AP EAPCET (AP EAMCET) 2025 Question Paper May 19 Shift 1 (Available): Download Solutions with Answer Key PDF

Question 1:

In Herbarium sheets, label provides information about

• (1) Vegetative and floral characters of the plant
• (2) Habitat, distribution, root system and height of the plant
• (3) Date, place of collection, common name and family of the plant and collector’s name
• (4) All plants specimens preserved

Among the following fungi, which are placed under class Deuteromycetes?

(Alternaria, Aspergillus, Mucor, Claviceps, Penicillium, Trichoderma, Colletotrichum, Ustilago, Polyporus, Puccinia, Agaricus, Neurospora, Albugo, and Rhizopus)

• (1) Alternaria, Trichoderma, and Colletotrichum
• (2) Alternaria, Puccinia, and Neurospora
• (3) Mucor, Albugo, and Trichoderma
• (4) Ustilago, Polyporus, and Agaricus

Choose the incorrect statement among the following:

I. The present era is called “Golden era of Biology”.

II. Sexual system of classification was proposed by Theophrastus.

III. Study of Amphibians of plant kingdom are called Bryology.

IV. Recycling of nutrients takes place by parasitic petrophants.

• (1) I, II
• (2) II, III
• (3) III, IV
• (4) II, IV

Assertion (A): Algae will increase the level of dissolved oxygen in the immediate environment.

Reason (R): They form the food for aquatic animals.

Identify the correct option from the following:

• (1) (A) and (R) are true, (R) is correct explanation for (A).
• (2) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation for (A).
• (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
• (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Choose the plants from the given list which have hypogynous flowers.

Mustard, Cucumber, Brinjal, Plum, Rose, Peach, Guava, Sunflower, and China Rose.

• (1) Guava and China Rose
• (2) Mustard, China Rose, and Brinjal
• (3) Plum, Rose, and Peach
• (4) Guava, Cucumber, and Sunflower

Three plants, Mustard, Calotropis, and Guava, are collected. There are 30 nodes in Mustard, 30 nodes in Calotropis, 25 nodes in Guava are present. Find the number of leaves put together in all three plants?

• (1) 140
• (2) 160
• (3) 180
• (4) 220

Match the terms in List-I with their correct descriptions in List-II:
List-I          List-II

A) Vivipary                  I) Adaptation to lower environmental stress by germinating seeds while still attached to the parent plant
B) Parthenogenesis   II) Bamboo flowering once at the end of its life cycle (monocarpic perennial)
C) Meiocytes              III) Diploid cells specialized to undergo meiosis (e.g., spermatocytes, oocytes)
D) Perennials             IV) Development of an embryo from an unfertilized female gamete (asexual reproduction)

• (1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
• (2) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
• (3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
• (4) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

Match the pollination types in List-I with their correct mechanisms in List-II:
List-I (Pollination Type)       List-II (Mechanism)

A) Xenogamy            I) Exposed anthers and stigmas
B) Ophiophily           II) Genetically different type of pollen grains
C) Chasmogamous  III) Flowers do not open
D) Cleistogamous    IV) Pollination by snakes

• (1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
• (2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
• (3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
• (4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

Identify the floral formula of the following characters.

Ebracteolate, United perianth, pentacarpellary syncarpous, zygomorphic, superior ovary, bisexual.

• (1) Ebrl, K\(_{(5)}\) A\(_{\overline{(5)}}\) \(\oplus\), female
• (2) Ebrl, (P), G\(_{(5)}\) \(%\), male female
• (3) Ebrl, C\(_{(5)}\), \(\overline{G}_{(5)}\) \(%\),  male female
• (4) Ebr, (K), \(\overline{G}_{3.}\) \(\oplus\), male

Statement I: Lysosomes were found to be very rich in hydrolytic enzymes.

Statement II: These enzymes are optimally active at the basic pH.

Identify the correct option from the following:

• (1) Both statements I and II are correct
• (2) Both statements I and II are false
• (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
• (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is correct

Choose the correct statements among the following:

I. Quasi-fluid nature of lipids enables lateral movement of proteins.

II. Mitochondria and chloroplast constitute endomembrane system.

III. Phosphate granules are not membrane bound bodies.

IV. Centriole is a component in all cells.

• (1) I and II
• (2) I and III
• (3) II and III
• (4) III and IV

Match the following:

List I   Description                       List II   Description
A   Glycosidic bond                     IV   Formed by dehydration
B   Hollow woollen ball folding   III  Tertiary structure of protein
C   Enzyme                                   I   Trypsin
D   Ester bond                              II   Bond between phosphate and 5^th carbon of sugar
Options :

• (1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
• (2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
• (3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
• (4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

Arrange the chromosomal events of meiosis in correct sequence:

List:

I) Disappearing of nucleolus
II) Appearance of recombination nodule on chromatids
III) Terminalisation of chiasmata
IV) Pairing of chromosomes
V) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex

• (1) II, III, IV, I, V
• (2) I, V, II, IV, III
• (3) IV, III, II, V, I
• (4) IV, II, V, III, I

Match the following:

List I

A) Mechanical support at young stem and leaf petiole
B) Cells in fruit walls of nuts
C) Cells absent in primary phloem
D) Endarch primary xylem


List II

I) Sclereids
II) Stem vascular bundles
III) Collenchyma tissue
IV) Bast fibers

• (1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
• (2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
• (3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
• (4) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

Assertion (A): Trichomes help in preventing water loss due to transpiration.

Reason (R): The specialized cells near the guard cells together constitute stomatal apparatus.

• (1) (A) and (R) are true. (R) is correct explanation for (A)
• (2) (A) and (R) are true. But (R) is not correct explanation for (A)
• (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
• (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Choose the correct statements:


I. Phellogen made up of narrow thin-walled rectangular cells
II. Soft bark is formed early in the season
III. More xylem vessels with narrow lumen are called late wood
IV. In isobilateral leaf, mesophyll is differentiated

• (1) I and II
• (2) II and III
• (3) III and IV
• (4) I and IV

Identify the plants with the following characters in a sequence:


A) Annual plants found in dry weather
B) Submerged in water without rooted in mud
C) No contact with soil, present on surface of water
D) Perennial plants to withstand prolonged drought conditions

• (1) Tribulus, Utricularia, Vallisneria, Casuarina
• (2) Casuarina, Salvinia, Hydrilla, Tribulus
• (3) Tribulus, Utricularia, Salvinia, Casuarina
• (4) Utricularia, Salvinia, Tribulus, Asparagus

One acre of trees annually absorbs CO\(_2\) equal to that produced by driving 26000 miles. How many people’s oxygen needs for a year does this cover?

