AP EAPCET (AP EAMCET) 2025 Question Paper May 20 Shift 2: Download BiPC Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

Identify the universal rules of nomenclature among the following


A) Biological names are in Latin and written in italics.

B) The first word to start with small letter for genus.

C) The specific epithet to start with small letter.

D) Each organism name will have two components.

• (1) A, B, C
• (2) B, C, D
• (3) A, C, D
• (4) A, B, D

Choose the correct statements among the following


I) Pasteur given the name virus.

II) Lichen are good pollution indicators.

III) Three Domain groups were originated from progenote.

IV) Chrysophytes belongs to Monera.

• (1) I, II, III
• (2) II, III, IV
• (3) I, III, IV
• (4) I, II, IV

Match the following
List - A                                               List - B
A. C₄ Photosynthesis                    I. Camerarius
B. Plant tissue culture                   II. Conrat
C. Genetic nature of RNA              III. Shimakura
D. Sexual reproduction in plants  IV. V.S. Rama Das

• (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
• (2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
• (3) A-II, B-III, C-III, D-I
• (4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

Choose the correct statements among the following


I. Diplo haplontic life cycle can be seen in Bryophyte.

II. In Volvox, meiosis in zygote results in haploid spore.

III. Cycas has siphonogamous oogamy.

IV. Mycorrhizal association can be seen in Cycas roots.

• (1) I and II
• (2) II and III
• (3) I and III
• (4) III and IV

Assertion (A): In Nepenthes, the upper petiole is modified as tendril and lower petiole as phyllode and middle lamina as pitcher.

Reason (R): This is to trap insects for their nitrogen requirement.

Identify the correct option from the following

• (1) (A) and (R) are true. (R) is correct explanation for (A)
• (2) (A) and (R) are true. (R) is not correct explanation for (A)
• (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
• (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Match the following
List - A                                                                       List - B  
A.   Acropetal, sessile flowers                                I.  Compound Racemose
B.  Three flowered cyme                                         II.   Achyranthus
C.  Panicle                                                                III.   Hypanthodium
D.  Unisexual flowers with irregular arrangement   IV. & Cymele

• (1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
• (2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
• (3) A-IV, B-I, C-I, D-III
• (4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

Assertion (A): External fertilization occurs in Angiosperms.

Reason (R): In internal fertilization organisms, egg is formed inside female body.

Identify the correct option from the following

• (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is correct explanation of (A)
• (2) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
• (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
• (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Choose the correct statements among the following


I. Exine exhibits an array of patterns and designs.

II. Tapetum layers of microsporangium will be useful for the dehiscence.

III. The intine wall of pollengrains is made up cellulose and pectin.

IV. By wall formation, 8 celled embryo sac is developed.

• (1) I and II
• (2) I and III
• (3) II and III
• (4) III and IV

Study the following list and match them

List - I                             List - II 
A.   Blue dye                  I.   Smilax zeylanica
B.   Sarasaparilla            II.  Butea monosperma
C.   Yellow dye                III.  Indigofera tinctoria
D.   Chemical Mutagen  IV.  Tephrosia purpurea
                                         V.  Colchicum autumnale

• (1) A-II, B-V, C-I, D-IV
• (2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-V
• (3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
• (4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-V

Choose the correct statements among the following


I. The longest cells are nerve cells.

II. Smaller DNA in the bacteria called genetic material.

III. Bacterial flagellum has filament, hook and basal body.

IV. In Bacteria, flagella are used to attach to the rock.

• (1) I and III
• (2) I and II
• (3) II and III
• (4) III and IV

Choose the correct statements among the following


A) Proteins synthesised by ribosomes are modified in the cisternae and are released from trans face.

B) Primary wall is the first formed layer of cell.

C) In potato aleuroplasts store carbohydrates.

D) In the presence of magnesium ions two subunits of ribosomes are associated with each other.

• (1) A, C
• (2) B, D
• (3) B, C
• (4) A, D

Choose the correct statements among the following


A) Cellulose does not contain complex helices.

B) In DNA one full turn of helical will have 3.6\AA\ rise for each base pair.

C) Aibrin is a toxin secondary metabolite.

D) By grinding tissues in perchloric acid, acid soluble fraction can be obtained.

• (1) A, B
• (2) C, D
• (3) A, C
• (4) B, D

Match the following

List - I                                                                         List - II   
A.   Recombination Nodules                                    I.   Anaphase - I
B.   Homologous Chromosomes separate             II.  Anaphase - II
C.   Interkinesis                                                         III.  Crossing over
D.  Splitting of centromere of each chromosome  IV. Stage between two meiotic divisions
 

• (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
• (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
• (3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
• (4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

Identify the wrongly matched one

• (1) Bicollateral vascular bundles – Solanum
• (2) Gymnosperms – Albuminous cells
• (3) Sclerenchymatous pericycle – Monocot stem
• (4) Bulliform cells – Isobilateral leaf

Choose the correct statements among the following


I. Epidermal cells have more cytoplasm and small vacuole.

II. Outer walls of guard cells are thick and inner walls are thin.

III. Presence of phloem on either side of xylem is seen in bicollateral vascular bundles.

IV. Trichomes of shoot system are multicellular.

• (1) I and II
• (2) II and III
• (3) III and IV
• (4) I and IV

Each annual ring in dicot stem comprises

• (1) one ring of spring wood and one ring of early wood.
• (2) one ring of autumn wood and one ring of late wood.
• (3) one ring of spring wood and one ring of autumn wood.
• (4) one ring of spring wood only.

Choose the correct statements among the following


I) Many desert plants show CAM photosynthesis.

II) Rotation of planet on its axis causes seasonal changes.

III) Ecology is concerned with the changes in the environmental conditions.

IV) Mechanical tissues are well developed in submerged water plants.

• (1) I and II
• (2) III and IV
• (3) II and III
• (4) I and IV

Assertion (A): Natural ecosystems perform fundamental life support services, without life would cease.

Reason (R): The dependence on the ecosystems is poorly understood and they can provide life enhancing services.

• (1) Both (A) and (R) are true. (R) is correct explanation of (A)
• (2) Both (A) and (R) are true. (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
• (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
• (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Choose the incorrect statement among the following

• (1) Evolution of C\textsubscript{4} photosynthesis system is the strategy of maximising the availability of CO\textsubscript{2} while minimizing the water loss.
• (2) In Succulent plants water potential gradient established due to accumulation of organic acids at night.
• (3) During night time guard cells become flaccid in Succulent plants.
• (4) Light is necessary for accumulation of K\textsuperscript{+} ions into the guard cells from subsidiary cells.

