CUET PG 2024 MPT Question Paper (Available) - Download Solution Pdf with Answer Key

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Updated on, Jan 15, 2025

byMayank Chaudhary

CUET PG MPT Question Paper 2024 is available here for download. NTA conducted CUET PG MPT paper 2024 on from March 20 in Shift 2. CUET PG Question Paper 2024 is based on objective-type questions (MCQs). According to latest exam pattern, candidates get 105 minutes to solve 75 MCQs in CUET PG 2024 MPT question paper.

CUET PG MPT Question Paper 2024 PDF Download

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MPT Questions with Solutions

Question 1:

The musculocutaneous nerve does not supply:

  1. Coracobrachialis
  2. Pectoralis Minor
  3. Long head of biceps
  4. Short head of biceps brachii
Correct Answer: (2) Pectoralis Minor.
View Solution

The musculocutaneous nerve originates from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus and supplies the anterior compartment of the arm, including:

  • Coracobrachialis: Initiates shoulder flexion.
  • Biceps brachii: Flexes the elbow and supinates the forearm (both heads).

Pectoralis minor, however, is supplied by the medial and lateral pectoral nerves, not the musculocutaneous nerve.


Question 2:

Superior oblique (an extraocular muscle) is supplied by which cranial nerve?

  1. Trochlear
  2. Abducens
  3. Facial
  4. Oculomotor
Correct Answer: (1) Trochlear.
View Solution

The superior oblique muscle is innervated by the trochlear nerve (cranial nerve IV). It is responsible for depressing and intorting the eyeball. The trochlear nerve is the only cranial nerve that exits dorsally from the brainstem and crosses to innervate the contralateral muscle.


Question 3:

Superior Gluteal Nerve supplies the following muscle:

  1. Gluteus maximus
  2. Gemellus inferior
  3. Obturator internus
  4. Tensor fascia lata
Correct Answer: (4) Tensor fascia lata.
View Solution

The superior gluteal nerve originates from the sacral plexus and supplies:

  • Gluteus medius and minimus: Hip abduction and medial rotation.
  • Tensor fascia lata: Stabilizes the pelvis during walking.

The gluteus maximus is supplied by the inferior gluteal nerve, while gemellus inferior and obturator internus are supplied by the nerve to obturator internus.


Question 4:

Aplastic anemia is due to:

  1. Disorder of red bone marrow
  2. Iron deficiency
  3. Vitamin B12 deficiency
  4. Folic acid deficiency
Correct Answer: (1) Disorder of red bone marrow.
View Solution

Aplastic anemia is characterized by the failure of the bone marrow to produce enough blood cells, leading to pancytopenia. Common causes include radiation, toxic exposure, or autoimmune diseases. Nutrient deficiencies like iron or vitamin B12 affect specific blood cell types, but aplastic anemia affects all cell lines.


Question 5:

Fick principle is used as a:

  1. Method of measurement of vital capacity
  2. Method of measurement of tidal volume
  3. Method of measurement of cardiac output
  4. Method of measurement of blood volume
Correct Answer: (3) Method of measurement of cardiac output.
View Solution

The Fick principle calculates cardiac output by comparing oxygen consumption and the difference in oxygen content between arterial and venous blood. It provides a measure of the heart's pumping efficiency.


Question 6:

The correct formula for alveolar ventilation is:

  1. (Tidal Volume + Dead Space) × Respiratory Rate
  2. (Tidal Volume - Dead Space) × Respiratory Rate
  3. (Tidal Volume + Dead Space) ÷ Respiratory Rate
  4. (Tidal Volume - Dead Space) ÷ Respiratory Rate
Correct Answer: (2) (Tidal Volume - Dead Space) × Respiratory Rate.
View Solution

Alveolar ventilation represents the volume of air reaching the alveoli per minute. The formula accounts for dead space (air that does not participate in gas exchange).


Question 7:

The protection furnished by society to its members through a series of public measures against social and economic distresses is called:

  1. Social welfare
  2. Social security
  3. Social work
  4. Social reform
Correct Answer: (2) Social security.
View Solution

Social security includes unemployment benefits, disability payments, and pensions, offering protection during economic or social hardships. It differs from social welfare, which focuses on well-being, and social reform, which aims to change societal structures.


Question 8:

Which of the following is the major effect of "Vrikshasana" pose in Yoga?

  1. Gives a sense of balance
  2. Strengthens upper limb muscles
  3. Improves flexibility of the trunk
  4. Improves breathing
Correct Answer: (1) Gives a sense of balance.
View Solution

Vrikshasana (tree pose) improves balance and stability by engaging the core and lower body muscles. While it benefits flexibility and strength, its primary focus is balance.


Question 9:

According to Piaget’s stages of cognitive growth, "emergence of language" is the major hallmark of:

  1. Sensorimotor stage
  2. Preoperational stage
  3. Concrete operational stage
  4. Formal operational stage
Correct Answer: (2) Preoperational stage.
View Solution

In Piaget’s preoperational stage (2-7 years), children develop symbolic thought and language skills, allowing them to represent objects and events verbally.


Question 10:

The action of the biceps brachii muscle on the elbow joint is an example of which class/order of lever?

  1. First class/order of lever with mechanical advantage
  2. First class/order of lever with mechanical disadvantage
  3. Second class/order of lever
  4. Third class/order of lever
Correct Answer: (4) Third class/order of lever.
View Solution

The biceps brachii acts as a third-class lever, where the effort is applied between the fulcrum (elbow) and the load (weight in the hand), prioritizing speed and range of motion over force.


Question 11:

The paralysis of the dorsiflexors of the foot will result in:

  1. Functional shortening; increased knee and hip flexion
  2. Functional lengthening; increased knee and hip flexion
  3. Functional shortening; decreased knee and hip flexion
  4. Functional lengthening; decreased knee and hip flexion
Correct Answer: (2) Functional lengthening; increased knee and hip flexion.
View Solution

Paralysis of dorsiflexors results in foot drop, causing difficulty during the swing phase of gait. To compensate, increased knee and hip flexion are employed to clear the ground, leading to functional lengthening of the affected extremity.


Question 12:

The superior zygapophyseal facet in a typical lumbar vertebra faces:

  1. Posteromedially; limits lateral flexion and rotation
  2. Posterolaterally; allows greater lateral flexion
  3. Anteromedially; limits rotation and extension
  4. Anterolaterally; allows rotation
Correct Answer: (1) Posteromedially; limits lateral flexion and rotation.
View Solution

In lumbar vertebrae, the superior zygapophyseal facets are oriented posteromedially, restricting lateral flexion and rotation. This arrangement provides stability while allowing flexion and extension.


Question 13:

Which of the following does not cause edema?

