession, which is Q in this case.

Step 2: Analyzing the family structure.
- X has three sons: B, C, and D. - X has two daughters: E and F. - E had two children: Q and R. - Q is the youngest child of E and P.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Under gender-neutral ultimogeniture, the last-born child, Q, would inherit the throne.

Step 4: Final Answer.
The correct answer is (D) Q. Quick Tip: In ultimogeniture, the youngest child inherits the throne, regardless of gender.

Step 1: Understanding house-seniority.
House seniority means that the eldest child in the family, regardless of gender, inherits the throne. We need to focus on the eldest child in the family line.

Step 2: Analyzing the family structure.
- X has three sons: B, C, and D. - X has two daughters: E and F. - The eldest child in the family line is Z, who is the eldest daughter of X.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Under house seniority, the eldest child, Z, would inherit the throne.

Step 4: Final Answer.
The correct answer is (A) Z. Quick Tip: In house seniority, the first-born child, regardless of gender, is given priority in the line of succession.

Step 1: Understanding facts and opinions.
Facts are statements that can be proven true or false, while opinions express beliefs, feelings, or judgments.

Step 2: Analyze each statement.
(i) “Grand Prix is worth watching.” — This is an opinion because it reflects personal preference.
(ii) “Formula One cars are beautifully designed unlike other types of cars.” — This is also an opinion, as beauty is subjective.
(iii) “Symmetry is unable to address the downforce between the front and rear of a racing car.” — This is a fact based on scientific reasoning.
(iv) “The weight of a racing car has to be far less than the ground force generated.” — This is a fact that can be scientifically verified.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Hence, statements (iii) and (iv) are facts, and (i) and (ii) are opinions. Quick Tip: Remember: A fact can be proven or verified, while an opinion expresses personal belief or emotion.

Step 1: Understanding the idiom.
The idiom “Dot the i’s and cross the t’s” means to pay attention to every small detail and ensure accuracy or perfection in one’s work.

Step 2: Analyzing the context.
Among the given options, this idiom fits the best when referring to carefulness and attention to detail.

Step 3: Analysis of other options.
(A) “A vicious cycle” — Refers to a repeating negative situation, not suitable here.
(B) “Two can play at the game” — Implies retaliation, not attention to detail.
(D) “The tip of the iceberg” — Suggests a small visible part of a much larger issue, irrelevant here.

Step 4: Conclusion.
Therefore, the correct idiom is “Dot the i’s and cross the t’s”. Quick Tip: “Dot the i’s and cross the t’s” means to be thorough and precise — a sign of professionalism and accuracy.

Step 1: Understanding the question.
The question asks us to identify the category or type of the given text. Texts can be analytical, expository, descriptive, or inspirational depending on their content and purpose.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) Analytical: Analytical texts involve critical examination or breaking down of ideas, arguments, or data.
(B) Expository: Expository texts aim to explain, describe, or provide information clearly and logically.
(C) Descriptive: Descriptive writing focuses on detailed description of scenes, objects, or people.
(D) Inspirational: Inspirational texts are meant to motivate or uplift readers emotionally.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Since the given piece explains ideas and concepts rather than merely describing or analyzing them, it is best categorised as an expository text. Quick Tip: Expository writing is factual, informative, and structured to explain ideas logically and clearly.

Step 1: Understanding the expression.
The phrase “staying grounded” often carries both a literal and a figurative meaning. Literally, it refers to maintaining contact with the ground, while metaphorically, it means staying humble or realistic.

Step 2: Interpreting the context.
In the given line, the phrase is used in a physical or scientific context, implying the need to maintain balance or force — which aligns with its literal, exact, or non-figurative meanings rather than the metaphorical sense.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Hence, the meaning the writer does not refer to is the metaphorical one. Quick Tip: When analyzing meanings, always distinguish between literal (direct) and metaphorical (figurative) uses based on context clues.

Step 1: Understanding the question.
The question asks for the most appropriate concluding remark related to the given text about race cars, their performance, and the role of aerodynamics.

Step 2: Evaluating the options.
(A) Talks about racing regulations, which may not directly relate to the aerodynamic focus of the passage.
(B) This statement effectively concludes the idea by emphasizing how modern race cars rely heavily on aerodynamics — it ties back perfectly to the central theme.
(C) Focuses on understanding the concept theoretically, not as a concluding remark.
(D) Discusses downforce, but it feels like a supporting detail rather than a concluding statement.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Hence, option (B) fits best as a concluding remark because it reinforces the importance of aerodynamics in modern race cars and summarizes the central idea effectively. Quick Tip: When selecting a concluding remark, choose the option that summarizes and reinforces the main idea of the passage without introducing new details.

Step 1: Understanding the concept of downforce.
In a Formula One car, the wings are designed to create a downforce, which pushes the car towards the track, increasing the effective weight and improving traction. This allows the car to corner at high speeds without losing grip.

Step 2: Effect of reversing the wings.
If the wings are reversed, instead of pushing the car down, they will generate lift, which pushes the car upwards. This lift reduces the force pressing the car against the track.

Step 3: Interpreting X.
When the wings are reversed, the effective weight on the track decreases. Hence, the effective weight will be less than the actual weight of the car, i.e. \( X < 1 \).

Step 4: Conclusion.
Therefore, the correct value of \( X \) is less than 1. Quick Tip: Downforce improves a car's grip on the track, while lift reduces it. Reversing the wings changes downforce into lift, decreasing the effective weight on the track.

Step 1: Understanding the comparison.
While a supercar may have higher straight-line speed and acceleration, a Formula One car’s design gives it superior cornering ability due to high downforce. Downforce helps keep the car stable and maintain grip during sharp turns.

Step 2: Analyzing the track conditions.
If the race track were completely straight, the supercar would likely win because of its higher top speed. However, since the question states that the supercar would “handily lose,” it implies that the race involves turns or curves.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Hence, the only logical condition is that the race track has several turns, where the Formula One car’s superior handling due to downforce provides a clear advantage. Quick Tip: Formula One cars dominate on twisty circuits because their high downforce provides exceptional grip and control in turns.

Step 1: Understanding downforce in Formula One cars.
Downforce is the aerodynamic force that presses the car downwards, increasing tire grip and stability at high speeds. Without downforce-generating devices like wings and diffusers, a Formula One car would lose much of its traction.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) Correct. Without aerodynamic apparatus, the car would behave like an aeroplane, as the airflow could lift the car off the ground.
(B) Correct. Drivers would need to slow down during turns to prevent skidding or losing control due to reduced grip.
(C) Correct. Increasing the car's weight could help maintain traction and stability on the track.
(D) Therefore, all of the above statements are correct.

Step 3: Conclusion.
All the given points (A), (B), and (C) are true; hence the correct answer is (D) All the above. Quick Tip: Downforce is essential in racing cars to maintain grip and stability at high speeds by counteracting lift.

Step 1: Understanding the concept of free-fall.
An object is said to be in free-fall when the only force acting on it is gravity (or an equivalent net acceleration equal to 1G). Here, it’s assumed that all objects on Earth experience an upward force equal to 1G, exactly countering the gravitational pull.

Step 2: Application to the Formula One car.
Since the upward force of 1G cancels the downward pull of gravity, the net force on the car is zero — meaning the car experiences the same condition as free-fall (since no resultant vertical acceleration acts on it).

Step 3: Conclusion.
Thus, under the given assumption, a Formula One car is in free-fall at all times during a race. The correct answer is (A). Quick Tip: Free-fall occurs when the only acceleration experienced is due to gravity — or when forces exactly balance out to simulate the same condition.

Step 1: Understanding the phrase 'crunch numbers'.
The phrase “crunch numbers” is commonly used to describe the process of performing large-scale calculations or processing substantial amounts of numerical data.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
- (A) generating unique algorithms to develop recreation products: This is unrelated to the meaning of “crunch numbers,” which involves calculations rather than algorithm development for recreation products.
- (B) solving algorithms that help solve money-matters: While this may be a relevant concept, it is not the best match for "crunch numbers," which emphasizes data processing rather than problem-solving in a financial context.
- (C) large-scale processing of numerical data: This is the correct answer, as “crunching numbers” refers to handling large amounts of data or calculations, which is best captured by this option.
- (D) gathering numerical data for financial research: This option suggests data collection, which is different from the processing aspect implied by “crunch numbers.”


Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (C) because “crunch numbers” refers specifically to the large-scale processing of numerical data. Quick Tip: When someone mentions “crunching numbers,” they are typically referring to analyzing large datasets or performing extensive calculations.

Step 1: Understanding the idiom "calling it a day."

The idiom "calling it a day" refers to stopping work or concluding something, usually after a task is finished or when one decides that no further action is necessary.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) not compromising on quality: This doesn’t match the idiom. The idiom speaks about finishing or stopping, not about quality.
(B) making informed choices: This doesn’t align with the idiom. The idiom refers to ceasing work, not making choices.
(C) getting confused: This is unrelated to the meaning of the idiom.
(D) ceasing work: Correct. The idiom "calling it a day" means to stop working or to finish a task.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (D) because it aligns with the meaning of "calling it a day," which refers to stopping or finishing the work. Quick Tip: When you encounter the idiom "calling it a day," it typically means ending something, usually work, for the day or deciding that the task is complete.

Step 1: Analyzing the aspects of the text titled ‘What is best GPU for crypto mining’.
- Information is usually presented in such a text, as it provides details on the best GPUs available for crypto mining.
- Prediction would involve making future forecasts, which is not generally part of GPU comparison texts unless explicitly stated.
- Suggestion might be provided about which GPUs are best for certain scenarios.
- Precaution is something that would also be mentioned in case there are safety or risk factors related to the mining process.
- Introduction is generally included at the start of the text to provide context.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
- (A) i, ii and iv: Information and precaution might be present, but prediction (ii) is not likely covered.
- (B) ii and v: Correct. Prediction (ii) and Introduction (v) are not typically part of a comparison text on best GPUs for mining.
- (C) Only iii: Suggestion (iii) would be present, but only suggestion is not the focus of the question.
- (D) i and iii: Information and suggestion would be present, but this option doesn’t include prediction or introduction, which are key.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (B) as the text is unlikely to include prediction or a full introduction as its main focus is on the technical details of GPUs. Quick Tip: When analyzing informational texts like “What is best GPU for crypto mining,” focus on the technical content and avoid assuming predictions unless clearly stated.

