CUET PG 2024 LLM Question Paper (Available) - Download Solution Pdf with Answer Key

Mayank Chaudhary logo
Updated on, Jan 15, 2025

byMayank Chaudhary

CUET PG LLM Question Paper 2024 is available here for download. NTA conducted CUET PG LLM paper 2024 on from March 20 in Shift 2. CUET PG Question Paper 2024 is based on objective-type questions (MCQs). According to latest exam pattern, candidates get 105 minutes to solve 75 MCQs in CUET PG 2024 LLM question paper.

CUET PG LLM Question Paper 2024 PDF Download

CUET PG LLM Question Paper 2024 with Answer Key download iconDownload Check Solutions

LLM 2024 Questions with Solutions

Question 1:

In which of the following case, the Supreme Court of India held that “the rule of res judicata applies to a petition filed under Article 32 of the Constitution and if a petition filed by a petitioner in the High Court under Article 226 of the Constitution is dismissed on merits such decision would operate as res judicata so as to bar a similar petition in the Supreme Court under Article 32 of the Constitution”?

  1. State of U.P v. Nawab Hussain
  2. Gulam Abbas v. State of U.P
  3. Daryao v. State of U.P
  4. Iftikar Ahmed v. Syed Meharban Ali
Correct Answer: (3) Daryao v. State of U.P
View Solution

In the landmark case of Daryao v. State of U.P. , the Supreme Court of India established that the principle of res judicata applies to petitions filed under Article 32 of the Constitution. This means that if a petition under Article 226 has been dismissed on its merits by the High Court, a similar petition in the Supreme Court under Article 32 would be barred by the doctrine of res judicata. This ensures finality and prevents repeated litigation on the same cause of action.


Question 2:

The chief exponent of “auto-limitation theory” regarding the basis of International law is:

  1. Starke
  2. Jellinek
  3. Hart
  4. Oppenheim
Correct Answer: (2) Jellinek
View Solution

The “auto-limitation theory” posits that the basis of international law lies in the self-imposed limitations of sovereign states. According to this theory, a state’s sovereignty is the source of all legal obligations, and the state limits its own power by consenting to be bound by international law. The chief exponent of this theory is Georg Jellinek , who argued that states are free actors but voluntarily accept limitations to ensure stability and coexistence.

Question 3:

“Individual is the ultimate unit of all laws, International or municipal” - given by:

  1. Austin
  2. Lauterpacht
  3. Starke
  4. Fenwick
Correct Answer: (2) Lauterpacht
View Solution

This concept is most famously associated with Hersch Lauterpacht. He emphasized the centrality of the individual in legal frameworks, asserting that the individual is the ultimate unit of all laws, whether international or municipal. While other thinkers like Austin, Starke, and Fenwick have contributed significantly to legal theory, Lauterpacht’s focus on the individual stands out.


Question 4:

Which of the following is associated with “Droit Administratif”?

  1. Edward Coke
  2. Montesquieu
  3. Aristotle
  4. Napoleon Bonaparte
Correct Answer: (4) Napoleon Bonaparte
View Solution

The concept of “Droit Administratif,” a specialized body of rules governing the actions of public administration, is closely associated with the legal and political system of France. Napoleon Bonaparte played a significant role in its establishment, particularly with the introduction of the Conseil d’État, a cornerstone of the French administrative system.


Question 5:

In which of the following case, the Supreme Court of India held that the Indian Constitution has not indeed recognized the Doctrine of Separation of Power in its absolute rigidity but the functions of the different parts of the government have been sufficiently differentiated?

  1. Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain
  2. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
  3. A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India
  4. Ram Jawaya Kapur v. State of Punjab
Correct Answer: (4) Ram Jawaya Kapur v. State of Punjab
View Solution

In Ram Jawaya Kapur v. State of Punjab, the Supreme Court discussed the doctrine of separation of powers within the Indian constitutional framework. The court clarified that the Constitution doesn’t adopt a rigid separation of powers but provides for a functional differentiation among the legislative, executive, and judicial branches, ensuring their distinctive roles.


Question 6:

Section 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963 is applicable on:

  1. Suits, appeals, and applications
  2. Suits and appeals only
  3. Appeals and applications related to executions
  4. Appeals and applications other than executions
Correct Answer: (4) Appeals and applications other than executions
View Solution

Section 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963 deals with the extension of the prescribed period in certain cases. According to this section, the court can admit an appeal or application after the prescribed period if the appellant or applicant satisfies the court that they had sufficient cause for not preferring the appeal or making the application within such period. However, this section specifically excludes certain applications, such as those related to execution proceedings.


Question 7:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I List-II
(A) Time barred debt (I) Imperfect right
(B) Right to reputation (II) Right in rem
(C) Right arising out of a contract (III) Right in personam
(D) Right to physical integrity (IV) Personal right
Correct Answer: (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
View Solution

- A time-barred debt is considered an imperfect right, as it cannot be enforced due to the expiration of the limitation period.
- A right to reputation is a right in rem, enforceable against the world at large.
- A right arising out of a contract is a right in personam, enforceable against a specific individual.
- A right to physical integrity is a personal right, connected to an individual’s dignity and life.


Question 8:

The President can return the advice of the Cabinet for reconsideration:

  1. Twice only
  2. Any number of times
  3. Once only
  4. Not even once
Correct Answer: (3) Once only
View Solution

Under Article 74(1) of the Constitution of India, the President is bound to act in accordance with the advice of the Council of Ministers. However, as per the 44th Amendment Act of 1978, the President can send the advice back for reconsideration once. If the Council of Ministers reiterates their advice, the President is constitutionally bound to act on it.


Question 9:

The right guaranteed under Article 25 is subject to:

  1. Fundamental rights, dignity, and privacy
  2. Public order, morality, and health and the other provisions of Part III
  3. Public order, decency, and health and the other provisions of Part IV
  4. Public order, morality, and health and Article 14
Correct Answer: (2) Public order, morality, and health and the other provisions of Part III
View Solution

Article 25 of the Indian Constitution guarantees freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice, and propagate religion. However, this right is not absolute and is subject to restrictions to ensure public order, morality, and health, as well as compliance with other fundamental rights under Part III of the Constitution.


