CUET PG 2024 Geophysics Question Paper (Available) - Download Solution Pdf with Answer Key

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Updated on, Jan 15, 2025

bySahaj Anand Content Writer | Journalism Graduate

CUET PG Geophysics Question Paper 2024 is available here for download. NTA conducted CUET PG Geophysics paper 2024 on from March 20 in Shift 3. CUET PG Question Paper 2024 is based on objective-type questions (MCQs). According to latest exam pattern, candidates get 105 minutes to solve 75 MCQs in CUET PG 2024 Geophysics question paper.

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Geophysics Questions with Solutions

Question 1:

The shape of air film formed between the plano-convex lens and the glass slab in Newton's ring experiment is:

(1) Rectangular shape
(2) Uniform thickness
(3) Wedge shape
(4) No air film is formed

Correct Answer: (3) Wedge shape.
View Solution

When a plano-convex lens is placed on a glass slab, an air film is formed which is wedge-shaped. The film thickness gradually changes from the point of contact (negligible thickness) outward.

Newton’s rings result from the interference of light in the wedge-shaped air gap between the lens and the glass plate.


Question 2:

Match List I with List II:

List I List II
(A) The linear momentum of the system remains constant (IV) The net external force acting on a system of particles is zero
(B) The angular momentum of the system remains constant (III) The external torque acting on a system of particles is zero
(C) Inertial frame (I) The frames relative to which an unaccelerated body appears unaccelerated
(D) Non-inertial frame (II) The frames relative to which an unaccelerated body appears accelerated

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

Correct Answer: (2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II.
View Solution

A. Linear momentum const. → Net external force = 0 (IV),
B. Angular momentum const. → External torque = 0 (III),
C. Inertial frame → Unaccelerated body appears unaccelerated (I),
D. Non-inertial frame → Unaccelerated body appears accelerated (II).

An inertial frame is one with no net acceleration; a non-inertial frame is accelerating, leading to fictitious forces.


Question 3:

Match List I with List II:

LIST I LIST II
(A) Maxwell's First Equation (III) Gauss Law in Electrostatics
(B) Maxwell's Second Equation (IV) Gauss Law in Magnetostatics
(C) Maxwell's Third Equation (II) Faraday's Laws of Electromagnetic Induction
(D) Maxwell's Fourth Equation (I) Modified Ampere's Law

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
(2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

Correct Answer: (4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I.
View Solution

Maxwell's First Equation → Gauss’s Law in Electrostatics (III),
Maxwell's Second Equation → Gauss’s Law in Magnetostatics (IV),
Maxwell's Third Equation → Faraday's Laws of Induction (II),
Maxwell's Fourth Equation → Modified Ampere’s Law (I).

Different textbooks may list Maxwell's equations in alternate orders, but here the question’s official matching yields (4) A–III, B–IV, C–II, D–I.


Question 4:

The efficiency of Carnot’s engine working between the steam point and the ice point is:

(1) 26.8%
(2) 2.68%
(3) 62.8%
(4) 82.6%

Correct Answer: (1) 26.8%.
View Solution

Steam point = 100°C = 373 K.
Ice point = 0°C = 273 K.
Carnot Efficiency, η = (T_H - T_L) / T_H = (373 - 273) / 373 = 100 / 373 ≈ 0.268 ≈ 26.8%.

Always convert Celsius to Kelvin in thermodynamics. Carnot efficiency = (T_H - T_L) / T_H.


Question 5:

Match List I with List II:

List I List II
(A) (∂S/∂P)_T (I) (∂P/∂T)_V
(B) (∂T/∂V)_S (II) (∂V/∂S)_P
(C) (∂T/∂P)_S (III) -(∂V/∂T)_P
(D) (∂S/∂V)_T (IV) -(∂P/∂S)_V

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(2) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Correct Answer: (1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I.
View Solution

Use Maxwell's relations in thermodynamics:

A → (III), B → (IV), C → (II), D → (I).

Maxwell's relations come from the equality of mixed second partial derivatives of thermodynamic potentials.


Question 6:

Which of the following is true for a reversible process?

(1) The pressure and temperature of the working substance and the surroundings should differ at any stage.
(2) The process should take place very slowly during operation.
(3) The process should take place very fast during operation.
(4) Energy should be lost due to conduction or radiation during operation.

Correct Answer: (2) The process should take place very slowly.
View Solution

For a thermodynamic process to be reversible, the system must be in near-equilibrium at each stage, requiring infinitesimally small differences in pressure/temperature, and hence the process proceeds very slowly without dissipative losses.

Reversible processes require no net energy losses due to friction, conduction, or radiation.


Question 7:

If the radiation emitted by a star has a maximum intensity at a wavelength of 446 nm, its surface temperature is approximately:

(1) 650 K
(2) 65 K
(3) 6500 K
(4) 65000 K

Correct Answer: (3) 6500 K.
View Solution

Using Wien’s displacement law: λ_max * T ≈ 2.9 × 10-3 m·K.

Given λ_max = 446 nm = 446 × 10-9 m, the temperature is approximately 6500 K.

Wien’s constant is 2.9 × 10-3 m·K. Make sure to convert nm to m before calculation.


Question 8:

Ultraviolet light of wavelength 350 nm and intensity 1.00 W/m2 falls on a potassium surface. The maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectron is:

(1) 3.3 eV
(2) 1.9 eV
(3) 3.2 eV
(4) 1.3 eV

Correct Answer: (4) 1.3 eV.
View Solution

Energy of incident photon, Eγ = hc / λ, and using the work function for potassium, the maximum kinetic energy is approximately 1.3 eV.

The work function (φ) for potassium is about 2.25 eV. The kinetic energy of the photoelectron is found by subtracting the work function from the energy of the incident photon.


Question 9:

Which of the following statements are true for the Compton effect?

(1) A and B are correct
(2) B and C are correct
(3) A and D are correct
(4) A and C are correct

Correct Answer: (4) A and C are correct.
View Solution

Compton effect shows an increase (shift) in the wavelength of scattered X-rays, which depends on the scattering angle and not on the intensity of the incident X-rays. So, statements (A) and (C) are true.

Compton shift: Δλ = λ' - λ = (h / me c)(1 - cos θ), which depends on the angle θ, not the intensity of incident radiation.


Question 10:

Clausius-Clapeyron’s latent heat equation is represented as:

(1) (∂P / ∂T)s = L / T (V2 - V1)
(2) (∂T / ∂P)s = L / T (V2 - V1)
(3) (∂V / ∂T)s = L / T (V2 - V1)
(4) (∂P / ∂T)s = L / V (V2 - V1)

Correct Answer: (1) (∂P / ∂T)s = L / T (V2 - V1).
View Solution

Clausius-Clapeyron relation is used to describe the change in pressure with temperature for phase transitions.

The equation gives the slope of phase boundaries in a P-T diagram for phase changes at equilibrium.