Step 1: Understanding the use of question headings.
Question headings often create a sense of suspense or make the reader think critically about the upcoming content. In this case, the writer might be using question headings to leave room for uncertainty or to keep certain information in doubt.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) Retain a certain measure of deniability: Correct. The writer may be using question headings to avoid committing to a definite stance, thereby keeping a certain level of deniability.
(B) Compel the reader to agree with explanation that follows: Incorrect. While question headings may lead to a particular direction, this option seems too strong in suggesting the reader will be compelled.
(C) Create an atmosphere of uncertainty and suspense: Incorrect. While question headings can indeed create suspense, the intention of "deniability" seems more fitting here.
(D) Present information in a systematic chronology: Incorrect. Question headings don’t necessarily suggest a chronological order of information.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (A) Retain a certain measure of deniability. The use of question headings may imply a measure of uncertainty or ambiguity. Quick Tip: Question headings can serve various functions, such as creating suspense or avoiding a definitive stance.

Step 1: Understanding the meaning of ‘recuperate’.
‘Recuperate’ means to recover or regain strength, health, or position. We need to look for words with similar meanings.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) Represent, remove, regain: Incorrect. "Represent" and "remove" do not align with the meaning of recuperate. "Regain" is relevant, but not all options are correct.
(B) Renew, return, represent: Incorrect. "Renew" and "return" are related to change or bringing something back, but not to recovery or regaining.
(C) Remove, retain, reinstall: Incorrect. These words do not relate to recuperation or recovery.
(D) Regain, recover, retrieve: Correct. All three words — regain, recover, and retrieve — are synonyms of recuperate.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (D) Regain, recover, retrieve, as all these words are close in meaning to recuperate. Quick Tip: To identify synonyms, focus on words with similar connotations and meanings in the context of the sentence.

Step 1: Understanding the information given.
The problem compares two GPUs (X and Y) based on their initial costs and mining performance. It is stated that X's initial cost is lower than Y’s, but no direct information about their respective hashrates (mining efficiency) is provided.

Step 2: Evaluating the options.
(A) X’s hashrates were higher than Y’s: This is not necessarily true, as the initial cost does not directly indicate the mining efficiency (hashrate).
(B) X’s hashrates were lower than Y’s: Similarly, the initial cost does not directly imply the hashrates.
(C) X’s hashrates were the same as Y’s: This also cannot be concluded based on the information provided.
(D) Cannot be determined: Correct. Without data on hashrates, it is impossible to determine how X and Y compare in this regard.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Thus, the correct answer is (D) Cannot be determined. Quick Tip: When comparing products, be cautious not to draw conclusions based solely on one characteristic (e.g., initial cost) without considering other relevant factors (e.g., performance).

Step 1: Understanding the relationship.
The question compares the total cost of mining N bitcoins using two different GPUs, X and Y. While it is stated that the total cost of X is lower than Y, the breakdown of this cost (e.g., electricity consumption, initial cost, and efficiency) is not given.

Step 2: Evaluating the options.
(A) X’s per-unit-time electricity consumption is lower than Y’s: We cannot make this conclusion based solely on total cost without knowing the specific breakdown of each component of the cost.
(B) X’s per-unit-time electricity consumption is more than Y’s: Again, we cannot make this conclusion based on the total cost alone.
(C) X’s cost price is lower than Y’s cost price: This is not necessarily true, as the total cost could involve factors other than just the initial cost price (e.g., electricity costs).
(D) Cannot be determined: Correct. We cannot determine the exact cause of the lower total cost without additional data on the components of the cost.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Thus, the correct answer is (D) Cannot be determined. Quick Tip: When analyzing cost comparisons, ensure you have a breakdown of all components (e.g., initial cost, electricity, maintenance) before drawing conclusions.

Step 1: Understanding hashrates and profits.
Hashrate is the computational power used in crypto-mining. While a higher hashrate improves the efficiency of mining, it does not guarantee high profits. Profitability depends on various factors, such as the price of cryptocurrency, mining difficulty, electricity cost, and hardware efficiency.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) High hashrates necessarily lead to high profits: This is incorrect. High hashrates can improve the mining process, but profitability is not solely determined by hashrate.
(B) High hashrates necessarily lead to some profits: This is also incorrect because other factors affect profitability, such as mining difficulty and cryptocurrency prices.
(C) Low hashrates cannot lead to profits: This is incorrect. A low hashrate might still generate some profits depending on other factors.
(D) None of the above: This is correct because the relationship between hashrates and profits is not so straightforward, and none of the other options are universally true.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (D) None of the above since there are multiple variables affecting profitability in crypto-mining. Quick Tip: Crypto-mining profitability depends on more than just hashrate, including mining difficulty, power costs, and cryptocurrency prices.

Step 1: Identical cost price and hashrates.
If the cost price and hashrates of the GPUs are identical, the mining profits would depend on factors such as the market price of cryptocurrency, mining difficulty, and the time periods during which the mining occurred.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) The profits made by crypto-mining using the GPUs in different time-periods and thereafter selling the GPUs would be identical: This is incorrect. The market price and mining difficulty may fluctuate over time, leading to differing profits for the same GPUs in different periods.
(B) The profits made by crypto-mining using the GPUs in the same time-period and thereafter selling the GPUs would be identical: This is incorrect. Even within the same time period, market prices, mining difficulty, and electricity costs may differ between two GPUs, leading to different profits.
(C) The profits made by crypto-mining using the GPUs in the same time-period and thereafter selling the GPUs could be different: Correct. Factors like mining difficulty, fluctuations in cryptocurrency prices, and electricity costs may cause profits to vary.
(D) None of the above: This is incorrect because option (C) is correct.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (C) The profits made by crypto-mining using the GPUs in the same time-period and thereafter selling the GPUs could be different. Quick Tip: Crypto-mining profits can vary even with identical GPUs, depending on factors like mining difficulty, electricity costs, and cryptocurrency market prices.

Step 1: Understanding the impact of the pandemic on GPU production.
The pandemic led to the shutdown of many manufacturing facilities, leading to a reduced supply of GPUs. This caused the price of GPUs to increase as demand outpaced supply. However, electricity prices and cryptocurrency prices remaining constant wouldn't directly affect GPU costs alone, but could have impacts on mining profitability.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(i) Higher cost prices of GPUs: Correct. The reduced production of GPUs would result in an increase in their cost. This is the expected effect of the shortage.
(ii) Lower profits made by people mining cryptocurrency: This is not necessarily true, as the demand for GPUs in crypto mining may increase.
(iii) Lesser hashrates of GPUs: This doesn't follow directly from the scenario as no changes to GPU performance are mentioned.
(iv) Losses for people mining cryptocurrency: This is not directly related to the price increase. If anything, people may make more profits due to scarcity and increased demand for mining.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Therefore, the correct answer is (D) i only, as higher GPU prices would be the main effect. Quick Tip: Reduced production and supply chain issues during a pandemic can lead to higher prices for tech components like GPUs.

Step 1: Understanding GPU characteristics in crypto-mining.
GPUs with higher hashrates are generally more efficient at mining cryptocurrencies, meaning they provide better mining output. However, these GPUs might also consume more electricity due to their powerful performance. While expensive, they do not necessarily result in less profit, as better mining efficiency often leads to more profit.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) Have high resale value: This is not guaranteed. While expensive GPUs might have resale value, it doesn't always correlate with performance.
(B) Have high electricity consumption: High-performance GPUs might consume more electricity, but this is not always true for every high-performing GPU.
(C) Give less profit in crypto-mining: This is incorrect. Better hashrates usually lead to more profits in crypto-mining, not less.
(D) None of the above: Correct. None of the options accurately describe the characteristics of a high-performing GPU in the context provided.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Therefore, the correct answer is (D) None of the above, as none of the given statements correctly reflect the performance characteristics of the GPU. Quick Tip: Higher hashrates in GPUs usually lead to better mining efficiency, but do not automatically mean high resale value or lower profits.

Step 1: Understanding the purpose of exclamation marks.
Exclamation marks are typically used to convey strong emotions such as surprise, shock, or astonishment. In this context, the writer is likely expressing a feeling of astonishment or emphasis.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
- (A) dramatic effect: While exclamation marks can contribute to drama, they are more closely related to emotions like astonishment.
- (B) ambiguity: Exclamation marks do not typically convey ambiguity; they are used to emphasize clear emotion.
- (C) astonishment: Correct. Exclamation marks often indicate surprise or astonishment.
- (D) conviction: While exclamation marks can show strong belief, they are more associated with emotions like astonishment.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (C) because exclamation marks are used to convey astonishment. Quick Tip: Exclamation marks are effective for conveying emotions like surprise or astonishment, not ambiguity or conviction.

Step 1: Identifying engagement techniques.
Engagement with the reader is often indicated through direct interaction, such as addressing the reader, posing questions, or providing compelling headings. The use of headlines often helps engage the reader by summarizing key ideas or drawing attention.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
- (A) The paragraphing: Paragraphs help organize content, but they do not directly engage the reader.
- (B) The punctuations: While punctuation affects tone, it doesn’t directly indicate engagement with the reader.
- (C) The conclusion: The conclusion summarizes content but doesn’t typically engage the reader.
- (D) The headlines: Correct. Headlines are often designed to catch the reader’s attention and engage them by summarizing key points or posing a question.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (D) because headlines are commonly used to engage readers by summarizing and drawing attention. Quick Tip: Headlines are powerful tools to engage readers by giving them a clear idea of what the content is about and sparking their interest.

Step 1: Understanding the context of 'chart.'

In contexts relating to family and relationships, a "chart" often refers to a diagram or family tree, which shows the relationships between different family members. This is commonly referred to as a "pedigree."


Step 2: Analyzing the options.
- (A) pictures or photographs: While charts can contain images, in this context, "chart" refers to a genealogical or family tree, not pictures.
- (B) anecdotes: Anecdotes are stories or personal accounts, not related to a "chart."

- (C) pedigree: Correct. A pedigree chart is used to show family relationships, such as those between cousins, which fits this context.
- (D) family communication: "Chart" does not typically refer to communication; it refers to a visual representation of relationships.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (C) because "chart" in this context refers to a pedigree, or a family tree. Quick Tip: In genealogical contexts, a chart often refers to a family tree or pedigree, which visually represents familial relationships.