Question 10:

Unless approved by the State Legislature, the ordinance issued by the Governor shall cease to operate at the expiration of:

  1. One year
  2. Six months
  3. Six weeks
  4. Two months
Correct Answer: (3) Six weeks
View Solution

Under Article 213 of the Constitution, the Governor of a State has the power to promulgate ordinances when the state legislature is not in session. However, such ordinances cease to operate unless approved by the legislature within six weeks from the reassembly of the State Legislature.


Question 11:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I List-II
(A) Article 54 (I) Constitution of Parliament
(B) Article 75 (II) Composition of the Council of States
(C) Article 79 (III) Election of President
(D) Article 80 (IV) Appointment of Prime Minister
Correct Answer: (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
View Solution

- Article 54 deals with the election of the President of India.
- Article 75 relates to the appointment of the Prime Minister.
- Article 79 describes the Constitution of the Parliament.
- Article 80 pertains to the composition of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha).


Question 12:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I List-II
(A) Right to privacy (I) Justice (Retired) Puttaswami v. Union of India
(B) Death penalty (II) Bachan Singh Case
(C) Prisoners' rights (III) Maneka Gandhi Case
(D) Right to go abroad (IV) Sunil Batra Case
Correct Answer: (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
View Solution

- Right to privacy was recognized in Justice (Retired) Puttaswami v. Union of India.
- The legal framework for the death penalty was elaborated in the Bachan Singh Case.
- Prisoners' rights were discussed in detail in the Sunil Batra Case.
- The right to go abroad was emphasized in the Maneka Gandhi Case.


Question 13:

Savigny’s Theory is based on:

  1. Greek Law
  2. Common Law
  3. Roman Law
  4. Spanish Law
Correct Answer: (3) Roman Law
View Solution

Friedrich Carl von Savigny’s theory of law, particularly his historical school of jurisprudence, is heavily influenced by Roman Law. He argued that law develops organically, reflecting the unique spirit (“Volksgeist”) of a society. His ideas were deeply rooted in the historical development of Roman Law.


Question 14:

Res Nullius rule implies:

  1. A right of easement acquired after a passage of time prescribed by law
  2. Owner of a property has a right to take benefit from the property
  3. Where there is an extinction of previous ownership by an independent adverse act of an acquirer
  4. For previously ownerless object, the person took the object as the owner
Correct Answer: (4) For previously ownerless object, the person took the object as the owner
View Solution

The term “res nullius” is Latin for “nobody’s thing.” It refers to property or an object that belongs to no one. The res nullius rule implies that an object or property that previously had no owner belongs to the person who takes possession of it.


Question 15:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I List-II
(A) Grotius (I) De Jure Belli ac Pacis
(B) Austin (II) Positive morality
(C) Thomas Aquinas (III) Natural law giving imperative to do good and avoid evil
(D) Samuel von Pufendorf (IV) Supremacy of law of Nature
Correct Answer: (2) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
View Solution

- Grotius is associated with De Jure Belli ac Pacis, which deals with laws of war and peace.
- Austin emphasized positive morality as the basis of legal systems.
- Thomas Aquinas focused on natural law, which advocates doing good and avoiding evil.
- Samuel von Pufendorf supported the supremacy of the law of nature.


Question 16:

Which section of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 deals with “set off”?

  1. Section 427
  2. Section 190
  3. Section 428
  4. Section 328
Correct Answer: (3) Section 428
View Solution

Section 428 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973 provides for the concept of “set off.” It allows the period of detention undergone by an accused during the investigation, inquiry, or trial for the same case to be set off against the term of imprisonment imposed upon conviction. This provision ensures that the pre-conviction custody period is credited towards the overall sentence.


Question 17:

Which of the following is correct with reference to the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?

  1. The Transfer of Property Act deals only with immovable property
  2. The Transfer of Property Act deals with both movable and immovable property
  3. Property may be transferred orally under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 in all cases
  4. Property can be transferred orally under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882
Correct Answer: DROP
View Solution

The Transfer of Property Act, 1882 primarily deals with immovable property, though some provisions pertain to movable property. While most transfers require written documentation, the Act does not exclude all oral transfers. Due to the ambiguity in the options provided, this question has been dropped.


Question 18:

Consider the following statements:

  1. Constitutional Amendment Bill can be introduced only with the prior permission of the President
  2. Even if both Houses of Parliament pass the Constitutional Amendment Bill, the President can refuse to sign
  3. If both Houses of Parliament pass the Constitutional Amendment Bill, it is mandatory for the President to sign and there is no provision for joint sitting
  4. If both Houses of Parliament pass the Constitutional Amendment Bill, it is discretionary for the President to sign and there is a provision for joint sitting
Correct Answer: (3) If both Houses of Parliament pass the Constitutional Amendment Bill, it is mandatory for the President to sign and there is no provision for joint sitting.
View Solution

A Constitutional Amendment Bill does not require prior permission from the President to be introduced in Parliament. Once the Bill is passed by both Houses with a special majority under Article 368 of the Indian Constitution, it is mandatory for the President to give assent. The President cannot veto or return the Bill for reconsideration, and there is no provision for a joint sitting for such Bills.


Question 19:

Where the President issues a proclamation under Article 356, the President may by proclamation:

  1. Assume to himself all or any functions of the Government of the State
  2. Assume to himself all or any powers vested in or exercisable by the Governor
  3. Declare that the powers of the legislature of the State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of Parliament
  4. Assume to himself any powers vested in or exercisable by a High Court
Correct Answer: (1), (2), and (3) only
View Solution

Article 356 allows the President to impose President’s Rule in a State when constitutional machinery fails. Under this provision, the President can:
- Assume the functions of the State Government
- Assume powers vested in the Governor
- Declare that the State legislature's powers will be exercised by Parliament.
However, the President cannot assume the powers of a High Court as it remains an independent judiciary entity.