• (1) 2 people for one year
• (2) 10 people for one year
• (3) 18 people for one year
• (4) One family for one year

Assertion (A): Transport of plant growth regulators is strictly polarized and unidirectional.

Reason (R): Organic and mineral nutrients undergo multi-directional transport.

• (1) (A) and (R) are true. (R) is correct explanation for (A)
• (2) (A) and (R) are true. But (R) is not correct explanation for (A)
• (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
• (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Choose the correct statements:


I. Movement of water through apoplast involves crossing the cell membrane
II. Movement through apoplast is gradient dependent
III. In symplast, water moves through plasmodesmata
IV. Transpiration pull is less important than root pressure in tall plants

• (1) I and II
• (2) II and III
• (3) I and IV
• (4) I and III

No. of ATP, protons and electrons required for the formation of 6NH\(_3\) molecules in biological nitrogen fixation.

• (1) 8, 8, 16
• (2) 16, 8, 8
• (3) 24, 24, 48
• (4) 48, 24, 24

Loss of chlorophyll leading to yellowing in leaves is called:

• (1) Chlorosis
• (2) Necrosis
• (3) Bronzing
• (4) Die-back

Choose the correct statements:


I. In exothermic reactions, ‘P’ is at a lower level than ‘S’
II. Enzyme activity is affected by temperature due to changes in tertiary structure
III. Low temperature denatures the protein
IV. Ligases remove groups from substrate

• (1) I, II
• (2) III, IV
• (3) II, IV
• (4) I, III

Phenomenon that describe the first action spectra of photosynthesis:


I. Illumination of \textit{Cladophora
II. Detection of O\(_2\) release using anaerobic bacteria
III. Accumulation of aerobic bacteria in red and blue light
IV. \textit{Cladophora in suspension of anaerobic bacteria

• (1) I, II
• (2) II, III
• (3) III, IV
• (4) I, III

Arrange the intermediate compounds of RUBP regeneration in correct sequence:


I. Ribulose-5-Phosphate
II. Erythrose-4-Phosphate
III. Fructose-6-Phosphate
IV. Sedoheptulose-7-Phosphate
V. Ribose-5-Phosphate
VI. Fructose-1,6-Bisphosphate

• (1) I, V, IV, VI, II, III
• (2) II, VI, III, IV, V, I
• (3) III, II, VI, IV, V, I
• (4) VI, III, II, IV, V, I
• (1) VI. Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate (initial product from Calvin cycle)
• (2) III. Fructose 6-phosphate (formed after dephosphorylation)
• (3) II. Erythrose 4-phosphate (via rearrangements)

Choose the incorrect statements:


I. Electrons from NADH produced in the mitochondrial matrix are oxidized by complex II
II. Ubiquinones oxidised to ubiquinol by receiving reducing equivalents from complex I
III. Ubiquinol oxidized to ubiquinone by transfer of electrons to complex III

• (1) I and II
• (2) II and III
• (3) I and III
• (4) III only

Choose the correct statements:


ABA plays an important role in stratification
Decapitation results in growth of lateral buds
Kinetin naturally occurs in plants
Vernalization promotes flowering by high temperature

• (1) ABA plays an important role in stratification
• (2) Decapitation results in growth of lateral buds
• (3) Kinetin naturally occurs in plants
• (4) Vernalization promotes flowering by high temperature

Match the following:

List I  Microorganism       List II   Type
A   Beggiatoa                     IV   Chemoautotroph
B   Salmonella                   III   Parasite
C   Rhodopseudomonas   I   Photoheterotroph
D   Bacillus                         II   Saprophyte

\hline
\end{tabular

• (1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
• (2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
• (3) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
• (4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

Based on ICTV system, AIDS virus belongs to the genus:

• (1) Ritroviridae
• (2) HIV
• (3) Lentivirus
• (4) viridae

In which crosses both phenotypic and genotypic F\(_2\) ratios are 1:2:1?


I) Red \(\times\) White snapdragon (incomplete dominance)
II) Tall \(\times\) Dwarf garden pea
III) Dotted \(\times\) Spotted seed coat lentil
IV) Homozygous \(\times\) Heterozygous

• (1) I, II
• (2) III, IV
• (3) I, III
• (4) II, III

Match the following:

List I  Name     List II   Contribution

A   Hugo de Vries   III   Mutations
B  Sturtevant          IV  Gene Mapping
C  Morgan               II   Linkage
D  Sutton and Boveri   I  Chromosomal theory

• (1) A-III, B-IV. C-II, D-I
  2 A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
• (3) A-IV. B-III, C-I, D-II
• (4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

Identify the wrongly matched one:

• (1) \(\phi\)174 bacteriophage — 5386 nucleotides
• (2) Bacteriophage lambda — 48502 nitrogen base pairs
• (3) E. coli — (4)6 \(\times\) 10\(^6\) base pairs
• (4) Human haploid — 6.6 \(\times\) 10\(^9\) base pairs

Choose the incorrect statement:

• (1) Replication fork is small opening of DNA
• (2) DNA polymerase synthesizes in 3′→5′ direction
• (3) 3′→5′ strand is leading strand
• (4) DNA polymerase synthesizes 5′→3′

Enzymes that remove nucleotides from ends and make specific cuts:

• (1) Hydrolases, Dehydrogenases
• (2) Dehydrogenases, Exonucleases
• (3) Endonucleases, Exonucleases
• (4) Exonucleases, Endonucleases

Methods for inserting recombinant DNA into host:


I. Selectable marker
II. Disarmed pathogen vector
III. Biolistic method
IV. Microinjection

• (1) I, II, III
• (2) II, III, IV
• (3) I, III, IV
• (4) I, II, IV

Choose the incorrect statements:


I. Human insulin is made in fungus
II. Insulin DNA sequences are introduced into the genophore of \textit{E. coli
III. Recombinant \textit{E. coli produces insulin chains

• (1) II, III
• (2) I only
• (3) III only
• (4) I, II

Which of the following is not a biosafety concern for GM crops?

• (1) Transferring allergens to humans
• (2) Harmful effects on biodiversity
• (3) Change of fundamental nature of vegetable
• (4) Unauthorised use of bioresources by multinational companies

Match the following varieties with their pest/disease resistance:
List I (Variety)                   List II (Pest/Disease) 
A   Pusa Gaurav                 V  Nematodes
B  Pusa Sem 2 (Bean)        II   Stem and fruit borer
C   Pusa Sawani (Okra)      III  Jassids, aphids, fruit borer
D  Parbhani Kranti (Okra)   I  Yellow Mosaic Virus

• (1) A - V, B - II, C - III, D - I
• (2) A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I
• (3) A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II
• (4) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I

Match commercial products with their microbial source:

Commercial Product   Microbial Product  
A  Detergents             IV  Lipases
B  Bottled juice          III Pectinase
C  Clot busters           II Streptokinase
D  Immunosuppressive agent   I  Cyclosporin-A
Options

• (1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
• (2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
• (3) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
• (4) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

Methanogens are:

• (1) Anaerobics used to produce methane from cellulosic waste
• (2) Anaerobics that enrich nitrogen content in soil
• (3) Earthworms aiding compost formation
• (4) Fungi in symbiosis with plants

Find the mismatched pair:

• (1) Alpha diversity — Diversity within a habitat
• (2) Beta diversity — Diversity between ecosystems
• (3) Gamma diversity — Diversity at the genetic level
• (4) Species richness — Number of species in a given area

Which of the following is not an alien species in India?