Step 1: Understanding the nature of the relationships.
The relationships in the text are described as confusing, which suggests a situation where humor or clarity might be used to highlight contradictions or chaos. A stand-up show often deals with comedic presentations of complex or confusing ideas.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) Ted talk: Incorrect. While TED talks can present complex ideas, they are typically structured and clear, unlike the confusion described in the question.
(B) Stand up show: Correct. Stand-up comedy often deals with confusing or contradictory topics in a humorous and satirical manner.
(C) Debate: Incorrect. Debates are more about argument and logic, rather than presenting confusing relationships.
(D) Awareness rally: Incorrect. Awareness rallies are about raising awareness and do not focus on confusion.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (B) Stand up show, as it fits the idea of presenting confusing relationships humorously. Quick Tip: Humor, especially in stand-up shows, often deals with contradictions and confusing situations in an exaggerated way.

Step 1: Understanding the context.
The sentence mentions a ‘knack’ for remembering, which suggests a method or technique to make sense of complex or confusing information.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) Dense and a method to paraphrase it: Incorrect. Dense information could be part of the context, but "paraphrasing" doesn't seem to fit the idea of simplifying a mind-boggling situation.
(B) Mind-boggling and a tip to simplify it: Correct. The information is likely to be complex or difficult to grasp, and a tip to simplify it would be welcome.
(C) Irrelevant and a reminder suggesting otherwise: Incorrect. Irrelevant information would not be appreciated, and this doesn't match the context of remembering cousins.
(D) Mundane and a digression: Incorrect. Mundane information doesn’t require simplification, and a digression is off-topic.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (B) Mind-boggling and a tip to simplify it, as it directly matches the idea of offering a technique to make a confusing situation easier to manage. Quick Tip: When trying to simplify complex information, focus on making it clear and easy to understand by breaking it down into smaller steps.

Step 1: Understanding the context.
X refers to the woman in the picture as their “great-aunt,” meaning she is the aunt of X’s parent. X also mentions that the woman’s daughter and X’s mother taught them how to play cricket. To determine the relationship between X and the woman in the picture, we must focus on the maternal side.

Step 2: Evaluating the options.
(A) The woman in the picture was X’s mother’s aunt: This is a valid assumption. X refers to the woman as their great-aunt, which implies that she is the aunt of X’s mother. This would make her X’s great-aunt on the maternal side.
(B) The woman in the picture was X’s grandmother’s aunt: This would not make sense because X’s grandmother’s aunt would be X’s great-great-aunt, not a great-aunt.
(C) X’s great-aunt’s daughter and X’s mother were siblings: This is an unnecessary assumption because the relationship is already clear without this being a condition.
(D) None of the above: This is incorrect as option (A) is correct.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct assumption is (A) The woman in the picture was X’s mother’s aunt, which directly follows from X referring to her as their great-aunt and the relationship with their mother. Quick Tip: When figuring out family relationships, pay attention to the terms used (e.g., great-aunt) and the direct references to the people involved (X’s mother, X’s great-aunt).

Step 1: Breaking down the relationships.
- X’s grandson’s paternal grandson refers to X’s great-grandson. - The sister of this great-grandson is X’s great-granddaughter. - The father of this great-granddaughter is X’s son. - The father of X’s son is X, and X’s father is the grandfather. Thus, the person being described is X’s son.

Step 2: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (A) because the relationships described point to X’s son. Quick Tip: To understand complex familial relationships, break them down step-by-step, focusing on one generational connection at a time.

Step 1: Breaking down the relationships.
- A is X’s grandson’s niece, meaning A is the niece of X’s grandson. - X and Y are sisters, so Y is A’s great-great-aunt. - Therefore, Y is A’s great-great-aunt, as she is two generations older than A’s parent (X).

Step 2: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (B) because Y is A’s great-great-aunt. Quick Tip: In family relationships, trace the generations backward to find the correct familial title.

Step 1: Understanding "second cousin, once removed."

A "second cousin, once removed" refers to the child of one’s second cousin (once removed) or a second cousin who is a generation above or below.

Step 2: Breaking down the options.
- (A) X’s father’s father’s brother’s grandchild: This would be X’s second cousin, but it is not "once removed" since they are of the same generation.
- (B) X’s father’s father’s brother’s son: This would be X’s second cousin and not once removed.
- (C) X’s father’s father’s sister’s granddaughter: This is X’s second cousin, but again, not once removed.
- (D) None of the above: Correct. None of the given options correctly describe a "second cousin, once removed."


Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (D) because none of the options fit the description of a second cousin, once removed. Quick Tip: To identify second cousins and cousins once removed, look at the generational gaps between family members. A second cousin, once removed, is either one generation above or below the second cousin.

Step 1: Understanding the family relationships.
- X and Y are first cousins, meaning their parents are siblings.
- Z is also Y's first cousin, which means Z's parents are siblings with Y’s parents.
- Therefore, X and Z share a common set of grandparents. This makes them likely to be siblings.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) Sibling: Correct. Since X and Z share a set of grandparents and the relationship structure supports this, they are most likely siblings.
(B) First cousin: Incorrect. First cousins would have the same set of grandparents but would not typically be siblings.
(C) Second cousin: Incorrect. Second cousins would share great-grandparents, not grandparents.
(D) Third cousin: Incorrect. Third cousins share great-great-grandparents, not grandparents.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (A) Sibling, as they share a common set of grandparents and are likely to be siblings. Quick Tip: When determining cousin relationships, remember that first cousins share grandparents, second cousins share great-grandparents, and so on.

Step 1: Understanding the term ‘first cousin twice removed.’

- ‘First cousin twice removed’ means that one cousin is two generations ahead or behind the other cousin. This generally involves a relationship between great-grandparents and great-grandchildren, or similar generational gaps.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) X’s grandparent’s grandparent and Y’s grandparent: Correct. This would be the common ancestor for the relationship described.
(B) X’s grandparent and Y’s grandparent’s grandparent: Correct. This also fits the definition of a common ancestor for the described relationship.
(C) Either a) or b): Correct. Either option A or B is a valid answer for the relationship described.
(D) Neither a) nor b): Incorrect. Options A and B are both valid.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (C) Either a) or b), as both options describe common ancestors of X and Y, who are first cousins twice removed. Quick Tip: Understanding generational gaps helps determine the relationships between distant cousins.

Step 1: Understanding the family relationship.
- X’s father’s aunt is the sister of X’s paternal grandfather.
- This person is referred to as X’s great-aunt.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) Great-aunt: Correct. The person is X’s father’s aunt, which makes her X’s great-aunt.
(B) Grand-aunt: Incorrect. A grand-aunt is the sister of one’s grandparent, not their father’s aunt.
(C) Great-great-aunt: Incorrect. A great-great-aunt would be the sister of X’s great-grandparents.
(D) None of the above: Incorrect. The correct answer is (A).

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (A) Great-aunt, as X’s father’s aunt is X’s great-aunt. Quick Tip: In family trees, the term "great-" typically refers to the generation after grandparents. For example, a great-aunt is the sister of your grandparent.

Step 1: Understanding the types of texts.
- Literary passages focus on artistic expression, such as stories or poetry.
- Descriptive passages focus on detailed descriptions of people, places, or objects.
- Argumentative passages focus on presenting an argument or point of view with supporting evidence.
- Informative passages focus on delivering factual information and are designed to educate or inform.

Step 2: Analyzing the passage.
Since the text in question presents information, the correct category is informative, as the purpose is to inform the reader.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (D) because the text is designed to inform. Quick Tip: Informative texts aim to provide knowledge or facts, often with the intent to educate the reader.

Step 1: Understanding the meaning of the sentence.
- Exemption refers to being freed from an obligation or responsibility.
- Accountability refers to being responsible for something, such as the payment of maintenance fees.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
- (A) power, defence: These are unrelated to exemption or accountability in this context.
- (B) privilege, offeree: "Privilege" and "offeree" do not fit in this legal or financial context.
- (C) respect, contract: This choice does not match the meaning of exemption or accountability.
- (D) immunity, liability: Correct. Immunity fits the idea of being exempt, and liability refers to accountability in a legal sense.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (D) because immunity refers to exemption from responsibility, and liability corresponds to accountability. Quick Tip: In legal or financial contexts, immunity refers to being free from liability or responsibility, while liability refers to the obligation or accountability for something.

Step 1: Understanding the term ‘foreign word.’

A foreign word is a word that comes from another language and is used in English. It is typically retained in its original form.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) Correlative: Incorrect. "Correlative" is an English word used in grammar and is not of foreign origin.
(B) Plaintiff: Incorrect. "Plaintiff" is derived from Old French but has been adopted into English.
(C) Vis-a-vis: Correct. "Vis-a-vis" is a French term that is used in English, meaning "in relation to" or "compared with."

(D) Grantee: Incorrect. "Grantee" is a term used in law, and it is an English word.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (C) Vis-a-vis, as it is the foreign term used in English. Quick Tip: Foreign words like "vis-a-vis" are often used in English, especially in formal or legal contexts, and they are not translated.

Step 1: Understanding the question.
The question asks us to choose a title that fits well with the text. A title is usually a brief phrase that reflects the content or theme of the text.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) All Rights Reserved: Incorrect. While this is a common phrase in legal texts, it does not fit as a title for this text.
(B) Fine Print: Incorrect. "Fine print" refers to the detailed text of a contract or document, but it may not fit as a suitable title.
(C) Letter of the Law: Correct. This phrase is often used in legal contexts and suggests a strict interpretation of the law, making it a good fit for a text about law.
(D) Burden of Proof: Incorrect. While "burden of proof" is a relevant legal term, it may not be the best title for the context of the text provided.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (C) Letter of the Law, as it best fits as a title for a text related to legal concepts. Quick Tip: When choosing a title, look for a phrase that encapsulates the central theme or focus of the text.

Step 1: Analyzing the passage.
The passage is discussing rights, legal theory, and their protection. It talks about different interpretations of "rights" and the role of law in protecting these rights.

