AP EAPCET (AP EAMCET) 2024 Question Paper May 17 Shift 2 (Available): Download BiPC Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

Books having information on any one taxon

• (1) Key
• (2) Manual
• (3) Flora
• (4) Monograph

Match the following:

• (1) I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A
• (2) I-C, II-D, III-B, IV-A
• (3) I-A, II-D, III-B, IV-C
• (4) I-B, II-D, III-A, IV-C

Choose the correct pair from the following:

• (1) I, IV
• (2) II. III
• (3) III, IV
• (4) I, III

In Funaria, the spores are dispersed with this:

• (1) Elaters
• (2) Peristomial teeth
• (3) Pseudoelaters
• (4) Buller mechanism

Identify A, B, C plants in a series based on these characters of roots:

A. Roots at lower nodes of stem

B. Roots absorb water and food from host plant

C. Root forming nodules

• (1) Vanda, Viscum, Cuscuta
• (2) Avicennia, Striga, Pisum
• (3) Maize, Viscum, Vanda
• (4) Sugarcane, Rafflesia, Groundnut

Plants which perform photosynthesis by these parts:

a) Ribbon like roots

b) Fleshy cylindrical stem

c) Needle like stem

d) Flattened stem

• (1) Taeniophyllum, Opuntia, Oxalis, Dioscorea
• (2) Taeniophyllum, Casuarina, Opuntia, Dioscorea
• (3) Taeniophyllum, Euphorbia, Casuarina, Opuntia
• (4) Casuarina, Euphorbia, Taeniophyllum, Opuntia

Choose the incorrect statement regarding type of reproduction in plants:

• (1) Clones are Plants produced vegetatively and asexually
• (2) Spores produced on specialized sporangiophores are conidia
• (3) Gemmae are specialized structures of reproduction via asexual reproduction
• (4) Asexual spores of Chlamydomonas are motile

Assertion [A]: Fungal zygote develops a thick wall that is resistant to desiccation and damage

Reason [R]: Formation of diploid zygote is universal in all sexually reproducing organisms and its development depends on the type of life cycles

• (1) A and R are correct. R is the correct explanation of A
• (2) A and R are correct. R is not the correct explanation of A
• (3) A is correct but R is incorrect
• (4) A is incorrect but R is correct

The plants showing: Perigynous flower, carpels arranged obliquely at 45°, and protogynous flowers are

• (1) Dolichos, Cicer; Phaseolus
• (2) Crotalaria, Nicotiana, Datura
• (3) Pisum, Capsicum, Solanum
• (4) Datura, Petunia, Withania

The structure processing microfilaments and microtubules and its function in a cell

• (1) Eukaryotic cytoskeleton — Signalling across the cell
• (2) Centrosome — Cell division
• (3) Prokaryotic cytoskeleton — cell motility
• (4) Axoneme — Intra cellular transport

Assertion (A): Hydrolytic enzymes are present in lysosomes

Reason (R): Catabolism of fatty acids occur in Lysosomes

• (1) A and R are correct. R is the correct explanation of A
• (2) A and R are correct. R is not the correct explanation of A
• (3) A is correct but R is incorrect
• (4) A is incorrect but R is correct

Study and match the following lists:

• (A) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
• (B) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
• (C) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
• (D) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Study the following table with reference to the meiocyte of Rice and find correct combination:

• (1) II,III
• (2) II,IV
• (3) I,IV
• (4) I,III

Intrafascicular cambium and interfascicular cambium are present in these places:

• (1) Between primary xylem and primary phloem respectively
• (2) Primary xylem and primary phloem and in between primary vascular bundles respectively
• (3) Primary vascular bundles and below the pericycle respectively
• (4) Below the hypodermis and above the pericycle respectively

Find the correct statements regarding the structure of xylem and phloem:


I. Xylem parenchyma store starch or fat or Tannins
II. Xylem parenchyma have highly thickened walls and obliterated central lumens
III. Companion cells are controlled by nucleus of sieve tubes
IV. Phloem parenchyma is absent in most of the monocots

• (1) I,IV
• (2) II,III
• (3) III,IV
• (4) I,II

Choose the incorrect statements related to internal organization of plants:


I. Stomata regulate the process of photosynthesis and gaseous exchange.
II. In bicollateral vascular bundles, xylem and phloem are situated at the same radius of vascular bundles.
III. Monocot root has more xylem bundles compared to Dicot root.

• (1) I and II
• (2) II and III
• (3) I and III
• (4) III only

Choose the correct statement:


I. Continuous decline in pollinator activity could mean rising of fruits and seeds production.
II. Conversion of wild lands for domestic use is the cause of disruption of pollinators.
III. Submerged macrophytes enrich the dissolved oxygen in water.

• (1) I only
• (2) I and III
• (3) II and III
• (4) III only

Assertion [A]: The gradual and predictable change in the species composition of a given area is called ecological succession.

Reason [R]: Biotic community is slow and undergo changes with the passage of time.

• (1) A and R are correct. R is the correct explanation of A
• (2) A and R are correct. R is not the correct explanation of A
• (3) A is correct but R is incorrect
• (4) A is incorrect but R is correct

From the diagram answer the following:





From the diagram answer the following



\begin{tabular{ll
A. & Cell shows less \(\Psi_w\)

B. & Cell shows less \(\Psi_s\)

C. & Solution shows more \(\Psi_s\)

\end{tabular

• (1) AAA
• (2) BBB
• (3) ABA
• (4) ABB

Find incorrect statements related to water relations in plants:


A. Water potential difference is the drawing force for osmosis.
B. The driving force of diffusion is the concentration gradient.
C. Pressure potential is negative.