• (1) Lantana
• (2) Nile Perch
• (3) Parthenium
• (4) Eichhornia

Assertion (A): Arthropods are schizocoelomates

Reason (R): Coelom in arthropods is formed by splitting of mesoderm

• (1) A and R are true; R is correct explanation of A
• (2) A and R are true; R is not correct explanation of A
• (3) A is true, R is false
• (4) A is false, R is true

Choose the correct option:

Statement I: Synaptic transmission occurs from presynaptic to postsynaptic neuron.

Statement II: Presynaptic membrane contains receptors for neurotransmitters.

• (1) Both I and II are correct
• (2) I is correct, II is incorrect
• (3) I is incorrect, II is correct
• (4) Both I and II are incorrect

Neurilemma around axon of a neuron is formed by:

• (1) Ependymal cells
• (2) Microglial cells
• (3) Schwann cells
• (4) Oligodendrocytes

Identify the flatworms among the following non-chordate animals:


I. \textit{Euspongia
II. \textit{Aurelia
III. \textit{Beroe
IV. \textit{Taenia
V. \textit{Wuchereria
VI. \textit{Convoluta

• (1) I, III
• (2) II, IV
• (3) IV, VI
• (4) V, VI

Match the following:

Zoological Name   Common Name  

A)  (Pila III)        Apple snail
B) (Lepisma  V)   Silver fish
C) (Daphnia I)     Water flea
D) (Aranea   II)      Spider

• (1) A-III, B-V, C-I, D-II
• (2) A-II, B-I, C-V, D-III
• (3) A-III, B-V, C-II, D-IV
• (4) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-V

It is the fore-runner of thyroid gland of vertebrates:

• (1) Atrium
• (2) Endostyle
• (3) Pharynx
• (4) Test

Study the following and pick up the correct combinations:

Sl.No.   Classes          Features                    Examples
I   Osteichthyes   Filamentous gills             Scoliodon
II  Amphibia   Sternum appeared first time Ichthyophis
III  Reptiles         Temporal fossae                Bungarus
IV   Aves          Corpus callosum in brain     Corvus

• (1) I, II
• (2) II, III
• (3) III, IV
• (4) I, IV

Filopodia are found in which of the following organisms?

• (1) Eughypha
• (2) Euglena
• (3) Amoeba
• (4) Elphidium

Assertion (A): Binary fission in \textit{Euglena is called symmetrogenic division.

Reason (R): Plane of fission in \textit{Euglena is at right angles to the longitudinal axis of the body.

• (1) Both (A) and (R) are true. (R) is correct explanation for (A)
• (2) Both (A) and (R) are true. (R) is not correct explanation for (A)
• (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
• (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Match the parasites with their infective stages in humans:

\begin{tabular{p{0.45\linewidth p{0.45\linewidth
Parasites & Infective stage

A) \textit{Entamoeba histolytica & IV) Tetranucleate cyst

B) \textit{Plasmodium vivax & I) Sporozoite

C) \textit{Ascaris lumbricoides & III) 2nd stage Rhabditiform larva

D) \textit{Wuchereria bancrofti & II) 3rd stage Microfilaria

\end{tabular

%Options:

• (1) A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I
• (2) A - IV, B - I, C - V, D - II
• (3) A - IV, B - I, C - III, D - II
• (4) A - I, B - IV, C - III, D - II
  % Correct Matching

Parasite that causes African sleeping sickness:

• (1) Ascaris
• (2) Trypanosoma
• (3) Plasmodium
• (4) Wuchereria

Pick the wrongly matched pair:

• (1) Entamoeba histolytica – Cart wheel nucleus
• (2) Plasmodium vivax – Haemozoin granules
• (3) Ascaris lumbricoides – Mammillated eggs
• (4) Wuchereria bancrofti – Oviparous

Statement I: First pair of wings in cockroach help in flight and are called tegmina.

Statement II: In cockroach, arolia help in locomotion on smooth surfaces; plantulae help on rough surfaces.

• (1) Both I and II are true
• (2) Both I and II are false
• (3) I true, II false
• (4) I false, II true

The last part of the proctodaeum in a cockroach is:

• (1) Ileum
• (2) Colon
• (3) Rectum
• (4) Mesentron

Study the following statements regarding osmoregulatory adaptations in marine and freshwater fish and identify the correct statements:

I. Marine fishes actively excrete excess salt through their gills.

II. Freshwater fishes have glomerular kidneys.

III. Marine fishes face the problem of exosmosis.

IV. Freshwater fishes have salt-excreting chloride cells.

• (1) I, III, and IV
• (2) I, II, and III
• (3) I and II
• (4) II and III
• (1) **Marine Fish**: - Salt excretion via gills. - Drink seawater to combat dehydration.

Match the following pollutants with their corresponding control methods.

Pollutants                         Control

A) Particulate matter   I) Catalytic converter
B) Carbon monoxide   II) Scrubber
C) Sulphur dioxide      III) Incinerators
D) Hospital wastes      IV) Electrostatic precipitator

• (1) A–III, B–II, C–I, D–IV
• (2) A–IV, B–I, C–II, D–III
• (3) A–IV, B–II, C–I, D–III
• (4) A–III, B–I, C–IV, D–II

The bacterium converts nitrites into nitrates.

• (1) Pseudomonas
• (2) Nitrobacter
• (3) Nitrosococcus
• (4) Thiobacillus

Assertion (A): Gastric juice plays an important role in absorption of vitamin B1(2)

Reason (R): Gastric juice contains Castle’s intrinsic factor.

Identify the correct option from the following:

• (1) (A) and (R) are true, (R) is correct explanation for (A).
• (2) (A) and (R) are true, (R) is not correct explanation for (A).
• (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
• (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Pick the incorrect match.

• (1) Tidal volume – 500 mL
• (2) Inspiratory Reserve volume – 2,500 mL
• (3) Residual volume – 1,200 mL
• (4) Expiratory Reserve volume – 3,000 mL

These structures of human heart are functional in embryonic stage, but are non functional in adult stage.