  1. Decreased plasma oncotic pressure
  2. Decreased capillary permeability
  3. Lymphatic obstruction
  4. Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure
Correct Answer: (2) Decreased capillary permeability.
View Solution

Edema occurs due to increased capillary permeability, decreased oncotic pressure, lymphatic obstruction, or increased hydrostatic pressure. Reduced permeability decreases fluid leakage, preventing edema.


Question 14:

Which enzyme is the rate-limiting step of glycolysis?

  1. Phosphohexose isomerase
  2. Phosphofructokinase
  3. Aldolase
  4. Hexokinase
Correct Answer: (2) Phosphofructokinase.
View Solution

Phosphofructokinase (PFK) catalyzes the conversion of fructose-6-phosphate to fructose-1,6-bisphosphate, a critical step in glycolysis. PFK is regulated by ATP levels and allosteric inhibitors.


Question 15:

Which of the following is essential for reducing injury risk in high-intensity deceleration exercises?

  1. Isokinetic training
  2. Eccentric training
  3. Concentric training
  4. Isoinertial training
Correct Answer: (2) Eccentric training.
View Solution

Eccentric training strengthens muscles by focusing on controlled lengthening under tension. It improves deceleration control, reducing the risk of musculoskeletal injuries during high-intensity activities.


Question 16:

The corrective exercise for diastasis recti involves:

  1. Head lift in hook lying position, approximating rectus muscles towards the midline
  2. Abdominal crunches with crossed arms
  3. Straight leg raises in supine position
  4. Plank exercises with pelvic tilt
Correct Answer: (1) Head lift in hook lying position, approximating rectus muscles towards the midline.
View Solution

This exercise gently engages the abdominal muscles to close the gap in diastasis recti without excessive strain. Other options can worsen separation.


Question 17:

Medial glide to the subtalar joint is used to increase:

  1. Eversion
  2. Inversion
  3. Dorsiflexion
  4. Plantarflexion
Correct Answer: (2) Inversion.
View Solution

Medial gliding mobilizes the subtalar joint to enhance inversion, improving foot alignment and function.


Question 18:

Diadynamic currents introduced by Pierre Bernard are used for:

  1. Muscle strengthening
  2. Pain relief and muscle stimulation
  3. Deep heating
  4. Improving circulation
Correct Answer: (2) Pain relief and muscle stimulation.
View Solution

Diadynamic currents are monophasic sinusoidal currents used in electrotherapy to reduce pain and stimulate muscles.


Question 19:

The skin temperature during the application of cold packs is typically:

  1. Below 0°C
  2. 0°C
  3. 5-10°C
  4. 16-18°C
Correct Answer: (3) 5-10°C.
View Solution

This temperature range reduces inflammation and provides analgesic effects without risking frostbite.


Question 20:

In ultraviolet radiation (UVR) therapy, E3 is:

  1. 2.5 times E1
  2. 5 times E1
  3. 10 times E1
  4. 12 times E1
Correct Answer: (2) 5 times E1.
View Solution

In UVR therapy, E3 represents five times the minimum erythemal dose (E1) and is used in treating conditions requiring higher UV exposure.


Question 21:

Pressure is generally used to hasten scar maturation and minimize scar hypertrophy during healing of burns, except when:

  1. Wounds heal in less than 10-14 days
  2. The scar is less than 6 months old
  3. The skin is grafted over the wound area
  4. The scar is still red and shows evidence of vascularity
Correct Answer: (1) Wounds heal in less than 10-14 days.
View Solution

Pressure therapy is not necessary for wounds that heal within 10-14 days as these wounds typically have minimal risk of developing hypertrophic scars. In contrast, wounds with delayed healing or grafted areas are prone to excessive scar tissue formation. Pressure garments exert constant force, reducing capillary growth, scar height, and collagen deposition, thus minimizing hypertrophy.


Question 22:

Recommended exercise for developing cardiovascular fitness in healthy adults includes:

  1. 3 days/week for 40 minutes/day at an intensity of 10-11 on the RPE scale
  2. 3-5 days/week for 20-60 minutes/day at an intensity of 12-16 on the RPE scale
  3. 5 days/week for 60 minutes/day at an intensity of more than 16 on the RPE scale
  4. 3 days/week for 20 minutes/day at an intensity of 10-11 on the RPE scale
Correct Answer: (2) 3-5 days/week for 20-60 minutes/day at an intensity of 12-16 on the RPE scale.
View Solution

The American College of Sports Medicine (ACSM) recommends 3-5 days per week of aerobic exercise, with sessions lasting 20-60 minutes. The intensity should fall within a moderate-to-vigorous range (12-16 on the RPE scale) to enhance cardiovascular fitness effectively. Sessions shorter than 20 minutes or lower intensities (e.g., 10-11 on the RPE scale) are insufficient for substantial cardiovascular benefits.


Question 23:

Which of the following is NOT an age-related physiological change?

  1. Loss of motor neurons
  2. Reduction in size of fast-twitch Type II fibers
  3. Reduction in size of slow-twitch Type I fibers
  4. Increase in non-contractile tissue
Correct Answer: (3) Reduction in size of slow-twitch Type I fibers.
View Solution

Aging is associated with sarcopenia (loss of muscle mass), primarily affecting fast-twitch Type II fibers. Slow-twitch Type I fibers are relatively preserved or even preferentially retained due to reliance on endurance activities. Increased non-contractile tissue, such as fat and connective tissue, replaces muscle mass as part of age-related changes. The loss of motor neurons further contributes to muscle atrophy and strength reduction in older adults.


Question 24:

Which of the following is incorrect regarding Boutonniere deformity?

  1. It occurs due to rupture of the central slip of the extensor mechanism.
  2. There is hyperextension deformity at the PIP joint and flexion deformity at the DIP joint.
  3. Splinting is the first option in closed injuries and early rheumatoid pathology.
  4. Surgical repair is required in severe cases of total rupture.
Correct Answer: (2) There is hyperextension deformity at the PIP joint and flexion deformity at the DIP joint.
View Solution

Boutonniere deformity results from the rupture of the central slip of the extensor mechanism, leading to:

  • Flexion at the PIP joint: Caused by unopposed pull of the flexor tendons.
  • Hyperextension at the DIP joint: Due to tension transmitted via the lateral bands.

Splinting is the initial management strategy, while surgery may be indicated in severe or untreated cases.


Question 25:

In cervical Upper Crossed Syndrome, which muscles are weak?