Question 20:

Read the following with reference to Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles:

  1. Primacy is not given to all Fundamental Rights over Directive Principles
  2. Primacy is given to all Fundamental Rights from Article 14 to Article 32 over Directive Principles
  3. Primacy is given only to Directive Principles contained in Article 39(b) and Article 39(c) over the Fundamental Rights under Articles 14 and 19
  4. Primacy is given only to Directive Principles contained in Article 39(a) and Article 39(b) over the Fundamental Rights under Articles 14 and 19
Correct Answer: (3) Primacy is given only to Directive Principles contained in Article 39(b) and Article 39(c) over the Fundamental Rights under Articles 14 and 19.
View Solution

Through various landmark judgments, the Supreme Court has clarified that Fundamental Rights generally have primacy over Directive Principles. However, Articles 39(b) and 39(c) of the Directive Principles, related to equitable distribution of resources and prevention of concentration of wealth, are exceptions. These principles have primacy over Fundamental Rights under Articles 14 and 19 in specific contexts to promote socialism and equitable economic structures.


Question 21:

A decree for restitution of conjugal rights can be executed in India by:

  1. Attachment of the property of the respondent
  2. Attachment of the property of the respondent and by arresting the respondent
  3. Arrest of the respondent
  4. Either attachment of the property of the respondent or by arresting the respondent
Correct Answer: (1) Attachment of the property of the respondent
View Solution

A decree for restitution of conjugal rights is aimed at compelling one spouse to resume cohabitation with the other. Under the Code of Civil Procedure, this decree can only be executed through the attachment of the respondent’s property. Arrest or imprisonment is not permitted to enforce such decrees in the current legal framework.


Question 22:

Where, in order to give effect to an international agreement, the Parliament enacts a law on a matter enumerated in the State List without consulting the affected states, the law is:

  1. Void
  2. Valid
  3. Void to the extent of encroachment
  4. Valid only to the extent the affected state has given consent
Correct Answer: (2) Valid
View Solution

Under Article 253 of the Indian Constitution, Parliament has the power to make laws for implementing international treaties or agreements. This power extends even to matters listed under the State List without requiring the consent of the affected states. Such laws are deemed valid to ensure India’s compliance with international obligations.


Question 23:

Sequence the following as they appear in the Preamble of the Constitution of India:

  1. Democratic - Fraternity
  2. Secular - Equality
  3. Socialist - Liberty
  4. Sovereign - Justice
Correct Answer: (4) Sovereign - Justice, Socialist - Liberty, Secular - Equality, Democratic - Fraternity
View Solution

The correct sequence in the Preamble of the Constitution of India is:
1. Sovereign
2. Socialist
3. Secular
4. Democratic
5. Justice
6. Liberty
7. Equality
8. Fraternity

Thus, the correct order of the given options is Sovereign - Justice, Socialist - Liberty, Secular - Equality, Democratic - Fraternity.


Question 24:

Which of the following is the exclusive power of the House of the People?

  1. Impeachment of the President of India
  2. To pass a non-confidence motion against the Council of Ministers
  3. To ratify the declaration of national emergency
  4. To pass a Constitutional Amendment Bill
Correct Answer: (2) To pass a non-confidence motion against the Council of Ministers
View Solution

The Lok Sabha (House of the People) has the exclusive power to pass a non-confidence motion against the Council of Ministers. This ensures the accountability of the executive branch to the legislative branch. Other powers, such as impeachment of the President and ratification of national emergency, involve both Houses of Parliament.


Question 25:

Which of the following are the circumstances under which a Member of Parliament can be disqualified under the 10th Schedule of the Constitution of India?

  1. If he has voluntarily given up his membership of his political party
  2. If he votes or abstains from voting contrary to the direction issued by his political party
  3. A nominated member of a House shall be disqualified if he joins any political party after six months
  4. A nominated member of a House shall be disqualified if he joins any political party before six months
Correct Answer: (1), (2), and (4) only
View Solution

The Tenth Schedule, or the Anti-Defection Law, provides for the disqualification of Members of Parliament and State Legislatures. A member can be disqualified if they:
- Voluntarily give up membership of their political party
- Vote or abstain from voting contrary to their party’s direction
- Nominated members are disqualified if they join a political party before six months.


Question 26:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Legal Maxim) List-II (Related Legal Doctrine)
(A) Ut lite pendente nihil innovetur (I) Onerous gift
(B) Qui facit per alium facit (II) Constructive notice
(C) Nemo dat quod non habet (III) Lis Pendens
(D) Qui sentit commodum sentire debit onus (IV) Ostensible owner
Correct Answer: (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
View Solution

- "Ut lite pendente nihil innovetur" relates to the doctrine of Lis Pendens, which prevents changes to property during pending litigation.
- "Qui facit per alium facit" means "He who acts through another acts himself," and is related to constructive notice.
- "Nemo dat quod non habet" translates to "No one can give what they don't have," related to ostensible ownership.
- "Qui sentit commodum sentire debit onus" means "He who receives a benefit must also bear the burden," related to onerous gift.


Question 27:

Arrange the following as per the sequence in which they appear in the Criminal Procedure Code:

  1. Withdrawal from prosecution
  2. Tender of pardon
  3. Free legal aid
  4. Double jeopardy
Correct Answer: (4) Double jeopardy, Free legal aid, Tender of pardon, Withdrawal from prosecution
View Solution

The correct order based on their appearance in the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 is:
- Double Jeopardy (Section 300)
- Free Legal Aid (Section 304)
- Tender of Pardon (Section 306)
- Withdrawal from Prosecution (Section 321)


Question 28:

Which of the following is/are methods of termination of a treaty?

  1. By consent of parties
  2. By denunciation or withdrawal
  3. By concluding another treaty
  4. According to the provisions of the treaty
Correct Answer: (1), (2), (3), and (4)
View Solution

According to the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties, a treaty can be terminated through the following methods:
- By consent of all parties.
- By denunciation or withdrawal as per treaty terms or international law.
- By concluding another treaty that replaces the old one.
- According to provisions specified within the treaty itself.


Question 29:

With regard to the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973, which of the following statements is/are not correct?

  1. Criminal Procedure Code came into force on 1st January, 1974
  2. The term First Information Report is used in Section 207
  3. The term First Information Report is used in Section 154 and Section 207
  4. There are six columns in the schedule attached to the Criminal Procedure Code
Correct Answer: (2) and (4) only
View Solution

- The CrPC came into force on April 1, 1974, not January 1, 1974.
- The term 'First Information Report' (FIR) is mentioned in Section 154, not Section 207.
- The schedule attached to the CrPC contains eight columns, not six.