• (1) Valve of Thebesius, Mitral valve, Ductus Botalli
• (2) Foramen Mannu, Eustachian valve, Ductus arteriosus
• (3) Fossa ovalis, Mitral valve, Ligamentum arteriosum
• (4) Foramen ovale, Eustachian valve, Ductus arteriosus

Study the following and identify the correct option.

Statement I: The juxtaglomerular cells release renin in response to decreased blood pressure.

Statement II: Renin directly acts on distal convoluted tubule, leading to increased blood pressure.

• (1) Both statements I and II are correct.
• (2) Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect.
• (3) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct.
• (4) Both statements I and II are incorrect.

Match the following:

List–I                                List–II

A. Ball and socket joint  I. Inter carpal joint
B. Hinge joint                   II. Between humerus and Pectoral girdle
C. Pivot joint                    III. Between carpals and metacarpals
D. Gliding joint                IV. Between atlas and axis
                                          V. Knee joint

• (1) A–II, B–V, C–III, D–IV
• (2) A–III, B–II, C–I, D–V
• (3) A–II, B–V, C–IV, D–I
• (4) A–I, B–IV, C–II, D–V

S.No.  Cranial nerves  Arises from …  Ends in ...
I. Olfactory nerves   Olfactory epithelium of  Temporal lobes of nasal chambers cerebrum
II.  Optic nerves            Retina of eyes                    Cerebellum
III.   Auditory nerves       Internal ears                        Cerebrum
IV.  Pathetic nerves       Floor of mid brain               Superior oblique & muscle of eye ball
List of Cranial Nerves: Their Origins and End Points

• (1) I, II
• (2) II, III
• (3) III, IV
• (4) I, IV

Match the following hormones with their corresponding disorders:
Hormone                  Disorder 
A) Thyroxine            I. Addison's disease
B) Vasopressin        II. Diabetes mellitus
C) Glucocorticoids  III. Acromegaly
D) Somatotropin      IV. Myxedema
                                  V. Diabetes insipidus
 

• (1) A - IV, B - II, C - I, D - III
• (2) A - V, B - II, C - IV, D - I
• (3) A - III, B - I, C - V, D - IV
• (4) A - IV, B - V, C - I, D - III

Pick up the mononuclear phagocyte.

• (1) Mast cell
• (2) Histiocyte
• (3) Basophil
• (4) Oesinophil

Cells primarily involved in humoral immunity are

• (1) B cells
• (2) T cells
• (3) NK cells
• (4) Macrophages

Part of antigen that binds to the specific part of antibody is called

• (1) Paratope
• (2) Isotope
• (3) Biotope
• (4) Epitope

Assertion (A): Colostrum is essential to protect the new-born baby from initial sources of infections.


Reason (R): Colostrum contains several antibodies (especially \(I_g\) - A type).

• (1) (A) and (R) are true. (R) is correct explanation (A).
• (2) (A) and (R) are true. (R) is not correct explanation for (A).
• (3) (A) is true. But (R) is false.
• (4) (A) is false. But (R) is true.

This hormone involves in ovulation.

• (1) Estrogen
• (2) Progesterone
• (3) Luteinizing hormone
• (4) Follicle-stimulating hormone

Infertility due to low sperm count can be rectified by the following Assisted Reproductive Technique.

• (1) Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer (ZIFT)
• (2) In Vitro Fertilization (IVF)
• (3) Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT)
• (4) Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI)

O-group child cannot have parents of following blood groups.

• (1) B and B
• (2) A and B
• (3) O and O
• (4) AB and O

Study the following regarding human genome project and identify the correct statements:


I. The largest known human gene is located on X-chromosome.

II. Chromosome 1 has the lowest number of genes.

III. Less than 2 percent of the genes code for proteins.

IV. The human genome contains 316(4)7 billion nucleotide bases.

• (1) I and II
• (2) II and III
• (3) I and III
• (4) II and IV

The Karyotype AA + XXY leads to

• (1) Turner syndrome
• (2) Klinefelter syndrome
• (3) Down syndrome
• (4) Cushing syndrome

Cystic fibrosis is characterised by

• (1) Increased sodium chloride in sweat
• (2) Urine becomes black on exposure to air
• (3) Conversion of phenyl aniline into tyrosine
• (4) Replacement of glutamic acid by valine

Assertion (A): Genetic drift tends to reduce the amount of genetic variation within the population.


Reason (R): In genetic drift alleles with low frequencies are removed in a population.

• (1) (A) and (R) are true. (R) is correct explanation (A).
• (2) (A) and (R) are true. (R) is not correct explanation for (A).
• (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
• (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

This hominoid is more ape like.

• (1) Dryopithecus
• (2) Ramapithecus
• (3) Australopithecus
• (4) Homo ergaster

Tall T-wave of ECG indicates

• (1) Hyperkalemia
• (2) Hypokalemia
• (3) Bradycardia
• (4) Tachycardia

Match the following.

List-I                                                        List-II
A) Attenuated whole agent vaccine     I. Polio
B) Inactivated whole agent vaccines   II. Guardian angel of genome
C) Toxoids                                              III. Measles
D) \(p^{53}\) protein                               IV. Diphtheria

• (1) A - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III
• (2) A - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV
• (3) A - I, B - IV, C - III, D - II
• (4) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II

If the measured values of the voltage across and the current through a resistor are \((100 \pm 5)\,V\) and \((10 \pm 0.2)\,A\) respectively, then the error in the determination of the resistance is:
 

• (1) 5%
• (2) 7%
• (3) 5.2%
• (4) 9.6%

If a body is thrown vertically upwards from the ground with a velocity of 20 m/s, then its displacement during the last second of upward motion is (Acceleration due to gravity \(g=10\,m/s^2\)):

• (1) 5 m
• (2) 10 m
• (3) 15 m
• (4) 20 m

If a ball released from a height \(H\) takes a time \(T\) to reach the ground, then the position of the ball from the ground at a time \(\frac{T}{2}\) is:

• (1) \(\frac{H}{4}\)
• (2) \(\frac{H}{2}\)
• (3) \(\frac{3H}{4}\)
• (4) \(\frac{2H}{3}\)

For a particle moving in x-y plane, if at any instant of time ‘t’ (in second) its displacements (in metre) are \(x=2t^{2}-t\) and \(y=4t^{2}-4t\), then the velocity of the particle at a time \(t=1\,s\) is:

• (1) \(3\,m/s\)
• (2) \(7\,m/s\)
• (3) \(1\,m/s\)
• (4) \(5\,m/s\)