  1. Deep neck flexors are strong.
  2. Deep neck flexors, rhomboids, and serratus anterior are weak.
  3. Pectoralis major and minor are weak.
  4. Lower trapezius is strong.
Correct Answer: (2) Deep neck flexors, rhomboids, and serratus anterior are weak.
View Solution

Upper Crossed Syndrome is characterized by muscle imbalances:

  • Weak muscles: Deep neck flexors, rhomboids, and serratus anterior.
  • Tight muscles: Pectoralis major/minor, upper trapezius, and levator scapulae.

This imbalance leads to forward head posture, rounded shoulders, and neck pain.


Question 26:

The patient is lying prone. The examiner squeezes the calf muscles. The absence of plantarflexion on squeezing calf muscles indicates:

  1. Ruptured Achilles tendon
  2. Lateral tibial torsion
  3. Peroneal tendon dislocation
  4. Anterior talofibular ligament strain
Correct Answer: (1) Ruptured Achilles tendon.
View Solution

The Thompson test is used to assess the integrity of the Achilles tendon:

  • Normal response: Squeezing the calf produces plantarflexion due to an intact Achilles tendon.
  • Positive Thompson test: Absence of plantarflexion indicates a rupture of the Achilles tendon, often requiring surgical intervention.

This test is a quick and reliable diagnostic tool for suspected Achilles tendon injuries.


Question 27:

A patient complains of lightheadedness, nausea, and spinning vertigo while lying in bed, turning in bed, and bending over to pick objects from the floor. He also feels off balance while walking. He is most likely to have:

  1. Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo
  2. Migraine
  3. Meniere’s Disease
  4. Vestibular Neuritis
Correct Answer: (1) Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo.
View Solution

BPPV is characterized by:

  • Positional vertigo: Triggered by changes in head position.
  • Spinning sensation and balance issues: Caused by displaced otoliths in the inner ear disrupting the vestibular system.

Diagnosis often involves positional tests like the Dix-Hallpike maneuver, and treatment includes repositioning maneuvers such as the Epley maneuver.


Question 28:

Cognition is assessed by testing the following:

A. Fund of knowledge
B. Agnosia
C. Proverb interpretation
D. Two Point Discrimination

Options: 

  1. (A) and (C) only
  2. (A) and (D) only
  3. (B) and (C) only
  4. (B) and (D) only
Correct Answer: (1) (A) and (C) only.
View Solution

Cognition assessment involves:

  • Fund of knowledge: Evaluates general knowledge and awareness.
  • Proverb interpretation: Tests abstract thinking and reasoning.

Agnosia and two-point discrimination are not direct measures of cognition; they assess sensory and perceptual functions.


Question 29:

Obligatory Flexor synergy components, observed in the upper limb following a stroke, are:

  1. Scapular protraction, shoulder adduction, internal rotation, elbow extension, forearm pronation, wrist and finger flexion
  2. Scapular retraction, shoulder abduction, external rotation, elbow flexion, forearm supination, wrist and finger flexion
  3. Scapular protraction, shoulder adduction, internal rotation, elbow extension, forearm supination, wrist and finger flexion
  4. Scapular retraction, shoulder abduction, external rotation, elbow flexion, forearm pronation, wrist and finger extension
Correct Answer: (1) Scapular protraction, shoulder adduction, internal rotation, elbow extension, forearm pronation, wrist and finger flexion.
View Solution

Flexor synergy patterns post-stroke include:

  • Scapular protraction: Forward movement of the scapula.
  • Shoulder adduction and internal rotation: Common in spasticity.
  • Elbow extension and wrist/finger flexion: Reflect loss of coordinated motor control.

Understanding these patterns aids in designing effective rehabilitation strategies.


Question 30:

The term ‘tic douloureux’ is used to indicate the sharp shooting pain on the face, which is a result of affection of the following nerve:

  1. Facial nerve
  2. Trigeminal nerve
  3. Trochlear nerve
  4. Glossopharyngeal nerve
Correct Answer: (2) Trigeminal nerve.
View Solution

Tic douloureux, or trigeminal neuralgia, involves the trigeminal nerve, responsible for facial sensation. Episodes of sharp, shock-like pain are often triggered by simple actions like eating or talking.


Question 31:

Consists of repeated cycles of three ventilatory phases: breathing control, thoracic expansion exercises, and forced expiration technique:

  1. Functional Breathing Technique
  2. Passive Cycle of Breathing Technique
  3. Active Cycle of Breathing Technique
  4. Manual Hyperinflation Followed by Secretion Clearance
Correct Answer: (3) Active Cycle of Breathing Technique.
View Solution

The Active Cycle of Breathing Technique (ACBT)
is widely used for clearing lung secretions in respiratory conditions such as COPD. It includes:

  • Breathing control: Relaxed breathing to avoid airway collapse.
  • Thoracic expansion: Deep breaths to improve lung inflation and mobilize secretions.
  • Forced expiration technique: Huffing to clear mucus effectively.

ACBT promotes secretion clearance and improves lung ventilation when performed in repeated cycles.


Question 32:

Which of the following interventions facilitates the removal of airway secretions collected centrally?

  1. Incentive spirometry
  2. Pursed-lip breathing
  3. Suctioning
  4. Manual percussion
Correct Answer: (3) Suctioning.
View Solution

Suctioning directly removes mucus and fluids from the central airway using a catheter or suction device. It is most effective in patients unable to clear their own secretions. Other techniques like percussion or incentive spirometry aid in loosening or mobilizing secretions but are not as direct as suctioning.


Question 33:

The age-related decline in VO2 max can be offset by:

  1. Aerobic training
  2. Meditation
  3. Relaxation training
  4. Periodic assessment of respiratory functions
Correct Answer: (1) Aerobic training.
View Solution

VO2 max, the maximum oxygen uptake during exercise, declines with age due to reduced cardiovascular efficiency. Regular aerobic training
, such as walking, cycling, or swimming, improves heart and lung function, mitigating the decline and enhancing stamina and overall fitness.


Question 34:

All these are absolute contraindications to exercise testing except:

  1. Unstable angina
  2. Pulmonary edema
  3. Uncontrolled hypertension
  4. Resting tachycardia
Correct Answer: (4) Resting tachycardia.
View Solution

Absolute contraindications to exercise testing include conditions like:

  • Unstable angina: Indicates active ischemia and is high-risk for testing.
  • Pulmonary edema: Signifies fluid overload in the lungs, a critical condition.
  • Uncontrolled hypertension: Exceeds safe limits for cardiovascular stress.

Resting tachycardia is not an absolute contraindication but requires careful evaluation to ensure safety during exercise testing.


Question 35:

The plyometric training should be kept as brief as possible for maximum effect during:

  1. Concentric phase
  2. Eccentric phase
  3. Countermovement phase
  4. Amortization phase
Correct Answer: (4) Amortization phase.
View Solution

The amortization phase is the transition between the eccentric (lengthening) and concentric (shortening) phases of a plyometric movement. Keeping this phase brief maximizes the stretch-shortening cycle, allowing stored elastic energy to be effectively used, thereby enhancing power output and efficiency.