Question 30:

Which of the following is an incorrect statement with reference to the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR)?

  1. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) contains 35 Articles besides the Preamble
  2. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) contains 30 Articles besides the Preamble
  3. The draft of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly on 10th December, 1948
  4. The draft of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly on 24th October, 1948
Correct Answer: (1) and (4) only
View Solution

- The Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) contains 30 articles in its main body, not 35.
- It was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly on 10th December, 1948, not 24th October, 1948.


Question 31:

Who coined the term ‘criminology’?

  1. MA Elliot
  2. Raffaele Garofalo
  3. William Blackstone
  4. Jerome Hall
Correct Answer: (2) Raffaele Garofalo
View Solution

The term “criminology” was coined by Raffaele Garofalo, an Italian jurist, in 1885. It refers to the study of crimes, criminals, their behavior, and its causes.


Question 32:

Who coined the term ‘victimology’?

  1. Raffaele Garofalo
  2. Wolfgang and Ferracuti
  3. Benjamin Mendelsohn
  4. HLA Hart
Correct Answer: (3) Benjamin Mendelsohn
View Solution

Benjamin Mendelsohn, a Romanian-Israeli lawyer, is credited with coining the term “victimology” in the mid-20th century. Victimology is the scientific study of victims of crime. Mendelsohn is also known as the father of victimology.


Question 33:

Which of the following case or cases is/are not related to post-decisional hearing?

  1. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
  2. HL Terhan v. Union of India
  3. A K Gopalan v. State of Madras
  4. Minerva Mills v. Union of India
Correct Answer: (3) and (4) only
View Solution

- A K Gopalan v. State of Madras: This case adopted a narrow interpretation of Article 21 and did not address post-decisional hearing.
- Minerva Mills v. Union of India: While significant, this case is not specifically related to post-decisional hearing.
- Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India: This case expanded the concept of procedural fairness, including post-decisional hearing.
- HL Terhan v. Union of India: This case also dealt with principles of natural justice.


Question 34:

In which of the following case, the Supreme Court has given detailed guidelines so that Section 89 of the Code of Civil Procedure can be utilized to achieve the best result?

  1. Gulam Abbas v. State of U.P.
  2. Fathima Bibi Ahmed Patel v. State of Gujarat
  3. Dhula Bhai v. State of M.P.
  4. Afcons Infrastructure Ltd. v. Cherian Varkey Construction Co. (P) Ltd.
Correct Answer: (4) Afcons Infrastructure Ltd. v. Cherian Varkey Construction Co. (P) Ltd.
View Solution

In Afcons Infrastructure Ltd. v. Cherian Varkey Construction Co. (P) Ltd., the Supreme Court of India provided detailed guidelines on the applicability of Section 89 of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC), which deals with alternative dispute resolution mechanisms such as mediation, arbitration, and conciliation. The aim is to reduce unnecessary litigation and ensure effective use of ADR mechanisms.


Question 35:

In which of the following case, it was held that “all information of collegium discussion cannot be disclosed in the public domain, and only final decisions are to be uploaded on the Supreme Court website?”

  1. Anjali Bhardwaj v. CPIO, Supreme Court of India
  2. HDFC Bank Ltd. v. Union of India
  3. Saurav Das v. Union of India
  4. Supreme Court of India v. Subash Chandra Aggarwal
Correct Answer: (1) Anjali Bhardwaj v. CPIO, Supreme Court of India
View Solution

In Anjali Bhardwaj v. CPIO, Supreme Court of India, the Supreme Court clarified that while the final decisions and recommendations of the collegium must be made public, the discussions and deliberations during the process are confidential and cannot be disclosed. This ensures the confidentiality of judicial processes.


Question 36:

What is the maximum penalty under the Right to Information Act, 2005 for delay in furnishing the information?

  1. Rs 200 per day maximum up to Rs 15,000
  2. Rs 250 per day maximum up to Rs 15,000
  3. Rs 250 per day maximum up to Rs 25,000
  4. Rs 500 per day maximum up to Rs 25,000
Correct Answer: (3) Rs 250 per day maximum up to Rs 25,000
View Solution

Under Section 20(1) of the Right to Information Act, 2005, a penalty of Rs 250 per day can be imposed for delays in providing information, subject to a maximum of Rs 25,000. This penalty is imposed by the Information Commission on the designated Public Information Officer (PIO) for failing to furnish information on time.


Question 37:

Q strikes X. X, provoked to extreme violent rage, is handed a knife by Y, a bystander and enemy of Q. X kills Q with the knife. What are the offences committed by X and Y, if any?

  1. X and Y have both committed the offence of murder under Section 300 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC)
  2. X has committed murder under Section 300 IPC but Y has committed no offence
  3. X has committed only culpable homicide, but Y is guilty of murder under Section 300 IPC
  4. X and Y have both committed culpable homicide not amounting to murder
Correct Answer: (3) X has committed only culpable homicide, but Y is guilty of murder under Section 300 IPC
View Solution

- X was provoked into committing the act in a fit of rage, classifying it as culpable homicide not amounting to murder under the IPC due to grave and sudden provocation.
- Y, however, intentionally handed the knife to X with the intent to cause Q's death. This makes Y guilty of murder under Section 300 IPC as he aided the act with malicious intent.


Question 38:

Nayan meets Bala on the road, shows a pistol, and demands valuables. Bala surrenders her gold bangles and cash. What offence has Nayan committed?

  1. Extortion
  2. Robbery
  3. Theft
  4. Dacoity
Correct Answer: (2) Robbery
View Solution

Robbery involves the use of force or threat of force to commit theft. Nayan's use of a pistol to compel Bala to surrender her belongings constitutes robbery under the IPC. Extortion, theft, and dacoity have distinct definitions that do not align with this situation.

Key Takeaway: Robbery involves the use or threat of force to commit theft, distinguishing it from extortion and theft.


Question 39:

In which of the following case has the Supreme Court held that teachers are not ‘workman’ under Section 2(s) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947?