A body of mass 6 kg is moved with uniform speed on a rough horizontal surface through a distance of 200 cm. If the coefficient of kinetic friction between the surface and the body is 0.1, then the work done against friction is (Acceleration due to gravity \(g = 10\, m/s^2\)):

• (1) 12 J
• (2) 24 J
• (3) 36 J
• (4) 48 J

If the time taken for a block to slide down a smooth inclined plane of angle of inclination \(30^\circ\) is 4 s, then the time taken by the block to slide down a rough inclined plane of the same length and same angle of inclination is

(The coefficient of kinetic friction between the inclined plane and the block = \(0.28/\sqrt{3}\))

• (1) 10 s
• (2) 8 s
• (3) 6 s
• (4) 12 s

A machine gun with power 15 kW can fire 360 bullets per minute. If the mass of each bullet is 5 g, then the velocity of the bullets is:

• (1) 1500 m s\(^{-1}\)
• (2) 1000 m s\(^{-1}\)
• (3) 3600 m s\(^{-1}\)
• (4) 500 m s\(^{-1}\)

The slope of kinetic energy (on y-axis) and linear displacement (on x-axis) graph of a body gives the rate of change of:

• (1) Linear momentum
• (2) Linear velocity
• (3) Force
• (4) Angular momentum

The upper end of a wire of length 5 m is fixed to the ceiling and a 20 kg mass is attached at its lower end. If the wire makes an angle \(60^\circ\) with the horizontal, then the moment of force due to gravity to the upper end of the wire is: (Acceleration due to gravity = 10 m s\(^{-2}\))

• (1) 200 N m
• (2) 500/\(\sqrt{3}\) N m
• (3) 250/\(\sqrt{3}\) N m
• (4) 500 N m

As shown in the figure, if a solid sphere of mass \(M\) rolling with a speed \(v\) on a horizontal surface strikes a spring of force constant \(k\), then the maximum compression of the spring is

• (1) \(\sqrt{\frac{5Mv^2}{3k}}\)
• (2) \(\sqrt{\frac{7Mv^2}{5k}}\)
• (3) \(\sqrt{\frac{Mv^2}{k}}\)
• (4) \(\sqrt{\frac{3Mv^2}{2k}}\)

If the equation for the displacement of a particle executing simple harmonic motion is \(x = 3 \sin \left( \frac{2\pi t}{18} + \frac{\pi}{6} \right)\) cm, then the distance travelled by the particle in a time of 36 s is

(Time \(t\) is in seconds)

• (1) 24 cm
• (2) 12 cm
• (3) 18 cm
• (4) 15 cm

If \(T\) is the time period of a simple pendulum, then at a time \(\frac{T}{6}\) the pendulum passes its mean position

• (1) Kinetic and potential energies of the pendulum are equal
• (2) The displacement of the pendulum is half of its amplitude
• (3) Acceleration of the pendulum is half of the maximum acceleration
• (4) The velocity of the pendulum is half of its maximum velocity

If a body is projected from the surface of the earth with a velocity of \(\sqrt{5}V_e\), then the velocity of the body when it escapes from the gravitational influence of the earth is

(Escape velocity of a body from the surface of the earth, \(V_e = 1(1)2\) km s\(^{-1}\))

• (1) 2(2)4 km s\(^{-1}\)
• (2) 1(1)2 km s\(^{-1}\)
• (3) 1(1)2/\(\sqrt{5}\) km s\(^{-1}\)
• (4) 5.6 km s\(^{-1}\)

A person of mass 45 kg having leg bones each of length 50 cm and area of cross-section of 5 cm\(^2\) jumps safely from a height of 2 m. If his leg bones can withstand a stress of \(0.9 \times 10^8\) N m\(^{-2}\), then the Young’s modulus of the leg bones is

(Acceleration due to gravity \(g = 10\) m s\(^{-2}\))

• (1) \(225 \times 10^8\) N m\(^{-2}\)
• (2) \((2)25 \times 10^8\) N m\(^{-2}\)
• (3) \(2 \times 10^8\) N m\(^{-2}\)
• (4) \((1)125 \times 10^8\) N m\(^{-2}\)

The work to be done to blow a soap bubble of radius \(3 \times 10^{-3}\) m is nearly

(Surface tension of soap solution = \(20 \times 10^{-3}\) N m\(^{-1}\))

• (1) \((4)5 \times 10^{-4}\) J
• (2) \((4)5 \times 10^{-5}\) J
• (3) \((4)5 \times 10^{-6}\) J
• (4) \((4)5 \times 10^{-7}\) J

A solid sphere at a temperature of 400 K radiates a power \(P\). If the radius of the sphere is halved and its absolute temperature is doubled, then the power radiated by it is

• (1) \(\frac{P}{4}\)
• (2) \(\frac{P}{2}\)
• (3) \(2P\)
• (4) \(4P\)

When a polyatomic gas is heated at constant pressure, the percentage of heat given to the gas that is converted into external work is

(Ratio of the specific heat capacities of the gas = \(\frac{4}{3}\))

• (1) 30
• (2) 25
• (3) 20
• (4) 45

The thermodynamic process in which the change in internal energy of the system becomes zero is

• (1) Adiabatic process
• (2) Isothermal process
• (3) Isobaric process
• (4) Isochoric process

The efficiency of a Carnot engine operating between the temperatures 1000 K and 300 K is

• (1) 60%
• (2) 70%
• (3) 90%
• (4) 80%

A closed vessel contains a gas at a pressure \(P\). If 50% of the mass of the gas is removed and rms speed of the gas molecules is increased by 20%, then the pressure of the remaining gas is

• (1) \(\frac{16P}{25}\)
• (2) \(\frac{8P}{25}\)
• (3) \(\frac{9P}{25}\)
• (4) \(\frac{18P}{25}\)

If a sound wave emitted by a stationary source of frequency 680 Hz travels towards a stationary observer 150 m away, then the number of waves between the source and observer are
(speed of sound in air = 340 m s\(^{-1}\))

• (1) 300
• (2) 150
• (3) 75
• (4) 450

As shown in the figure, a rod AB of length 5 cm is placed in front of a convex mirror on its principal axis. If the radius of curvature of the mirror is 20 cm, then the length of the image of the rod is:

• (1) \(\frac{5}{3}\) cm
• (2) \(\frac{5}{2}\) cm
• (3) \(\frac{5}{4}\) cm
• (4) \(\frac{5}{6}\) cm

A source of light approaching the Earth emits a light of wavelength \(600\, nm\). If this light is observed at a wavelength of \(599\, nm\) by an observer on Earth, then the speed of the source of light in km/s is: \[ (speed of light in vacuum c = 3 \times 10^8 \, m/s) \]