Question 36:

The following training feature after ACL reconstruction should be avoided:

  1. Closed chain strengthening of quadriceps between 60 degrees to 90 degrees of knee flexion
  2. Open chain training of quadriceps between 90 degrees of flexion to 60 degrees of flexion
  3. Isometric quadriceps exercises
  4. Exercise on continuous passive motion unit
Correct Answer: (2) Open chain training of quadriceps between 90 degrees of flexion to 60 degrees of flexion.
View Solution

Open chain quadriceps exercises between 90° and 60° flexion should be avoided after ACL reconstruction as they stress the healing ACL graft. Closed chain and isometric exercises are safer alternatives for early rehabilitation.

Question 37:

Which of the following techniques involves voluntary muscle contractions by the patient in a precisely controlled direction and intensity against a counterforce applied by the practitioner?

  1. Rhythmic Initiation
  2. Muscle Energy Technique
  3. Neuromuscular Stimulation
  4. Active Stretching Technique
Correct Answer: (2) Muscle Energy Technique.
View Solution

Muscle Energy Technique (MET) uses the patient’s controlled voluntary contractions against a therapist-applied resistance to improve mobility and reduce tightness in targeted muscles.

Question 38:

Affective psychotic disorders include which one of the following?

  1. Delusional disorder
  2. Bipolar disorders
  3. Schizophrenia
  4. Mental retardation
Correct Answer: (2) Bipolar disorders.
View Solution

Affective psychotic disorders involve mood disturbances with psychotic features. Bipolar disorders alternate between mania and depression, often accompanied by delusions or hallucinations.

Question 36:

The following training feature after ACL reconstruction should be avoided:

  1. Closed chain strengthening of quadriceps between 60 degrees to 90 degrees of knee flexion
  2. Open chain training of quadriceps between 90 degrees of flexion to 60 degrees of flexion
  3. Isometric quadriceps exercises
  4. Exercise on continuous passive motion unit
Correct Answer: (2) Open chain training of quadriceps between 90 degrees of flexion to 60 degrees of flexion.
View Solution

After ACL reconstruction, it is essential to protect the healing ACL graft. Open chain exercises in the range of 90° to 60° flexion are avoided because they create high anterior shear forces on the tibia, stressing the ACL graft significantly. Conversely, closed chain exercises between 0° to 45° flexion and isometric exercises are safer options. These exercises reduce shear forces and help in gradual strengthening of the quadriceps and stabilization of the knee joint.

Question 37:

Which of the following techniques involves voluntary muscle contractions by the patient in a precisely controlled direction and intensity against a counterforce applied by the practitioner?

  1. Rhythmic Initiation
  2. Muscle Energy Technique
  3. Neuromuscular Stimulation
  4. Active Stretching Technique
Correct Answer: (2) Muscle Energy Technique.
View Solution

The Muscle Energy Technique (MET) is a manual therapy approach where the patient actively contracts specific muscles against resistance provided by the practitioner. It is primarily used to:

  • Restore joint mobility by targeting muscular imbalances.
  • Reduce pain and muscle tightness by promoting relaxation of overactive muscles.
  • Re-educate muscle function by engaging both the agonist and antagonist muscles during controlled movement.
The process relies on the patient's active participation and helps achieve therapeutic effects through controlled muscular contractions and subsequent stretching.

Question 38:

Affective psychotic disorders include which one of the following?

  1. Delusional disorder
  2. Bipolar disorders
  3. Schizophrenia
  4. Mental retardation
Correct Answer: (2) Bipolar disorders.
View Solution

Affective psychotic disorders are characterized by mood disturbances with psychotic features. Bipolar disorder is the prime example, involving alternating episodes of mania and depression. During extreme mood states, individuals may experience psychotic symptoms such as hallucinations or delusions. This differentiates bipolar disorder from conditions like schizophrenia, which primarily involve persistent psychotic symptoms without mood swings.

Question 39:

Which of the following is a non-modifiable risk factor for the development of COPD?

  1. Increasing age
  2. Tobacco smoking
  3. Exposure to noxious fumes at occupational settings
  4. Increased use of biomass fuel
Correct Answer: (1) Increasing age.
View Solution

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) is influenced by both modifiable and non-modifiable risk factors. Increasing age is non-modifiable because it reflects the natural degeneration of lung function over time. In contrast, modifiable factors like tobacco smoking, occupational exposure to harmful fumes, and using biomass fuel can be addressed through lifestyle changes and public health measures to mitigate risk.

Question 40:

Lepra bacilli was detected by:

  1. Hansen
  2. Ross
  3. Robert Koch
  4. Reed
Correct Answer: (1) Hansen.
View Solution

Gerhard Armauer Hansen, a Norwegian physician, identified Lepra bacilli (Mycobacterium leprae) in 1873. This discovery was pivotal in the study of leprosy, establishing a scientific basis for understanding its pathogenesis and aiding in the development of diagnostic and therapeutic approaches.

Question 41:

In the context of outcome measures, it is the degree to which an outcome is measuring what it purports to measure:

  1. Reliability
  2. Validity
  3. Internal consistency
  4. Responsiveness
Correct Answer: (2) Validity.
View Solution

Validity ensures the accuracy and relevance of an outcome measure. For instance, a depression scale should specifically measure symptoms of depression. Unlike reliability, which focuses on consistency, validity ensures that the right construct is being assessed.

Question 42:

A therapist categorizes the patients visiting his clinic according to their blood groups - A, B, AB, and O. This is an example of:

  1. Ordinal level measurement
  2. Nominal level measurement
  3. Ratio level measurement
  4. Interval level measurement
Correct Answer: (2) Nominal level measurement.
View Solution

Nominal level measurement categorizes data without any inherent order or ranking. Blood groups, as distinct labels with no hierarchy, are classic examples. This contrasts with ordinal, ratio, or interval data, where order or measurable distances are considered.

Question 43:

Evidence-Based Medicine involves:

  1. Integration of best research evidence with clinical expertise and patient’s unique values and circumstances
  2. Integration of expert opinion with clinical expertise
  3. Treatment based on research evidence and clinical expertise without any regard for patient’s values
  4. Treatment based on case-control studies
Correct Answer: (1) Integration of best research evidence with clinical expertise and patient’s unique values and circumstances.
View Solution

Evidence-Based Medicine (EBM) ensures optimal patient care by combining:

  • Scientific research evidence.
  • Clinician expertise.
  • Patient-specific values and needs.
This approach ensures that treatment decisions are personalized and effective.