Shrinkage of protoplast due to diffusion of water from the cell into the surroundings.

• (1) Osmosis
• (2) Imbibition
• (3) Plasmolysis
• (4) Guttation

The correct sequence of essential elements K, Mg, Mo, P, C of the given list, which show following activities.

A) ATP synthesis
B) Component of enzymes
C) Enzyme activation
D) Turgidity maintenance

• (1) C, Mo, Mg, K
• (2) P, C, Mo, Mg
• (3) Mg, Mo, P, K
• (4) P, Mo, Mg, K

Match the following

List - A                    List - B  
A.   Mottled leaf   I.  Beets
B.  Heart-Rot       II.   Legumes
C.  Mouse ear     III.   Pecan
D.  Bronzing       IV. Cauliflower
                             V.  Citrus

• (1) A-V, B-I, C-III, D-II
• (2) A-V, B-III, C-IV, D-II
• (3) A-V, B-I, C-II, D-IV
• (4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-V

Match the following

List - A                   List - B 
A.   Hydrolases   I.  Argino succinase
B.   Lyase            II. Fructose 1,6 bisphosphatase
C.  Ligase           III.  Hexokinase
D.  Transferase   IV.   Ribose-5-phosphoisomerase
                             V.    Glutamine synthetase

• (1) A-II, B-V, C-I, D-III
• (2) A-II, B-I, C-V, D-III
• (3) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-V
• (4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-V

Choose the correct statements among the following


I. Joseph Priestley (1770): Showed that plants have the ability to take CO\textsubscript{2 from the atmosphere and release O\textsubscript{2.

II. Jan Ingenhousz (1779): Release of CO\textsubscript{2 by plants was possible only in night and only by the green parts of plants.

III. Julius Von Sachs (1884): Green parts in plants produce glucose which is stored as starch.

IV. C. Van Niel (1931): Photosynthesis is essentially a light dependent reaction in which hydrogen from an oxidizable compound reduces CO\textsubscript{2 to form carbohydrates.

• (1) I, II
• (2) I, III
• (3) III, IV
• (4) I, III and IV

Number of ATP and NADPH required to make one triose through Calvin cycle.

• (1) 6 ATP and 9 NADPH
• (2) 9 ATP and 12 NADPH
• (3) 18 ATP and 12 NADPH
• (4) 9 ATP and 6 NADPH

Choose the correct statements among the following


I) Fatty acids are broken down to acetyl CoA before entry into respiratory pathway.

II) The F\textsubscript{1 component of ATPase is integral membrane protein complex.

III) Hans Krebs elucidated the tricarboxylic acid cycle.

IV) All living organisms retain the enzymatic machinery to partially oxidise glucose.

• (1) I, III, IV
• (2) I, II, III
• (3) II, III, IV
• (4) I, IV, II

Plants following different pathways in response to the environmental or phases of life to form different kinds of structures.

• (1) Plasmatic growth
• (2) Plasticity
• (3) Dedifferentiation
• (4) Sigmoid growth

Pleomorphic bacteria

• (1) Acetobacter
• (2) Beggiatoa
• (3) Spirochaetes
• (4) Vibroid

Match the following

List - I                                                   List - II 
A. Complementary receptor site        I. Prions
B. Two identical molecules of RNA   II. Retroviridae
C.  Viral enzyme                                 III. Tail fibres
D. Proteinaceous infectious particle   IV.  Lysozyme

• (1) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
• (2) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
• (3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
• (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Choose the correct statement among the following

• (1) Heterozygous parent produces many types of gametes.
• (2) Homozygous parents produce similar type of gametes.
• (3) Heterozygous parents distribute two alleles into a gamete.
• (4) In incomplete dominance F\textsubscript{1} hybrid resembles either of the parent phenotype.

Assertion (A): Genetic maps are extensively used as a starting point in the Human genome sequencing project.

Reason (R): Frequency of recombination between gene pairs on the same chromosome as the measure of distance between genes and mapped their position is called gene mapping.

• (1) (A) and (R) are true. (R) is correct explanation for (A)
• (2) (A) and (R) are true. But (R) is not correct explanation for (A)
• (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
• (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true

The scientist(s) identified the ratio between adenine and thymine and that between guanine and cytosine are constant and equal

• (1) Friedrich Meischer
• (2) Watson and Crick
• (3) Erwin Chargaff
• (4) Wilkins and Franklin

Choose the correct statement in the following

• (1) In Griffith’s transforming principle, digestion with DNase did inhibit transformation whereas proteases and RNase did not affect transformation.
• (2) Virus grown in radioactive sulphur contained radioactive protein and radioactive DNA.
• (3) Virus grown in radioactive phosphorous contain radioactive protein and non-radioactive DNA.
• (4) Mice infected R strain die from pneumonia, but mice infected from S strain do not develop pneumonia.

Action of restriction enzyme leads to the formation of sticky ends in both vector DNA and Foreign DNA because of


I. Recognise palindromic nucleotide sequence.

II. Cut the strand of DNA a little away from the centre of palindrome site.

III. Help to form complementary cut counter parts.

• (1) I only
• (2) II only
• (3) I and II
• (4) I, II, III

Bond formed by DNA ligase

• (1) Hydrogen bond
• (2) Glycosidic bond
• (3) Phosphodiester bond
• (4) Peptide bond

Match the following

List - I                       List - II 
A. cry II Ab          I. Resistance to pest
B. cry I Ab          II. Control Bollworm
C. RNAi              III. Control corborer
D. Bt cotton       IV. Prevent nematode pathogen

• (1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
• (2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
• (3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
• (4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

Match the following

List - I (Transgenic Plant)  List - II (Resistance) 

A.   Papaya            I.   Phytophthora
B.  Bt cotton         II.   Ring spot virus
C.  Tomato            III.  Insect
D.  Potato             IV.  Pseudomonas
 

• (1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
• (2) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
• (3) A-IV, B-III, C-III, D-I
• (4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

Choose the correct statement among the following


I. Wheat \(\rightarrow\) Pusa komal \(\rightarrow\) hill bunt

II. Cauliflower \(\rightarrow\) Pusa Shubra \(\rightarrow\) Black rot

III. Chilli \(\rightarrow\) Pusa Sadabahar \(\rightarrow\) TMV

IV. Brassica \(\rightarrow\) Pusa Swarmin \(\rightarrow\) Bacterial blight

• (1) I and III
• (2) II and III
• (3) I and II
• (4) III and IV

Microorganism that improves nutritional quality of curd by increasing vitamin B\textsubscript{12}