• (1) A
• (2) B
• (3) C
• (4) B,C

A: Fe, B: K, C: P, D: S

These elements are important for proteins in the following activities:

I. Major constituent of proteins.

II. Stabilizing the protein structure.

III. Important constituent of certain proteins.

IV. Involved in protein synthesis.

• (1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
• (2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
• (3) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
• (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Assertion (A): Influx of ions into inner space of cells is an active process.

Reason (R): Ions are available for free exchange in free space.

• (1) A and R are correct. R is the correct explanation of A
• (2) A and R are correct. R is not the correct explanation of A
• (3) A is correct but R is incorrect
• (4) A is incorrect but R is correct

Match the following:

• (1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
• (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
• (3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
• (4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

The ratio of the number of electrons to be excited from PS II during non-cyclic photophosphorylation and PS I during cyclic phosphorylation respectively to form 120 ATPs

• (1) 2:3
• (2) 1:4
• (3) 4:5
• (4) 3:4

Give the ratios between the following compounds in photosynthesis of plants:

A. Tetroses and sedoheptuloses
B. CO2 fixed and net production of G-3-P
C. DHAP takes part in regenerative phase and RUBP formed

• (1) A-5:1, B-3:1, C=2:3
• (2) A-3:2, B-1:2, C-3:4
• (3) A-1:5, B-1:3, C-3:2
• (4) A-2:4, B-3:4, C-3:2

Arrange the following respiratory substrates in increasing order based on ATPs they give on complete oxidation in three stages of aerobic respiration:

I: G-3-P (Glyceraldehyde 3-Phosphate)

II: Acetyl CoA

III: Acetyl CoA

IV: \(\alpha\)-Ketoglutarate (\(\alpha\)KGA)

• (1) II, IV, I, III
• (2) III, II, I, IV
• (3) I, III, II, IV
• (4) IV, III, II, I

Assertion (A): New cells are always being added to the plant body by the activity of the meristem.

Reason (R): The cells/tissues arising out of the same meristem have different structures at maturity.

• (1) A and R are correct. R is the correct explanation of A
• (2) A and R are correct. R is not the correct explanation of A
• (3) A is correct but R is incorrect
• (4) A is incorrect but R is correct

Assertion (A): Rhodospirillum is not a photoheterotroph bacteria.

Reason (R): Photoheterotrophs obtain energy from light but carbon from organic sources.

• (1) A and R are correct. R is the correct explanation of A
• (2) A and R are correct. R is not the correct explanation of A
• (3) A is correct but R is incorrect
• (4) A is incorrect but R is correct

In TMV (Tobacco Mosaic Virus), serially the Length, diameter, molecular weight, and capsomers number are:

• (1) \(100\,nm, 4\,nm, 39\times10^6\,daltons, 158\)
• (2) \(300\,nm, 18\,nm, 39\times10^6\,daltons, 2130\)
• (3) \(300\,nm, 18\,nm, 39\times10^6\,daltons, 2310\)
• (4) \(18\,nm, 4\,nm, 9\times10^6\,daltons, 2310\)

Match the following genetic terms with their appropriate descriptions:

• (A) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
• (B) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
• (C) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
• (D) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

In Morgan's linkage experiments on Drosophila recombinants percentage for white eye and yellow body is:

• (1) 37.2%
• (2) 1.3%
• (3) 62.8%
• (4) 98.7%

Removal of introns and joining of exons in defined order is called:

• (1) Capping
• (2) Tailing
• (3) Splicing
• (4) Blending

For efficient translation process, mRNA must have these:

• (1) Small unit, Amino Acids, Release factor
• (2) Start codon, Stop codon, Codes for polypeptide, UTR
• (3) Promoter, Operator, Repressor
• (4) Small unit, Large unit, Promoter

Identify A, B, and C in the diagram of pBR322 (A, B, and C are restriction sites):

• (1) BamH I, Hind III, Pst II
• (2) BamH I, Hind III, Pst I
• (3) Hind III, BamH I, Pst II
• (4) Pst I, PVU II, BamH I

While isolating DNA from bacteria the following enzyme is not used:

• (1) Lysozyme
• (2) Ribonuclease
• (3) Deoxyribonuclease
• (4) Protease

Process of technique of detecting HIV in suspected AIDS patients:

• (1) ELISA
• (2) DNA fingerprinting
• (3) r-DNA technology
• (4) Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

Match the following scientific terms with their appropriate descriptions:

• (1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
• (2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
• (3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
• (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Match the following food items with the nutrients they are commonly associated with:

• (1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
• (2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
• (3) A-II, B-IV, C-II, D-III
• (4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

Choose correct pairs from the following:

• (1) II, IV
• (2) I, III
• (3) I, IV
• (4) II, III

Assertion (A): Bacillo viruses attack insects and arthropods

Reason (R): They have no negative impact on non-target insects

• (1) A and R are Correct and R is the Correct explanation of A
• (2) A and R are Correct and R is not the Correct explanation of A
• (3) A is Correct but R is incorrect
• (4) A is incorrect but R is correct

Microanatomy is the study of:

• (1) Internal arrangement of different organs
• (2) Tissues in organs of the body
• (3) Different body functions and processes
• (4) Formation and development of embryos

“Increased diversity contributed to higher productivity”. It was stated by:

• (1) Paul Ehrlich
• (2) Alexander Von Humboldt
• (3) Tilman
• (4) Edward Wilson

Assertion (A): Kidneys of vertebrates are retroperitoneal organs.