Question 11:

X-ray of wavelength 10.0 pm are scattered from a target in a Compton experiment. If the X-rays are scattered through 45°, the scattered wavelength is:

(1) 1.07 pm
(2) 70.1 pm
(3) 10.7 pm
(4) 107 pm

Correct Answer: (3) 10.7 pm.
View Solution

The Compton shift formula is:
Δλ = (h / me c)(1 - cos θ).
For θ = 45°, and using h / me c ≈ 2.43 pm,
Δλ = 2.43 pm × (1 - cos 45°) ≈ 2.43 pm × 0.2929 ≈ 0.71 pm.
Hence, λscattered = λinitial + Δλ = 10.0 pm + 0.71 pm = 10.71 pm ≈ 10.7 pm.

Keep in mind that h / me c ≈ 2.43 × 10-12 m. For θ < 90°, the Compton shift is relatively small.


Question 12:

Which of the following statements are correct for the Second Law of Thermodynamics?
(A) It is impossible to derive a continuous supply of energy from a body by cooling it below
the temperature of its surroundings.
(B) It is possible to derive a continuous supply of energy from a body by cooling it below the
temperature of its surroundings.
(C) It is impossible for a self-acting machine, unaided by any external agency, to convey heat
from a body at lower temperature to another body at higher temperature.
(D) It is possible for a self-acting machine, unaided by any external agency, to convey heat
from a body at lower temperature to another body at higher temperature.

(1) (A) and (B) only
(2) (B) and (C) only
(3) (B) and (D) only
(4) (A) and (C) only

Correct Answer: (4) (A) and (C) only.
View Solution

Statements (A) and (C) summarize two well-known impossibility statements of the second law: (1) No heat engine can continuously produce work by just cooling a single reservoir below its surroundings, and (2) no spontaneous (self-acting) device can transfer heat from cold to hot without external energy.

The Second Law has several equivalent formulations (Kelvin–Planck and Clausius statements). They all forbid "something for nothing" from a single reservoir or spontaneous cold-to-hot flow.


Question 13:

10 g of water at 100°C is converted into steam at the same temperature. If the latent heat of steam is 540 cal/g, the change in entropy is:

(1) 14.47 cal/K
(2) 144.7 cal/K
(3) 74.47 cal/K
(4) 47.47 cal/K

Correct Answer: (1) 14.47 cal/K.
View Solution

Heat absorbed, Q = m × L = 10 g × 540 cal/g = 5400 cal.
At 100°C, the temperature in Kelvin is T = 373 K.
Change in entropy: ΔS = Q / T = 5400 cal / 373 K ≈ 14.48 cal/K.

Often, ΔS = m × L / T. Watch out for potential factor-of-10 mismatches in the given options or question statements.


Question 14:

Higher-energy photons are scattered from electrons initially at rest. Assume the photons are backscattered (θ = 180°) and their energies are much higher than the electron’s rest mass energy. The wavelength shift will be 2.43 × 10-12 m:

(1) 4.86 × 10-10 m
(2) 48.6 × 10-12 m
(3) 4.86 × 10-12 m
(4) 0.486 × 10-12 m

Correct Answer: (3) 4.86 × 10-12 m.
View Solution

Compton shift formula: Δλ = (h / me c)(1 - cos θ). For backscatter, θ = 180° → cos 180° = -1.
Δλ = 2 × (h / me c) = 2 × 2.43 × 10-12 m = 4.86 × 10-12 m.

Backscattering (θ = 180°) doubles the maximum Compton shift compared to θ = 0°.


Question 15:

Which statements are correct for a P-N junction diode?
(A) For forward bias, P-side is connected to the positive terminal and N-side to the negative
terminal of the battery.
(B) For forward bias, P-side is connected to the negative terminal and N-side to the positive
terminal.
(C) For reverse bias, P-side is connected to the negative terminal and N-side to the positive
terminal.
(D) For reverse bias, P-side is connected to the positive terminal and N-side to the negative
terminal.

(1) (A) and (B) only
(2) (A) and (D) only
(3) (A) and (C) only
(4) (B), (C), and (D) only

Correct Answer: (3) (A) and (C) only.
View Solution

In forward bias: P → +, N → - (statement A is correct; B is not).
In reverse bias: P → -, N → + (statement C is correct; D is not).

Forward bias lowers the junction barrier, letting current flow; reverse bias heightens it, blocking conduction (except tiny leakage).


Question 16:

In an LCR circuit, the current and emf differ in phase by Φ. The value of Φ is:

(1) Φ = tan-1[(XL - XC)/R]
(2) Φ = tan-1[(XL + XC)/R]
(3) Φ = tan-1[R/(XL - XC)]
(4) Φ = tan-1[R/(XL + XC)]

Correct Answer: (1) Φ = tan-1[(XL - XC)/R].
View Solution

For a series LCR circuit, the total impedance is:
Z = √[R2 + (XL - XC)2], and the phase angle Φ (between voltage and current) satisfies:
tan Φ = (XL - XC)/R.

XL = ωL, XC = 1/(ωC). If XL > XC, circuit is inductive and voltage leads current.


Question 17:

If the resonance frequency of an acoustic system is 300 Hz and the half-power frequencies are 150 Hz and 450 Hz, the quality factor is:

(1) 1.25
(2) 1.50
(3) 1.0
(4) 1.75

Correct Answer: (3) 1.0.
View Solution

The quality factor Q is defined as:
Q = f0 / (f2 - f1),
where f0 = 300 Hz, f1 = 150 Hz, f2 = 450 Hz.
Thus, Q = 300 / (450 - 150) = 300 / 300 = 1.0.

Half-power frequencies occur where the power drops to half its peak value, so the bandwidth is the difference between these frequencies. Q = f0 / bandwidth.


Question 18:

A Fraunhofer diffraction pattern is produced by a circular aperture of radius 0.05 cm at the focal plane of a convex lens of focal length 20 cm. If the wavelength λ = 5 × 10-5 cm, the radius of the first dark ring is:

(1) 1.22 × 10-3 cm
(2) 12.20 × 10-3 cm
(3) 12.20 × 10-2 cm
(4) 12.20 cm

Correct Answer: (2) 12.20 × 10-3 cm.
View Solution

The radius of the first dark ring (r1) is given by:
r1 = 1.22 × (λ × f) / D,
where D = 2a = 0.1 cm. Substituting the values:
r1 = 1.22 × (5 × 10-5 × 20) / 0.1 = 12.20 × 10-3 cm.

Ensure to double the radius to find the diameter if only the radius is given. This calculation assumes ideal conditions.


Question 19:

Brewster's law can be expressed as:

(1) μ = tan r, where μ is refractive index and r is the angle of refraction
(2) tan i = 1/μ, where μ is refractive index and i is the polarizing angle
(3) cos r = μ, where μ is refractive index and r is the angle of refraction
(4) μ = tan i, where μ is refractive index and i is the polarizing angle

Correct Answer: (4) μ = tan i.
View Solution

Brewster’s law states that the polarizing angle ip satisfies:
tan ip = μ,
where μ is the refractive index of the medium.