• (1) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
• (2) Lactobacillus bacteria
• (3) Propionibacterium sharmanii
• (4) Penicillium notatum

Match the following

List - I                                              List - II 
A.  Enrich nutrient quality of soil  I.  Bioreactor
B.  Kill insect pest                          II.  Biogas
C. Decomposition of dung to produce gas  III.  Bio fertilizers
D.  Growth of large no. of microbes on Industrial scale  IV.  Bio pesticides

• (1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
• (2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
• (3) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
• (4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

Find the mismatched pair

• (1) In-situ conservation – National Park
• (2) Ex-situ conservation – Botanical garden
• (3) In-situ conservation – Seed bank
• (4) Ex-situ conservation – Cryopreservation

The species diversity between two adjacent ecosystems is

• (1) \(\alpha\)-diversity
• (2) \(\beta\)-diversity
• (3) \(\gamma\)-diversity
• (4) \(\delta\)-diversity

Assertion (A): In cellular level of organisation different types of cells are functionally isolated.

Reason (R): This is due to the absence of sensory cells and nerve cells.

• (1) (A) and (R) are true. (R) is correct explanation of (A)
• (2) (A) and (R) are true. (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
• (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
• (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Statement-I: Areolar tissue forms supporting framework for lymphoid organs.

Statement-II: Reticular tissue forms the packing tissue in almost all organs.

• (1) Both statements (I) and (II) are true
• (2) Both statements (I) and (II) are false
• (3) Statement-I is true, but statement-II is false
• (4) Statement-I is false, but statement-II is true

In these leucocytes, nucleus is kidney shaped.

• (1) Lymphocytes
• (2) Monocytes
• (3) Basophils
• (4) Neutrophils

The following are the names of larvae of certain phyla. Identify the larva(e) that belongs to Annelida.


I) Parenchymula

II) Planula

III) Miracidium

IV) Nauplius

V) Glochidium

VI) Trochophore

VII) Bipinnaria

• (1) VI
• (2) V
• (3) I, II
• (4) III, IV, VII

Match the following

Body Cavity             Phylum 
A.   Acoelom            IV.   Platyhelminthes
B.  Pseudocoelom   II. Nematoda
C. Schizocoelomic coelom  I. Mollusca
D. Enterocoelomic coelom  III. & Echinodermata

• (1) A-IV, B-V, C-II, D-I
• (2) A-V, B-I, C-III, D-IV
• (3) A-III, B-II, C-II, D-IV
• (4) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

Ammocoete larva is formed during the embryonic development of

• (1) Petromyzon
• (2) Myxine
• (3) Amphioxus
• (4) Pyrosoma

Study the following and pick up the correct combinations

S.No.      Group            Salient Feature   Example
I               Aves          Pneumatic bones   Columba
II        Mammalia       Corpus callosum     Macaca
III          Reptilia        Epidermal scales     Calotes
IV  Chondrichthyes   Cartilagenous skeleton   Scoliodon

• (1) I only
• (2) I and II only
• (3) I, II and III only
• (4) I, II, III, IV

Flagellum in Paramecium is of this type

• (1) Stichonematic
• (2) Pantonematic
• (3) Acronematic
• (4) Pantacronematic

Assertion (A): Binary fission in \textit{Paramecium is called perkinetal fission.

Reason (R): Plane of fission in \textit{Paramecium is at right angles to longitudinal axis of the body.

• (1) (A) and (R) are true. (R) is correct explanation for (A)
• (2) (A) and (R) are true. But (R) is not the correct explanation for (A)
• (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
• (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Match the following

List-I                                   List-II 
A.   Parasitic castration   IV.  Sacculina
B.   Gigantism                   V.  Larvae of liver fluke
C.   Hyperplasia                II. Fasciola in sheep bile duct
D.   Hypertrophy               I.  Plasmodium

• (1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
• (2) A-IV, B-V, C-II, D-I
• (3) A-I, B-II, C-V, D-IV
• (4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-V

Pneumonia is caused by

• (1) Salmonella
• (2) Haemophilus
• (3) Rhino virus
• (4) Microsporum

Pick up the wrongly matched pair

• (1) Typhoid – Salmonella
• (2) Pneumonia – Streptococcus
• (3) Ring worm – Sacculina
• (4) Filariasis – Wuchereria

Statement-I: In cockroach, mycetocytes of fat bodies secrete fats.

Statement-II: Haemocytes in cockroach are phagocytic.

• (1) Both statements (I) and (II) are true
• (2) Both statements (I) and (II) are false
• (3) Statement-I is true, but statement-II is false
• (4) Statement-I is false, but statement-II is true

Metamorphosis in cockroach is

• (1) Ametabolous
• (2) Hemimetabolous
• (3) Holometabolous
• (4) Paurometabolous

Which of the following statements about competition are correct?


I) The competitive exclusion principle states that species with identical niches can coexist indefinitely.

II) Resource partitioning reduces competition by allowing species to use resources differently.

III) Unrelated species can compete, if they rely on the same unlimited resources.

IV) Competitive release occurs when a species expands its niche after a competitor's removal.

• (1) I and IV
• (2) II and IV
• (3) III and IV
• (4) I and III

Match the following:

List-I                               List-II
A.  Nitzschia        II.  Plankton
B.  Certia             IV.   Neuston
C.  Notonecta      I.  Nekton
D.  Hydra            V.   Periphyton

• (1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
• (2) A-V, B-I, C-IV, D-II
• (3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-V
• (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

It is a green house gas

• (1) Methane
• (2) Ethane
• (3) Carbon monoxide
• (4) Nitric oxide

Assertion (A): Incisors are useful in cutting the food.

Reason (R): They are chisel shaped.

• (1) (A) and (R) are true. (R) is correct explanation for (A)
• (2) (A) and (R) are true. But (R) is not correct explanation for (A)
• (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
• (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true

High pH, low CO\textsubscript{2} and low temperature favours the shift of oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve towards

• (1) Left side
• (2) Right side
• (3) Remains same
• (4) Lower side

The following are the layers of the wall of veins. Arrange them in correct sequence from outer side to inner side.
Layer list 
(I) Endothelium           (II) Elastic lamina
(III) Smooth muscles  (IV) Fibrous tissue layer

• (1) IV, III, II, I
• (2) I, II, III, IV
• (3) II, IV, III, I
• (4) IV, III, I, II

Study the following statements and identify the correct option.