  1. Workmen of Dimakuchi Tea Estate v. Management of Dimakuchi Tea Estate
  2. H.R. Adyathaya v. Sandoz (India) Ltd.
  3. J.H. Jadhav v. Forbes Gokak Ltd.
  4. A. Sundarambal v. Government of Goa, Daman Diu
Correct Answer: (4) A. Sundarambal v. Government of Goa, Daman Diu
View Solution

In A. Sundarambal v. Government of Goa, Daman Diu, the Supreme Court ruled that teachers do not fall under the definition of 'workman' as their work is intellectual and educational, rather than manual, clerical, or skilled labor.


Question 40:

Which of the following are the objectives behind the enactment of the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992?

  1. To protect the interest of investors in securities
  2. To promote the development of the securities market
  3. To ensure that the Indian securities market works at par with markets of other developed nations
  4. To regulate the securities market
Correct Answer: (1), (2), and (4) only
View Solution

The Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992 was enacted with the following objectives:
- To protect the interests of investors in securities.
- To promote the development of the securities market.
- To regulate the securities market.
While ensuring parity with developed nations is a desired outcome, it is not explicitly mentioned as an objective in the Act.


Question 41:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Legal Proposition) List-II (Case Law)
(A) Doctrine of Indoor Management (I) Gilford Motor Co. Ltd. v. Horne
(B) Doctrine of Ultra Vires (II) Earlanger v. New Sombrero Phosphate Co.
(C) Lifting of Corporate Veil (III) Kotla Venkataswamy v. Chinta Ramamurthy
(D) Duties of Promoters (IV) Dr. A. Lakshmanaswami Mudaliar v. LIC of India
Correct Answer: (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
View Solution

- The Doctrine of Indoor Management relates to Kotla Venkataswamy v. Chinta Ramamurthy.
- The Doctrine of Ultra Vires is highlighted in Earlanger v. New Sombrero Phosphate Co..
- Lifting of Corporate Veil is demonstrated in Gilford Motor Co. Ltd. v. Horne.
- Duties of Promoters are outlined in Dr. A. Lakshmanaswami Mudaliar v. LIC of India.


Question 42:

Which of the following is a valid contract?

  1. A, a man feebled by disease, is induced, by B’s influence over him as his medical attendant, to agree to pay B an unreasonable sum for his professional services.
  2. A, being entitled to an estate for the life of B, agrees to sell it to C. B was dead at the time of the agreement, but both parties were ignorant of the fact.
  3. A, with free consent, agrees to sell a horse worth Rs. 1,000 for Rs. 10.
  4. A promises B to drop a prosecution against B for robbery, and B promises to restore the value of the things taken.
Correct Answer: (3) A, with free consent, agrees to sell a horse worth Rs. 1,000 for Rs. 10.
View Solution

- Option (1) involves undue influence and is invalid.
- Option (2) involves mutual mistake of fact, rendering the contract void.
- Option (3) presents a valid contract, as free consent is present. Courts do not assess the adequacy of consideration.
- Option (4) lacks a lawful object and is void as it contravenes public policy.


Question 43:

X holds Y at gunpoint and makes him sign a gift deed of all Y’s properties in favor of G, X’s daughter. This agreement is:

  1. Valid if ratified by Y
  2. Void if rescinded by Y
  3. Void ab initio
  4. Valid at the option of X
Correct Answer: (3) Void ab initio
View Solution

When consent to an agreement is obtained through coercion or duress, as in this case, it renders the agreement void ab initio (void from the beginning). Such an agreement has no legal validity and cannot be made valid by ratification.


Question 44:

Madhu, an unpaid seller, can exercise the right of lien under the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, under which of the following circumstances?

  1. Before the contract of sale has been concluded
  2. When the goods are in the possession of Madhu
  3. After the agent of the buyer has collected the goods but before the buyer has received them
  4. After the goods have been delivered to the carrier but the goods have not reached the buyer
Correct Answer: (2) When the goods are in the possession of Madhu
View Solution

- Right of lien is exercisable only when the unpaid seller retains possession of the goods.
- If possession has transferred to the buyer or their agent, the lien cannot be exercised.
- If goods are in transit, the seller may invoke stoppage in transit, not lien.


Question 45:

Hiralal Traders, a partnership firm, enters into a supply contract in March 2020. X is introduced as a partner in April 2023. Pimala Ltd. sues the firm in May 2023 for failure to supply cotton bales. What is the liability of X?

  1. X is liable for the act of the firm since all partners are jointly and severally liable under Sections 25 and 26 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932.
  2. X is not liable as per Section 31(2) of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932.
  3. X’s liability would depend on whether Pimala Ltd. named X in the suit.
  4. X’s liability would depend on the time of the default.
Correct Answer: (2) X is not liable as per Section 31(2) of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932.
View Solution

Under Section 31(2) of the Indian Partnership Act, a new partner is not liable for any acts of the firm prior to their joining. X became a partner in April 2023, while the contract was signed in March 2020. Therefore, X is not liable for obligations arising from that contract.


Question 46:

X and Y, both Hindus, married in 2022. X, the husband, was 21 years of age, while Y, the wife, was 16 years of age. According to the provisions of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 (HMA), this marriage is:

  1. Void marriage under Section 11 HMA
  2. Voidable marriage under Section 10 HMA
  3. May be void or voidable as desired by the parties
  4. Valid marriage
Correct Answer: DROP
View Solution

Under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, the minimum age for marriage is 21 years for the male and 18 years for the female. If the marriage takes place when either party is underage, it is voidable at the instance of the underage party under Section 10 HMA, not void under Section 11. However, due to ambiguities in the question regarding amendments and changes in the law, this question has been dropped.


Question 47:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Legal Concept) List-II (Related Case Laws)
(A) Mother as natural guardian (I) T. Sareetha v. T. Venkata Subbaiah
(B) Conversion and Marriage (II) State of Bombay v. Narasu Appa Mail
(C) Bigamy (III) Smt. Sarla Mudgal v. Union of India
(D) Restitution of Conjugal Rights (IV) Githa Hariharan v. Reserve Bank of India
Correct Answer: (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
View Solution

- Mother as natural guardian: Githa Hariharan v. Reserve Bank of India.
- Conversion and Marriage: Smt. Sarla Mudgal v. Union of India.
- Bigamy: State of Bombay v. Narasu Appa Mail.
- Restitution of Conjugal Rights: T. Sareetha v. T. Venkata Subbaiah.


Question 48:

Which of the following case does not pertain to maintenance of Muslim women?