At Brewster's angle, the reflected beam is fully plane-polarized, and θBrewster + θrefracted = 90°.


Question 20:

In a Fraunhofer N-slit diffraction experiment, a grating has 5000 lines/cm, and monochromatic light of wavelength 5 × 10-5 cm is used. What is the highest order spectrum that may be observed?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

Correct Answer: (4) 4.
View Solution

The grating equation is: d sin θ = nλ, where (sin θ ≤ 1). Given d = 1 / 5000 cm = 2 × 10-4 cm and λ = 5 × 10-5 cm, we find:
n ≤ d / λ = 2 × 10-4 / 5 × 10-5 = 4.
Thus, the highest observable order is n = 4.

For a diffraction grating, sin θ ≤ 1 implies nλ ≤ d. The maximum observable integer n is ⌊ d / λ ⌋.


Question 21:

The function f(x) is said to be piecewise continuous, if it satisfies the following conditions (Dirichlet conditions):

(1) The function must have a finite number of maxima and minima.
(2) The function must have a finite number of infinite discontinuities, in a period of one oscillation.
(3) The function must have an infinite number of maxima and minima.
(4) The function must have a finite number of finite discontinuities, in a period of one oscillation.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) and (D) only.
(2) (A) and (C) only.
(3) (B) and (C) only.
(4) (B) and (D) only.

Correct Answer: (1) (A) and (D) only.
View Solution

For a function to be piecewise continuous according to Dirichlet's conditions, it must have only a finite number of extremities (maxima and minima) and discontinuities within any finite interval. This specifically excludes infinite discontinuities which would make the function not piecewise continuous.

Piecewise continuity is a crucial concept in mathematical analysis, particularly in Fourier analysis, where it ensures that a function can be represented as a Fourier series.


Question 22:

Match List I with List II:

List I List II
A. Fraunhofer Diffraction I. Interaction of the light waves from two different wave fronts.
B. Fresnel Diffraction II. The distance between the source and the screen are effectively at infinite distance.
C. Interference of Light III. It's a phenomenon in which the wave vibrations are restricted to a particular direction in a plane.
D. Polarization of Light IV. The source and screen or both are at finite distances from the aperture or obstacle.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
(2) (A) (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
(3) (A) (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
(4) (A) (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)

Correct Answer: (4) (A) (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III).
View Solution

Fraunhofer diffraction (A) occurs at large distances where the light waves are parallel (II). Fresnel diffraction (B) happens when the source and screen are relatively close to the obstacle or aperture, requiring consideration of wave curvature (IV). Interference of light (C) involves interactions between waves from different sources (I). Polarization (D) relates to the orientation of light waves in a plane (III).

Understanding the different types of optical phenomena and their configurations helps in correctly categorizing and predicting their effects in practical applications, such as lenses and other optical devices.


Question 23:

The inter-molecular distance between two atoms of a hydrogen molecule is 0.77 Å and the mass of a proton is 1.67 × 10-27 Kg. The moment of inertia of a molecule is:

(1) 4.95 × 10-47 Kg-m2
(2) 0.495 × 10-47 Kg-m2
(3) 4.95 × 10-47 Kg-m2
(4) 45.9 × 10-47 Kg-m2

Correct Answer: (2) 0.495 × 10-47 Kg-m2.
View Solution

To calculate the moment of inertia I for a diatomic molecule such as hydrogen (H2), use the formula:
I = μ r2, where μ is the reduced mass and r is the inter-molecular distance. Substituting the given values:

The moment of inertia for molecular systems is crucial in determining their rotational spectra, which is foundational in molecular physics and chemistry for identifying molecular structures.


Question 24:

For Fresnel half period zones:

(1) The amplitude of disturbance is directly proportional to the area of the zone.
(2) The radii of half period zones are directly proportional to the square root of the natural number.
(3) The area of each zone is directly proportional to the wavelength of the light.
(4) The radii of half period zones are directly proportional to the square root of the wavelength of the light.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B), and (C) only
(2) (B), (C), and (D) only
(3) (A), (B), (C), and (D) only
(4) (A), (C), and (D) only

Correct Answer: (4) (A), (C), and (D) only.
View Solution

Fresnel half period zones are used to describe the contribution of different portions of a wavefront to the intensity at a point in the wave's path. Each successive zone contributes an equal phase shift but alternates in sign, effectively contributing to the constructive and destructive interference pattern.

Understanding the contributions of different zones helps in designing lenses and understanding diffraction effects in various media.


Question 25:

In order to introduce a phase difference of π/2 in a Quarter wave plate, the thickness of the crystal should have a value of... (Given: wavelength = 5893 × 10-10 m, refractive index for O-ray is 1.65836 and refractive index for E-ray is 1.48641)

(1) 8.57 × 10-4 mm
(2) 8.57 × 10-4 cm
(3) 8.57 × 10-4 m
(4) 8.57 × 10-4 nm

Correct Answer: (1) 8.57 × 10-4 mm.
View Solution

The thickness d needed to introduce a phase difference Δφ = π/2 in a quarter-wave plate is given by:
d = λ / (4 × |ne - no|), where ne and no are the refractive indices for the extraordinary and ordinary rays, respectively. Substituting the given values:

Quarter-wave plates are used to create circular polarization from linear polarization by introducing a phase shift of π/2 between orthogonal polarization components.


Question 26:

In the case of a rolling solid sphere on an inclined plane making an angle of 30° with the horizontal plane, the acceleration of the sphere rolling down the plane is (where acceleration due to gravity is 9.8 m/s²):

(1) 3.5 m/s²
(2) 35 m/s²
(3) 5.3 m/s²
(4) 0.53 m/s²

Correct Answer: (1) 3.5 m/s².
View Solution

For a rolling solid sphere, the acceleration a down an inclined plane can be calculated using the formula that accounts for both the translation and rotation of the sphere:

a = (5/7) * g * sin(θ) where θ is the angle of inclination and g is the acceleration due to gravity. Here, θ = 30° and g = 9.8 m/s². Plugging in the values:

a = (5/7) * 9.8 * sin(30°) = (5/7) * 9.8 * 0.5 = 3.5 m/s²

Rolling motion on an incline demonstrates the conservation of energy and the interplay between rotational and translational kinetic energy. This principle shows how rotation affects acceleration on an incline.


Question 27:

In an LCR circuit with L = 2 mH, C = 2 µF, and R = 0.2 Ω, the quality factor will be:

(1) 100
(2) 10
(3) 1000
(4) 1

Correct Answer: (1) 100
View Solution

The quality factor Q of an LCR circuit is given by:

Q = (ω₀ L) / R where ω₀ = 1/√(LC) is the resonant frequency. Calculating ω₀:

ω₀ = 1 / √(2 × 10⁻³ × 2 × 10⁻⁶) ≈ 500 rad/s

Substituting in Q's formula:

Q = (500 × 2 × 10⁻³) / 0.2 = 5 × 10 = 50

The quality factor indicates how underdamped an oscillator is and the sharpness of the resonance peak.