Statement I: Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is released from left atrium of the heart.

Statement II: ANP can cause vasodilation.

• (1) Both statements (I) and (II) are correct
• (2) Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect
• (3) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct
• (4) Both statements (I) and (II) are incorrect

Match the following:

List - I                           List - II
A) Radius, ulna           III) Fore limb
B) Tibia, fibula             I) Hind limb
C) Scapula, clavicle   V) Pectoral girdle
D) Ilium, pubis            II) Pelvic girdle
 

• (1) A-III, B-I, C-V, D-II
• (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
• (3) A-II, B-I, C-V, D-III
• (4) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-IV

Study the following and pick up the correct combinations:

S.No.   Spinal nerves   No. of pairs in man    Location
I      Cervical nerves        7 pairs                  Neck region
II     Thoracic nerves      12 pairs                Thorax
III       Sacral nerves        5 pairs                  Lumbar region
IV    Coccygeal nerves    1 pair                   Caudal region

• (1) I, III
• (2) II, IV
• (3) II, III
• (4) I, IV

Match the following:

Gland                          Hormone
A) Thyroid gland       I) Calcitonin
B) Adrenal medulla  IV) Nor epinephrine
C) Pineal gland          II) Melatonin
D) Pancreas               V) Glucagon

• (1) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-V
• (2) A-III, B-V, C-V, D-II
• (3) A-V, B-II, C-IV, D-I
• (4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

Second messenger primarily involved in the action of adrenaline is

• (1) cAMP
• (2) Ca\textsuperscript{2+}
• (3) cGMP
• (4) IP\textsubscript{3}

Which enzymes play a key role in target cell destruction during cell mediated immunity?

• (1) Perforin and catalase
• (2) Lysozyme and catalase
• (3) Granzyme and helicase
• (4) Perforin and granzyme

These are involved in differentiation of cells of immune system.

• (1) Interleukins
• (2) Interferons
• (3) Immunoglobulins
• (4) Complement proteins

Assertion (A): Sertoli cells provide nourishment to developing sperm cells.

Reason (R): Sertoli cells secrete testosterone.

Identify the correct option from the following

• (1) Both (A) and (R) are true. (R) is correct explanation of (A)
• (2) Both (A) and (R) are true. (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
• (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
• (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true

These are not the accessory reproductive glands of female (in human beings)

• (1) Bartholin glands
• (2) Greater vestibular glands
• (3) Skene glands
• (4) Cowper’s glands

Which of the following is an intra uterine device (IUD)?

• (1) Copper-T
• (2) Vault
• (3) Cervical cap
• (4) Implant

If father has blood group A (heterozygous) and mother has blood group B (homozygous), these blood groups are not expected in their children

• (1) AB, O
• (2) AB, B
• (3) A, O
• (4) B, O

Study the following regarding genetic disorders and identify the correct statements.


% Statements
I) Cystic fibrosis follows an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern.

II) Thalassemia is caused by mutation affecting haemoglobin synthesis

III) Sickle cell anaemia results from a point mutation in the β-globin gene.

IV) Phenylketonuria (PKU) is an X-linked recessive disorder.

• (1) I and II
• (2) II and III
• (3) I and IV
• (4) II and IV

Match the following:

Karyotype of Drosophila  Phenotype
A) AA + XO                         I) Female
B) AA + XXX                      II) Intersex
C) AA + XXY                     III) Metamale
D) AAA + XXX                  IV) Metafemale
                                           V) Male

• (1) A-V, B-III, C-IV, D-II
• (2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
• (3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-V
• (4) A-V, B-I, C-IV, D-II

Haplo-diploidy type of sex determination is found in

• (1) Wasp
• (2) Grass hopper
• (3) Butter fly
• (4) Bug

Assertion (A): In the polluted area, Birmingham, black peppered moths were abundant. In the non-polluted area, Dorset, grey forms were abundant.

Reason (R): Natural selection.

Identify the correct option from the following

• (1) (A) and (R) are true. (R) is correct explanation for (A)
• (2) (A) and (R) are true. But (R) is not the correct explanation for (A)
• (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
• (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Ontogeny repeats phylogeny. It was the

• (1) Biogenetic law of Haeckel
• (2) Germplasm theory of Weismann
• (3) Mutation theory of de Vries
• (4) 10% law of Lindeman

Which one of the following is a liquid tumor?

• (1) Carcinoma
• (2) Sarcoma
• (3) Leukemia
• (4) Lymphoma

Match the following: Stem cell types and Examples

Stem cell types       Examples
A) Totipotent          II) Zygote
B) Pluripotent        IV) Inner cell mass of blastocyst
C) Multipotent         I) Haemopoietic stem cells
D) Unipotent          III) Basophil progenitor cells

• (1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
• (2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
• (3) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-I
• (4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

\( Q = \dfrac{x^2 z^{5/2}}{y \sqrt{t}} \) is the relation between different physical quantities and the errors
in the measurements of \( x, y, z \) and \( t \) are 2.5%, 2%, 0.5% and 1% respectively,
then the percentage error in the determination of \( Q \) is

• (1) 5
• (2) 4.5
• (3) 8
• (4) 7.75

The displacement (s) - time (t) graphs of two bodies A and B are shown in the figure.
The ratio of the velocities of the two bodies A and B is

• (1) \( 1 : \sqrt{3} \)
• (2) \( 2 : \sqrt{3} \)
• (3) \( \sqrt{3} : 1 \)
• (4) \( \sqrt{3} : 2 \)

Rain is falling vertically with a speed of \( 36\ \mathrm{m/s} \) and a boy is moving on a bicycle with a speed of \( 20\ \mathrm{m/s} \) towards south.
The angle with the vertical towards south with which the boy has to hold an umbrella is

• (1) \( \tan^{-1}\left( \dfrac{5}{9} \right) \)
• (2) \( \sin^{-1}\left( \dfrac{5}{9} \right) \)
• (3) \( \cos^{-1}\left( \dfrac{5}{9} \right) \)
• (4) \( \cot^{-1}\left( \dfrac{5}{9} \right) \)

An aeroplane flying horizontally with a speed of 720 kmph at an altitude of 490 m drops a bomb when it is just vertically above a target.
The horizontal distance between the target and the point where the bomb strikes the ground is