Reason (R): They are covered by the visceral peritoneum only on their ventral side.

• (1) A and R are true. R is the correct explanation for A
• (2) A and R are true. But R is not the correct explanation for A
• (3) A is true. But R is false
• (4) A is false. But R is true

Function of oligodendrocytes is:

• (1) Formation of blood-brain barrier
• (2) Formation of myelin sheath
• (3) Formation of neurilemma
• (4) Phagocytosis

Match the following types of bones with examples:

• (1) A-III, B-I, C-V, D-II
• (2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
• (3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
• (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

One of the following exhibits moulting:

• (1) Tapeworm
• (2) Palaemon
• (3) Hydra
• (4) Sponges

Match the following:

• (1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
• (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
• (3) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
• (4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

Notochord persists throughout life in:

• (1) Petromyzon
• (2) Fish
• (3) Frog
• (4) Latimeria
• (1) Macropus
• (2) Balaenoptera
• (3) Panthera tigris
• (4) Ornithorhynchus

This type of flagellum is present in Astasia:

• (1) Acronematic
• (2) Pantonematic
• (3) Stichonematic
• (4) Anematic

Match the following:

• (1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
• (2) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
• (3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
• (4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

The following is a cytozoic parasite:

• (1) \(Plasmodium vivax \)
• (2) \(Wuchereria bancrofti \)
• (3) \(Ascaris lumbricoides \)
• (4) \(Entamoeba histolytica \)

Assertion (A): Heroin is the most potent and highly addictive drug.

Reason (R): Heroin is obtained by acetylation of morphine.

• (1) A and R are true, R is the correct explanation to A
• (2) Both A and R are true, R is not the correct explanation to A
• (3) A is true but R is false
• (4) Both A and R are false

Match the following medical terms with their correct descriptions or associated organisms:

• (1) A-III, B-I, C-V, D-II
• (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
• (3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-V
• (4) A-II, B-V, C-I, D-III

Assertion (A): The spiracles of cockroach are holopneustic type.

Reason (R): All spiracles are functional.

In mouth parts of cockroach, protopodite is made up of:

Fishes that exhibit anadromous migration are:

Certain mass of living material at a particular time at each trophic level is called:

Lakes that show overturns twice a year are called:

In humans, the teeth that appear very late, usually at the age of 21 years are:

These factors are favourable for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin:


I. High \( pCO_2 \)

II. High \( pO_2 \)

III. Lesser H\(^+\) concentration and lower temperature

IV. Higher H\(^+\) concentration and higher temperature

• (1) II and III
  (2) I and IV
  (3) III and IV
  (4) I and III

During blood clotting, in extrinsic pathway, thromboplastin activates:

• (1) Proconvertin
• (2) Proaccelerin
• (3) Hageman’s factor
• (4) Prower factor

Assertion (A): Urine is hypertonic in the descending limb of loop of Henle, while urine is hypotonic in the ascending limb.

Reason (R): Ascending limb is impermeable to Na+, whereas descending limb is impermeable to water.

• (1) A and R are true. R is the correct explanation for A
• (2) A and R are true. But R is not the correct explanation for A
• (3) A is true. But R is false
• (4) A is false. But R is true

Identify triangular bones among the following:


A. Vomer

B. Coccyx

C. Scapula

D. Hyoid

E. Palatine

Arrange the following in sequence the events of mechanism of vision:

• (1) D —\(>\) A —\(>\) E —\(>\) B —\(>\) C
• (2) C —\(>\) A —\(>\) D —\(>\) B —\(>\) E
• (3) D —\(>\) C —\(>\) A —\(>\) E —\(>\) B
• (4) D —\(>\) A —\(>\) C —\(>\) B —\(>\) E

Identify the correct statements regarding hormones.

• (1) I, III
• (2) III, IV
• (3) I, II
• (4) II, IV

Statement I:Epinephrine attaches to liver cell membrane receptors and activates adenylate cyclase.

Statement II: The cyclic-AMP activates phosphorylation and converts glycogen to glucose.

• (1) Both the statements I and II are true.
• (2) Both the statements I and II are false.
• (3) Statement I is true, but II is false.
• (4) Statement I is false, but II is true.

Identify the incorrect statements regarding the immune system.

I. Immunity developed by individual due to vaccination is artificial passive acquired immunity.

II. Interleukins are involved in differentiation of immune cells.

III. Large granular lymphocytes destroy infected cell in an antibody dependent manner.

IV. Mature lymphocytes transform into functional lymphocytes in Peyer's patches.

• (1) I, III
• (2) II, IV
• (3) I, II
• (4) III, IV

Class-I MHC molecules are associated with:

• (1) Tc-cells and Th-cells
• (2) All nucleated cells of the body and Tc cells
• (3) All nucleated cells of the body and Th cells
• (4) Red blood cells and Tc cells

Choose the incorrect combination among the following:

• (1) I, II
• (2) III, IV
• (3) II, III
• (4) I, IV

Saheli is a:

• (1) Toxoid vaccine
• (2) Transgenic mice
• (3) Anti-Cancer drug
• (4) Non-Steroid oral contraceptive pill

Identify the incorrect pairs among the following:

• (1) B, C
• (2) B, D
• (3) A, B
• (4) A, C

Identify the incorrect pair.