Step 2: Evaluating the options.
(A) Talks about philosophers like Hegel, Kant, and Hume discussing 'rights' in the context of self-expression. However, this is more of a theoretical discussion about rights rather than a legal perspective.
(B) Discusses human rights and their intrinsic nature. While it is related to rights, it doesn’t match the focus of the passage, which is more about legal protection.
(C) This statement fits well with the passage, as it talks about legal rights and the right to enforce them in court, which aligns with the discussion on how rights are protected under law.
(D) Talks about the debasement of legal rights and employment law, which is somewhat related but focuses more on specific legal protections rather than the general legal theory presented in the passage.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Option (C) is the best fit, as it directly ties into the theme of legal rights and their enforcement, which is the central focus of the passage. Quick Tip: When selecting the appropriate fit for a passage, look for the option that directly aligns with the main theme discussed, such as legal protection in this case.

Step 1: Understanding the key terms.
The phrase "vis-à-vis" refers to a relationship between two parties. To analyze the problem, let us break down the terms used:
- Right: A right is an entitlement or a claim that one party has over another. A right implies that one can demand a certain action or duty from another party. - Privilege: A privilege is a special benefit or advantage granted to one party. Unlike a right, it is not something that can be demanded by law, but rather something that is offered based on certain conditions.

Step 2: Interpreting the relationships.
The statement says that X has a right vis-à-vis everyone else. This means X has a claim or entitlement from everyone else. - Y has a privilege vis-à-vis X. This means that Y has a special benefit or advantage over X. Given these two statements, we need to determine what relationship X has vis-à-vis Y.

Step 3: Analyzing the situation.
- If Y has a privilege over X, Y has a special advantage, and X cannot claim the same kind of privilege from Y. - Since Y has an advantage or privilege, X has no corresponding right over Y. This implies X has no-right vis-à-vis Y.

Step 4: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (A) because in the relationship described, X does not have a right vis-à-vis Y. Rather, X has no-right vis-à-vis Y, as Y holds the privilege. Quick Tip: When one party has a right and another has a privilege, the party with the right has no-right vis-à-vis the party with the privilege, as the right-holder cannot claim the privilege.

Step 1: Understanding the meaning of key terms in a contract.
To analyze this situation, we need to understand the key legal terms:
- Immunity: Immunity refers to being exempt from an obligation or liability. It is usually a form of protection granted to someone from legal obligations or actions. - Right: A right is an entitlement or claim that someone has, which allows them to demand something from another party. - Power: Power refers to the ability or authority to act, make decisions, or determine outcomes. In a contract, it refers to the authority given to a person to make decisions. - Disability: Disability refers to the inability or restriction from performing a specific action. In legal terms, it may prevent a person from acting in a certain capacity.

Step 2: Interpreting the contract clause.
The contract specifies that A has the authority to determine the quantum and time of payment based on the parties' performance. - This indicates that A has the power to make decisions regarding the payment terms, which depends on how the parties perform under the contract. A has the authority to decide the terms.

Step 3: Analyzing the options.
- (A) Immunity: Immunity does not apply here, as A is not being exempt from any duty or liability. - (B) Right: A does not have a "right" to demand payment; rather, A has the power to decide the payment terms based on performance. - (C) Power: Correct. A has power because A has the authority to make decisions about the payment terms under the contract. - (D) Disability: Disability refers to the inability to act, but A has the ability to make decisions, so this option is incorrect.

Step 4: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (C) because A has power vis-à-vis X and Y, as A has the authority to determine the payment terms based on their performance under the contract. Quick Tip: When a person has the ability to make decisions or determine outcomes in a contract, they hold power in that context.

Step 1: Understanding the context of the question.
The question describes a scenario in which every person has the ability to travel on any road, but this is contingent on the owner not blocking access. This raises a legal question about the nature of the right or entitlement that each person holds vis-à-vis the owner of the road. In this context, "vis-à-vis" is a French term meaning "in relation to" or "compared with." It implies that the individual has some form of entitlement or permission to use the road, but this is restricted by the owner's ability to block the road. Therefore, we are being asked to determine what legal or social concept applies to the person’s ability to travel freely on the road, compared to the owner's control over it.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) A right: Incorrect. A "right" implies an entitlement that cannot be easily taken away. While the person can travel on the road, their ability to do so is contingent upon the owner not blocking them, which means they do not have an absolute "right" to the road in a legal sense. The owner's power to block access suggests the absence of a guaranteed right to travel.

(B) A privilege: Incorrect. A "privilege" is typically a benefit or advantage that is granted by another party and can be revoked. In this case, while the person may be allowed to use the road, their ability to travel depends on the owner's discretion. However, this does not fit the definition of a "privilege," which would typically refer to something that is not guaranteed and can be more easily withdrawn.

(C) An immunity: Incorrect. An "immunity" refers to freedom from some form of obligation, liability, or restriction. Here, the person does not have immunity from the owner's actions or the possibility of being blocked from the road. Therefore, "immunity" does not apply in this case.

(D) None of the above: Correct. The person does not have a "right," "privilege," or "immunity" in the strict legal sense because the owner's control over access to the road affects their ability to travel. Instead, the person simply has the ability to travel unless restricted, which does not neatly fit into the options given. Thus, the correct answer is (D) None of the above.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (D) None of the above, as the relationship described does not align with the typical legal concepts of a right, privilege, or immunity. The person’s ability to travel is conditional upon the owner’s actions, and this scenario is best understood as a conditional ability rather than a formal entitlement. Quick Tip: When analyzing legal terms like "rights," "privileges," and "immunities," it's important to understand the context in which these terms are used. A "right" is an absolute entitlement, while a "privilege" is a conditional benefit that can be revoked. An "immunity" refers to freedom from obligations or restrictions.

Step 1: Understanding the context of the question.
The question refers to the owner of the road in the context of the previous question. The owner has the power to block access to the road, which implies that they possess some form of control over the road. This level of control is typically associated with a "right," specifically a property right, which gives the owner the authority to determine who can or cannot use the road. The ownership of the road provides the owner with the right to manage access and prevent others from using it. Thus, the relationship between the owner and others is one of legal entitlement or control over the property.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) A right: Correct. The owner’s ability to block access to the road indicates that they have a legal right to control access. This is a clear example of a property right, which allows the owner to dictate who can use the road. In the context of property law, this is a fundamental right.

(B) A privilege: Incorrect. A privilege implies a special benefit or advantage that is not automatically granted and can be revoked. The owner's control over the road is not a privilege, but rather a fundamental property right.

(C) An immunity: Incorrect. Immunity typically refers to being free from liability or restriction, which does not apply in this situation. The owner is not immune from restrictions but rather has the right to impose restrictions on others.

(D) None of the above: Incorrect. The correct answer is (A) because the owner has a legal right to control access to the road.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (A) A right, as the owner’s ability to block access to the road is a clear example of a property right, which is a legal entitlement to control access and usage. Quick Tip: Property rights grant the owner the authority to control the use of the property, including the ability to restrict access to others. This is a core principle of property law.

Step 1: Understanding the context.
In legal terms, a "right" refers to an entitlement or claim that a person has, and a "duty" refers to an obligation placed upon another person in relation to that right. In this case, A has a right to claim damages from B. This means that B is under an obligation to respond to A’s claim in a certain way.

Step 2: Legal framework of rights and duties.
The relationship between rights and duties is fundamental in legal theory. When one party (A) has a right, the other party (B) generally has a corresponding duty. In this case, since A has the right to claim damages, B automatically has the duty to pay those damages if they are found liable.

Step 3: Evaluating the options.
(A) Duty: Correct. A duty is a legal obligation that is owed by one party to another. Since A has the right to claim damages from B, B has a corresponding duty to pay damages if required.
(B) Liability: While liability is associated with responsibility for damages, the term "duty" more accurately represents the obligation to pay damages. Liability typically refers to the potential consequences, whereas duty refers to the obligation itself.
(C) Immunity: Immunity refers to protection from legal responsibility. If B had immunity, they would be exempt from the duty to pay damages, which is not the case here.
(D) Disability: Disability refers to an incapacity or restriction in a legal context, but here, we are talking about a responsibility rather than an incapacity.

Step 4: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (A) Duty because B is under a legal obligation to pay damages to A when A has a right to claim damages. Quick Tip: In legal contexts, when one party has a right, the other party usually has a corresponding duty to fulfill that right.

Step 1: Understanding the context of leasing.
In this scenario, the owner of land has control over the land and can transfer part of that control to another person by leasing the property. The key aspect here is that the owner retains certain powers over the property, even after leasing it. The ability to lease the land and allow sub-leasing reflects the owner’s authority and control.

Step 2: Defining "power" in legal terms.
The term "power" in this context refers to the ability or authority to do something within the legal framework. In property law, the owner of a piece of land has the "power" to lease the land to another person, and further, to allow sub-leasing. The power to transfer or share ownership or control of property is inherent to the property owner.

Step 3: Evaluating the options.
(A) Right: While the owner does have a right to own and lease the property, the term "power" is more fitting in this case, as it refers to the ability to take actions, such as leasing or sub-leasing. A "right" generally refers to an entitlement, while "power" is more about control and authority.
(B) Power: Correct. The landowner has the power to lease the property and even to sub-lease it, indicating their authority over the land.
(C) Immunity: Immunity refers to being exempt from legal responsibility or liability, which does not apply to the landowner’s ability to lease or sub-lease the property.
(D) Liability: Liability refers to legal responsibility or obligation, which is not relevant here. The landowner is not being held responsible for anything in this scenario; rather, they are exercising control over their property.

Step 4: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (B) Power, as it refers to the landowner’s ability to lease and sub-lease the property, demonstrating their authority over the property. Quick Tip: In legal terms, "power" refers to the ability or authority to act, such as leasing or managing property, while "right" refers to an entitlement or claim.

Step 1: Understanding the concept of copyright.
Copyright is a legal concept that grants the creator of an original work exclusive rights to its use and distribution. These rights include the right to reproduce the work, distribute it, and perform it publicly, among other things. If someone infringes upon these rights, the copyright holder is entitled to take legal action to protect their work.

Step 2: What does "vis-à-vis" mean in this context?

The term "vis-à-vis" is a French phrase that means "in relation to" or "with respect to." In this context, it refers to the relationship between Y (the copyright holder) and X (the alleged infringer). The question asks what Y has in relation to X in the case of copyright infringement.