Question 44:

"Equal distribution to all members of a group" comes under the following Moral Principle:

  1. Beneficence
  2. Autonomy
  3. Justice
  4. Nonmaleficence
Correct Answer: (3) Justice.
View Solution

Justice emphasizes fairness and equity. It ensures equal access to resources and treatments within healthcare systems, contrasting with principles like beneficence (doing good) or autonomy (respecting decisions).

Question 45:

Progress notes for a patient are written in SOAP (Subjective, Objective findings, Assessment and Plan) Format. Anticipated goals and expected outcomes are included in the:

  1. Subjective
  2. Objective findings
  3. Assessment
  4. Planning
Correct Answer: (4) Planning.
View Solution

The "Planning" section of SOAP notes outlines:

  • Treatment goals: Clear, specific objectives for recovery.
  • Expected outcomes: Desired functional improvements.
  • Next steps: Therapies or interventions to be implemented.
This ensures structured and goal-oriented patient care.

Question 46:

The correct sequence at the postsynaptic membrane during neuromuscular transmission at the neuromuscular junction is:

  1. (A) Opening of ligand-gated sodium channels
  2. (B) Binding of Acetylcholine (Ach) with receptor and formation of Ach-receptor complex
  3. (C) Entry of sodium ions into extracellular fluid (ECF)
  4. (D) Development of endplate potential
Correct Answer: (4) (B), (A), (D), (C).
View Solution

Neuromuscular transmission occurs in the following sequence:

  • (B) Acetylcholine binds to receptors on the postsynaptic membrane, forming the Ach-receptor complex.
  • (A) This binding opens ligand-gated sodium channels, allowing sodium ions to flow into the cell.
  • (D) The influx of sodium creates an endplate potential at the neuromuscular junction.
  • (C) Sodium ions move into the extracellular fluid, completing the sequence.

This sequence is critical for initiating muscle contractions through action potentials.

Question 47:

On the dorsum of the hand, the correct arrangement of tendons (from lateral to medial) is:

  1. (A) Extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis
  2. (B) Extensor digitorum
  3. (C) Extensor pollicis longus
  4. (D) Extensor digiti minimi
Correct Answer: (1) (A), (C), (B), (D).
View Solution

The arrangement of tendons on the dorsum of the hand, from lateral to medial, is:

  • (A) Extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis – located laterally, responsible for wrist extension.
  • (C) Extensor pollicis longus – extending the thumb.
  • (B) Extensor digitorum – extending the fingers.
  • (D) Extensor digiti minimi – extending the little finger, positioned medially.

This anatomical arrangement is essential for understanding wrist and hand mechanics.

Question 48:

If a suitable liquid medium is inoculated with bacterium and incubated, the growth of bacterium follows a definitive course. The sequence of phases of the bacterial growth curve is:

  1. (A) Rate of death exceeds rate of reproduction, and the bacterial population decreases due to cell death
  2. (B) In lag phase, there is an increase in cell size and no increase in cell number. Necessary enzymes and metabolic intermediates are built up for multiplication to proceed
  3. (C) Cell division slows down and stops due to depletion of nutrients and accumulation of toxic products. There is an equilibrium between dying cells and the newly formed cells
  4. (D) In log phase, cell numbers increase exponentially or by geometric progression with time
Correct Answer: (4) (D), (B), (C), (A).
View Solution

The phases of bacterial growth are:

  1. (D) Log Phase: Cell numbers increase exponentially due to optimal conditions for growth.
  2. (B) Lag Phase: Cells prepare for division by increasing size and synthesizing enzymes.
  3. (C) Stationary Phase: Nutrient depletion and waste accumulation slow cell division.
  4. (A) Death Phase: Cell death exceeds reproduction as resources become scarce.

Understanding these phases is crucial for microbiology and managing bacterial cultures.

Question 49:

The correct sequence of 'Ujjayi Pranayama' is:

  1. (A) Close eyes and exhale completely
  2. (B) Hold the breath for a second or two. Exhale slowly and deeply to empty the lungs
  3. (C) Sit in Padmasana with arms outstretched and back of wrists resting on knees
  4. (D) Take a slow deep breath till lungs are completely filled
Correct Answer: (3) (C), (A), (D), (B).
View Solution

The sequence for Ujjayi Pranayama is as follows:

  1. (C) Sit in a comfortable position, such as Padmasana, with arms relaxed and back of wrists on knees.
  2. (A) Close your eyes and exhale completely to prepare for controlled breathing.
  3. (D) Take a slow, deep inhalation, filling the lungs completely.
  4. (B) Hold the breath briefly and then exhale deeply and slowly.

Ujjayi Pranayama is known for its calming effects and helps improve focus and respiratory efficiency.

Question 50:

The sequence of vascular events that take place during an acute inflammatory response are:

  1. (A) Persistent progressive vasodilatation involving mainly the arterioles
  2. (B) Elevated local hydrostatic pressure causing transudation of fluid into the extracellular space
  3. (C) Slowing of microcirculation causing increased red cell concentration followed by peripheral orientation of leucocytes along the vascular endothelium
  4. (D) Transient vasoconstriction of arterioles
Correct Answer: (4) (D), (A), (B), (C).
View Solution

The vascular events during acute inflammation occur in this order:

  1. (D) Transient vasoconstriction occurs immediately after injury, reducing blood flow temporarily.
  2. (A) Progressive vasodilation follows, increasing blood flow to the affected area.
  3. (B) Elevated hydrostatic pressure results in fluid moving into the extracellular space, causing edema.
  4. (C) Microcirculation slows, and leucocytes migrate to the periphery (margination), aiding in immune response.

These events ensure efficient delivery of immune cells and nutrients to the site of injury.

Question 51:

The correct order of the Valsalva maneuver is:

  1. (A) Closure of glottis
  2. (B) Deep inspiration
  3. (C) Increase in intra-abdominal and intrathoracic pressures
  4. (D) Contraction of abdominal muscles
Correct Answer: (3) (B), (A), (D), (C).
View Solution

The steps of the Valsalva maneuver are:

  1. (B) Deep inspiration to fill the lungs.
  2. (A) Closing the glottis to trap air in the lungs.
  3. (D) Abdominal muscles contract, increasing pressure in the abdominal cavity.
  4. (C) Intrathoracic pressure increases, affecting venous return and cardiac output.

This maneuver is used to evaluate autonomic function and cardiac response under stress.