  1. Mohd. Ahmed Khan v. Shah Bano Begum
  2. Shabana Bano v. Imran Khan
  3. Ahmedabad Women Action Group v. Union of India
  4. Danial Latifi v. Union of India
Correct Answer: (3) Ahmedabad Women Action Group v. Union of India
View Solution

- Mohd. Ahmed Khan v. Shah Bano Begum: A landmark case affirming a Muslim woman's right to maintenance under Section 125 CrPC.
- Shabana Bano v. Imran Khan: Further expanded Muslim women's right to maintenance under the Muslim Women Act.
- Danial Latifi v. Union of India: Upheld the validity of the Muslim Women Act, ensuring fair provisions.
- Ahmedabad Women Action Group v. Union of India: Did not directly deal with maintenance but rather issues of bigamy and women’s rights.


Question 49:

Which of the following is NOT a condition for a valid adoption under Section 11 of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956?

  1. The same child may be adopted by two or more persons simultaneously
  2. If the adoption is by a female and the person to be adopted is a male, the adoptive mother must be at least twenty-one years older than the child to be adopted
  3. If the adoption is of a son, the adoptive parents must not have a Hindu son, son’s son, or son’s son’s son living at the time of the adoption
  4. The child to be adopted must be actually given and taken in adoption
Correct Answer: (1) The same child may be adopted by two or more persons simultaneously
View Solution

- A child cannot be adopted by two or more people simultaneously. Adoption can only be by one individual or a married couple.
- Other conditions, such as age difference between the adoptive parent and child, absence of another son in the family, and actual giving and taking, are essential for a valid adoption.


Question 50:

Mr. Ceaser, an Indian, derives income from trading shares and their dividends in FY 2021-2022. Under which head of income is this calculated as per the Income Tax Act, 1969?

  1. Profits and Gains from Business and Profession
  2. Capital Gains
  3. Income from Other Sources
  4. Both Income from Other Sources and Capital Gains
Correct Answer: (4) Both Income from Other Sources and Capital Gains
View Solution

- Income from trading shares is categorized under “Profits and Gains from Business and Profession” as it involves frequent transactions.
- Dividend income is categorized under “Income from Other Sources.”
Thus, the two heads are applicable, depending on the nature of the income.


Question 51:

Section 17 of the Income Tax Act, 1969 deals with:

  1. ‘Salaries’ Only
  2. ‘Deduction from Salary’ and ‘Salary’
  3. Heads of Income and Expenditure
  4. ‘Salary’, ‘Perquisite’ and ‘Profits in lieu of Salary’
Correct Answer: (4) ‘Salary’, ‘Perquisite’ and ‘Profits in lieu of Salary’
View Solution

Section 17 of the Income Tax Act, 1969 provides the definition of “salary” for income computation. It includes:
- Salary
- Perquisites (benefits or allowances granted by an employer)
- Profits in lieu of salary (compensations or profits).


Question 52:

Arrange the following provisions under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 in the sequence of their appearance in the Act:

  1. Legitimacy of children of void and voidable marriages
  2. Maintenance pendente lite and expenses of proceedings
  3. Ceremonies for a Hindu Marriage
  4. Registration of Hindu marriages
Correct Answer: (3), (4), (1), (2)
View Solution

The correct order of sections under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 is:
1. Ceremonies for a Hindu Marriage (Section 7)
2. Registration of Hindu marriages (Section 8)
3. Legitimacy of children of void and voidable marriages (Section 16)
4. Maintenance pendente lite and expenses of proceedings (Section 24)


Question 53:

Arrange the following landmark decisions of contract law in the sequence of them being pronounced by the courts:

  1. Mohori Bibi v. Dharmodas Ghose
  2. Bhagwan Das Goverdhan Das Kedia v. Girdhari Lal & Co.
  3. Carlil v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co.
  4. Lalman Shukla v. Gauri Dutt
Correct Answer: (3), (1), (4), (2)
View Solution

The correct chronological order is:
1. Carlil v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co. (1893): Established rules for unilateral contracts.
2. Mohori Bibi v. Dharmodas Ghose (1903): Defined the legal position of minors in contracts.
3. Lalman Shukla v. Gauri Dutt (1913): Dealt with the requirement of offer knowledge.
4. Bhagwan Das Goverdhan Das Kedia v. Girdhari Lal & Co. (1966): Addressed contracts made through telephone.


Question 54:

Which of the following is NOT a principle of an Insurance Contract?

  1. Causa Proxima
  2. Mitigation of Risk
  3. Subrogation
  4. Donatio mortis causa
Correct Answer: (4) Donatio mortis causa
View Solution

- Causa Proxima: Refers to proximate cause doctrine.
- Mitigation of Risk: Requires minimizing risks.
- Subrogation: Gives insurers the right to recover from third parties.
- Donatio mortis causa: Refers to gifts in contemplation of death, unrelated to insurance.


Question 55:

Under the Marine Insurance Act, 1963, a marine insurance contract may protect the assured against risks incidental to sea voyage and covers such losses on:

  1. Inland waters only
  2. Any land risk only
  3. Both inland waters and land risks
  4. Neither inland waters nor land risks
Correct Answer: (3) Both inland waters and land risks
View Solution

Under the Marine Insurance Act, 1963, a marine insurance contract may cover:
- Sea voyages
- Inland waterways
- Land risks incidental to the sea voyage.
Marine insurance provides broad protection for goods in transit, ensuring coverage during the entire journey.


Question 56:

‘While pronouncing the constitutionality of a statute, the courts must start with the presumption in favour of its constitutionality’. Which of the following legal maxims iterate this principle under the rules of interpretation of statutes?

  1. Expressio unius est exclusio alterius
  2. Noscitur a sociis
  3. Generalia specialibus non derogant
  4. Ut res magis valeat quam pereat
Correct Answer: (4) Ut res magis valeat quam pereat
View Solution

The legal maxim “Ut res magis valeat quam pereat” translates to “It is better for a thing to have effect than to be made void.” Courts should strive to interpret statutes in a way that upholds their constitutionality and makes them workable rather than void.

Other maxims:
- Expressio unius est exclusio alterius: Express mention of one excludes others.
- Noscitur a sociis: A word is known by the company it keeps.
- Generalia specialibus non derogant: General law does not override specific law.