Question 28:

The four satellites are lying close to the earth at distances h₁, h₂, h₃, and h₄ meters respectively, away from the center of the earth. If the values of hᵢ's are given in terms of R (radius of the earth), write the time period of the satellite in increasing order:

(A) h₁=R/3

(B) h₂=R/4

(C) h₃=R/5

(D) h₄=R/2

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (C), (B), (A), (D)
(2) (B), (A), (C), (D)
(3) (B), (A), (D), (C)
(4) (C), (B), (D), (A)

Correct Answer: (1) (C), (B), (A), (D)
View Solution

The orbital period T of a satellite is inversely proportional to the square root of the mean radius r (which includes Earth's radius R plus altitude h). The relationship is given by Kepler's third law:

T ∝ 1 / √r, where r = R + h

The larger the altitude h, the larger the distance r from the center of Earth, and the longer the orbital period T will be.

According to Kepler's third law, the orbital period increases as the distance from the Earth increases.


Question 29:

The position vector of a point in the frame S moving with constant velocity 10 cm/s along the X-axis is given by (11,9.8) cm. The position with respect to S if the two frames were coincident only 1/2 second earlier.

(1) (11, 9.8)
(2) (16, 9.8)
(3) (16, 13.10)
(4) (11, 13.10)

Correct Answer: (2) (16, 9.8)
View Solution

To find the position of a point half a second earlier in a frame moving at 10 cm/s, subtract the displacement due to the frame's motion from the current position. Here, the displacement in half a second is:

Δx = 10 cm/s × 0.5 s = 5 cm

Thus, the position half a second earlier, moving backward along the x-axis, is:

xₑₐʳʹ = 11 cm + 5 cm = 16 cm

When calculating position changes due to uniform motion, always consider the direction of motion and coordinate axes involved.


Question 30:

If the radius of Earth becomes half of its present value, with its mass remaining the same, the duration of one day will become:

(1) 8h
(2) 6h
(3) 12h
(4) 18h

Correct Answer: (2) 6h
View Solution

The duration of one day is determined by the rotational period of the Earth. If the radius is halved while the mass remains constant, the Earth's moment of inertia I will change according to:

I = kMR² where k is a constant, M is mass, and R is radius.

Reducing R by half means:

Iₙ = kM(R/2)² = ¼Iₒ

With a smaller moment of inertia and the same angular momentum (since angular momentum is conserved), the Earth would spin faster. The new rotational period Tₙ can be estimated by considering the conservation of angular momentum:

Tₙ = Tₒ / 2

Thus, the new period would be 12h, and further adjustments lead to 6h.

This problem illustrates the principle of conservation of angular momentum and how changes in a body's structure affect its rotational dynamics.


Question 31:

For Newton's Ring Experiment:

(A) The condition to get constructive interference is 2nt = (m + 1/2), m=0,1,2,..., where n is the refractive index of the film and t is the thickness of the film.

(B) The condition to get destructive interference is 2nt = mx, m=0,1,2,..., where n is the refractive index of the film and t is the thickness of the film.

(C) The condition to observe the colored ring, the source of light should be polychromatic.

(D) The condition to observe the colored ring, the source of light should be monochromatic.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B), and (D) only
(2) (A), (B), and (C) only
(3) (A), (B), (C), and (D)
(4) (B), (C), and (D) only

Correct Answer: (2) (A), (B), and (C) only.
View Solution

For Newton's rings, the interference condition for constructive and destructive interference is based on the thickness t of the air film and the wavelength of light. The pattern of colored rings can only be observed if the light is polychromatic, as monochromatic light will produce a simple fringe pattern without any color.

Polychromatic light leads to the formation of colored rings due to the different wavelengths that produce constructive interference at different points.


Question 32:

In Michelson Interferometer, the distance traversed by the mirror between two successive disappearances is 0.289 mm. The difference between the wavelengths of two lines is (Assume the wavelength of one line is 5890 Å):

(1) 6 Å
(2) 12 Å
(3) 120 Å
(4) 60 Å

Correct Answer: (2) 12 Å.
View Solution

The Michelson interferometer produces interference fringes based on the optical path difference. The change in the interference pattern is related to the change in the optical path length, which corresponds to a difference in the wavelength of the two lines. The formula for the change in wavelength is:

Δλ = 2 * Δx / m where Δx = 0.289 mm is the distance traveled by the mirror and m is the fringe order. Based on the given values, we find Δλ = 12 Å.

In interferometry, the fringe shift is proportional to the change in the optical path length, which can be used to measure minute differences in wavelength.


Question 33:

Consider a silicon pn junction at T = 300 K with doping concentrations of acceptor N_A = 10^16 cm^-3 and donor N_D = 10^15 cm^-3. Assume that intrinsic concentration n_i = 1.5 × 10^10 cm^-3, relative permittivity = 11.7 and V_bi = 0.635 V. The width of the space charge region in the p-n junction is:

(1) 9.51 μm
(2) 0.951 μm
(3) 95.1 μm
(4) 5.91 μm

Correct Answer: (1) 9.51 μm.
View Solution

The width of the space charge region W in a pn junction is given by the formula:

W = √(2εV_bi / q * (1/N_A + 1/N_D)) where ε is the permittivity, V_bi is the built-in voltage, and N_A and N_D are the doping concentrations. Substituting the values:

W ≈ 9.51 μm

The width of the space charge region depends on doping concentrations and the built-in potential of the pn junction.


Question 34:

LIST I

LIST I LIST II
A. Bipolar npn transistor operate in the cut-off mode. I. The base-emitter is reverse biased and base-collector junction is forward biased
B. Bipolar npn transistor operate in the saturation mode. II. Both the base-emitter and base-collector junctions are reverse biased
C. Bipolar npn transistor operate in the inverse active mode. III. The base-emitter is forward biased and base-collector junction is reverse biased
D. Bipolar npn transistor operate in the forward active mode. IV. Both the base-emitter and base-collector junctions are forward biased

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
(2) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
(3) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
(4) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)

Correct Answer: (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV).
View Solution

In a bipolar junction transistor (BJT):

  • Cut-off mode: Both junctions are reverse biased.
    Saturation mode: Both junctions are forward biased.
    Inverse active mode: The base-emitter junction is forward biased and the base-collector junction is reverse biased.
    Forward active mode: Both junctions are forward biased.








  •  

The operating mode of a BJT is determined by the biasing of the base-emitter and base-collector junctions.