• (1) 1106 m
• (2) 1200 m
• (3) 2000 m
• (4) 800 m

A balloon of mass 'M' is rising up with an acceleration 'a'.
In order to triple its acceleration, the fraction of mass to be removed from the balloon is
(\( g \) - acceleration due to gravity)

• (1) \( \dfrac{a}{g+a} \)
• (2) \( \dfrac{a}{g+2a} \)
• (3) \( \dfrac{2a}{g+3a} \)
• (4) \( \dfrac{2a}{g+2a} \)

A force of 10 N acts on a body of mass 2 kg in the direction of motion of the body. If the velocity of the body at a time \( t = 0 \) is \( 13\,ms^{-1} \), then the velocity of the body at time \( t = 3\,s \) is

• (1) \( 20\,ms^{-1} \)
• (2) \( 24\,ms^{-1} \)
• (3) \( 28\,ms^{-1} \)
• (4) \( 32\,ms^{-1} \)

A body is dropped freely from a height of 8 m from the ground. If the coefficient of restitution between the body and the ground is 0.5, then the maximum height reached by the body after second impact with the ground is

• (1) 2 m
• (2) 0.25 m
• (3) 1 m
• (4) 0.5 m

A bomb of mass 12 kg at rest explodes into two pieces of masses 4 kg and 8 kg. If the velocity of 8 kg mass is \( 6\,ms^{-1} \), then the kinetic energy of 4 kg mass is

• (1) 248 J
• (2) 326 J
• (3) 124 J
• (4) 288 J

If the mass and the radius of a solid sphere are 0.22 kg and \( 20\sqrt{5}\,cm \), then its radius of gyration about its diameter is

• (1) \( 20\sqrt{3}\,cm \)
• (2) \( 20\sqrt{2}\,cm \)
• (3) \( 40\sqrt{2}\,cm \)
• (4) \( 20\sqrt{5}\,cm \)

The angular velocity of a circular disc rotating with uniform angular acceleration increases from 20 rad s\(^{-1}\) to 50 rad s\(^{-1}\) in a time of 10 seconds. The number of rotations made by the circular disc during this period is:

• (1) 125
• (2) 150
• (3) 175
• (4) 200

The ratio of kinetic energy and total energy of a particle in simple harmonic motion, at a point where the displacement is 30% of its amplitude is:

• (1) 91 : 100
• (2) 49 : 100
• (3) 81 : 100
• (4) 51 : 100

The time period of oscillations of a spring of force constant 65 N m\(^{-1}\) with its upper end fixed to a rigid support and carrying a mass of 650 g at its lower end is:

• (1) 314 ms
• (2) 628 ms
• (3) 157 ms
• (4) 785 ms

The height at which the weight of a person becomes 25% of his weight on the surface of the earth is: (R\(_E\) is the radius of the earth)

• (1) \(\frac{R_E}{2}\)
• (2) \(\frac{R_E}{4}\)
• (3) \(\frac{R_E}{8}\)
• (4) \(2R_E\)

Three steel rods having lengths 1L, 3L, 3L and cross-sectional areas A, 2A, 3A respectively are joined in the form of a single rod. If the cross rod is subjected to a stretching force F, then the increase in length is: (Y = Young's modulus of steel)

• (1) \(\frac{13FL}{3AY}\)
• (2) \(\frac{FL}{AY}\)
• (3) \(\frac{FL}{3AY}\)
• (4) \(\frac{AY}{3FL}\)

An incompressible fluid is flowing through a horizontal Y-shaped tube as shown in the figure. The velocity (v) of the fluid in the tube of area of cross-section 1.5A m\(^2\) is:

• (1) 3 m s\(^{-1}\)
• (2) 2 m s\(^{-1}\)
• (3) 2.25 m s\(^{-1}\)
• (4) 1 m s\(^{-1}\)

The nature of the graph between the temperature in Fahrenheit and Celsius values is:

• (1) a parabola
• (2) a sine wave
• (3) a straight line
• (4) an exponential curve

If the relation of the absolute temperature (T) and volume (V) of an ideal gas which expands adiabatically is T \(\propto\) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{V}}\), then the ratio of the specific heat capacities of the gas is:

• (1) 1.3
• (2) 1.5
• (3) 1.67
• (4) 2.0

Two moles of an ideal gas undergoes a cyclic process as shown in the figure. If AB is an isothermal process at 223 \(^\circ\)C, then the net work done in the complete cycle is nearly: (Universal gas constant = 8.3 J mol\(^{-1}\) K\(^{-1}\) and take ln(2) = 0.7)

• (1) 3810 J
• (2) 5810 J
• (3) 7810 J
• (4) 2000 J

If the differences between the specific heat capacities at constant pressure and constant volume of hydrogen and another gas are in the ratio 16 : 1, then the other gas is:

• (1) nitrogen
• (2) oxygen
• (3) carbon
• (4) argon

The mean translational kinetic energy of a gas molecule at a temperature of 47 \(^\circ\)C is: (Boltzmann constant = 1.38 \(\times\) 10\(^{-23}\) J K\(^{-1}\))

• (1) 138 \(\times\) 10\(^{-4}\) J
• (2) 138 \(\times\) 10\(^{-4}\) eV
• (3) 414 \(\times\) 10\(^{-4}\) J
• (4) 414 \(\times\) 10\(^{-4}\) eV

A closed pipe and an open pipe of same length produce 4 beats per second when they are set into vibrations simultaneously. If the lengths of both the pipes were halved, then the number of beats produced per second is: (Assume same mode of vibrations in both cases)

• (1) 8
• (2) 4
• (3) 1
• (4) 2

If the length and the focal length of its objective of an astronomical telescope are L and 8 respectively, then the focal length of its eyepiece is:

• (1) 9
• (2) \(\frac{L}{8}\)
• (3) 72
• (4) 8

If the intensities of two interfering light waves in a medium are I and 4I, then the maximum and minimum intensities are respectively:

• (1) 3I, I
• (2) 4I, I
• (3) 9I, I
• (4) 16I, 0

Three point charges \(+Q\) and \(+Q\) are placed on x-axis at distances 0, \(\frac{d}{2}\), d respectively from the origin. If the resultant electrostatic force on the charge \(+Q\) placed at x = 0 is zero, then the value of q is:

• (1) \(-\frac{Q}{8}\)
• (2) \(-\frac{Q}{4}\)
• (3) \(-\frac{Q}{2}\)
• (4) \(-\frac{3Q}{4}\)