Step 3: Analyzing the options.
(A) Right: Correct. Y has the right to sue X if X infringes upon Y’s copyright. This right is granted by copyright law, which allows the copyright holder to take legal action to protect their intellectual property. The right to sue for infringement is a fundamental legal right of the copyright holder.
(B) Power: Incorrect. While "power" might seem related to the ability to take action, it is not the precise term used in legal contexts when referring to someone's entitlement to sue. "Power" in law usually refers to authority granted by a higher body or governing structure, but it does not directly describe the legal right to sue.
(C) No-duty: Incorrect. "No-duty" would imply that Y has no legal obligations in relation to X, which is not the case here. Y has the right to protect their copyright, which may involve legal actions. Therefore, the concept of "no-duty" does not apply to this situation.
(D) Immunity: Incorrect. "Immunity" refers to being exempt from legal responsibility or liability. In this case, Y does not have immunity in relation to X. Y is not exempt from the law but rather has the right to take legal action against X if their copyright is infringed.

Step 4: Conclusion.
Based on the explanation above, the correct answer is (A) Right. Y has the legal right to sue X for infringing on their copyright. This right is a key aspect of copyright law, which provides protection to the creators of original works. Quick Tip: In copyright law, the creator of the work has the right to take legal action if their work is used without permission or infringed upon. This includes the right to sue for damages and other remedies.

Step 1: Understanding the meaning of 'feat'.
A "feat" refers to an achievement or an extraordinary accomplishment, typically one that requires skill, strength, or bravery. It is often used to describe a remarkable or impressive action.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
- (A) The diversion of traffic: This refers to a practical action, not a remarkable or extraordinary achievement, so it does not qualify as a "feat."

- (B) A student’s tribute to the mentor: While this can be meaningful, it is not considered a "feat," as it does not involve an extraordinary or remarkable achievement.
- (C) An acrobatic performance: This is the correct answer. An acrobatic performance is often a feat because it requires exceptional skill and physical ability.
- (D) The cancellation of a flight booking: This is a routine action and not an extraordinary accomplishment, so it does not qualify as a "feat."


Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (C) because an acrobatic performance is a remarkable action requiring skill and precision, fitting the definition of a "feat."
Quick Tip: A "feat" refers to an extraordinary achievement that typically involves remarkable skill, effort, or ability.

Step 1: Understanding the context of "key" breakthrough.
The phrase "key breakthrough" typically refers to something that is highly important or significant in its field. It indicates that the discovery or invention is a major development.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
- (A) Importance: This is the correct answer. Referring to the compass as a "key" breakthrough emphasizes its significance and importance in history or navigation.
- (B) Scientific nature: Although the compass is scientific in nature, the phrase "key breakthrough" is more likely emphasizing its importance rather than its scientific nature.
- (C) Ease of use: While the compass may be easy to use, the term "key breakthrough" highlights its significance, not necessarily its ease of use.
- (D) Novelty: Novelty refers to something new or innovative, but the phrase "key breakthrough" stresses its importance rather than simply being new.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (A) because the phrase "key breakthrough" emphasizes the importance of the compass as a significant development. Quick Tip: When something is referred to as a "key breakthrough," it often highlights its importance or significance in the given field or context.

Step 1: Understanding the question.
The question asks us to identify words that can function both as nouns and verbs in the given forms. Some words in English can have multiple grammatical roles, meaning they can be used as both nouns and verbs depending on the context.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) Uniform, magnetic, point: Incorrect. "Uniform" is primarily an adjective, and "magnetic" is primarily an adjective as well. "Point" can be both a noun and a verb, but the other words in this option don’t fit the criteria.
(B) Only uniform: Incorrect. "Uniform" is an adjective, and it cannot be used as both a noun and a verb in the given form.
(C) Uniform and core: Incorrect. "Core" can function as a noun and verb, but "uniform" does not fit the criteria.
(D) Point, iron, and core: Correct. "Point" can be a noun (a specific location or idea) and a verb (to indicate or direct). "Iron" can also be a noun (a metal) and a verb (to smooth or press with an iron). "Core" can be a noun (the central part of something) and a verb (to remove the core of a fruit). All three words meet the requirement of being used both as nouns and verbs.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (D) Point, iron, and core, as these words can be used both as nouns and verbs in the given forms. Quick Tip: Many English words can function as both nouns and verbs depending on the context. Pay attention to how they are used in sentences to identify their grammatical role.

Step 1: Understanding the context of the sentence.
The sentence mentions "compasses at Greenwich pointed true north," indicating that the compasses were specifically and accurately pointing to the geographical direction of true north. The word "true" in this context refers to something that is correct, exact, or precise.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) Aimed: Incorrect. "Aimed" refers to directing or pointing at something with intent, but the word "true" in this context refers to accuracy, not intentionality.
(B) Precise: Correct. "True" here refers to something accurate or exact, and "precise" means exact or accurate, which fits the context of the sentence.
(C) Topmost: Incorrect. "Topmost" refers to being the highest in position, which does not fit the meaning of "true" in this context.
(D) Sharp: Incorrect. "Sharp" refers to something with a fine point or clear image, but it does not match the meaning of "true" in relation to accuracy.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (B) Precise, as "true" in the sentence refers to something that is exact or accurate, and "precise" captures that meaning. Quick Tip: When interpreting adjectives in context, pay attention to how they modify the noun and whether they describe accuracy, position, or other attributes.

Step 1: Understanding the meaning of "undulates."

The word "undulates" refers to a smooth, wavelike motion or to move in a sinuous or wave-like pattern. This word is often associated with fluid, graceful movements.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) Praying: Praying generally involves stillness and focus, not a wavelike or undulating motion.
(B) Walking a dog: Walking a dog involves steady, purposeful motion, but it does not necessarily involve the sinuous or flowing movement that "undulates" implies.
(C) Sharing a secret: Sharing a secret is a verbal action, which does not involve any physical movement, let alone the undulating motion described by the word.
(D) Dancing: Correct. Dancing, especially certain styles, often involves fluid, undulating movements of the body, making this the best match for the meaning of "undulates."


Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (D) Dancing, as it aligns with the wave-like, smooth movements described by "undulates."
Quick Tip: When trying to match an action with a word like "undulates," think of movements that are fluid, wave-like, or graceful.

Step 1: Understanding the geometry of the square.
The towers are the vertices of a square, and the fifth tower is at the intersection of the diagonals. The given information involves the relative positions of the towers, including that C, A, and B lie in a straight line running from south-east to north-west.

Step 2: Analyzing the position of the towers.
- From the information, we know that C, A, and B form a straight line. - However, we don't have explicit information about which tower is at the centre of the square, as it could be any one of them based on the available data. - The fact that C, A, and B are aligned doesn’t provide enough specific positioning to conclusively determine the central tower.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (D) because the given information is insufficient to definitively identify the tower in the centre. Quick Tip: When dealing with geometrical positions and relations, make sure you have all the necessary coordinates or relative positions to determine specific locations like the centre.

Step 1: Understanding the relative positions.
The towers are placed as vertices of a square, with A and D being two opposite corners of the square. From the given information, we can deduce that in order to travel from A to D, one has to move in a straight line across one of the sides of the square.

Step 2: Analyzing the directions.
- Given the arrangement of the towers, A is positioned in the north-west and D in the south-east of the square. - Therefore, to travel from A to D, one would need to move in the southern direction along the edge of the square.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (D) because traveling from A to D involves going south. Quick Tip: When determining travel directions in geometric problems, remember to consider the layout and relative positions of the points or locations involved.

Step 1: Understanding the relative positions of the towers.
Based on the layout of the towers as vertices of a square, we know that A and B are two opposite corners of the square. A is located in the north-west and B in the south-east of the square. To travel from A to B, you need to move diagonally across the square.

Step 2: Analyzing the directions.
The movement from the north-west corner to the south-east corner involves traveling in the south-east direction. Thus, the correct direction for traveling from A to B is South-east.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (B) because the diagonal movement from A to B is towards the south-east. Quick Tip: When traveling across the diagonal of a square, the direction is either south-east or north-west depending on the corners.

Step 1: Understanding the effect of sunset on shadows.
At sunset, the sun is in the west, and shadows are cast in the opposite direction, towards the east. Thus, A’s shadow will point towards the east.

Step 2: Analyzing the positions of the towers.
- Based on the previous information about the layout of the towers, A is in the north-west of the square.
- The shadow will therefore point towards the opposite direction, which is towards the east. Since the towers are arranged in a square, the direction towards the east aligns with tower E.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (D) because A’s shadow at sunset will point towards tower E, which is in the east. Quick Tip: At sunset, shadows are always cast in the opposite direction of the sun, which is in the west. Therefore, shadows point eastward.

Step 1: Understanding the context of the question.
The question describes a compass with a magnetic needle that points towards the magnetic north. The circular piece of paper has directions marked on it, and if this paper rotates a quarter-circle counter-clockwise, it effectively shifts the marked directions by 90 degrees. We need to determine where the needle points after this rotation.

Step 2: Analyzing the rotation.
- Normally, the magnetic needle points towards magnetic north.
- A quarter-circle counter-clockwise rotation shifts the directions. If north moves to where west was, the needle will point in the direction that is now marked as west. However, this is an approximation, because the exact direction will vary slightly based on the Earth's magnetic field. So, the needle will point approximately east.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (A) Approximately east, as a 90-degree counter-clockwise rotation of the directions will cause the needle to point towards east, but it is not exact. Quick Tip: When analyzing compass rotations, remember that each quarter-circle rotation shifts the directions by 90 degrees. The magnetic field can cause slight variations in the directions.

Step 1: Understanding the scenario.
At sunrise, the sun rises in the east. The compass needle, by default, points north. If the compass is rotated so that it reads "SW" (southwest), the needle has moved away from its original position. The compass has rotated to a new orientation, and we need to figure out how much it has rotated.

Step 2: Analyzing the direction "SW."

- "SW" stands for southwest, which is 45 degrees to the west of south.
- If we start from the north and rotate clockwise, the southwest direction would be reached after a 135-degree clockwise rotation.
- Alternatively, if we rotate counter-clockwise from north, we would have to rotate 225 degrees to reach the southwest direction.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (B) 135 degrees clockwise or 225 degrees counter-clockwise, as both these rotations would lead to the compass reading "SW."
Quick Tip: When analyzing compass rotations, remember that a clockwise rotation results in positive angles, while counter-clockwise rotations are negative. 90 degrees per quadrant is a useful guide.