• (1) 250
• (2) 300
• (3) 400
• (4) 500

If three particles of each charge \( +q \) are placed at the three vertices of an equilateral triangle of side \( \sqrt{3}r \), then the net electric field at the centroid of the triangle is:

• (1) \( \frac{1}{4\pi\varepsilon_0} \cdot \frac{q}{r} \)
• (2) \( \frac{1}{4\pi\varepsilon_0} \cdot \frac{q}{r^2} \)
• (3) \( \frac{1}{4\pi\varepsilon_0} \cdot \frac{3q}{r^2} \)
• (4) zero

If an electric generator produces a potential difference of \(180\,kV\) in a spark of length \(9\,cm\), then the maximum electric field generated is:

• (1) \( 3 \times 10^6 \, N/C \)
• (2) \( 10^6 \, N/C \)
• (3) \( 2 \times 10^6 \, N/C \)
• (4) \( 4 \times 10^6 \, N/C \)

To decrease the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor:

• (1) a dielectric material is to be introduced between the plates
• (2) the area of the plates is to be increased
• (3) the area of the plates is to be increased and distance between them is to be decreased
• (4) the distance between the plates is to be increased

Two cells of each emf \((1)5\,V\) and internal resistance \(1\,\Omega\) are first connected in series to an external resistance \(R\), and then the cells are connected in parallel to the same resistance. If the ratio of the potential differences across \(R\) in the two cases is \(4:3\), then the value of \(R\) is:

• (1) \(5.5\,\Omega\)
• (2) \((4)5\,\Omega\)
• (3) \((3)5\,\Omega\)
• (4) \((2)5\,\Omega\)

The distance travelled by an electron in time of \(3\,ns\) when accelerated from rest in an electric field of \(0.9 \times 10^4\, N/C\) is: \[ (mass of electron = 9 \times 10^{-31} kg, charge = (1)6 \times 10^{-19} C) \]

• (1) 7.2 m
• (2) 7.2 cm
• (3) 72 cm
• (4) 0.72 cm

The magnetic field at a point \( P \) at a distance of 2 cm from a long straight wire of diameter 0.5 mm carrying a current of 1 A is \( B \). If the diameter of the wire is doubled without changing the current, the magnetic field at the same point \( P \) is:

• (1) \( 2B \)
• (2) \( \frac{B}{2} \)
• (3) \( \frac{3B}{4} \)
• (4) \( B \)

The magnetic force per unit length acting on a wire carrying a current of \(4\sqrt{3}\) A and making an angle of \(60^\circ\) with the direction of a uniform magnetic field of 200 mT is:

• (1) \((1)8 \, N/m\)
• (2) \((2)4 \, N/m\)
• (3) \(0.6 \, N/m\)
• (4) \((1)2 \, N/m\)

Two identical short bar magnets, each having a magnetic moment of \(1 \, A \cdot m^2\), are placed 2 m apart between their centers with their axes perpendicular to each other. The net magnetic field at the midpoint of the line joining the centers of the two magnets is:

• (1) \(2 \times 10^{-7} \, T\)
• (2) \(1 \times 10^{-7} \, T\)
• (3) \(\sqrt{5} \times 10^{-7} \, T\)
• (4) \(\sqrt{3} \times 10^{-7} \, T\)

The device constructed based on the laws of electromagnetic induction is:

• (1) Galvanometer
• (2) Electric motor
• (3) Ohm meter
• (4) Electric generator

If an inductor of inductance \(0.5 \, \mu H\) is connected to an AC source of frequency 70 MHz and voltage (3)3 V, then the current through the inductor is:

• (1) 5 mA
• (2) 7.5 mA
• (3) 15 mA
• (4) 30 mA

The electric field between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor changes at the rate of \((4)5 \times 10^{7} \, V/m/s\). If the plates of the capacitor are circular with radius 2 cm, then the displacement current inside the capacitor is:

• (1) 0.2 \(\mu A\)
• (2) 0.3 \(\mu A\)
• (3) 0.4 \(\mu A\)
• (4) 0.5 \(\mu A\)

A particle is moving with a velocity four times the velocity of an electron. If the de Broglie wavelength of the particle is \((1)5 \times 10^{-4}\) times the de Broglie wavelength of the electron, then the mass of the particle is (mass of electron \(= 9 \times 10^{-31} \, kg\)):

• (1) \((1)5 \times 10^{-31} \, kg\)
• (2) \((1)5 \times 10^{-27} \, kg\)
• (3) \((2)25 \times 10^{-27} \, kg\)
• (4) \((2)85 \times 10^{-31} \, kg\)

When an electron beam of energy 10.2 eV is used to excite hydrogen gas, then the possible spectral line is:

• (1) First Balmer line
• (2) First Lyman line
• (3) Second Balmer line
• (4) Second Lyman line

The equation for \(\,^{23}_{10}Ne\) nucleus which decays by \(\beta\)-emission is:

• (1) \[ ^{23}_{10}Ne \xrightarrow{\beta-decay} \, ^{23}_{10}Ne + \overline{\nu} + e^{+} \]
• (2) \[ ^{23}_{10}Ne \xrightarrow{\beta-decay} \, ^{23}_{10}Ne + \nu + e^{-} \]
• (3) \[ ^{23}_{10}Ne \xrightarrow{\beta-decay} \, ^{23}_{11}Na + e^{+} + \nu \]
• (4) \[ ^{23}_{10}Ne \xrightarrow{\beta-decay} \, ^{23}_{11}Na + e^{-} + \overline{\nu} \]

Two diodes with zero resistance in forward bias and infinite resistance in reverse bias are connected to a battery as shown in the circuit. Then the value of current \(i\) is:

• (1) zero
• (2) 0.5 A
• (3) 0.4 A
• (4) 0.75 A

The circuit consisting of NAND gates that is equivalent to an AND gate is:

If a linear antenna radiates a power \(P\) at a wavelength \(\lambda\), then the power radiated by the same antenna at a wavelength of \(\frac{\lambda}{\sqrt{3}}\) is:

• (1) \(P\)
• (2) \(\sqrt{3} P\)
• (3) \(\frac{P}{3}\)
• (4) \(3P\)

A spectral line of Lyman series of H-atom has a frequency of \((2)466 \times 10^{15} \, s^{-1}\). What is the transition responsible for this spectral line?