If five parallel plate capacitors are connected to the battery of 240 V as shown in the figure, the charge on 1\(\mu\)F capacitor is:

• (1) 480 \(\mu\)C
• (2) 360 \(\mu\)C
• (3) 120 \(\mu\)C
• (4) 240 \(\mu\)C

A 10 \(\mu\)C charge is placed at the vertex A of an equilateral triangle ABC of side 2 m. The work done in taking another charge \((3 + \sqrt{3})\) \(\mu\)C from the mid point of BC to the mid point of the side AC is:

• (1) 0.12 J
• (2) 0.07 J
• (3) 0.24 J
• (4) 0.18 J

The ratio of the currents i\(_1\), i\(_2\) and i\(_3\) in the circuit is:

• (1) 1 : 1 : 1
• (2) 3 : 2 : 1
• (3) 1 : 2 : 3
• (4) 3 : 1 : 2

If a generator of emf 440 V and internal resistance 400 \(\Omega\) is connected to an external resistance of 4000 \(\Omega\), then the potential difference across the external resistance is:

• (1) 220 V
• (2) 440 V
• (3) 200 V
• (4) 400 V

The magnetic field at the centre of a circular coil of radius 10 cm, having 250 turns and carrying a current of \(\frac{8}{\pi}\) A is:

• (1) 0.5 mT
• (2) 8 mT
• (3) 4 mT
• (4) 2 mT

If an electron and a proton enter normally into a uniform magnetic field with equal kinetic energies, then:

• (1) the electron travels in circular path of less radius
• (2) the proton travels in circular path of less radius
• (3) both electron and proton travel in circular paths of same radius
• (4) both travel in a straight line

If the magnetisation of a material is M and the magnetic field in the material is B, then the magnetic intensity is: (\(\mu_0\) = permeability of free space)

• (1) \(\frac{B}{\mu_0}\)
• (2) \(\frac{B - \mu_0 M}{\mu_0}\)
• (3) \(\frac{\mu_0 M}{B}\)
• (4) \(\frac{\mu_0 M}{B}\)

The energy stored in a coil of inductance 50 mH carrying a current of 2 A is:

• (1) 1 J
• (2) 0.1 J
• (3) 0.05 J
• (4) 0.5 J

A 100 \(\Omega\) resistor, a 50 \(\mu\)F capacitor and an inductor are connected in series to an ac source of frequency 50 Hz. If the circuit is in resonance, then the impedance of the circuit is:

• (1) 100 \(\Omega\)
• (2) 200 \(\Omega\)
• (3) 180 \(\Omega\)
• (4) 250 \(\Omega\)

If the magnitude of the electric field of an electromagnetic wave in a medium is given by E = 10\(^7\) sin(6 \(\times\) 10\(^8\) t - 0.01x) N C\(^{-1}\), then the frequency and speed of the electromagnetic wave respectively are: (In the equation x is in metre and t is in second)

• (1) \(\frac{6 \times 10^8}{\pi}\) Hz, 3 \(\times\) 10\(^7\) m s\(^{-1}\)
• (2) \(\frac{3 \times 10^5}{\pi}\) Hz, 6 \(\times\) 10\(^7\) m s\(^{-1}\)
• (3) \(\frac{6 \times 10^5}{\pi}\) Hz, 3 \(\times\) 10\(^7\) m s\(^{-1}\)
• (4) \(\frac{6 \times 10^8}{\pi}\) Hz, 6 \(\times\) 10\(^7\) m s\(^{-1}\)

In a photoelectric experiment, when the wavelength of the incident light on a metal is \(\lambda\), the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectron is E. When the wavelength of incident light is \(\frac{\lambda}{3}\), the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectron becomes 4E. The work function of the metal is:

• (1) \(\frac{h c}{\lambda}\)
• (2) \(\frac{h c}{3 \lambda}\)
• (3) \(\frac{4 h c}{\lambda}\)
• (4) \(4 E\)

The ratio of the wavelengths of the spectral lines in the Lyman series of the hydrogen spectrum when the transitions take place from 7\(^{th}\) and 9\(^{th}\) states to the ground state is:

• (1) 245 : 243
• (2) 216 : 293
• (3) 251 : 236
• (4) 247 : 224

The ratio of the radii of the nuclei of mass numbers 27 and 64 is:

• (1) 3 : 4
• (2) 4 : 3
• (3) 9 : 16
• (4) 16 : 9

If the junction diodes \(D_1\) and \(D_2\) in the given circuit are ideal, then the forward biased resistance and reverse biased resistance is infinity:

• (1) 2E
• (2) E
• (3) \(\frac{2E}{3R}\)
• (4) \(\frac{E}{R}\)

In the given circuit, the input voltage across base resistance 10V. If base-emitter and collector-emitter voltages are zero, then the current amplification factor of the transistor is:

• (1) 25
• (2) 50
• (3) 100
• (4) 125

The waves used for line of sight communication and satellite communication are:

• (1) space waves
• (2) ground waves
• (3) sky waves
• (4) surface waves

If a bullet of mass 2 g travels with velocity of 3 \(\times\) 10\(^3\) cm s\(^{-1}\), its wavelength (in m) is: (h = 6.6 \(\times\) 10\(^{-34}\) Js)

• (1) 10\(^{-36}\)
• (2) 10\(^{-31}\)
• (3) 10\(^{-34}\)
• (4) 10\(^{-28}\)

The number of d-electrons in Fe\(^{2+}\) (Z = 26) is not equal to:

• (1) the number of p-electrons in Ne (Z = 10)
• (2) the number of s-electrons in Mg (Z = 12)
• (3) the number of d-electrons in Fe (Z = 26)
• (4) the number of p-electrons in Cl (Z = 17)

The electron gain enthalpy (Cl\(_2\),H) of chlorine is -3.7 eV mol\(^{-1}\). How much of energy (in kcal mol\(^{-1}\)) is released when 71 g of chlorine atoms are completely converted into Cl\(^{-}\) ions in gaseous state? (1 eV = 23 kcal)

• (1) 1.072
• (2) 10.72
• (3) 17.02
• (4) 85.1

The sum of number of antibonding electrons present in O\(_2\), O\(_2^+\), O\(_2^-\) is:

• (1) 15
• (2) 9
• (3) 21
• (4) 6

Observe the following molecules: ClF, SF\(_4\), CH\(_4\), NH\(_3\), XeF\(_4\), PCl\(_5\). The number of molecules in which the central atom has expanded octet is:

• (1) 6
• (2) 4
• (3) 5
• (4) 3

A gaseous mixture at temperature T(K) consists of dihydrogen and dioxygen, with a total pressure of 2 2 bar. If the mixture is 33.33% dihydrogen and 66.67% dioxygen, what is the approximate partial pressure (in bar) of dihydrogen? (T(K), 2 bar total pressure)

• (1) 1.778
  (2) 0.222
  (3) 1.5
  (4) 0.5

Two 1 L flasks at T(K) contain O\(_2\) and helium with rms velocities of x m s\(^{-1}\) and y m s\(^{-1}\), respectively. What is the relationship between x and y?