Step 1: Understanding the compass directions.
On a compass, the directions are labeled as North (N), South (S), East (E), and West (W). The intercardinal directions include North-East (NE), South-East (SE), South-West (SW), and North-West (NW). "NW" refers to the direction halfway between North and West.

Step 2: Determining the actual direction.
The "NW" direction points towards the North-West on the compass, which is actually between North and West. However, the question asks for the actual direction, not the intercardinal direction. The term "actual direction" in this context is referring to the direction that "NW" is pointing towards if we consider the compass orientation. The correct "actual" direction, based on the overall compass setup, would point toward the South, as "NW" is located in the upper-left quadrant of a compass, pointing toward the South-West.

Step 3: Evaluating the options.
(A) North: This is incorrect because "NW" is not pointing directly to the North.
(B) South: Correct. The "NW" direction actually points towards the South, as explained above.
(C) East: This is incorrect because "NW" is on the opposite side of the compass from East.
(D) West: While "NW" includes West, it points toward South, not directly to the West.

Step 4: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (B) South, as "NW" on the compass points towards the South when considering the overall compass direction. Quick Tip: Always keep in mind the actual compass orientation when interpreting intercardinal directions like NW, which are located between two main compass directions.

Step 1: Understanding the Nobel Peace Prize winner for 2022.
The Nobel Peace Prize is awarded annually to individuals or groups who have made significant contributions to world peace. The 2022 Nobel Peace Prize was awarded to Ales Bialiatski, a human rights activist from Belarus, alongside Memorial, a Russian human rights organization, and Center for Civil Liberties in Ukraine.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
- (A) Ales Bialiatski: Correct. Ales Bialiatski, along with the organizations, won the Nobel Peace Prize for his work in promoting human rights and democracy.
- (B) Annie Ernaux: Annie Ernaux is a French writer, not the Nobel Peace Prize laureate for 2022.
- (C) Svantee Paabo: Svantee Paabo is a scientist known for his work on genomics, but he did not win the Nobel Peace Prize in 2022.
- (D) John Clauser: John Clauser is a physicist known for his work in quantum mechanics, not a Nobel Peace Prize winner.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (A) because Ales Bialiatski won the Nobel Peace Prize in 2022. Quick Tip: The Nobel Peace Prize is awarded to those who have made significant contributions to global peace. Stay updated on the laureates each year.

Step 1: Understanding the plastic ban in India.
In July 2022, the Indian government announced a ban on single-use plastic items to reduce plastic waste, which has been a major environmental concern. The ban was part of India's efforts to eliminate harmful plastic products that contribute to pollution.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
- (A) All plastic bags: While plastic bags are a major contributor to plastic waste, the ban focused specifically on single-use plastic items, not all plastic bags.
- (B) Single-use plastic: Correct. The Indian government banned single-use plastic products, including items like plastic straws, cutlery, and plastic bags, in an effort to reduce plastic pollution.
- (C) Only polythene bags: The ban wasn't limited to polythene bags but included all single-use plastic items.
- (D) Only toothbrushes: The ban does not specifically target toothbrushes but focuses on single-use plastic.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (B) because the Indian government banned single-use plastic in July 2022 to reduce plastic waste. Quick Tip: Single-use plastic items, such as straws, cutlery, and plastic bags, contribute significantly to environmental pollution. Reducing these items helps in conserving the environment.

Step 1: Understanding the concept of nanometre.
A nanometre (nm) is a unit of length used to measure very small distances. One nanometre is equivalent to \( 10^{-9} \) metres. Nanoplastics refer to particles that are in the size range of nanometres, which are incredibly small and can easily be ingested or absorbed by the human body.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) \( 10^{-9} \, m \): Correct. One nanometre is \( 10^{-9} \, m \), which is the standard definition of a nanometre.
(B) \( 10^{-6} \, m \): Incorrect. \( 10^{-6} \, m \) is the size of a micrometre (µm), which is 1000 times larger than a nanometre.
(C) \( 10^{-12} \, m \): Incorrect. \( 10^{-12} \, m \) is the size of a picometre (pm), much smaller than a nanometre.
(D) \( 10^{-3} \, m \): Incorrect. \( 10^{-3} \, m \) is equivalent to one millimetre (mm), much larger than a nanometre.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (A) \( 10^{-9} \, m \), as one nanometre is defined as \( 10^{-9} \, m \). Quick Tip: 1 nanometre (nm) = \( 10^{-9} \, m \). Nanotechnology and nanoplastics typically deal with particles of this size.

Step 1: Understanding the question.
The question asks us to identify the water body that connects the Pacific Ocean to the Atlantic Ocean. Both the Panama Canal and the Strait of Magellan serve as crucial links between these two oceans.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) Panama Canal: Correct. The Panama Canal is a man-made waterway that directly connects the Pacific Ocean to the Atlantic Ocean, providing a shortcut for ships.
(B) Strait of Magellan: Correct. The Strait of Magellan is a natural waterway located at the southern tip of South America, also connecting the Pacific Ocean to the Atlantic Ocean. It is used for navigation, particularly by ships that are unable to use the Panama Canal due to size constraints.
(C) Both (A) and (B): Correct. Both the Panama Canal and the Strait of Magellan connect the two oceans, but they serve different purposes and are located in different parts of the world.
(D) Neither (A) nor (B): Incorrect. Both the Panama Canal and the Strait of Magellan connect the Pacific Ocean to the Atlantic Ocean.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (C) Both (A) and (B), as both the Panama Canal and the Strait of Magellan connect the Pacific Ocean to the Atlantic Ocean. Quick Tip: The Panama Canal is a man-made shortcut for shipping between the two oceans, while the Strait of Magellan is a natural route, often used when the Panama Canal is not viable for larger ships.

Step 1: Understanding the context.
Formula Two is a competitive motorsport series and the question asks about the current Indian driver participating in the series.

Step 2: Evaluating the options.
(A) Narain Karthikeyan: Narain Karthikeyan is a well-known Indian driver, but he is not currently participating in Formula Two. He has raced in other series like Formula One.
(B) Jehan Daruvala: Correct. Jehan Daruvala is currently racing in the Formula Two series and is an active competitor.
(C) Jack Doohan: Jack Doohan is a driver in the Formula Two series, but he is not Indian.
(D) Karun Chandhok: Karun Chandhok is another Indian driver, but he is not actively participating in Formula Two at the moment.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (B) Jehan Daruvala as he is currently participating in Formula Two. Quick Tip: When referring to active participants in a series, verify the most recent information, as driver participation can change season by season.

Step 1: Understanding Qatar’s currency history.
Qatar's currency, the Riyal, was adopted in 1973. Prior to this, Qatar's currency was pegged to other currencies, and the most significant one was the Indian Rupee. This was due to historical ties and trade relations with India.

Step 2: Evaluating the options.
(A) US Dollars: The US Dollar is a widely used currency, but it was not the equivalent of Qatar's currency before the Riyal was adopted.
(B) Canadian Dollars: This is incorrect as Canada had no relation to Qatar’s historical currency system before the Riyal.
(C) Indian Rupee: Correct. Before Qatar adopted the Riyal, the Indian Rupee was used as the currency in Qatar due to historical ties with India.
(D) UAE Dirham: While the UAE Dirham is used in neighboring UAE, it was not used in Qatar before the Riyal.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (C) Indian Rupee, as it was the currency used in Qatar before the Riyal was introduced. Quick Tip: When studying currency history, check for historical trade relations and neighboring country influence, as these often affect currency choices.

Step 1: Understanding the context of the question.
The question refers to the effect of air pollution and nearby sewage on a historical monument. The Taj Mahal, built in the 17^th century, is one of the seven wonders of the world and is located in Agra, India. The pollution and nearby sewage are causing the white marble to turn yellow due to the accumulation of pollutants.

Step 2: Breaking down the options.
(A) Taj Mahal: Correct. The Taj Mahal has been facing discoloration issues due to air pollution and the surrounding environment. The yellowing of the marble is a significant concern for conservationists.
(B) Statue of Liberty: This is not correct because while the Statue of Liberty has changed color due to oxidation of copper (turning green), it is not related to air pollution or sewage in the same way.
(C) Christ the Redeemer (statue): Incorrect. The Christ the Redeemer statue in Rio de Janeiro, while located in a humid environment, does not suffer from yellowing due to sewage or pollution.
(D) The White House: Incorrect. The White House, while affected by age, does not have significant issues with pollution causing yellowing as described in the question.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (A) Taj Mahal because it is specifically known for the yellowing caused by environmental pollution and surrounding sewage. Quick Tip: Air pollution and environmental factors can cause discoloration and damage to historical monuments like the Taj Mahal.

Step 1: Understanding the roles of psychologists and psychiatrists.
Psychologists and psychiatrists both play significant roles in mental health care, but their approaches differ significantly. Psychologists typically provide psychotherapy and counseling, while psychiatrists are medical doctors who can prescribe medications to treat mental illnesses.

Step 2: Breaking down the options.
(A) Psychologists: Incorrect. Psychologists do not prescribe medications. They focus on therapy and mental health assessments.
(B) Psychiatrists: Correct. Psychiatrists are medical doctors who specialize in diagnosing and treating mental illnesses, and they are authorized to prescribe medications.
(C) Both a) and b): Incorrect. While both psychologists and psychiatrists treat mental health issues, only psychiatrists prescribe medication.
(D) Neither a) nor b): Incorrect. This option is incorrect because psychiatrists do indeed rely on medicines to cure mental illnesses.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (B) Psychiatrists because they are the professionals who can prescribe medications to treat mental health conditions. Quick Tip: Psychiatrists are medical doctors and can prescribe medications to treat mental illnesses, unlike psychologists who focus on therapy and counseling.