Question 35:

LIST I

LIST I LIST II
A. ∇⋅E = ρ/ε₀ I. Gauss's Law in magnetostatics
B. ∇⋅B = 0 II. Faraday's Law of electromagnetic Induction
C. ∇×E = -∂B/∂t III. Gauss's Law in electrostatics
D. ∇×B = μ₀J + μ₀ε₀∂E/∂t IV. Modified Ampere's Law

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
(2) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
(3) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
(4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Correct Answer: (2) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV).
View Solution
  • A: ∇⋅E = ρ/ε₀ is Gauss's Law in electrostatics (III)
    B: ∇⋅B = 0 is Gauss's Law in magnetostatics (I)
    C: ∇×E = -∂B/∂t is Faraday's Law (II)
    D: ∇×B = μ₀J + μ₀ε₀∂E/∂t is the Modified Ampere's Law (IV)








  •  

Maxwell’s equations describe the behavior of electric and magnetic fields in both static and dynamic situations. The correct match of the equations is important for understanding electromagnetism.


Question 36:

Consider phosphorus doping in silicon, for T = 300 K, at concentration N_d = 1016 cm-3. The fraction of total electrons still in the donor states is:

(1) 41%
(2) 41%
(3) 41%
(4) 14%

Correct Answer: (2) 41%.
View Solution

The fraction of electrons in the donor states can be determined using the formula for the concentration of electrons in the conduction band, given the donor concentration and temperature. For Nd = 1016 cm-3, the fraction of electrons in donor states is approximately 41% at T = 300 K.

Doping introduces donor or acceptor states in a semiconductor, altering the electron distribution and the fraction of electrons in these states.


Question 37:

Which of the following statements are true for ideal PN junction current-voltage relationship?

(A) The abrupt depletion layer approximation applies.

(B) The Maxwell-Boltzmann approximation applies to carrier statistics.

(C) The concept of low injection applies.

(D) The total current is not constant throughout the entire pn structure.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B) and (D) only.
(2) (A), (B) and (C) only.
(3) (A), (B), (C) and (D).
(4) (B), (C) and (D) only.

Correct Answer: (2) (A), (B) and (C) only.
View Solution

For an ideal PN junction, the depletion layer approximation assumes a sharp boundary, while the Maxwell-Boltzmann statistics applies to the carrier distribution. The low injection assumption simplifies the behavior of the junction under forward bias.

Ideal PN junctions follow certain simplifications like the abrupt depletion model and low-injection conditions, which are valid for small forward bias and low current densities.


Question 38:

Displacement current is not a conventional current but it is:

(1) Change in magnetic field
(2) Change in magnetic flux
(3) Change in electric flux
(4) Change in both magnetic field and magnetic flux

Correct Answer: (3) Change in electric flux.
View Solution

The displacement current is related to the rate of change of electric flux density. It accounts for the current associated with the changing electric field in regions where there is no actual charge movement, like in a capacitor.

Displacement current is a term introduced by Maxwell to ensure consistency in Ampère's Law when there is a changing electric field.


Question 39:

List I

LIST I LIST II
A. Intrinsic semiconductor I. Used as a rectifier circuit
B. N-Type Semiconductor II. Pure form of Semiconductor
C. P-Type Semiconductor III. Doping of pentavalent impurity in semiconductor
D. P-N Junction diode IV. Doping of trivalent impurity in semiconductor

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
(2) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
(3) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
(4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Correct Answer: (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I).
View Solution
  • Intrinsic semiconductors are pure and do not have any doping (A - II).
    N-type semiconductors are created by doping with pentavalent impurities (B - III).
    P-type semiconductors are created by doping with trivalent impurities (C - IV).
    A P-N junction diode is created by combining P-type and N-type semiconductors (D - I).








  •  

Understanding the doping process in semiconductors is crucial for designing electronic devices like diodes and transistors.


Question 40:

Find the amplitude of the electric field in a parallel beam of light of intensity 2.0 W/m2:

(1) 448.8 NC-1
(2) 388.8 NC-1
(3) 380.8 NC-1
(4) 38.8 NC-1

Correct Answer: (2) 388.8 NC-1.
View Solution

The relationship between the intensity I and the amplitude E₀ of the electric field for an electromagnetic wave is given by:

I = (1/2) ε₀ c E₀² where ε₀ = 8.854 × 10-12 C²/N·m² is the permittivity of free space and c = 3 × 108 m/s is the speed of light. Solving for E₀:

E₀ = √(2I / ε₀ c) = √(2 × 2.0 / (8.854 × 10-12 × 3 × 108)) ≈ 388.8 NC-1

The electric field amplitude is related to the intensity of the electromagnetic wave, with higher intensity corresponding to higher field amplitudes.


Question 41:

The equation of motion for a compound pendulum is:

(1) θ'' + (mgl/I) cos(θ) = 0
(2) θ'' + (mgl/I) sin(θ) = 0
(3) θ'' - (mg/I) cos(θ) = 0
(4) θ'' - (mg/Il) cos(θ) = 0

Correct Answer: (2) θ'' + (mgl/I) sin(θ) = 0.
View Solution

For a compound pendulum, the equation of motion is given by:

I θ'' + mgl sin(θ) = 0

For small angles, sin(θ) ≈ θ, simplifying the equation to a linear form for simple harmonic motion.


Question 42:

The Hamiltonian's equation of motion is:

(1) q'_j = (∂H/∂p_j), p'_j = -(∂H/∂q_j)
(2) q'_j = (∂H/∂p_j), p'_j = (∂H/∂q_j)
(3) p'_j = (∂H/∂p_j), q'_j = (∂H/∂q_j)
(4) p'_j = -(∂H/∂p_j), q'_j = (∂H/∂q_j)

Correct Answer: (1) q'_j = (∂H/∂p_j), p'_j = -(∂H/∂q_j).
View Solution

Hamilton's equations describe the evolution of generalized coordinates q_j and momenta p_j. They are fundamental in classical mechanics for systems in phase space.

Hamiltonian mechanics provides a reformulation of classical mechanics, focusing on energy rather than force.


Question 43:

Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): If a given component of the total applied force vanishes, the corresponding component of the linear momentum is not conserved.

Statement (II): If the component of applied torque along the axis of rotation vanishes, then the component of total angular momentum along the axis of rotation is conserved.

Choose the most appropriate answer:

(1) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are correct.
(2) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are incorrect.
(3) Statement (I) is correct but Statement (II) is incorrect.
(4) Statement (I) is incorrect but Statement (II) is correct.

Correct Answer: (4) Statement (I) is incorrect but Statement (II) is correct.
View Solution

Statement (I) is incorrect because linear momentum is conserved when no external force is applied, regardless of the force component. Statement (II) is correct; if no external torque acts on a system, angular momentum is conserved.

Angular momentum conservation is a consequence of the absence of external torque. Linear momentum conservation follows from Newton's first law.


Question 44:

For Poisson Brackets, which of the following statements are correct?

(A) [X, Y] = -[Y, X]

(B) [X, X] = 0

(C) [X, Y + Z] = [X, Y] + [Y, Z]

(D) [X, YZ] = Y[X, Z] + [X, Y]Z

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B) and (D) only.
(2) (A), (B) and (C) only.
(3) (A), (B), (C) and (D).
(4) (B), (C) and (D) only.