• (1) 8 y\(^2\) = x\(^2\)
  (2) y\(^2\) = 8 x\(^2\)
  (3) y = x
  (4) y = 8 x

Which option has the greatest mass?

• (1) 0.5 g atom of oxygen
  (2) 0.5 mol of O\(_3\)
  (3) 3 \(\times\) 10\(^{22}\) molecules of nitrogen
  (4) 5.6 L of CO\(_2\) at STP

For the reaction X(g) \(\rightarrow\) Y(g) at equilibrium, the partial pressure of Y is one-third that of X. What is the standard Gibbs energy change (\(\Delta G^\circ\)) for this reaction?

• (1) \(-RT \ln 3\)
  (2) \(RT \ln 3\)
  (3) \(RT \log 3\)
  (4) \(-RT \log 3\)

An ideal gas (1 mol) is in a 1 L vessel at T(K) with a pressure of p atm. The vessel is split into two equal parts. What are the pressure and volume in each part?

• (1) \(p atm, \frac{1}{2} L\)
  (2) \(p atm, 1 L\)
  (3) \(2p atm, \frac{1}{2} L\)
  (4) \(\frac{p}{2} atm, \frac{1}{2} L\)

Vessel (A) contains 1 mole each of H\(_2\) and I\(_2\), and vessel (B) contains 2 moles each of H\(_2\) and I\(_2\). Both vessels are at the same temperature and reach equilibrium for the reaction H\(_2\)(g) + I\(_2\)(g) \(\rightleftharpoons\) 2HI(g). What is the ratio of the equilibrium constants \(K_p\) for vessels A and B?

• (1) \(K_p\) for A and B are in the ratio of 1 : 2
  (2) \(K_p\) for A and B are in the ratio of 1 : 1
  (3) \(K_p\) for A and B are equal
  (4) \(K_p\) for A and B are in the ratio of 2 : 1

The conjugate acid and base of ammonia are X and Y, respectively. What are the shapes of X and Y?

• (1) angular, tetrahedral
  (2) tetrahedral, angular
  (3) tetrahedral, trigonal pyramidal
  (4) planar trigonal, tetrahedral

For the reactions: NaBH\(_4\) + I\(_2\) \(\rightarrow\) A + NaI + H\(_2\), and A + LiH \(\rightarrow\) B, what are A and B, respectively? (Reactions are not balanced)

• (1) B\(_2\)H\(_6\), LiBH\(_4\)
  (2) B\(_2\)H\(_6\), (BN)\(_x\)
  (3) BH\(_3\), CO, LiBH\(_4\)
  (4) BH\(_3\), CO, B\(_3\)N\(_3\)H\(_6\)

Match the following:

List-I (Metal)  List-II (Flame colour)
A) Li                  I) Yellow
B) Na                II) Apple green
C) Ca               III) Crimson red
D) Ba               IV) Brick red
                         V) Blue

• (1) A-III, B-V, C-IV, D-II
• (2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
• (3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
• (4) A-II, B-IV, C-V, D-III

Which of the following metals is used for measuring high temperatures?

• (1) Al
• (2) Ga
• (3) In
• (4) Sn

The buffer system that helps in maintaining pH of blood between 7.26 and 7.42 is

• (1) HCN / CN\(^-\)
• (2) H\(_2\)CO\(_3\) / HCO\(_3^-\)
• (3) CH\(_3\)COOH / CH\(_3\)COO\(^-\)
• (4) H\(_3\)PO\(_4\) / H\(_2\)PO\(_4^-\)

The BOD value of clean water is X. The maximum concentration of cadmium recommended in drinking water is Y. X and Y respectively are

• (1) \(>\) 5 ppm, 0.005 ppm
• (2) \(>\) 5 ppm, 0.05 ppm
• (3) \(<\) 5 ppm, 0.05 ppm
• (4) \(<\) 5 ppm, 0.005 ppm

The number of monochloro derivatives possible for 2,2-Dimethylbutane and 2,3-Dimethylbutane are respectively

• (1) 3, 2
• (2) 2, 3
• (3) 4, 2
• (4) 2, 4

What are X and Y respectively in the following set of reactions?

2-Bromobutane \(\xrightarrow{alc. KOH}\) C\(_4\)H\(_8\) (major)

C\(_4\)H\(_8\) \(\xrightarrow{KMnO_4/H^+}\) X

C\(_4\)H\(_8\) \(\xrightarrow{Baeyer's reagent}\) Y

• (1) CH\(_3\)COOH, \quad \chemfig{HO-CH(CH_3)-CH_2OH}
• (2) CH\(_3\)CH\(_2\)COOH + CO\(_2\), \quad \chemfig{HO-CH_2-CH_2CH_2OH}
• (3) CH\(_3\)COOH, CH\(_3\)CHO
• (4) CH\(_3\)CH\(_2\)COOH + CO\(_2\), CH\(_3\)CHO

A metal crystallizes with hcp packing. The total number of voids, total number of tetrahedral voids and total number of octahedral voids are shown as A, B and C respectively. A, B and C in 0.25 moles of metal are respectively (\(N_A\) = Avogadro number).

• (1) 0.5 \(N_A\), 0.25 \(N_A\), 0.75 \(N_A\)
• (2) 0.75 \(N_A\), 0.25 \(N_A\), 0.5 \(N_A\)
• (3) 0.5 \(N_A\), 0.75 \(N_A\), 0.25 \(N_A\)
• (4) 0.75 \(N_A\), 0.5 \(N_A\), 0.25 \(N_A\)

The osmotic pressure of 0.01 molar solution of an electrolyte is found to be 0.65 bar at 27°C. The van’t Hoff factor of the electrolyte is (R = 0.083 bar L K\(^{-1}\) mol\(^{-1}\))

• (1) 2.610
• (2) 1.610
• (3) 2.305
• (4) 1.805

At 298 K, liquid A (solute) forms an ideal solution with liquid B (solvent). The following graph is obtained for this solution.