Step 1: Understanding Elon Musk's companies.
Elon Musk is known for founding or co-founding several influential companies. These include Tesla (electric cars), SpaceX (aerospace), Neuralink (neural technology), and The Boring Company (tunnel construction). He has also been involved in the founding of SolarCity, a company that focuses on solar energy.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) Solar City: Incorrect. SolarCity was co-founded by Elon Musk's cousins but Musk was also a key figure, and Tesla later acquired it.
(B) Neuralink: Incorrect. Musk is the co-founder of Neuralink, a company that develops implantable brain–machine interfaces.
(C) Waymo: Correct. Waymo is a subsidiary of Alphabet Inc. (Google's parent company) and is not owned or controlled by Musk.
(D) The Boring Company: Incorrect. Musk founded The Boring Company, which focuses on tunnel construction and infrastructure projects.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (C) Waymo, as it is not owned or controlled by Elon Musk. Quick Tip: Waymo is a part of Alphabet Inc. and focuses on autonomous vehicles, not a company owned by Elon Musk.

Step 1: Understanding Fundamental Duties in the Constitution of India.
Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution of India through the 42nd Amendment in 1976 under Part IVA. They were not a part of the original Constitution adopted in 1950. These duties are a set of moral obligations for citizens, but they are not enforceable by law, unlike Fundamental Rights.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) Fundamental Duties were part of the original Constitution: Incorrect. Fundamental Duties were added later in 1976, not in the original Constitution.
(B) A person can be sued merely for failure to abide by Fundamental Duties: Incorrect. Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable, meaning they cannot be enforced by law or used as a ground for a lawsuit.
(C) Both a) and b): Incorrect. Since both statements (A) and (B) are incorrect, this option is also incorrect.
(D) Neither a) nor b): Correct. Since both (A) and (B) are incorrect, the correct answer is (D).

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (D) Neither a) nor b), as Fundamental Duties were not part of the original Constitution, and failure to abide by them cannot lead to legal action. Quick Tip: Fundamental Duties, while important, are not enforceable by law and cannot lead to legal action.

Step 1: Understanding Human Rights Day.
Human Rights Day is observed annually on 10 December to honor the adoption of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights by the United Nations in 1948. The day is dedicated to raising awareness about human rights issues around the world.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
- (A) 26 January: This is Republic Day in India, not Human Rights Day.
- (B) 10 December: Correct. This is the day Human Rights Day is celebrated worldwide.
- (C) 1 March: This is not the date for Human Rights Day.
- (D) None of the above: This option is incorrect because the correct answer is (B).

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (B) because Human Rights Day is celebrated on 10 December every year. Quick Tip: Human Rights Day is celebrated globally on 10 December, in honor of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.

Step 1: Understanding Praggnanandhaa’s achievements.
Grand Master Praggnanandhaa, an Indian chess prodigy, has won multiple prestigious titles in his career, including Youth World Titles. He has won three Youth World Chess Titles, showcasing his exceptional talent at a young age.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
- (A) None: This is incorrect. Praggnanandhaa has won Youth World Titles.
- (B) One: Praggnanandhaa has won more than one Youth World Title.
- (C) Two: While Praggnanandhaa has won multiple titles, he has won three, not just two.
- (D) Three: Correct. Praggnanandhaa has won three Youth World Chess Titles.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (D) because Praggnanandhaa has won three Youth World Titles in Chess. Quick Tip: Praggnanandhaa’s achievements in chess, including his three Youth World Titles, highlight his exceptional talent at a young age.

Step 1: Understanding the achievement.
Manika Batra made history by becoming the first Indian to win a medal in the Asian Cup Table Tennis. This achievement was notable for its significance in Indian Table Tennis history. Manika Batra has been one of the top-ranked female table tennis players in India and has gained international recognition.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) Sreeja Akula: Incorrect. While Sreeja Akula is a promising player, she was not the first Indian to win a medal in the Asian Cup Table Tennis.
(B) Archana Kamat: Incorrect. Archana Kamat is another prominent name in Indian Table Tennis, but she did not achieve this particular milestone.
(C) Manika Batra: Correct. Manika Batra was the first Indian to win a medal in the Asian Cup Table Tennis, making this the correct option.
(D) S. Gnanasekaran: Incorrect. While S. Gnanasekaran is an accomplished player, he was not the first to win a medal in the Asian Cup Table Tennis.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (C) Manika Batra, as she was the first Indian to win a medal in the Asian Cup Table Tennis. Quick Tip: Manika Batra’s achievement in Table Tennis is a great example of India’s growing recognition in international sports.

Step 1: Understanding the context.
Neeraj Chopra, after his historic gold medal win in the Tokyo 2020 Olympics in javelin throw, has continued to impress in other international events. One such notable achievement is his victory in the Diamond League, a prestigious track and field competition.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) Commonwealth: Incorrect. While Neeraj Chopra has participated in the Commonwealth Games, the Diamond League victory is a more recent and significant achievement.
(B) Diamond League: Correct. Neeraj Chopra won the Diamond League title after his Olympic gold medal, cementing his place among the top javelin throwers in the world.
(C) Both (A) and (B): Incorrect. Neeraj Chopra did not win the javelin throw in the Commonwealth Games after the Olympics; his major win came in the Diamond League.
(D) None: Incorrect. The correct answer is (B) Diamond League.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (B) Diamond League, as Neeraj Chopra won the prestigious Diamond League after his Olympic gold medal. Quick Tip: Neeraj Chopra’s success in the Diamond League highlights the level of consistency and excellence required to succeed at the highest levels of international competition.

Step 1: Understanding the history of Indian badminton players in Olympics.
Saina Nehwal was the first Indian to win a medal in Olympic Badminton. She won a bronze medal in the 2012 London Olympics, making her the trailblazer for Indian badminton on the Olympic stage.

Step 2: Evaluating the options.
(A) P. V. Sindhu: While P. V. Sindhu has won multiple medals in the Olympics, including a silver in 2016 and a bronze in 2020, she was not the first.
(B) Prakash Padukone: Prakash Padukone is a legendary badminton player, but he did not win an Olympic medal. He won the All England Championship in 1980, but not an Olympic medal.
(C) Saina Nehwal: Correct. Saina Nehwal was the first Indian to win a medal in Olympic Badminton, securing a bronze in 2012.
(D) Gopichand Pullela: Gopichand Pullela, although an accomplished player, did not win a medal at the Olympics.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (C) Saina Nehwal, who won India’s first Olympic medal in Badminton. Quick Tip: When discussing achievements in sports, be mindful of historical milestones such as the first medals won at major tournaments like the Olympics.

Step 1: Understanding the significance of the All England Badminton Championship.
The All England Badminton Championship is one of the oldest and most prestigious badminton tournaments in the world. The first Indian to win this title was Prakash Padukone in 1980, a historic achievement for Indian badminton.

Step 2: Evaluating the options.
(A) Gopichand Pullela: Gopichand won the All England Badminton Championship in 2001, but he was not the first Indian to do so.
(B) Prakash Padukone: Correct. Prakash Padukone won the All England Badminton Championship in 1980, making him the first Indian to win the prestigious title.
(C) P. V. Sindhu: P. V. Sindhu has had numerous successes, but she did not win the All England Championship title first.
(D) Saina Nehwal: Saina Nehwal is a successful player but did not win the All England title first.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (B) Prakash Padukone, who was the first Indian to win the All England Badminton Championship. Quick Tip: When discussing significant badminton achievements, remember the historical milestones like the first win in major tournaments such as the All England Championship.

Step 1: Understanding the context of the question.
The Prime Minister of Finland, Sanna Marin, gained international attention after videos surfaced showing her dancing at a private party, which some described as a “wild party.” This event created a significant media stir.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) Finland: Correct. Sanna Marin, the Prime Minister of Finland, was indeed in the news for dancing at a private gathering, which became widely publicized.
(B) New Zealand: Incorrect. While New Zealand’s Prime Minister, Jacinda Ardern, is often in the news, this specific incident of dancing at a "wild party" was not related to her.
(C) Canada: Incorrect. The Prime Minister of Canada, Justin Trudeau, has been in the news for various reasons, but not for this particular incident.
(D) None: Incorrect. Finland is the correct answer, so this option does not apply.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (A) Finland as it was Sanna Marin, the Prime Minister of Finland, who was involved in this newsworthy event. Quick Tip: Public figures, including world leaders, often make headlines for their personal activities, but their privacy can also be subject to intense scrutiny.

Step 1: Identifying the Chairman of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC).
As of now, Justice Arun Kumar Mishra serves as the Chairman of the NHRC, taking over the role in 2020. He has previously been a judge at the Supreme Court of India.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) Justice Arun Kumar Mishra: Correct. Justice Arun Kumar Mishra is currently the Chairman of the NHRC.
(B) Justice H. L. Dattu: Incorrect. Justice H. L. Dattu served as the Chairman of the NHRC before Justice Arun Kumar Mishra, but he is not the current chairman.
(C) Justice Pinaki Chandra Ghose: Incorrect. Justice Pinaki Chandra Ghose is the first Lokpal of India, not the Chairman of NHRC.
(D) Justice P. C. Pant: Incorrect. Justice P. C. Pant has been a part of judicial bodies in India, but he is not the Chairman of NHRC.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (A) Justice Arun Kumar Mishra as he is the current Chairman of the National Human Rights Commission. Quick Tip: The Chairman of the National Human Rights Commission is a critical position that upholds human rights protections and oversight in India.

Step 1: Understanding constitutional amendments.
The Constitution of India, since its adoption in 1950, has undergone various amendments to address evolving political, social, and economic needs. These amendments have been carried out by the Parliament of India and have contributed to the dynamic nature of the Indian legal system.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) 103: Incorrect. While this was the number of amendments in recent years, this is not the current number of amendments.
(B) 104: Incorrect. The 104th amendment was made in 2019, but this is not the latest count.
(C) 105: Correct. As of the latest records, the Indian Constitution has been amended 105 times, the most recent being the 105th amendment.
(D) 106: Incorrect. There have been no amendments beyond the 105th as of now.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (C) 105, as the Indian Constitution has been amended 105 times so far. Quick Tip: The Constitution of India has been amended multiple times to adapt to new legal, social, and political developments.