Question 52:

The sequence of currents in increasing order of frequency will be:

  1. (A) Short wave diathermy
  2. (B) Long duration interrupted direct current
  3. (C) Faradic current
  4. (D) Interferential therapy
Correct Answer: (3) (B), (C), (A), (D).
View Solution

The frequencies of therapeutic currents increase in the following order:

  1. (B) Long duration interrupted direct current: Low frequency, used for direct stimulation.
  2. (C) Faradic current: Medium frequency, effective for muscle stimulation.
  3. (A) Short wave diathermy: Higher frequency, used for deep tissue heating.
  4. (D) Interferential therapy: High frequency, for pain management and muscle stimulation.

Understanding frequency variations helps optimize therapeutic interventions for specific conditions.

Question 53:

Respiratory alkalosis is best described by the following sequence of events:

  1. (A) Fall in plasma bicarbonate
  2. (B) PaCO2 and H+ fall
  3. (C) Over-ventilation of lungs
  4. (D) Reduced renal Na+/H+ exchange
Correct Answer: (4) (C), (B), (D), (A).
View Solution

The sequence of events in respiratory alkalosis is:

  1. (C) Over-ventilation of the lungs leads to excessive CO2 loss.
  2. (B) A decrease in PaCO2 and H+ levels results in an alkalotic state.
  3. (D) Renal compensation occurs, reducing Na+/H+ exchange to retain more H+ ions.
  4. (A) Plasma bicarbonate levels fall as part of renal adaptation.

Respiratory alkalosis occurs when hyperventilation disrupts the acid-base balance in the blood.

Question 54:

The correct sequence of steps during Adson Maneuver (used for diagnosing thoracic outlet syndrome) are:

  1. (A) The patient’s head is rotated to face the test shoulder
  2. (B) The examiner locates the radial pulse
  3. (C) The patient is instructed to take a deep breath and hold it
  4. (D) The patient then extends the head while the examiner laterally rotates and extends the patient’s shoulder
Correct Answer: (2) (A), (B), (D), (C).
View Solution

The Adson Maneuver steps are:

  1. (A) The patient rotates their head toward the test shoulder.
  2. (B) The examiner palpates the radial pulse.
  3. (D) The patient extends the head as the examiner rotates and extends the shoulder.
  4. (C) The patient takes a deep breath and holds it, observing for changes in the radial pulse.

This test helps identify vascular compression in thoracic outlet syndrome.

Question 55:

The steps used in the design of a questionnaire are:

  1. (A) Piloting the questionnaire i.e., giving it to a few people in order to collect feedback on unclear or insensitive questions
  2. (B) Initial draft of the questionnaire
  3. (C) Second pilot trial to establish if earlier problems have been taken care of followed by remodification and design of the final questionnaire
  4. (D) Modification of the questionnaire using the information collected from the pilot trial
Correct Answer: (3) (B), (A), (D), (C).
View Solution

The steps for designing a questionnaire are:

  1. (B) Begin with an initial draft based on the research objectives.
  2. (A) Pilot the draft with a small sample to identify issues.
  3. (D) Modify the questionnaire based on pilot feedback.
  4. (C) Conduct a second pilot trial to ensure improvements, and finalize the design.

Effective piloting and modification are essential for a reliable and valid questionnaire.

Question 56:

Which of the following is correct about the umbilicus?

  1. Lymph and venous blood flow upwards above the plane of the umbilicus and downwards below this plane. These do not cross the umbilical plane.
  2. It is a normal scar in the anterior abdominal wall formed by the remnants of the root of the umbilical cord.
  3. The skin around the umbilicus is supplied by the T4 segment of the spinal cord.
  4. It is the meeting point of the four (two lateral, head, and tail) folds of the embryonic plate.
Correct Answer: (2) (A), (B), and (C) only.
View Solution

The umbilicus has the following features:

  • (A): Lymph and venous blood flow does follow a specific pattern above and below the umbilical plane, but they may cross the plane in certain cases, making this partially correct.
  • (B): It is indeed a normal scar formed by the remnants of the umbilical cord root.
  • (C): The skin around the umbilicus is supplied by the T10 segment of the spinal cord, not T4.
  • (D): It is not the meeting point of embryonic folds.

The correct answer excludes features that are anatomically inaccurate or unsupported by evidence.

Question 57:

Different factors affecting the respiratory centers are:

  1. Impulses from higher centers
  2. Impulses from baroreceptors
  3. Impulses from chemoreceptors
  4. Impulses from proprioceptors
Correct Answer: (3) (A), (B), (C), and (D).
View Solution

Factors that affect respiratory centers include:

  • (A) Higher centers, such as the cerebral cortex, regulate voluntary control of respiration.
  • (B) Baroreceptors respond to changes in blood pressure, influencing the respiratory rate.
  • (C) Chemoreceptors monitor oxygen, carbon dioxide, and pH levels, adjusting the rate and depth of breathing.
  • (D) Proprioceptors provide feedback during physical activity to adjust breathing patterns accordingly.

These mechanisms ensure homeostasis under varying conditions.

Question 58:

The various forms of vertical social mobility are:

  1. Upward mobility
  2. Downward mobility
  3. Intergenerational social mobility
  4. Structural mobility
Correct Answer: (4) (A), (B), (C), and (D).
View Solution

Vertical social mobility refers to movement within the social hierarchy, encompassing:

  • (A) Upward mobility: Moving up the social ladder.
  • (B) Downward mobility: Moving down the social hierarchy.
  • (C) Intergenerational mobility: Shifts in status between generations.
  • (D) Structural mobility: Large-scale changes affecting groups due to societal transformations.

All these forms contribute to understanding social dynamics and inequalities.

Question 59:

What is true about the relationship between "Arousal" and "Performance"?

  1. More the "Arousal," better is the "Performance" on all sorts of tasks
  2. "Performance" improves with rising "Arousal" only up to an optimal level
  3. High level of "Arousal" is detrimental for "Performance"
  4. "Performance" is an inverted U-shaped function of the level of "Arousal"
Correct Answer: (4) (B), (C), and (D) only.
View Solution

The relationship between arousal and performance is best explained by the Yerkes-Dodson law, which states:

  • (A): This is incorrect because arousal does not always enhance performance; too much arousal can impair it.
  • (B): Performance improves with increasing arousal only up to an optimal level, after which it declines.
  • (C): Excessive arousal leads to stress and reduced performance.
  • (D): The relationship is typically illustrated as an inverted U-shaped curve, showing optimal performance at moderate arousal levels.

Understanding this helps in tasks requiring focus and managing stress levels effectively.

Question 60:

Translation movements between two adjacent vertebrae include:

  1. Side to side translation in the frontal plane
  2. Side to side translation in the sagittal plane
  3. Anterior-posterior translation in the sagittal plane
  4. Anterior-posterior translation in the frontal plane
Correct Answer: (3) (A) and (B) only.
View Solution

The following translation movements occur between adjacent vertebrae:

  • (A): Side-to-side translation in the frontal plane is a natural movement allowing lateral shifts.
  • (B): Side-to-side translation in the sagittal plane also occurs and contributes to mobility.
  • (C) and (D): Anterior-posterior translations in the sagittal and frontal planes are less common and typically restricted.