• (1) Klinefelter’s syndrome – 47, XXY
• (2) Turner’s syndrome – 45, XY
• (3) Down syndrome – 47 (+21st chromosome)
• (4) Edward syndrome – 47 (+18th chromosome)

If one parent has AB blood group and the other parent has A blood group (homozygous), these blood groups are not expected in their children:

• (1) B and O
• (2) A and AB
• (3) A and B
• (4) B and AB

Identify the incorrect pair regarding sex determination systems:

• (1) XX-XO type – Grasshopper
• (2) ZZ-ZO type – Drosophila
• (3) ZZ-ZW type – Birds
• (4) XX-XY type – Human beings

Holandric genes are located in:

• (1) Somatic chromosomes
• (2) X-chromosome
• (3) Y-chromosome
• (4) Chromosome 21

The driving force of evolution is:

• (1) Reproductive isolation
• (2) Natural selection
• (3) Artificial selection
• (4) Mutations

Select the correct statement:

• (1) Hardy-Weinberg law is applicable to small populations
• (2) Sewall Wright effect is applicable to large populations
• (3) Development of resistance to DDT by mosquitoes is an example for directional selection
• (4) If one species diverges to become two or more species, it is called anagenesis

The practice of mating animals within the same breed, but having no common ancestor on either side of the pedigree for 4 - 6 generations is known as:

• (1) Out crossing
• (2) Cross breeding
• (3) Line breeding
• (4) Close breeding

In an ECG, a prolonged Q-T interval indicates:

• (1) Bradycardia
• (2) Myocardial infarction
• (3) Tachycardia
• (4) Hyperkalemia

Force is given by the expression \( F = A \cos(Bx) + C \cos(Dt) \), where 'x' is displacement and 't' is time. The dimensions of \( \frac{D}{B} \) are the same as that of:

• (1) Velocity
• (2) Velocity gradient
• (3) Angular velocity
• (4) Angular momentum

The displacement \( x \) of a particle moving in one direction is given by \( t = \sqrt{x} + 3 \), where \( x \) is in meters and \( t \) is in seconds. Its displacement when its velocity becomes zero is:

• (1) 3 m
• (2) 2 m
• (3) 1 m
• (4) Zero

An aircraft executes a horizontal loop of radius 1 km with a speed of 900 kmph. Then, the ratio of its centripetal acceleration to the acceleration due to gravity is:

• (1) 6.38
• (2) 3.19
• (3) 12.76
• (4) 5.38

A stone is projected at an angle of 30° to the horizontal. The ratio of kinetic energy at the point of projection to the potential energy at the highest point of flight will be:

• (1) 1:4
• (2) 4:1
• (3) 3:4
• (4) 4:3

A body of mass 4 kg is moving with a velocity 6 ms\(^{-1}\) on a smooth surface. If it is brought to rest in 4 s, the force applied is:

• (1) \(3 N\)
• (2) \(6 N\)
• (3) \(8 N\)
• (4) \(4 N\)

Find the least horizontal force \( P \) to start motion of any part of the system of three blocks resting upon one another as shown in the figure. The weights of blocks are \( A = 300 \, N, B = 100 \, N, C = 200 \, N \). The coefficient of friction between \( A \) and \( C \) is 0.3, between \( B \) and \( C \) is 0.2 and between \( C \) and the ground is 0.1.

• (1) 60 N
• (2) 90 N
• (3) 80 N
• (4) 70 N

A truck of mass 1200 kg moves over an inclined plane raising 1 in 20, with a speed of 18 kmph. The power of the engine is (g = 10 m/s\(^{-2}\)):

• (1) \(2 kW\)
• (2) \(3 kW\)
• (3) \(3.6 kW\)
• (4) \(1 kW\)

A man of mass 70 kg jumps to a height of 0.8 m from the ground, then the momentum transferred by the ground to the man is (g = 10 m/s\(^{-2}\)):

• (1) \(280 kg ms^{-1}\)
• (2) \(200 kg ms^{-1}\)
• (3) \(560 kg ms^{-1}\)
• (4) \(400 kg ms^{-1}\)

If the earth shrinks until its radius becomes \(\frac{3}{4}\) of its original, the new duration of the day would be (mass unchanged):

• (1) \(24 hours\)
• (2) \(16 hours\)
• (3) \(13.5 hours\)
• (4) \(18.5 hours\)

A thin circular ring and a circular disc have the same mass and moment of inertia about their centers perpendicular to the plane. Then the ratio of their radii is:

• (1) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
• (2) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\)
• (3) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
• (4) \(\frac{2}{3}\)

A spring with spring constant \( K \) stores 5 J energy when stretched by 25 cm. It was fixed at one end in vertical position and the other end is attached by mass \( m \). Its frequency is 5 oscillations/sec. Then the values of \( m \) and \( K \) are:

• (1) \( m = 0.16 \, kg, K = 160 \, N/m \)
• (2) \( m = 16 \, kg, K = 160 \, N/m \)
• (3) \( m = 0.16 \, kg, K = 16 \, N/m \)
• (4) \( m = 16 \, kg, K = 16 \, N/m \)

A pan with a set of weights attached to a light spring oscillates with a time period of 0.6 s. When an additional weight is added, the time period becomes 0.7 s. The extension due to the additional weight is:

• (1) 2 cm
• (2) 3 cm
• (3) 1 cm
• (4) 4 cm

Two bodies of masses \( m_1 \) and \( m_2 \) are initially at rest at an infinite distance apart. They are then allowed to move towards each other under mutual gravitational attraction. The relative velocity of approach at a separation distance \( r \) between them is:

• (1) \( V = \sqrt{\frac{2G(m_1 - m_2)}{r}} \)
• (2) \( V = \sqrt{\frac{2G(m_1 + m_2)}{r}} \)
• (3) \( V = \sqrt{\frac{G(m_1 + m_2)}{r}} \)
• (4) \( V = \sqrt{\frac{2G(m_1 m_2)}{r}} \)

If the ratio of lengths, radii, and Young's moduli of steel and brass wires are \(a\), \(b\), and \(c\) respectively, their respective loads are in the ratio 5:3, then the corresponding ratio of increase in their lengths would be:

• (1) \(\frac{3a^2c}{b}\)
• (2) \(\frac{5a}{3b^2c}\)
• (3) \(\frac{3ac}{5b^2}\)
• (4) \(\frac{5c}{3ab^2}\)

A glass capillary tube with a radius \( r = 0.02 \, cm \) is immersed into water to a depth of \( d = 2 \, cm \). To blow an air bubble out of the lower end of the tube, the pressure required is:

% Given
Given:

Surface tension \( T = 7 \times 10^{-2} \, N/m^{-1} \)

Density of water \( \rho = 10^3 \, kg/m^{-3} \)

Acceleration due to gravity \( g = 10 \, m/s^{-2} \)

• (1) 480 Nm\(^{-2}\)
• (2) 900 Nm\(^{-2}\)
• (3) 200 Nm\(^{-2}\)
• (4) 700 Nm\(^{-2}\)

A vessel contains 8 g of air at 400 K. Some amount of air leaks out through the hole provided to it. After some time, pressure is halved and temperature is changed to 300 K. Find the mass of the air escaped.

• (1) \(5.33 g\)
• (2) \(2.67 g\)
• (3) \(6 g\)
• (4) \(3.27 g\)

A piston divides a closed gas cylinder into two parts. Initially, the piston is kept pressed such that one part has pressure P and volume 5V and the other part has pressure 8P and volume V. The piston is now left free. The new pressure if the process is isothermal:

• (1) \( \frac{13}{6} P \)
• (2) \( \frac{8}{13} P \)
• (3) \( \frac{13}{8} P \)
• (4) \( \frac{8}{6} P \)

Helium gas goes through a cycle ABCDA (consisting of two isochoric and isobaric lines) as shown in figure. Assuming the gas to be an ideal gas. Efficiency of this cycle is nearly:

• (1) \(9.1%\)
• (2) \(12.5%\)
• (3) \(10.5%\)
• (4) \(15.4%\)

A geyser uses natural gas as fuel. It heats water flowing at the rate of 3.0 liters per minute from 27°C to 77°C. The approximate rate of consumption of the fuel, if the heat of combustion of gas fuel is \(4.0 \times 10^4 J/g^{-1}\):

• (1) \(3.75 g/min^{-1}\)
• (2) \(0.9 g/min^{-1}\)
• (3) \(1.5 g/min^{-1}\)
• (4) \(16 g/min^{-1}\)

One kilogram of a diatomic gas is at a pressure of \(2 \times 10^4 N/m^{-2}\) and the density of the gas is \(4 kg/m^{-3}\). The internal energy of this gas:

• (1) \(1.25 \times 10^4 J\)
• (2) \(2.4 \times 10^4 J\)
• (3) \(2.8 \times 10^4 J\)
• (4) \(1.25 \times 10^6 J\)

A train moves towards a stationary observer with speed 72 m/s\(^{-1}\). The train blows its horn and its frequency heard by observer is \(f_1\). If the train speed is reduced to 36 m/s\(^{-1}\), the frequency heard by observer is \(f_2\). Then \( \frac{f_1}{f_2} \) is (given \(v = 340 m/s^{-1}\)):

• (1) \(1.53\)
• (2) \(1.43\)
• (3) \(1.13\)
• (4) \(1.23\)

The following statement is true in case of total internal reflection:

• (1) Light must travel from rarer to denser medium and angle of incidence should be greater than critical angle.
• (2) Light must travel from denser to rarer medium and angle of incidence should be less than critical angle.
• (3) Light must travel from denser to rarer medium and angle of incidence should be \(>\) 90°.
• (4) Light must travel from denser to rarer medium and angle of incidence should be greater than critical angle.

Young double slit arrangement is placed in a liquid medium of 1.2 refractive index. Distance between the slits and screen is 2.4 m. Slit separation is 1 mm. The wavelength of incident light is 5893 Å. The fringe width is:

• (1) 1.17 mm
• (2) 2.27 mm
• (3) 1.27 mm
• (4) 1.5 mm

As shown in the figure, a surface encloses an electric dipole with charges \( \pm6 \times 10^{-6} \, C \). The total electric flux through the closed surface is:

• (1) \( +12 \times 10^{-6} \, Nm^2C^{-1} \)
• (2) \( -12 \times 10^{-6} \, Nm^2C^{-1} \)
• (3) Zero
• (4) \( +6 \times 10^{-6} \, Nm^2C^{-1} \)