Step 1: Understanding the EWS reservation case.
The EWS (Economically Weaker Sections) reservation was introduced in India to provide 10% reservation in educational institutions and government jobs for economically disadvantaged individuals who are not covered by other reservation categories. The Supreme Court's ruling in the case determined whether this reservation was constitutionally valid.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) State of Tamil Nadu v. Union of India: Incorrect. This case primarily dealt with reservation policies for backward classes, not the EWS reservation.
(B) EWS Association v. Union of India: Incorrect. While the EWS reservation was challenged in various cases, this specific case is not the one that upheld the validity of the EWS reservation.
(C) Janhit Abiyan v. Union of India: Correct. The Supreme Court in the case of Janhit Abiyan upheld the constitutional validity of the EWS reservation, affirming its legality and confirming that it did not violate the basic structure of the Constitution.
(D) State of Maharashtra v. Union of India: Incorrect. This case did not deal with the EWS reservation but focused on other aspects of reservation policies.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (C) Janhit Abiyan v. Union of India, where the Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of the EWS reservation. Quick Tip: The Supreme Court's decision in Janhit Abiyan v. Union of India affirmed the constitutional validity of the EWS reservation, ensuring it does not violate the basic structure of the Constitution.

Step 1: Understanding the Election Commission in India.
The Election Commission of India is responsible for overseeing elections in India. The body includes the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners. In November 2022, Arun Goel joined the Election Commission as the new Election Commissioner.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
- (A) Rajiv Kumar: Rajiv Kumar is the Chief Election Commissioner, but he did not join in November 2022.
- (B) Arun Goel: Correct. Arun Goel was appointed as the new Election Commissioner in November 2022.
- (C) Sushil Chandra: Sushil Chandra is a former Chief Election Commissioner and did not join in November 2022.
- (D) Justice Kuldeep Singh: Justice Kuldeep Singh was not appointed as the Election Commissioner in November 2022.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (B) because Arun Goel was appointed as the new Election Commissioner in November 2022. Quick Tip: The Election Commissioner plays a crucial role in overseeing elections in India. Stay updated on the latest appointments and changes.

Step 1: Understanding World Heritage sites.
The World Heritage sites are landmarks or areas that are selected by UNESCO for their cultural, historical, scientific, or natural significance. India has a number of these sites, which are preserved for their global importance.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
- (A) 12: This is incorrect. India has more than 12 World Heritage sites.
- (B) 28: This is incorrect. While India has a significant number of World Heritage sites, it exceeds 28.
- (C) 40: Correct. India currently has 40 World Heritage sites recognized by UNESCO.
- (D) 52: This is incorrect. India does not have 52 World Heritage sites.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (C) because India has 40 World Heritage sites as per the latest count. Quick Tip: World Heritage sites are vital for preserving cultural and natural heritage. India is home to 40 such sites, showcasing its rich history and biodiversity.

Step 1: Understanding the Global Hunger Index.
The Global Hunger Index (GHI) measures the progress of countries towards ending hunger. It takes into account factors like undernutrition, child mortality, and stunting. India's performance on the GHI has been concerning in recent years, and it is ranked among countries with high hunger levels.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) 89: Incorrect. While India’s rank is not the highest in the GHI, it is lower than this option.
(B) 107: Correct. India ranked 107th out of 121 countries on the 2022 Global Hunger Index. This reflects ongoing challenges in addressing hunger and malnutrition.
(C) 98: Incorrect. India’s rank is lower than 98. This is not the correct position.
(D) 112: Incorrect. India’s rank is slightly better than 112 but still falls in the category of countries facing significant hunger challenges.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (B) 107, as India’s rank in the Global Hunger Index out of 121 countries is 107. Quick Tip: The Global Hunger Index provides a comprehensive measure of a country's progress toward eliminating hunger. India faces significant challenges in addressing hunger and malnutrition.

Step 1: Understanding the G20 summit.
The G20 summit is a key international forum where the leaders of 20 major economies gather to discuss global economic issues. The 2022 G20 summit was an important event for addressing global challenges, including the economic recovery post-COVID, climate change, and geopolitical tensions.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) Bali: Correct. The 2022 G20 summit was held in Bali, Indonesia, where leaders discussed several critical global issues.
(B) Rome: Incorrect. The 2021 G20 summit was held in Rome, Italy, but not the 2022 summit.
(C) Beijing: Incorrect. Beijing did not host the 2022 G20 summit. This option is not correct.
(D) New Delhi: Incorrect. While India will host the G20 summit in 2023, it was not the venue for the 2022 meeting.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (A) Bali, as the 2022 G20 meeting was held in Bali, Indonesia. Quick Tip: The G20 summit is hosted by different member countries each year. The 2022 summit took place in Bali, Indonesia, focusing on major global issues.

Step 1: Understanding the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020.
The National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 was introduced to bring reforms to the Indian education system. The policy covers several areas, including curriculum and structure, and it outlines the approach for the future of education in India. However, it specifically excludes certain professional disciplines.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) Law: The NEP 2020 does not address law education as it is considered a professional field, regulated separately.
(B) Medicine: Similarly, medical education is not under the ambit of NEP 2020 as it requires specialized institutions and frameworks.
(C) Technical: Technical education is covered under the policy, as it forms an important part of India's educational reforms.
(D) Both (A) and (B): Correct. The NEP 2020 specifically excludes disciplines like Law and Medicine from its scope, focusing on general education reforms.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (D) Both (A) and (B), as Law and Medicine are excluded from the National Education Policy, 2020. Quick Tip: When studying national policies, focus on the exclusions and exceptions mentioned, as they provide insight into the scope and limitations of the policy.

Step 1: Understanding the context.
The tourism industry in India was significantly impacted by the pandemic in 2020 and 2021, but several states made efforts to attract foreign tourists by offering packages and reopening key attractions. The question asks about the state that saw the highest number of foreign tourists in 2021.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) Goa: Goa is a popular tourist destination, but due to travel restrictions and other factors, it did not lead in foreign tourist arrivals in 2021.
(B) Karnataka: Karnataka, with its rich cultural and historical sites, had tourism activity, but it did not see the highest influx of foreign tourists in 2021.
(C) Maharashtra: Correct. Maharashtra, being home to major international airports, cultural hubs like Mumbai, and tourist destinations such as Pune and Lonavala, saw the highest number of foreign tourists in 2021.
(D) Kerala: Kerala also saw a good number of foreign tourists, but it did not surpass Maharashtra in 2021 in terms of foreign tourist numbers.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (C) Maharashtra, which admitted the most foreign tourists in 2021. Quick Tip: When analyzing tourism trends, consider factors like transportation infrastructure, major attractions, and government policies that encourage foreign visits.

Step 1: Understanding the IMF loan situation.
The International Monetary Fund (IMF) approved a loan to Sri Lanka to help stabilize its economy, which has been facing a severe financial crisis. The loan of US
) 2.9 billion is aimed at supporting Sri Lanka’s economic reform efforts and easing its debt crisis.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) Myanmar: Incorrect. Myanmar has faced international sanctions and political instability, which would make it unlikely for the IMF to approve such a large loan to the country.
(B) Sri Lanka: Correct. The IMF recently approved a loan of US
( 2.9 billion to Sri Lanka as part of a program aimed at stabilizing its economy.
(C) India: Incorrect. India has a large economy and does not require such financial assistance from the IMF at this point.
(D) Nepal: Incorrect. Nepal has also faced challenges but has not received such a loan from the IMF in recent times.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (B) Sri Lanka as the IMF approved the loan to Sri Lanka to help with its economic crisis. Quick Tip: The IMF loan to Sri Lanka is part of the international effort to stabilize countries facing economic crises. These loans often come with conditions for fiscal reforms.

Step 1: Understanding GIFT City.
GIFT (Gujarat International Finance Tec-City) City is an ambitious project in India that aims to become a global financial hub. It is designed to attract international universities, financial institutions, and multinational companies. The government of India has allowed foreign universities to set up institutions within this specially designed city.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) GIFT city: Correct. Foreign universities are permitted to set up their institutions in GIFT city, which is designed to attract global investments and educational institutions.
(B) Metropolitan Cities: Incorrect. While foreign universities may establish institutions in metropolitan cities, this option is not specific to the government’s current focus on the GIFT city project for setting up foreign universities.
(C) District Headquarters: Incorrect. The government has not yet permitted foreign universities to set up institutions in district headquarters, as it is more focused on specific zones like GIFT city.
(D) Municipal Towns: Incorrect. Similarly, foreign universities are not being encouraged to set up institutions in municipal towns at this time.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (A) GIFT city as it is a designated hub for international universities to set up their institutions in India. Quick Tip: GIFT city is a specialized zone in India, offering global institutions the opportunity to set up their operations, including universities, with favorable regulations and incentives.

Step 1: Understanding private rocket launches in India.
India's space program has traditionally been spearheaded by ISRO, but in recent years, private companies have begun to venture into space exploration. One of the key milestones in this direction was the launch of Vikram-S, India's first privately developed rocket, which was launched in November 2022 from Sriharikota. This rocket was designed by Skyroot Aerospace.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) Skyroot: Incorrect. Skyroot is the company that developed the Vikram-S rocket, but it is not the name of the rocket itself.
(B) Vikram – S: Correct. Vikram-S is the name of the privately built rocket launched in November 2022.
(C) Arya – B: Incorrect. Arya-B is not the name of the rocket launched in 2022.
(D) Chand – I: Incorrect. Chand-I is not related to any recent rocket launches from India.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (B) Vikram – S, as it was the name of the privately built rocket launched from Sriharikota in November 2022. Quick Tip: The Vikram-S was the first private rocket launched by India, marking a significant milestone in the nation's space exploration journey.

Step 1: Understanding the significance of Voters Day in India.
Voters Day is celebrated every year in India on January 25th. It was first observed in 2011 to mark the foundation day of the Election Commission of India. The purpose of the day is to encourage greater participation in the electoral process and to highlight the importance of voting in strengthening democracy.

Step 2: Analyzing the options.
(A) 26^th January: Incorrect. This date is celebrated as Republic Day in India, commemorating the adoption of the Constitution.
(B) 26^th November: Incorrect. November 26th is observed as Constitution Day in India, celebrating the adoption of the Constitution.
(C) 25^th January: Correct. Voters Day is observed annually on January 25th.
(D) 25^th November: Incorrect. This is not the date for Voters Day.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (C) 25^th January, as it is the date when Voters Day is celebrated in India. Quick Tip: Voters Day is celebrated on January 25th to encourage citizens to participate in the electoral process and to honor the Election Commission of India.