(Rydberg constant \(R = (1)096 \times 10^7 \, m^{-1}\))

• (1) \(n_2 = 2 \to n_1 = 1\)
• (2) \(n_2 = 3 \to n_1 = 1\)
• (3) \(n_2 = 4 \to n_1 = 2\)
• (4) \(n_2 = 5 \to n_1 = 1\)

If the kinetic energy of a particle having wavelength \(x \, \AA\) is increased to three times, its de Broglie wavelength (in \text{\AA) is:

• (1) \(3x\)
• (2) \(\sqrt{3} x\)
• (3) \(\frac{x}{\sqrt{3}}\)
• (4) \(\frac{x}{3}\)

From the following identify the change in which electron gain enthalpy is positive. (g = gas phase):

• (1) \(Li(g) \to Li^-(g)\)
• (2) \(O(g) \to O^-(g)\)
• (3) \(Xe(g) \to Xe^-(g)\)
• (4) \(S(g) \to S^-(g)\)

Observe the following molecules:
\(SO_2, H_2O, HgCl_2, BeCl_2, XeF_2, O_3, NO_2, PbCl_2\).

The number of molecules with the same geometry as that of \(SnCl_2\) is:

• (1) 6
• (2) 5
• (3) 4
• (4) 3

The increasing order of covalent character of \(NaCl (I), RbCl (II), MgCl_2 (III), AlCl_3 (IV)\) is:

• (1) \(I, II, III, IV\)
• (2) \(IV, II, I, III\)
• (3) \(II, I, III, IV\)
• (4) \(III, I, II, IV\)

For one mole of an ideal gas, three isochors were obtained at \(V_1, V_2\) and \(V_3\) respectively. Their slopes are \(m_1, m_2\) and \(m_3\). If \(V_1 < V_2 < V_3\), then the correct relationship of slopes is:

• (1) \(m_2 < m_3 < m_1\)
• (2) \(m_1 < m_2 < m_3\)
• (3) \(m_1 > m_2 > m_3\)
• (4) \(m_1 = m_2 = m_3\)

At what temperature rms speed of \(SO_3\) molecules is \((3)16 \times 10^2 \, ms^{-1}\)?

(R = 8.314 J K\(^{-1}\) mol\(^{-1}\))

• (1) 480 K
• (2) 320 K
• (3) 160 K
• (4) 640 K

In acid medium dichromate oxidizes sulphite to sulphate as shown below. Identify correct statements about this balanced equation:
\[ x Cr_2O_7^{2-} + y SO_3^{2-} + z H^+ \rightarrow a Cr^{3+} + b SO_4^{2-} + c H_2O \]
Statements:
I) Sum of \(x\) and \(y\) is (4)

II) Sum of \(a\) and \(c\) is equal to \((3 + b)\).

III) Sum of \(x\), \(y\), and \(z\) is 1(1)

• (1) I, II, III
• (2) I, II only
• (3) I, III only
• (4) II, III only

The enthalpy of atomization of \(CH_3NH_2(g)\) is 2313 kJ mol\(^{-1}\). If \(\Delta_{C-H}^{\ominus}\) and \(\Delta_{N-H}^{\ominus}\) are 414 and 389 kJ mol\(^{-1}\) respectively, then \(\Delta_{C-N}^{\ominus}\) (in kJ mol\(^{-1}\)) will be:

• (1) 293
• (2) 1510
• (3) 682
• (4) 778

The value of \(\Delta_r H\) for the reaction:
\[ N_2O_4(g) + 3 CO(g) \rightarrow N_2O(g) + 3 CO_2(g) \]
(in kJ) is:

(Given: Enthalpies of formation in kJ mol\(^{-1}\) are \(CO(g) = -110\), \(CO_2(g) = -393\), \(N_2O(g) = 81\), and \(N_2O_4(g) = 9.7\))

• (1) +678
• (2) -678
• (3) -778
• (4) +578

At T(K), the equilibrium constant for the reaction \[ N_2(g) + 3H_2(g) \rightleftharpoons 2NH_3(g) \]
is \(6 \times 10^{-2}\). At equilibrium, if the molar concentrations of \(H_2\) and \(NH_3\) are 0.25 M and 0.06 M respectively, the equilibrium concentration of dinitrogen (in mol L\(^{-1}\)) is:

• (1) (2)84
• (2) (3)84
• (3) 8.34
• (4) (4)82

Which of the following aqueous solutions has highest pH?
(Given \(\log 2 = 0.30\), \(\log 3 = 0.48\), \(\log 4 = 0.60\), \(\log 5 = 0.70\))

• (1) 0.2 M \(Ba(OH)_2\)
• (2) 0.02 N \(Ba(OH)_2\)
• (3) 0.1 M NaOH
• (4) 0.05 M \(Ba(OH)_2\)

Which of the following is not related to the removal of permanent hardness of water?

• (1) \(Na_2CO_3\)
• (2) \(NaAlSiO_4\)
• (3) \(Na_6(PO_3)_6\)
• (4) \(Na_3PO_4\)

The \(E^\circ_{M^+_{(aq)}/M_{(s)}}\) is highest with negative sign for alkali metal 'x' and lowest with negative sign for alkali metal 'y'. In flame test, the characteristic colours of 'x' and 'y' are respectively:

• (1) Blue, Yellow
• (2) Yellow, Violet
• (3) Yellow, Crimson red
• (4) Crimson red, Yellow

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The products formed when diborane burns in air are \(B_2O_3\), \(H_2\), and \(O_2\).

Statement-II: Hybridization of boron atom in orthoboric acid is \(sp^2\).

The correct answer is:

• (1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
• (2) Both statement-I and statement-II are not correct
• (3) Statement-I is correct, but statement-II is not correct
• (4) Statement-I is not correct, but statement-II is correct

In which of the following set, both the substances have same hybridisation?

• (1) Diamond, Buckminster fullerene
• (2) Graphite, Buckminster fullerene
• (3) Carbon dioxide, graphite
• (4) Diamond, carbon dioxide

Identify the herbicides from the following:

a) DDT \quad b) Aldrin \quad c) Sodium chlorate \quad d) Nicotine \quad e) Sodium arsenite

• (1) c, e
• (2) a, d
• (3) b, c
• (4) d, e

Electrolysis of aqueous solution of potassium acetate gives an alkane (x) and \(CO_2\) (y) at anode. The volume ratio of these two gases \(x\) and \(y\) at STP is respectively:

• (1) 1 : 1
• (2) 2 : 1
• (3) 1 : 2
• (4) 1 : 3

The correct sequence of reactions involved in the conversion of \(n\)-heptane to benzene is:

• (1) Oxidation, aromatisation, reduction
• (2) Isomerisation, oxidation, decarboxylation
• (3) Aromatisation, oxidation, decarboxylation
• (4) Aromatisation, oxidation, reduction

A compound consists of atoms A and B. The atoms of B form hcp lattice. The atoms of A occupy \(\frac{1}{3}\) rd of octahedral voids and \(\frac{1}{3}\) rd of tetrahedral voids. What is the molecular formula of the compound?