A 200 volt battery is connected across the series combination of two capacitors 4 \(\mu\)F and 6 \(\mu\)F. The amount of energy stored in this series combination is:

• (1) \(38 \times 10^{-2} J\)
• (2) \(48 \times 10^{-2} J\)
• (3) \(3.8 \times 10^{-2} J\)
• (4) \(4.8 \times 10^{-2} J\)

Two separated conducting spheres \(S_1\) and \(S_2\), of radii \(3R/4\) and \(R/4\) having \(15 \mu C\) and \(-3 \mu C\) charges respectively are at a large distance. They are now connected by a conducting wire. After a long time, the charges on \(S_1\) and \(S_2\) respectively are:

• (1) \(2 \mu C, 10 \mu C\)
• (2) \(4 \mu C, 8 \mu C\)
• (3) \(6 \mu C, 6 \mu C\)
• (4) \(9 \mu C, 3 \mu C\)

If the potential difference across \(PQ\) is 4V, the potential difference across \(A\) and \(B\) in the given figure is:

• (1) \(8 V\)
• (2) \(12 V\)
• (3) \(18 V\)
• (4) \(16 V\)

In the given circuit, batteries are ideal and Galvanometer shows zero deflection, then the value of 'R' is:

• (1) \(60 \Omega\)
• (2) \(120 \Omega\)
• (3) \(100 \Omega\)
• (4) \(75 \Omega\)

A very long straight conductor is carrying a steady current of \(2.2 \, A\). The conductor is placed on a horizontal table such that the current in the conductor is from south to north. If the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field at the place is \(3.2 \times 10^{-5} \, T\), the force per unit length on the conductor is:

• (1) \(7.04 \times 10^{-5} \, T\)
• (2) Zero
• (3) \(3.52 \times 10^{-5} \, T\)
• (4) \(14.08 \times 10^{-5} \, T\)

A wire of length 100 cm is bent in the form of a circular coil of 5 turns and another wire of length 60 cm is bent in the form another circular coil of 4 turns. If the same current flows through the two coils, then the ratio of the magnetic fields induced at the centres of the two coils is:

• (1) 20 : 21
• (2) 5 : 6
• (3) 15 : 16
• (4) 3 : 4

The angle of dip at a place where the vertical and horizontal components of earth's magnetic field become equal is:

• (1) 30°
• (2) 45°
• (3) 60°
• (4) 90°

A pair of adjacent coils has a mutual inductance of 80 mH. If the current in one coil changes from 10 A to 25 A in a time of 1.5 s, the change of flux linked with the other coil is:

• (1) \(0.6 Wb\)
• (2) \(1.8 Wb\)
• (3) \(1.2 Wb\)
• (4) \(0.8 Wb\)

A resistor of resistance \( R \), an inductor of inductive reactance \( 2R \), and a capacitor of capacitive reactance \( 3R \) are connected in series to an ac source. The power factor of the series LCR circuit is:

• (1) \( \frac{1}{3} \)
• (2) \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}} \)
• (3) \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \)
• (4) \( \frac{1}{2} \)

The refractive index of medium is 1.8 and its relative permeability is 2.16. The relative permittivity of the medium is (nearly):

• (1) 1.5
• (2) 1.6
• (3) 1.4
• (4) 1.7

The work function of a photosensitive metal surface is \(6.4 \times 10^{-19} \, J\). The maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons when electromagnetic radiation of wavelength 1240 Å incidents on the metal surface is nearly:

• (1) \(5 eV\)
• (2) \(6 eV\)
• (3) \(3 eV\)
• (4) \(4 eV\)

If the angular momentum of an electron in the second orbit of a hydrogen atom is \(J\), then the angular momentum of an electron in the third excited state of hydrogen is:

• (1) \(2J\)
• (2) \(3J\)
• (3) \(4J\)
• (4) \(6J\)

The energy released in the fission of one \(_{92}^{235}U\) nucleus is 200 MeV. The energy released in the fission of 235 g of \(_{92}^{235}U\) is nearly:

• (1) \(15.84 \times 10^{12} \, J\)
• (2) \(19.27 \times 10^{12} \, J\)
• (3) \(13.59 \times 10^{12} \, J\)
• (4) \(17.73 \times 10^{12} \, J\)

The voltage gain of a common emitter amplifier is 60. If the output and input resistances are 4 k\(\Omega\) and 2 k\(\Omega\) respectively, the power gain of the amplifier is:

• (1) \(60\)
• (2) \(2\)
• (3) \(30\)
• (4) \(1800\)

Three logic gates are connected as shown in the figure. If the inputs are \(A = 1\), \(B = 0\) and \(C = 0\) then the values of \(y_1\), \(y_2\) and \(y_3\) respectively are:

• (1) \(1, 0, 0\)
• (2) \(1, 1, 0\)
• (3) \(1, 1, 1\)
• (4) \(0, 0, 1\)

For an amplitude modulated wave, the maximum and minimum amplitudes are respectively 16 V and 4 V. The modulation index is:

• (1) \(0.3\)
• (2) \(0.25\)
• (3) \(0.6\)
• (4) \(0.5\)

Which of the following is not the correct order regarding the energy of orbitals?

• (1) \(2p < 3s\)
• (2) \(3p < 4s\)
• (3) \(3d < 4p\)
• (4) \(4d < 5s\)

What is the radius of the second Bohr orbit of \( He^+ \) ion?