Question 57:

Which of the following is NOT an internal aid in the interpretation of statutes?

  1. Preamble
  2. Parliamentary Notes
  3. Long Title
  4. Marginal Notes
Correct Answer: (2) Parliamentary Notes
View Solution

Internal aids to statutory interpretation include those found within the statute itself:
- Preamble: Indicates the intent and objectives of the statute.
- Long Title: Specifies the scope of the statute.
- Marginal Notes: Provide context for specific sections.
Parliamentary Notes, such as debates or committee reports, are external aids.


Question 58:

Which of the following is considered to be an ‘anti-competitive agreement’ under Section 3 of the Competition Act, 2002?

  1. Supply agreement
  2. Exclusive distribution agreement
  3. Tie-in agreements
  4. Resale price maintenance
Correct Answer: (2), (3), and (4) only
View Solution

Anti-competitive agreements under Section 3 include:
- Exclusive distribution agreements: Limit consumer choice and market competition.
- Tie-in agreements: Force consumers to purchase unrelated products.
- Resale price maintenance: Prevent resellers from setting their own prices.
Supply agreements alone are not inherently anti-competitive unless they hinder competition.


Question 59:

While inquiring whether an enterprise enjoys a dominant position under Section 4 of the Competition Act, 2002, which of the following factors are to be considered?

  1. Dependence of consumers on the enterprise
  2. Market share of the enterprise
  3. Creation of barriers for new entrants in the market
  4. Countervailing buying power
Correct Answer: (1), (2), (3), and (4)
View Solution

Factors for determining dominant position include:
- Consumer dependence: Extent of reliance on the enterprise.
- Market share: Percentage of market controlled.
- Barriers to entry: Impediments for new competitors.
- Countervailing buying power: Ability of buyers to counteract market power.


Question 60:

Arrange the following statutes based on the year of their enactment:

  1. The Forest (Conservation) Act
  2. The Wildlife (Protection) Act
  3. The National Green Tribunal Act
  4. The Environment (Protection) Act
Correct Answer: (2), (1), (4), (3)
View Solution

The correct chronological order is:
1. The Wildlife (Protection) Act: Enacted in 1972.
2. The Forest (Conservation) Act: Enacted in 1980.
3. The Environment (Protection) Act: Enacted in 1986.
4. The National Green Tribunal Act: Enacted in 2010.


Question 61:

In which of the following judgments did the Supreme Court hold that the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 does not prohibit the issuance of ex-post facto Environmental Clearance?

  1. M/S Pahwa Plastics Pvt. Ltd. v. Dastak NGO, SC judgment dated: 25-03-2022
  2. Almitra H. Patel v. Union of India, SC judgment dated: 15-02-2000
  3. K.M. Chinnappa, T.N. Godavarman Thirumalpad v. Union of India, SC judgment dated: 30-10-2002
  4. S. Jagannath v. Union of India, SC judgment dated: 11-12-1996
Correct Answer: (1) M/S Pahwa Plastics Pvt. Ltd. v. Dastak NGO, SC judgment dated: 25-03-2022
View Solution

In M/S Pahwa Plastics Pvt. Ltd. v. Dastak NGO, the Supreme Court ruled that the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 does not explicitly prohibit ex-post facto environmental clearances. The Court stated that such clearances could be allowed on a case-by-case basis.


Question 62:

Section 27(2) of the Trade Marks Act, 1999, enshrines which of the following principles of trademark law?

  1. Deceptive Similarity
  2. Passing Off
  3. Phonetic similarity in trademarks
  4. Visual similarity in trademarks
Correct Answer: (2) Passing Off
View Solution

Section 27(2) of the Trade Marks Act, 1999, deals with the common law remedy of passing off. This section acknowledges the rights of unregistered trademark owners to protect their marks against misuse, even if the trademark is not registered.


Question 63:

What is the maximum punishment that can be imposed for criminal contempt under the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 in India?

  1. Fine of Rs. 10,000
  2. Fine of Rs. 10,000 and 3 months imprisonment
  3. Fine of Rs. 20,000 and 6 months imprisonment
  4. Disqualification from legal practice
Correct Answer: (3) Fine of Rs. 20,000 and 6 months imprisonment
View Solution

The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, provides for a maximum punishment of Rs. 20,000 fine and/or six months imprisonment for criminal contempt. Disqualification from legal practice is not a punishment explicitly mentioned under the Act.


Question 64:

Arrange the following chapters under the Companies Act as per the sequence in which they appear in the statute:

  1. Compromise, arrangements and amalgamation
  2. Prevention of oppression and mismanagement
  3. Meetings of Board and its power
  4. Appointment and qualifications of Directors
Correct Answer: (4), (3), (2), (1)
View Solution

The correct order of chapters under the Companies Act is:
1. Appointment and qualifications of Directors.
2. Meetings of Board and its powers.
3. Prevention of oppression and mismanagement.
4. Compromise, arrangements, and amalgamation.


Question 65:

The definition of Geographical Indication in relation to goods means an indication which identifies:

  1. Such goods as originating in the territory of a country, region or locality
  2. Such goods that are exclusively grown or produced in the said territory, region or locality of the country
  3. Such goods having a reputation or characteristics that is attributable to its geographical origin
  4. That in case such goods are manufactured then either production, processing or preparation of the goods takes place in such territory, region or locality of the country
Correct Answer: (1), (3), and (4) only
View Solution

A Geographical Indication (GI) identifies products that:
- Originate in a specific territory (Option 1).
- Have reputation or characteristics attributable to that origin (Option 3).
- If manufactured, involve production, processing, or preparation in the identified territory (Option 4).
Option (2) is incorrect as GIs are not limited to exclusive production in the identified region.


Question 66:

‘Author’ in relation to any musical or artistic work which is computer-generated is:

  1. The composer
  2. The artist
  3. The performer
  4. The person who caused the work to be created
Correct Answer: (4) The person who caused the work to be created
View Solution

For computer-generated works, copyright law recognizes the person who initiated and caused the work to come into existence as the author. This applies because such works are created with minimal to no human creative input in the final product.


Question 67:

Under which International Instrument/mechanism can a party bring a claim for violation of its international trade rights and obligations against another member state of the World Trade Organisation (WTO)?