These movements are essential for spinal flexibility and maintaining posture during dynamic activities.

Question 61:

How rapidly a muscle can develop maximal tension is determined by:

  1. Type of muscle fibers in the motor units
  2. The length of the muscle fibers
  3. Size of the motor units
  4. Fiber arrangement
Correct Answer: (3) (A), (B), (C), and (D).
View Solution

The rate of maximal tension development is influenced by:

  • (A): Fast-twitch fibers generate tension faster than slow-twitch fibers.
  • (B): Longer muscle fibers allow for quicker and more forceful contractions.
  • (C): Larger motor units can activate more muscle fibers simultaneously.
  • (D): Fiber arrangement (e.g., pennate vs. parallel) affects force and contraction speed.

Combining these factors enhances strength training outcomes and performance.

Question 62:

The extensor mechanism of a finger includes all these except:

  1. Extensor digitorum tendon
  2. Straight retinacular ligaments
  3. Fibers from dorsal and volar interossei
  4. Ventral aponeurosis
Correct Answer: (3) (B), (C), and (D) only.
View Solution

The extensor mechanism of a finger includes:

  • (A): The extensor digitorum tendon, which extends the fingers, is a primary component.
  • (B), (C), and (D): These structures are not part of the extensor mechanism, as they serve different roles in hand movement and stability.

This understanding helps in diagnosing injuries affecting finger extension.

Question 63:

Which of the following is correct about Delayed Onset Muscle Soreness (DOMS)?

  1. Muscle soreness and aching peaks at 48–72 hours after exercise
  2. Presence of local edema and warmth
  3. Muscle soreness and aching begins at 0–2 hours post exercise
  4. Tenderness with palpation over the muscle belly
Correct Answer: (1) (A), (B), and (D) only.
View Solution

DOMS is characterized by:

  • (A): Muscle soreness peaks at 48–72 hours after strenuous exercise.
  • (B): Edema and warmth are signs of inflammation in the affected muscles.
  • (D): Tenderness over the muscle belly is a hallmark symptom.
  • (C): Soreness does not begin immediately after exercise; it typically starts 12–24 hours later.

Managing DOMS includes rest, hydration, and light activity.

Question 64:

Which of the following is a characteristic of the chi-square test?

  1. It is a non-parametric test
  2. It is based on frequencies and not on parameters like mean and standard deviation
  3. It can be used when individual observations of the sample are dependent
  4. It can be used for testing hypothesis but is not useful for estimation
Correct Answer: (1) (A), (B), and (D) only.
View Solution

The chi-square test has the following characteristics:

  • (A): It is a non-parametric test, suitable for categorical data.
  • (B): It relies on observed and expected frequencies, not means or standard deviations.
  • (D): It is primarily used for hypothesis testing, not parameter estimation.
  • (C): It requires independent observations; dependent observations invalidate its assumptions.

Chi-square is commonly used for analyzing categorical data in contingency tables.

Question 65:

Which of the following is not a characteristic of the normal distribution curve?

  1. It is symmetrical
  2. The mean, median, and mode all have the same value
  3. The tails of the curve never reach the horizontal axis
  4. It descends slowly at first from its central point, but then descends down rapidly as the tails of the curve are reached
Correct Answer: (4) It descends slowly at first from its central point, but then descends down rapidly as the tails of the curve are reached.
View Solution

The normal distribution curve is characterized by:

  • (1): Symmetry about the mean.
  • (2): The mean, median, and mode coincide at the central peak.
  • (3): The tails approach the horizontal axis asymptotically but never touch it.
  • (4): The curve descends gradually, not rapidly, at its tails, maintaining a bell shape.

This curve is foundational in statistics and represents many natural phenomena.

Question 66:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I

  1. Lateral spinothalamic tract
  2. Anterior spinothalamic tract
  3. Fasciculus Cuneatus
  4. Posterior spinocerebellar tract

List-II

  1. Pain and temperature from opposite half of the body
  2. Vibratory sense
  3. Crude touch and pressure from opposite half of the body
  4. Unconscious proprioception to cerebellum

Choose the correct answer:

  1. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  2. (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
  3. (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
  4. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
Correct Answer: (2) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV).
View Solution

The correct matches are:

  • (A): Lateral spinothalamic tract transmits pain and temperature from the opposite side of the body.
  • (B): Anterior spinothalamic tract carries crude touch and pressure from the opposite side of the body.
  • (C): Fasciculus Cuneatus is responsible for vibratory sense.
  • (D): Posterior spinocerebellar tract transmits unconscious proprioception to the cerebellum.

Understanding these tracts aids in diagnosing sensory and motor deficits.

Question 67:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I

  1. IgG
  2. IgA
  3. IgM
  4. IgE

List-II

  1. Mediates type 1 hypersensitivity
  2. Second most abundant class of Ig
  3. Only Ig to cross the placenta
  4. First Ig produced during primary immune response

Choose the correct answer:

  1. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  2. (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
  3. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
  4. (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
Correct Answer: (2) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I).
View Solution

The correct matches are:

  • (A): IgG crosses the placenta and provides passive immunity to the fetus.
  • (B): IgA is the second most abundant immunoglobulin, primarily found in mucosal areas.
  • (C): IgM is the first immunoglobulin produced during primary immune responses.
  • (D): IgE is associated with type 1 hypersensitivity reactions, including allergies.

This classification helps in understanding immune responses and their mechanisms.

Question 68:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I

  1. Baclofen
  2. Diclofenac
  3. Gabapentin
  4. Amitriptyline

List-II

  1. Spasticity
  2. Inflammatory pain
  3. Central or peripheral neurogenic pain
  4. Depression

Choose the correct answer:

  1. (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
  2. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  3. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
  4. (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
Correct Answer: (2) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV).
View Solution

The correct matches are:

  • (A): Baclofen is used to treat spasticity in conditions like multiple sclerosis.
  • (B): Diclofenac is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug used for managing inflammatory pain.
  • (C): Gabapentin is effective for central or peripheral neurogenic pain, such as neuropathic pain.
  • (D): Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant used to treat depression and some forms of chronic pain.

Each medication serves a specific purpose in therapeutic management.