Match the following:

• (1) \(A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II\)
• (2) \(A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I\)
• (3) \(A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I\)
• (4) \(A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II\)

Identify the sets containing isostructural molecules from the following options:

i: \(SiF_4\), \(CCl_4\)

ii: \(NF_3\), \(XeO_3\)

iii: \(BeCl_2\), \(HgCl_2\)

iv: \(SF_4\), \(XeF_4\)

• (1) i, ii, iii only
• (2) ii and iii only
• (3) i, iii, iv only
• (4) ii and iv only

Which of the following orders are correct regarding their covalent bond character?

% Statements to Evaluate
i. KF \(<\) KI

ii. SnCl2 \(<\) SnCl4

iii. NaCl \(<\) CuCl

At \(T\)K, for one mole of an ideal gas, \(P\), \(V\) and \(v_rms\) were measured. A graph of \((v_rms)^2\) (on y-axis) and \(PV\) (on x-axis) goes straight line passing through origin. Its slope is \(m\). What is its molar mass (in kg mol\(^{-1}\))?

• (1) \(3m\)
• (2) \(\frac{1}{3m}\)
• (3) \(\frac{m}{3}\)
• (4) \(\frac{3}{m}\)

'x' cm\(^3\) of CH\(_4\) gas diffused through a porous membrane in 25 min, Under the same conditions 'y' cm\(^3\) of another gas of molar mass 64 g mol\(^{-1}\) diffused in 20 min. The ratio of x and y is:

• (1) \(1:2\)
• (2) \(2:1\)
• (3) \(2:5\)
• (4) \(5:2\)

Observe the following reaction: \[ H_2O(s) + F_2(g) \rightarrow HF(g) + HOF(g) \]
In this reaction, identify the correct redox changes.

• (1) Hydrogen is reduced and fluorine is oxidized
• (2) Oxygen is reduced and fluorine is oxidized
• (3) Oxygen is oxidized and fluorine is reduced
• (4) Hydrogen is oxidized and fluorine is reduced

Given below are two statements regarding the use of a bomb calorimeter:

Statement-I: \(\Delta U\) can be measured by bomb calorimeter.

Statement-II: Heat is not transferred from calorimeter to surroundings.

• (1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
• (2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are not correct
• (3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is not correct
• (4) Statement-I is not correct but Statement-II is correct

Given the reaction at 300 K:




with \(\Delta G^\circ = -15 \, kJ \, mol^{-1}\). Calculate the value of log \(K\) for the reaction at the same temperature (R = 8.3 J \(K^{-1} \, mol^{-1}\)).

• (1) 13.1
• (2) 1.31
• (3) 26.2
• (4) 2.62

One mole of compound AB reacts with one mole of compound CD according to the equation: \[ AB + CD \rightleftharpoons AD + CB \]
At equilibrium, it was found that \(\frac{3}{4}\) mole of AB and CD had been converted to AD and CB. There is no change in volume. The equilibrium constant for the reaction is:

• (1) \( \frac{9}{16} \)
• (2) \( \frac{1}{9} \)
• (3) \( \frac{16}{9} \)
• (4) 9

What is the conjugate base of \( OH^- \)?

• (1) \( H_2O \)
• (2) \( O^{2-} \)
• (3) \( H_3O^+ \)
• (4) \( H^+ \)

The lattice of \(MH_{2.55}\) is different from the lattice of \(M\). What is \(M\)?

• (1) Ac
• (2) Yb
• (3) Pd
• (4) Ce

The bicarbonate of which alkali metal does not exist as a solid?

• (1) K
• (2) Na
• (3) Li
• (4) Cs

\(BF_3 + LiAlH_4 \rightarrow X + LiF + AlF_3\). \text{The incorrect statement about 'X' is:

• (1) It is an electron deficient hydride
• (2) It has a B-B bond
• (3) This on heating with ammonia gives borazine
• (4) On hydrolysis it gives a weak monobasic acid

Given are two statements regarding the properties of carbon in Group 14 of the periodic table:

Statement-I: Carbon has the highest catenation power in group 14 elements.

Statement-II: Carbon has small size and high electronegativity compared to other elements of group 14.

• (1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
• (2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are not correct.
• (3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is not correct.
• (4) Statement-I is not correct but Statement-II is correct.

Which one of the following pairs of gases does not represent the greenhouse gases?

• (1) \(CH_4, N_2O\)
• (2) \(CFCs, O_3\)
• (3) \(O_3, CO_2\)
• (4) \(N_2, CO\)

In Kjeldahl's method of estimation of nitrogen, the ammonia evolved from 0.2 g of an organic compound was absorbed in 60 mL of 0.1 M \(H_2SO_4\). If 40 mL of 0.1 M NaOH is required for complete neutralisation of the unused acid, the percentage of nitrogen in the compound is:

• (1) 14
• (2) 28
• (3) 56
• (4) 42

What is the percentage of carbon in the compound X, formed in the given sequence of reactions?