  1. The UN Charter
  2. WIPO (World Intellectual Property Organisation)
  3. Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations
  4. Dispute Settlement Understanding (DSU)
Correct Answer: (4) Dispute Settlement Understanding (DSU)
View Solution

The Dispute Settlement Understanding (DSU) is the mechanism used by the WTO to resolve trade disputes between member states. It provides a structured process for addressing violations of trade rights and obligations.


Question 68:

Which International Organisation is primarily responsible for standardising terms used in international sales contracts, including Incoterms?

  1. UNCTAD
  2. UNCITRAL
  3. WTO
  4. ISO
Correct Answer: (2) UNCITRAL
View Solution

The United Nations Commission on International Trade Law (UNCITRAL) is the primary body responsible for the standardization of international trade terms. While Incoterms are maintained by the International Chamber of Commerce (ICC), UNCITRAL influences their development significantly.


Question 69:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Legal Maxim) List-II (Case Law)
(A) Injuria sine Damno (I) Gloucester Grammer School case
(B) Damnum sine Injuria (II) Nichols v. Marsland
(C) Volenti non fit injuria (III) Bhim Singh v. State of Jammu & Kashmir
(D) Force Majeure (IV) Padmavati v. Dugganaika
Correct Answer: (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
View Solution

- Injuria sine Damno: Violation of legal rights without damages, discussed in Bhim Singh v. State of Jammu & Kashmir.
- Damnum sine Injuria: Damages without legal injury, demonstrated in Gloucester Grammer School case.
- Volenti non fit injuria: Consent as a defense, explained in Padmavati v. Dugganaika.
- Force Majeure: Acts of God, discussed in Nichols v. Marsland.


Question 70:

When the plaintiff by his own want of care contributes to the damage caused by the wrongful conduct of the defendant, it is considered to be:

  1. Remoteness of damage
  2. Contributory negligence
  3. Inevitable accident
  4. Nuisance
Correct Answer: (2) Contributory negligence
View Solution

Contributory negligence occurs when the plaintiff’s own negligence contributes to their injury or damage. The other concepts are:
- Remoteness of damage: Damage too far removed from the defendant's act.
- Inevitable accident: An event that could not have been prevented despite reasonable care.
- Nuisance: Unreasonable interference with someone’s enjoyment of property.

Key Takeaway: Contributory negligence involves the plaintiff’s role in their own harm.


Question 71:

Which of the following is NOT a valid purpose of spending the general funds of a Trade Union under section 15 of the Trade Union Act, 1926?

  1. Conduct of trade disputes on behalf of the Trade Union
  2. Payment of funeral expenses of deceased members
  3. Payment of expenses incurred by a candidate for election as a member of any legislative body constituted under the Indian Constitution
  4. Provide educational benefits to the members or their dependants
Correct Answer: (3) Payment of expenses incurred by a candidate for election as a member of any legislative body constituted under the Indian Constitution
View Solution

Section 15 of the Trade Union Act, 1926, lists purposes for which the general funds of a registered trade union may be used. These include:
- Conducting trade disputes.
- Providing benefits to members, such as funeral expenses and educational benefits.
However, funds cannot be used for election expenses of a candidate for legislative bodies.


Question 72:

Which of the following is/are cases NOT pertaining to dishonour of cheque under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881?

  1. Modi Cements Ltd. v. Kuchil Kumar Nandi (1998)3 SCC 249
  2. Indian Overseas Bank v. Industrial Chain Concern (1990)1 SCC 484
  3. Dashrath Rupsingh Rathod v. State of Maharashtra (2014) 9 SCC 129
  4. G.J. Raja v. Tejraj Surana, AIR 2019 SC 3817
Correct Answer: (2) Indian Overseas Bank v. Industrial Chain Concern
View Solution

The following cases pertain to dishonour of cheques:
- Modi Cements Ltd. v. Kuchil Kumar Nandi: Discusses insufficiency of funds.
- Dashrath Rupsingh Rathod v. State of Maharashtra: Deals with territorial jurisdiction.
- G.J. Raja v. Tejraj Surana: Related to dishonour of cheque.
Indian Overseas Bank v. Industrial Chain Concern primarily deals with loan recovery and does not address dishonour of cheque.


Question 73:

As per Section 35A of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, the Reserve Bank has the power to give directions under which of the following circumstances?

  1. In public interest
  2. In the interest of public policy
  3. To secure proper management of banking companies
  4. To prevent affairs of banking companies being conducted in a manner detrimental to depositor’s interest
Correct Answer: (1), (3), and (4) only
View Solution

Section 35A empowers the RBI to issue directions to banking companies under the following circumstances:
- In public interest.
- To secure proper management of banking companies.
- To prevent actions detrimental to depositor’s interest.
The term ‘public policy’ is not explicitly mentioned as a ground in Section 35A.


Question 74:

Sequence the following as per Section 300 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860:

  1. Sudden and grave provocation
  2. Act done in good faith for the exercise of right to private defence
  3. Death caused with mutual consent
  4. Act done in sudden fight
Correct Answer: (1), (2), (4), (3)
View Solution

Section 300 IPC defines murder and lists exceptions where culpable homicide is not murder in the following sequence:
1. Sudden and grave provocation.
2. Act done in exercise of the right to private defence.
3. Act done in sudden fight.
4. Death caused with mutual consent.


Question 75:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Legal Doctrine) List-II (Case Law)
(A) Negligence (I) Municipal Corporation Delhi v. Subhagwanti
(B) Strict Liability (II) Ryland v. Fletcher
(C) Res ipsa loquitur (III) Winterbottom v. Wright
(D) Nuisance (IV) Campbell v. Paddington Corporation
Correct Answer: (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
View Solution

- Negligence: Established in Winterbottom v. Wright.
- Strict Liability: Explained in Ryland v. Fletcher.
- Res ipsa loquitur: Discussed in Municipal Corporation Delhi v. Subhagwanti.
- Nuisance: Addressed in Campbell v. Paddington Corporation.


CUET PG Previous Year Question Paper

Fees Structure

Structure based on different categories

CategoriesState
General800
sc550

In case of any inaccuracy, Notify Us! 

Comments


No Comments To Show