Question 69:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I

  1. Grade I
  2. Grade II
  3. Grade III
  4. Grade IV

List-II

  1. Large amplitude rhythmic oscillations within range
  2. Small amplitude rhythmic oscillations at the beginning of range
  3. Small amplitude rhythmic oscillations at the limit of available motion
  4. Large amplitude rhythmic oscillations up to the limit of available motion

Choose the correct answer:

  1. (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
  2. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  3. (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
  4. (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
Correct Answer: (2) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV).
View Solution

The correct matches are:

  • (A): Grade I involves small amplitude oscillations within the range to reduce pain.
  • (B): Grade II involves larger oscillations at the beginning of the range for pain relief.
  • (C): Grade III involves small amplitude oscillations at the end range to improve mobility.
  • (D): Grade IV involves large amplitude oscillations reaching the range limit for mobility enhancement.

Maitland’s mobilization grades are essential for physical therapy interventions.

Question 70:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I

  1. D1 Flexion Starting Position
  2. D1 Flexion Ending Position
  3. D2 Flexion Starting Position
  4. D2 Flexion Ending Position

List-II

  1. Shoulder flexion, adduction, external rotation; partial elbow flexion; forearm supination, wrist and finger flexion
  2. Shoulder flexion, abduction, external rotation; elbow extension; forearm supination; wrist and finger extension
  3. Shoulder extension, adduction, internal rotation; elbow extension; forearm pronation; wrist and finger flexion
  4. Shoulder extension, abduction, internal rotation; elbow extension; forearm pronation; wrist and finger extension

Choose the correct answer:

  1. (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
  2. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  3. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
  4. (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
Correct Answer: (2) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV).
View Solution

The correct matches are:

  • (A): D1 Flexion Starting Position involves shoulder flexion, adduction, external rotation; partial elbow flexion; forearm supination, and wrist and finger flexion.
  • (B): D1 Flexion Ending Position involves shoulder flexion, abduction, external rotation; elbow extension; forearm supination; and wrist and finger extension.
  • (C): D2 Flexion Starting Position involves shoulder extension, adduction, internal rotation; elbow extension; forearm pronation; and wrist and finger flexion.
  • (D): D2 Flexion Ending Position involves shoulder extension, abduction, internal rotation; elbow extension; forearm pronation; and wrist and finger extension.

These diagonal patterns are used in PNF to enhance functional movement and mobility.

Question 71:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I

  1. Aquasonic/Ultrasonic Gel
  2. Distilled Water
  3. Liquid Paraffin
  4. Air

List-II

  1. 72.6%
  2. 59%
  3. 0%
  4. 19%

Choose the correct answer:

  1. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  2. (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
  3. (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
  4. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
Correct Answer: (1) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV).
View Solution

The correct matches are:

  • (A): Aquasonic/Ultrasonic Gel has a transmission rate of 72.6%, making it highly effective for ultrasound therapy.
  • (B): Distilled water has a transmission rate of 59%, moderately effective for sound wave conduction.
  • (C): Liquid Paraffin has a transmission rate of 0% and is not effective for ultrasound transmission.
  • (D): Air has a transmission rate of 19%, which is inadequate for ultrasound therapy.

Using the right coupling agent ensures optimal therapy results.

Question 72:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I

  1. Conventional (High) TENS
  2. Acupuncture-like (Low) TENS
  3. Brief Intense TENS
  4. Burst Mode (Pulse Trains) TENS

List-II

  1. Intensity 50–100 mA, Frequency 50–200 Hz, Pulse duration 150–300 μs
  2. Intensity 30 mA and more, Frequency 2–5 Hz, Pulse duration 150–300 μs
  3. Intensity to patient’s tolerance, Frequency 125–250 Hz, Pulse duration 200–250 μs
  4. Intensity 12–30 mA, Frequency 80–120 Hz, Pulse duration 50–80 μs

Choose the correct answer:

  1. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  2. (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
  3. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
  4. (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
Correct Answer: (2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I).
View Solution

The correct matches are:

  • (A): Conventional (High) TENS uses low-intensity, high-frequency stimulation (IV).
  • (B): Acupuncture-like (Low) TENS uses low-frequency stimulation at moderate intensity (II).
  • (C): Brief Intense TENS uses high-frequency stimulation with high-intensity tolerable to the patient (III).
  • (D): Burst Mode TENS uses pulse trains for pain relief (I).

Each TENS mode is designed for specific pain relief applications.

Question 73:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I

  1. Malignant disease
  2. Infection
  3. Disease of connective tissue
  4. Self-induced

List-II

  1. Polyarteritis nodosa
  2. Factitious fever
  3. Hodgkin's disease
  4. Endocarditis

Choose the correct answer:

  1. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  2. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
  3. (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
  4. (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
Correct Answer: (2) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II).
View Solution

The correct matches are:

  • (A): Malignant disease like Hodgkin’s disease is linked to pyrexia or fever.
  • (B): Infection such as endocarditis often causes fever due to systemic inflammation.
  • (C): Disease of connective tissue like polyarteritis nodosa can lead to pyrexia.
  • (D): Self-induced fever is known as factitious fever caused by manipulation or self-harm.

Proper diagnosis of the underlying cause is critical for effective treatment.

Question 74:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I

  1. Posterior sag sign
  2. Lachman-Trillat test
  3. Apley’s test
  4. Clarke’s sign

List-II

  1. Meniscus
  2. Patellofemoral dysfunction
  3. Posterior cruciate ligament
  4. Anterior cruciate ligament

Choose the correct answer:

  1. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  2. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
  3. (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
  4. (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
Correct Answer: (2) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II).
View Solution

The correct matches are:

  • (A): Posterior sag sign is used to diagnose posterior cruciate ligament injuries.
  • (B): Lachman-Trillat test is performed to assess anterior cruciate ligament injuries.
  • (C): Apley’s test evaluates meniscus integrity.
  • (D): Clarke’s sign helps diagnose patellofemoral dysfunction.

These diagnostic tests are essential tools in orthopedic assessments.

Question 75:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I

  1. Mallet finger
  2. Boutonniere deformity
  3. De Quervain's disease
  4. Trigger finger

List-II

  1. Involves proximal interphalangeal joint
  2. Involves distal interphalangeal joint
  3. Involves abductor pollicis longus
  4. More common in diabetics

Choose the correct answer:

  1. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
  2. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  3. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
  4. (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
Correct Answer: (3) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III).
View Solution

The correct matches are:

  • (A): Mallet finger involves the distal interphalangeal joint and is often caused by trauma.
  • (B): Boutonniere deformity affects the proximal interphalangeal joint due to extensor mechanism rupture.
  • (C): De Quervain's disease involves inflammation of the abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis tendons.
  • (D): Trigger finger is more common in diabetics and occurs due to inflammation of the flexor tendon sheath.

These conditions highlight the importance of precise diagnosis for effective management.


CUET PG Previous Year Question Paper

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