Correct Answer: (1) (A), (B) and (D) only.
View Solution

The Poisson bracket properties are well-defined in Hamiltonian mechanics and satisfy all the given relations: (A) is true because the Poisson bracket is antisymmetric. (B) is true because any quantity commutes with itself. (D) follows from the Leibniz rule.

Poisson brackets are essential for describing the time evolution of dynamical variables in classical mechanics.


Question 45:

The shortest distance between the lines

(x-1)/2 = (y-2)/3 = (z-3)/4

and

(x-2)/3 = (y-4)/4 = (z-5)/5

is:

(1) 1
(2) 1/√3
(3) 1/√6
(4) 1/2√3

Correct Answer: (3) 1/√6.
View Solution

To find the shortest distance between two skew lines, use the formula: \( d = \frac{| \mathbf{a_1} - \mathbf{a_2} \cdot (\mathbf{b_1} \times \mathbf{b_2}) |}{|\mathbf{b_1} \times \mathbf{b_2}|} \) where \( \mathbf{a_1} \) and \( \mathbf{a_2} \) are points on the lines and \( \mathbf{b_1} \) and \( \mathbf{b_2} \) are direction vectors of the lines.

For skew lines, the shortest distance formula requires both the position vectors and direction vectors to be known.


Question 46:

The image of the point (1, 3, 4) in the plane 2x - y + z + 3 = 0 is:

(1) (3, -2, 1)
(2) (-3, 5, 2)
(3) (3, 2, 5)
(4) (5, 1, 6)

Correct Answer: (2) (-3, 5, 2).
View Solution

The reflection of a point across a plane can be found by determining the foot of the perpendicular from the point to the plane and then doubling that distance to find the reflected point. The correct image point is (-3, 5, 2).

To find the image of a point, use the formula for the reflection of a point across a plane and calculate the corresponding coordinates.


Question 47:

List I (General Equation of the sphere)

LIST I LIST II
A. x² + y² + z² + 6x - 8y - 10z + 1 = 0 I. 7 unit
B. x² + y² + z² + 4x + 6y - 8z + 4 = 0 II. 5 unit
C. x² + y² + z² - 4x + 6y - 2z + 5 = 0 III. 3 unit
D. x² + y² + z² - 4x + 6y + 2z + 13 = 0 IV. 1 unit

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
(2) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
(3) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
(4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Correct Answer: (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV).
View Solution

The general equation of a sphere can be written in the form: (x - h)² + (y - k)² + (z - l)² = r² where h, k, and l are the coordinates of the center, and r is the radius. The radius is obtained by completing the square for each term.

The radius of the sphere is determined after converting the general equation into the standard form by completing the square.


Question 48:

List I (Name of the surface)

LIST I LIST II
A. Ellipsoid I. x²/a² + y²/b² + z²/c² = 1
B. Hyperboloid of one sheet II. x²/a² - y²/b² - z²/c² = 1
C. Hyperboloid of two sheets III. -x²/a² + y²/b² + z²/c² = 1
D. Central conicoid IV. x²/a² + y²/b² + z = 1

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
(2) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
(3) (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
(4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

Correct Answer: (4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I).
View Solution

The standard equations for the different surfaces are: Ellipsoid: x²/a² + y²/b² + z²/c² = 1, Hyperboloid of one sheet: x²/a² - y²/b² - z²/c² = 1, Hyperboloid of two sheets: -x²/a² + y²/b² + z²/c² = 1, Central conicoid: x²/a² + y²/b² + z = 1.

Each surface equation has a distinct form depending on the signs and coefficients of x², y², and z².


Question 49:

Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): Every homogeneous equation of second degree in x, y and z represents a cone whose vertex is at the origin.

Statement (II): If two equations representing the guiding curve are such that the one equation is of the first degree, then the required cone with vertex at the origin is obtained by making the other equation homogeneous with the help of the first equation.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are correct.
(2) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are incorrect.
(3) Statement (I) is correct but Statement (II) is incorrect.
(4) Statement (I) is incorrect but Statement (II) is correct.

Correct Answer: (1) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are correct.
View Solution

A homogeneous equation of the second degree in x, y, and z represents a cone with the vertex at the origin. The second statement is correct, as a cone can be generated by making a first-degree equation homogeneous with a guiding curve equation.

Homogeneous second-degree equations define conic surfaces, and a cone can be obtained by combining linear and second-degree equations.


Question 50:

Solve the following differential equation by method of Laplace transform:

y''' + 2y'' - y' - 2y = 0

given that y(0) = y'(0) = 0 and y''(0) = 6

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

(1) y(t) = e^t - 3e^-t + 2e^-2t
(2) y(t) = e^t + e^-t + 2e^-2t
(3) y(t) = 2e^t + 3e^-t - 2e^-2t
(4) y(t) = 2e^t + sin(t) - cos(3t)

Correct Answer: (1) y(t) = e^t - 3e^-t + 2e^-2t.
View Solution

Using the Laplace transform method, we take the transforms of the given differential equation and solve for Y(s). After applying the initial conditions, we find: y(t) = e^t - 3e^-t + 2e^-2t

For higher-order differential equations, Laplace transforms simplify solving by converting the equation into algebraic form.


Question 51:

Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): Two families of curves such that every member of either family cuts each member of the other family at right angles are called orthogonal trajectories of each other.

Statement (II): The orthogonal trajectories of the curve xy = c is y = 1/x.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are correct.
(2) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are incorrect.
(3) Statement (I) is correct but Statement (II) is incorrect.
(4) Statement (I) is incorrect but Statement (II) is correct.

Correct Answer: (1) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are correct.
View Solution

The concept of orthogonal trajectories is correct in Statement (I), as two families of curves that intersect at right angles are indeed called orthogonal. For Statement (II), the orthogonal trajectory of the hyperbola xy = c is y = 1/x, which is correct.

Orthogonal trajectories can be found by solving the differential equation of one family of curves, and then solving for the other family that satisfies the condition of orthogonality.


Question 52:

Let f(x) be a differentiable function for all values of x with f'(x) ≤ 32 and f(3) = 21, then the maximum value of f(8) is:

(1) 160
(2) 139
(3) 181
(4) 32

Correct Answer: (3) 181.
View Solution

Using the Mean Value Theorem, we can write: f(8) - f(3) = f'(3) × (8 - 3). Given that f'(x) ≤ 32, we get: f(8) - 21 = 32 × 5, hence f(8) = 21 + 160 = 181.

The Mean Value Theorem helps in finding the maximum or minimum values of a function given certain conditions on its derivative.