Identify the correct statements about this graph:

I) x-axis represents the mole fraction of A

II) Point Z represents the vapour pressure of pure solvent

III) x-axis represents the mole fraction of B

• (1) I only
• (2) II only
• (3) II, III only
• (4) I, II, III

When 3 amp current was passed through an aqueous solution of salt of a metal M (atomic weight 106.4 u) for 1 hour, 2.977 g of M\(^{n+}\) was deposited at cathode. The value of n is (1 F = 96500 C mol\(^{-1}\))

• (1) 2
• (2) 1
• (3) 3
• (4) 4

A \(\rightarrow\) P is a first order reaction. The reaction was started at 10.00 AM. At 10.10 AM, the concentration of A was x mol L\(^{-1}\). At 10.20 AM, the concentration of A was y mol L\(^{-1}\). The half life (in min) of the reaction is equal to

• (1) \(2.303 \log\left(\dfrac{x}{y}\right)\)
• (2) \(\log\left(\dfrac{x}{y}\right)\)
• (3) \(3.01\)
• (4) \(3.01 \log\left(\dfrac{x}{y}\right)\)

Identify the correct statements from the following:

I) In adsorption process, both enthalpy and entropy decrease.

II) In general, physisorption is an irreversible process.

III) The catalyst used in the decomposition of potassium chlorate is manganese dioxide.

• (1) I, II, III
• (2) I, II only
• (3) I, III only
• (4) II, III only

Identify the sets in which enzyme, its source and enzyme reaction are correctly matched:

I) maltase, yeast; proteins \(\rightarrow\) peptides

II) diastase, malt; starch \(\rightarrow\) maltose

III) zymase, yeast; glucose \(\rightarrow\) C\(_2\)H\(_5\)OH + CO\(_2\)

• (1) I, II, III
• (2) II only
• (3) I, III only
• (4) II, III only

Identify the reaction which occurs in blast furnace at temperature of above 900 K.

• (1) \(3Fe_2O_3 + CO \rightarrow 2Fe_3O_4 + CO_2\)
• (2) \(Fe_3O_4 + 4CO \rightarrow 3Fe + 4CO_2\)
• (3) \(FeO + CO \rightarrow Fe + CO_2\)
• (4) \(Fe_2O_3 + CO \rightarrow 2FeO + CO_2\)

Match the following:

List-I (reaction)                                                        List-II (catalyst)
A) \(SO_2(g) + Cl_2(g) \rightarrow SO_2Cl_2(l)\)   I) Pt / Rh gauge
B) \(2SO_2(g) + O_2(g) \rightarrow 2SO_3(g)\)      II) CuCl\(_2\)
C) \(4HCl + O_2 \rightarrow 2Cl_2 + 2H_2O\)         III) Charcoal
D) \(4NH_3(g) + 5O_2(g) \rightarrow 4NO(g) + 6H_2O(g)\)   IV) V\(_2\)O\(_5\)
 

• (1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
• (2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
• (3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-I
• (4) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-II

Alkaline oxidative fusion of MnO\(_2\) gives 'X'. The products formed when 'X' undergoes disproportionation in acid medium are


I) KMnO\(_4\)

II) MnO\(_2\)

III) O\(_2\)

IV) H\(_2\)O

• (1) I, II only
• (2) I, II, III, IV
• (3) I, II, III only
• (4) I, II, IV only

Identify the complex ion/s with the least spin only magnetic moment (in BM).


I) [Fe(CN)\(_6\)]\(^{3-}\)

II) [Co(CN)\(_6\)]\(^{3-}\)

III) [Mn(CN)\(_6\)]\(^{4-}\)

IV) [Fe(CN)\(_6\)]\(^{4-}\)

• (1) II \& IV only
• (2) I only
• (3) III only
• (4) I \& III only

Consider the following

Statement-I: Natural rubber becomes soft at low temperature and brittle at high temperature.

Statement-II: Natural rubber has weak van der Waals forces between its polymer chains.

• (1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
• (2) Both statement-I and statement-II are not correct
• (3) Statement-I is correct, but statement-II is not correct
• (4) Statement-I is not correct, but statement-II is correct

The water soluble vitamin which is not excreted through urine easily is

• (1) Vitamin B\(_{12}\)
• (2) Vitamin C
• (3) Vitamin B\(_1\)
• (4) Vitamin B\(_6\)

Sucrose when boiled with dilute HCl gives two functional isomers X and Y. X gives monocarboxylic acid with bromine water but not Y. The number of --OH groups in cyclic structure of X is

• (1) 6
• (2) 4
• (3) 5
• (4) 3

Identify the artificial sweetener which has highest sweetness value compared to cane sugar

• (1) Alitame
• (2) Aspartame
• (3) Saccharin
• (4) Sucralose

The correct statement regarding the mechanism involved in the above reactions is

• (1) In both I, II C--Cl bond is cleaved in slow step of the reaction
• (2) In both I, II C--Cl bond is cleaved in fast step of the reaction
• (3) In I C--Cl bond is cleaved in slow step and in II fast step of the reaction
• (4) In I C--Cl bond is cleaved in fast step and in II slow step of the reaction

A halide with formula C\(_6\)H\(_{13}\)Br gave two isomeric alkenes A and B on dehydrobromination. On ozonolysis of mixture of A and B the following compounds were obtained: CH\(_3\)COCH\(_3\), CH\(_3\)CHO, CH\(_3\)CH\(_2\)CHO and (CH\(_3\))\(_2\)CHCHO. The halide is

• (1) 2-Bromohexane
• (2) 3-Bromo-2-methylpentane
• (3) 1-Bromo-2,3-dimethylbutane
• (4) 2-Bromo-3,3-dimethylbutane

What is the major product Y in the following reaction sequence?

What is the end product 'R' in the reaction sequence?

The incorrect statement about the product ‘Z’ in the given reaction sequence is

• (1) It gives yellow CH\(_3\)I precipitate with I\(_2\) and NaOH solution
• (2) It is obtained from propan-2-ol by catalytic dehydrogenation
• (3) It gives red precipitate of Cu\(_2\)O with Fehling’s reagent
• (4) It undergoes self aldol condensation under suitable conditions

Which of the following represents Gattermann reaction?