• (1) 31
• (2) 62
• (3) 91
• (4) 51

X-ray diffraction studies show that a metal 'M' crystallises in an fcc unit cell with edge length of 400 pm. If the density of the metal is \(7.5 \times 10^3 kg/m^{-3}\), the number of unit cells present in 0.015 kg of it is:

• (1) \(6.6 \times 10^{23}\)
• (2) \(6.25 \times 10^{22}\)
• (3) \(3.125 \times 10^{22}\)
• (4) \(3.125 \times 10^{23}\)

At 298 K, the density of an aqueous solution containing 82 g of acetic acid per dm\(^3\) is 1.01 kg dm\(^{-3}\). If the molarity of the solution is \(x\) M, the molality \(m\) of the same solution is (molar mass of acetic acid = 60 g mol\(^{-1}\)):

• (1) \( (1.856 \times x) \) m
• (2) \( (0.999 \times x) \) m
• (3) \( (0.928 \times x) \) m
• (4) \( (1.077 \times x) \) m

Let \( x \) grams of benzoic acid (molar mass = 122 g/mol\(^{-1}\)) be dissolved in 50 g of benzene. Its freezing point was found to be 277.82 K. What is the value of \( x \)? (Given: \( K_f \) of benzene = 5.1 K kg mol\(^{-1}\), freezing point of benzene = 278.45 K, and van't Hoff's factor of benzoic acid = 0.5)

• (1) \(0.5 \)
• (2) \(1.5 \)
• (3) \(0.75 \)
• (4) \(1.0 \)

The standard Gibbs free energy change \( \Delta G^\circ \) of a cell reaction is \(-301 kJ/mol\). What is \( E^\circ \) in volts? (Given: \( F = 96500 C/mol\), \( n = 2 \))

• (1) \(2.56\)
• (2) \(-1.56\)
• (3) \(1.20\)
• (4) \(1.56\)

The rate constant of a first order reaction at 400 K and 500 K is respectively \( 2 \times 10^{-5} \, s^{-1} \) and \( 4 \times 10^{-3} \, s^{-1} \). What is the approximate activation energy (in kJ/mol\(^{-1}\))? (R = 8.3 J mol\(^{-1}\) K\(^{-1}\), log 2 = 0.3)

• (1) \( 880 \)
• (2) \( 88 \)
• (3) \( 38.2 \)
• (4) \( 8.8 \)

Identify the correct statements from the following:

[I.] At constant pressure, physical adsorption decreases with increase in temperature.
[II.] Enthalpy of physisorption is higher than enthalpy of chemisorption.
[III.] Gas mask used in coal mines consists of activated charcoal.

• (1) I, II, III
• (2) I, II only
• (3) I, III only
• (4) II, III only

Which of the following is useful to verify the charge on colloidal particles?

• (1) Electrophoresis
• (2) Gold number
• (3) Brownian motion
• (4) Bredig's Arc experiment

From the following identify pairs in which metal is correctly matched with its refining process:

• (1) A, B, C only
• (2) B, D only
• (3) A, C, D only
• (4) A, B, C, D

What are X and Y respectively in the following reactions? \[ Cu + HNO_3 \, (dilute) \rightarrow Cu(NO_3)_2 + H_2O + X \] \[ Zn + HNO_3 \, (dilute) \rightarrow Zn(NO_3)_2 + H_2O + Y \]

• (1) \( NO, \, N_2O \)
• (2) \( NO, \, NO_2 \)
• (3) \( NO_2, \, N_2O \)
• (4) \( N_2O, \, NO_2 \)

Which of the following reducing agents liberates hydrogen from dilute acid?

• (1) \( Mn^{2+} \)
• (2) \( Fe^{2+} \)
• (3) \( Cr^{2+} \)
• (4) \( Co^{2+} \)

The sum of coordination number and oxidation number of the metal M in the complex \[ [M(en)_2(C_2O_4)] \quad (en = ethylenediamine) \]

• (1) 8
• (2) 6
• (3) 7
• (4) 9

Which of the following is vulcanised rubber?

Identify the anomers from the following.

• (1) A, B
• (2) B, D
• (3) A, C
• (4) C, D

Which of the following are present in DNA?

• (1) A, D
• (2) A, C, D
• (3) B, C
• (4) B, C, D

Two statements are given below:

I. Shaving soaps contain sodium carbonate

II. Laundry soaps contain sodium rosinates

The correct answer is:

• (1) Statement I, II both are correct
• (2) Statement I, II both are incorrect
• (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
• (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

Which of the following are ambident nucleophiles?

[A.] CN\(^{\,-}\)
[B.] CH\(_{3}\)COO\(^{\,-}\)
[C.] NO\(_{2}^{\,-}\)
[D.] CH\(_{3}\)O\(^{\,-}\)
[E.] NH\(_{3}\)

• (1) A, B, C only
• (2) A, C only
• (3) D, E only
• (4) C, D, E only

Observe the following reactions:




The correct answer is:

• (1) I, II both are feasible
• (2) I, II both are not feasible
• (3) I is feasible but not II
• (4) I is not feasible but II is feasible

The correct sequence of enzymes involved in the commercial production of ethanol by fermentation from sugar is:

• (1) Invertase, Zymase
• (2) Zymase, Invertase
• (3) Maltase, Zymase
• (4) Zymase, Maltase

A ketone ‘X’ gives CH\(_3\) when reacted with NaOI. The product of X on reaction with NaBH\(_4\) followed by treatment with H\(_2\)O is:

What are X and Y respectively in the following reactions?

What are X and Y respectively in the following set of reactions?

• (1) NaNO\(_2\) | Cu, \(\Delta\); NaF, \(\Delta\)
• (2) NaNO\(_2\) | Cu, \(\Delta\); \(\Delta\)
• (3) NaNO\(_2\) | \(\Delta\); \(\Delta\)
• (4) NaNO\(_2\) | \(\Delta\); NaF, \(\Delta\)