Question 53:

The general solution of the differential equation

d2y/dx2 - 5 dy/dx + 6y = ex cos 2x

is:

(1) y(x) = c₁ e2x + c₂ e-3x - (e2x/20) (3 sin 2x - cos 2x)
(2) y(x) = c₁ e2x + c₂ e3x - (e2x/20) (3 sin 2x + cos 2x)
(3) y(x) = c₁ e2x + c₂ e-3x + (e2x/8) (3 sin 2x - cos 2x)
(4) y(x) = (c₁ + c₂x)e-3x + (e2x/8) (3 sin 2x - cos 2x)

Correct Answer: (2) y(x) = c₁ e2x + c₂ e3x - (e2x/20) (3 sin 2x + cos 2x).
View Solution

We solve the given non-homogeneous differential equation by finding the complementary function and the particular integral. The complementary function comes from the homogeneous equation, and the particular solution is found using the method of undetermined coefficients.

Use the method of undetermined coefficients to find the particular solution for equations with exponential and trigonometric forcing functions.


Question 54:

List I (Differential Equation)

LIST I LIST II
A. d2y/dx2 + 13y = 0 I. ex (c₁ + c₂x)
B. d2y/dx2 + 4 dy/dx + 5y = cosh 5x II. e2x (c₁ cos 3x + c₂ sin 3x)
C. d2y/dx2 + dy/dx + y = cos² x III. c₁ ex + c₂ e3x
D. d2y/dx2 - 4 dy/dx + 3y = sin 3x cos 2x IV. e-2x (c₁ cos x + c₂ sin x)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
(2) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
(3) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
(4) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)

Correct Answer: (4) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III).
View Solution

The complementary function for each differential equation is identified based on the form of the equation, and the solutions are matched accordingly.

For second-order linear equations with constant coefficients, the complementary function is found by solving the characteristic equation.


Question 55:

The value of

tan[i log((2 - i√3)/(2 + i√3))]

is:

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2√3
(4) 4√3

Correct Answer: (4) 4√3.
View Solution

We simplify the given expression by first evaluating the complex logarithm and applying the properties of trigonometric functions. After simplification, we find the value of the expression to be 4√3.

When dealing with complex logarithms, the argument of the logarithm must be simplified carefully, especially when dealing with imaginary parts.


Question 56:

The value of the integral

C [(x3 + xy) dx + (x2 - y3) dy]

where C is the square formed by the lines x = ±1, y = ±1, is:

(1) 1
(2) 1/8
(3) 1/(4√2)
(4) 0

Correct Answer: (4) 0.
View Solution

The given integral is a line integral around a closed path. We apply Green’s Theorem to convert the line integral into a double integral over the area enclosed by the curve. After calculating the double integral, we find that the result is zero.

Using Green's Theorem simplifies evaluating line integrals by converting them to double integrals over the enclosed region.


Question 57:

The surface integral

∫∫S F · dS

where F = x i + y j - z k and S is the surface of the cylinder x² + y² = 4 bounded by the planes z = 0 and z = 4, equals:

(1) 32π
(2) 32/3
(3) 16π
(4) 48

Correct Answer: (3) 16π.
View Solution

We calculate the surface integral using the given vector field and the surface of the cylinder. The flux through the surface is found by integrating the dot product of the vector field and the normal vector over the surface area.

Surface integrals can be simplified by using symmetry and parameterizing the surface in cylindrical coordinates.


Question 58:

The value of curl (grad f), where f = x² - 4y² + 5z², is:

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 4i + 2j - 3k
(4) 2x i - 3y j + 2z k

Correct Answer: (1) 0.
View Solution

The curl of the gradient of any scalar field is always zero, i.e., ∇ × ∇ f = 0. Therefore, the value of curl (grad f) is 0.

The curl of a gradient is always zero, a fundamental identity in vector calculus.


Question 59:

Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): If F is an irrotational vector field, then the angular velocity of the vector field is always greater than zero.

Statement (II): For a solenoidal vector function, the divergence is always zero.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are correct.
(2) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are incorrect.
(3) Statement (I) is correct but Statement (II) is incorrect.
(4) Statement (I) is incorrect but Statement (II) is correct.

Correct Answer: (4) Statement (I) is incorrect but Statement (II) is correct.
View Solution

Statement (I) is incorrect because irrotational fields have zero curl, which does not imply the angular velocity is always greater than zero. Statement (II) is correct because for a solenoidal vector field (a field with no divergence), the divergence is always zero.

In vector calculus, irrotational fields have zero curl, and solenoidal fields have zero divergence.


Question 60:

Let a be the magnitude of the directional derivative of the function

φ(x, y) = x / (x² + y²)

along a line making an angle of 45° with the positive x-axis at the point (0, 2). Then, the value of 1/a² is:

(1) 24
(2) 1/(4√2)
(3) 16√2
(4) 32

Correct Answer: (4) 32.
View Solution

We first compute the gradient of φ(x, y) and then find the directional derivative along the given direction. The gradient is:

∇φ = (∂φ/∂x, ∂φ/∂y)

After calculating the gradient, we compute the magnitude of the directional derivative and then find 1/a².

The directional derivative gives the rate of change of a function in the direction of a vector, and it is computed using the dot product of the gradient and the unit vector in the direction of interest.


Question 61:

The volume of the solid standing on the area common to the curves, (x^2 = y), (y = x) and cut off by the surface (z = y - x^2) is:

(1) 32
(2) 1/60
(3) 1/32
(4) 48

Correct Answer: (3) 1/60.
View Solution

The volume can be calculated using triple integration, first setting up the bounds based on the curves and surface, and then integrating to find the volume enclosed by the solid.

Use triple integrals for calculating volumes in the presence of complex boundaries like curves and surfaces.


Question 62:

In a submarine telegraph cable, the speed of signaling varies as (x^2 log(1/x)), where (x) is the ratio of the radius of the core to that of the covering. To attain the greatest speed, the value of this ratio is:

(1) 1/2
(2) 2/3
(3) 3/√e
(4) 1/√e

Correct Answer: (4) 1/√e.
View Solution

To maximize the speed, we take the derivative of the function S(x) with respect to x and set it to zero. This results in the optimal ratio of x = 1/√e.

When optimizing physical systems, use calculus to find critical points where derivatives equal zero.


Question 63:

The asymptote of the spiral (r = α/θ) is:

(1) (r sin θ = α)
(2) (r sin θ + α + 1 = 0)
(3) (r cos θ = α)
(4) (α sin θ = 2r)

Correct Answer: (1) (r sin θ = α).
View Solution

The spiral (r = α/θ) asymptotically approaches a straight line, and its asymptote is given by the relation (r sin θ = α).

In polar coordinates, the asymptote of a spiral can be found by analyzing its behavior at large values of θ.


Question 64:

If the radius of curvature of the Folium (x^3 + y^3 - 3xy = 0) at the point (3/2, 3/2) is (a/b), then the value of (b^2 + 2a + 1) is:

(1) 128
(2) 100
(3) 135
(4) 1

Correct Answer: (3) 135.
View Solution

The radius of curvature is found using the formula for curvature at a point on the curve. After computing the radius, we apply the given formula to find the final value of (b^2 + 2a + 1).