• (1) \(A_2B\)
• (2) \(AB_2\)
• (3) \(AB_3\)
• (4) \(AB\)

What are the mole fractions of glucose and water respectively, in 20% (w/w) aqueous glucose solution?
(\(C = 12\,u\); \(O = 16\,u\); \(H = 1\,u\))

• (1) 0.0244, 0.9756
• (2) 0.04, 0.96
• (3) 0.0636, 0.9364
• (4) 0.0124, 0.9876

A liquid mixture of aniline and 'x' forms a non-ideal solution with negative deviation from Raoult's law. What is 'x'?

• (1) Benzene
• (2) Acetone
• (3) Phenol
• (4) Toluene

Consider the following cell at 298 K:
\[ Mg(s) | Mg^{2+}(x M) || Zn^{2+}(y M) | Zn(s) \]
The cell reaction reached the equilibrium state. What is the value of \(\log \frac{[Mg^{2+}]}{[Zn^{2+}]}\)?
Given: \[ E^\circ_{Mg^{2+}/Mg} = -(2)36\, V; \quad E^\circ_{Zn^{2+}/Zn} = -0.76\, V; \quad \frac{(2)303 RT}{F} = 0.06\, V \]

• (1) 5(3)33
• (2) 5.333
• (3) 26.67
• (4) (2)667

A → P is a first order reaction. At T(K), the concentration of reactant (A) after 10 min of the reaction is \(x\) mol L\(^{-1}\). After 20 min, the concentration of A is \(y\) mol L\(^{-1}\). What is its rate constant (in min\(^{-1}\))?

• (1) \(0.2303 \log \frac{x}{y}\)
• (2) \((2)303 \log \frac{x}{y}\)
• (3) \((2)303 \log \frac{y}{x}\)
• (4) \(0.2303 \log \frac{y}{x}\)

Which of the following is the most effective protective colloid on the basis of gold number values?

• (1) Haemoglobin
• (2) Potato starch
• (3) Gelatin
• (4) Gum arabic

Consider the following:

Statement-I: The charge on colloidal particle can be confirmed by electrophoresis experiment.

Statement-II: Whipped cream is an example of Aerosol.

The correct answer is:

• (1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
• (2) Both statement-I and statement-II are not correct
• (3) Statement-I is correct, but statement-II is not correct
• (4) Statement-I is not correct, but statement-II is correct

The ore, concentrated by froth floatation process is:

• (1) Malachite
• (2) Sphalerite
• (3) Bauxite
• (4) Zincite

Match the following molecules with their bond angles:
List-I (Molecule)          List-II (Bond angle) 
A) \(\mathrm{NH}_3\)   I) 10(2)2° 
B) \(\mathrm{O}_3\)     II) 107.8° &
C) \(\mathrm{S}_6\)     III) 9(3)6° &
D) \(\mathrm{PH}_3\)   IV) 117° &

• (1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
• (2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
• (3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
• (4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

Match the following complexes with their number of unpaired electrons:

List-I (Complex)                                    List-II (No. of unpaired electrons)  

A) \([\mathrm{MnCl}_6]^{3-}\)                                 I) 5 
B) \([\mathrm{FeF}_6]^{3-}\)                                   II) 2 &
C) \([\mathrm{Mn(CN)}_6]^{3-}\)                            III) 0 &
D) \([\mathrm{Co(C}_2\mathrm{O}_4)_3]^{3-}\)   IV) 4 &

• (1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
• (2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
• (3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
• (4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

Which one of the following oxidizes manganous salt to permanganate in aqueous solution?

• (1) \(H_2O_2\)
• (2) \(O_2\)
• (3) \(O_3\)
• (4) \(K_2S_2O_8\)

Polyacrylonitrile is used as a substitute for wool in making commercial fibres as acrilan. The structure of it is:

• (1) \(\left[-CH_2 - CH-\right]_n \quad | \quad NC \)
• (2) \(\left[-CH_2 - CH-\right]_n \quad | \quad OH \)
• (3) \(\left[-CH_2 - CH-\right]_n \quad | \quad CN \)
• (4) \(\left[-CH_2 - CH-\right]_n \quad | \quad NO_2 \)

Which of the following is a non-reducing sugar?

• (1) Glucose
• (2) Fructose
• (3) Maltose
• (4) Sucrose

The disease caused by deficiency of pyridoxine is:

• (1) Rickets
• (2) Convulsions
• (3) Scurvy
• (4) Beri-Beri

Identify the pair which is not correctly matched:

• (1) Aspirin - prevents platelet coagulation
• (2) Histamine - dilates smooth muscle in bronchi
• (3) Aspirin - inhibits prostaglandin synthesis
• (4) Histamine - stimulates the secretion of HCl in stomach

What are X and Y respectively in the following set of reactions?

What are X and Y respectively, in the following set of reactions?

What is Z in the given reaction sequence? \[ (1) B_2H_6 \quad \longrightarrow \quad X \quad \xrightarrow{PCC} \quad Y \quad \xrightarrow{NH_2OH} \quad Z \] \[ (2) H_2O, H_2O_2, OH^- \]

• (1) \( \mathrm{CH_3 - C = N - OH} \quad (CH_3 group attached to C) \)
• (2) \( \mathrm{CH_3CH_2CH = N - OH} \)
• (3) \( \mathrm{CH_3 - CH_2 - CH_2 - NH_2} \)
• (4) \( \mathrm{CH_3 - CH_2 - NH - CH_3} \)

Which of the following compounds give salt of an acid and alcohol on heating with concentrated KOH?

• (1) Formaldehyde
• (2) Acetaldehyde
• (3) Acetone
• (4) Acetophenone

What are X and Z in the following reaction sequence? (X forms sodium alkynide)
\[ X (C_4H_6) \xrightarrow{partial reduction} Y \xrightarrow{H_2O/H^+} Z \quad (major product) \]

• (1) \( \mathrm{CH_3C \equiv CCH_3}, \mathrm{CH_3CH_2CH(OH)CH_3} \)
• (2) \( \mathrm{CH_3C \equiv CCH_3}, \mathrm{CH_3CH_2CH_2CH_2OH} \)
• (3) \( \mathrm{CH_3CH_2C \equiv CH}, \mathrm{CH_3CH_2CH(OH)CH_3} \)
• (4) \( \mathrm{CH_3CH_2C \equiv CH}, \mathrm{CH_3CH_2CH_2CH_2OH} \)

Identify the amide which gives propan-1-amine by Hoffmann bromamide reaction.

• (1) \( \mathrm{CH_3CH_2CONH_2} \)
• (2) \( \mathrm{CH_3CH(CH_3)CONH_2} \)
• (3) \( \mathrm{CH_3CH_2CH_2CONH_2} \)
• (4) \( \mathrm{CH_3CH_2CONHCH_3} \)