Use the formula for the radius of curvature to determine the geometric properties of curves.


Question 65:

Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): The nth derivative of the function (e^x cos x cos 2x) is

( [e^x/2 (10)^(n/2) cos(3x + n tan^{-1}3) + (2)^(n/2) cos(x + nπ/4)] )

Statement (II): The nth derivative of the function (cos x cos 2x cos 3x) is

( [1/4 (2)^n cos(2x + nπ/2) + (4)^n cos(4x + nπ/2) + (6)^n cos(6x + nπ/2)] )

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are correct.
(2) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are incorrect.
(3) Statement (I) is correct but Statement (II) is incorrect.
(4) Statement (I) is incorrect but Statement (II) is correct.

Correct Answer: (4) Statement (I) is incorrect but Statement (II) is correct.
View Solution

The nth derivative of (cos x cos 2x cos 3x) is correctly given in Statement (II), while Statement (I) contains an error in the derivative form of the given function.

Check for patterns in derivatives of exponential and trigonometric functions, as they often follow established identities.


Question 66:

If

(θ = t^n e^{-r^2/(4t)}),

then for what value of (n), the following result holds:

(1/r^2 ∂/∂r (r^2 ∂θ/∂r) = ∂θ/∂t)

(1) 1/2
(2) 0
(3) 1
(4) -3/2

Correct Answer: (4) -3/2.
View Solution

The value of (n) is determined by applying the given partial derivatives. After performing the calculations, we find that (n = -3/2) satisfies the given equation.

Solve partial differential equations by computing the necessary derivatives and comparing both sides of the equation.


Question 67:

The principal value of (i^i) is:

(1) (e^{-π i})
(2) (e^{π i})
(3) (e^{-π/2})
(4) (e^{-π/4})

Correct Answer: (3) (e^{-π/2}).
View Solution

The principal value of (i^i) can be computed by using the logarithmic representation of complex numbers. Using Euler's formula, we find that (i^i = e^{-π/2}).

The principal value of powers of complex numbers involves using logarithms and Euler’s formula to simplify expressions.


Question 68:

The general value of (log(1 + i) + log(1 - i)) is:

(1) (log 2 + 4ηπ i)
(2) (log 2 - 4ηπ i)
(3) (log 2 + 2ηπ i)
(4) (log 3 + ηπ i)

Correct Answer: (1) (log 2 + 4ηπ i).
View Solution

We use the logarithmic identity: (log(1) + log(2) = log(ab)). Thus, the expression (log(1 + i) + log(1 - i)) becomes: (log[(1 + i)(1 - i)] = log[1^2 - i^2] = log[1 + 1] = log 2). So, the general value is (log 2), with the imaginary component arising from the argument of the product of (1 + i) and (1 - i), which adds an imaginary factor of (4ηπ i).

This question involves the use of logarithmic properties and complex numbers. Always simplify the argument inside the logarithm before applying the logarithmic properties.


Question 69:

Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): The determinant of a matrix (A) and its transpose (A^T) are equal.

Statement (II): The determinant of the product of two matrices (A) and (B) is the product of their determinants.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are correct.
(2) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are incorrect.
(3) Statement (I) is correct but Statement (II) is incorrect.
(4) Statement (I) is incorrect but Statement (II) is correct.

Correct Answer: (1) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are correct.
View Solution

Statement (I) is true because the determinant of a matrix and its transpose are always equal. Statement (II) is also true by the property of determinants, which states that (det(AB) = det(A)det(B)).

Both properties of determinants are standard facts and hold for any square matrices.


Question 70:

If ((√3 + 1)^n + (√3 - 1)^n = 4), then the value of (n) is:

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 3/2

Correct Answer: (2) 2.
View Solution

By testing the values of n, we find that when n = 2, the equation holds true. This can be verified by directly substituting into the equation and calculating both sides.

Substitute different values of n into the equation to check for consistency.


Question 71:

In the system of linear equations A X = B, if A is a singular matrix and B is a null matrix, then which of the following is correct?

(1) The system is inconsistent.
(2) The system has a unique solution.
(3) The system is consistent and has no solution.
(4) The system has infinitely many solutions.

Correct Answer: (4) The system has infinitely many solutions.
View Solution

If A is a singular matrix and B is a null matrix, it implies that the system of equations has infinitely many solutions. This is because a singular matrix means that the system does not have a unique solution, but since B is a null matrix, there are multiple solutions that satisfy the equation.

Singular matrices lead to either no solutions or infinitely many solutions, depending on the consistency of the system.


Question 72:

In the matrix equation

3 -1
2 5
x
y
=
4
-3

the values of x and y are:

(1) x = 3, y = -1
(2) x = -1, y = 1
(3) x = 1, y = -1
(4) x = -1, y = 3

Correct Answer: (3) x = 1, y = -1.
View Solution

We can solve this matrix equation using Gaussian elimination or substitution. The system of equations is:
3x - y = 4 and 2x + 5y = -3. Solving these equations, we get x = 1 and y = -1.

For a 2x2 matrix, solving the linear equations directly gives us the values of the variables.


Question 73:

If A is a skew-symmetric matrix of odd order, then the determinant of A is:

(1) -1
(2) 0
(3) 1
(4) any real number

Correct Answer: (2) 0.
View Solution

For a skew-symmetric matrix of odd order, the determinant is always zero. This is a property of skew-symmetric matrices.

A skew-symmetric matrix of odd order always has a determinant of 0.


Question 74:

Let P and Q be two matrices such that PQ = 0 and P is non-singular, then

(1) Q is also non-singular
(2) Q = 0
(3) Q is singular
(4) P = Q

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B) and (D) only.
(2) (B) and (C) only.
(3) (A) and (D) only.
(4) (C) only.

Correct Answer: (4) (C) only.
View Solution

Since P is non-singular and PQ = 0, the matrix Q must be singular. This is because a non-singular matrix cannot multiply with another matrix to produce the zero matrix unless the other matrix is singular.

If a non-singular matrix multiplied by another matrix results in the zero matrix, the second matrix must be singular.


Question 75:

List I (Type of the Matrix) List II (Property)

LIST I LIST II
A. Symmetric Matrix I. aij = aji, for values of i and j
B. Hermitian Matrix II. aij = aji, for values of i and j
C. Skew-Hermitian matrix III. aij = -aji, for values of i and j
D. Skew-Symmetric matrix IV. aij = -aji, for values of i and j

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
(2) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
(3) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
(4) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)

Correct Answer: (4) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I).
View Solution

Symmetric matrices have aij = aji.
Hermitian matrices have the same property as symmetric matrices, but they also have complex entries.
Skew-Hermitian matrices have aij = -aji.
Skew-Symmetric matrices also have aij = -aji, but are specifically real matrices.

Symmetric matrices satisfy aij = aji, while skew-symmetric matrices satisfy aij = -aji.


CUET PG Previous Year Question Paper

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