AP EAPCET (AP EAMCET) 2024 Question Paper May 17 Shift 1 (Available): Download BiPC Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

The technical presentation of Mango should be as follows:
I. Abbreviated form of author name after the specific epithet
II. Both the words should be printed in italics
III. The first word must represent genus
IV. Name should not be underlined when handwritten

• (1) II, III, IV
• (2) I, II
• (3) I, II, III
• (4) I, III, IV

Study the following characters of organisms and identify to arrange in sequence:

A: Glycogen and chitin

B: Pigments in cell, mesokaryon

C: Pellicle, cytostome

• (1) Actinomycetes, Mycoplasma, Slime moulds
• (2) Chrysophytes, Phycomycetes, Protozoa
• (3) Archaebacteria, Mycoplasma, Protista
• (4) Fungi, Dinoflagellates, Euglenoids

Choose the correct combination from the following:

• (1) II, III
• (2) III, IV
• (3) I, II
• (4) I, II, IV

Food materials are stored in this algae in these bodies:

• (1) Chlorophyceae - Starch
• (2) Phaeophyceae - Mannitol
• (3) Rhodophyceae - Floridean starch
• (4) Chlorophyceae - Pyrenoids

Identify the correct combinations from the following:

• (1) I and II
• (2) II and III
• (3) III and IV
• (4) II and IV

Which of the following statements are correct?

I. In cyathium flowers are pollinated by Blastophaga

II. Bilipped corolla is seen in Ocimum

III. Basal placentation is found in Dianthus

IV. Whorled phyllotaxy is found in Alstonia

• (1) I and II
• (2) II and IV
• (3) III and IV
• (4) I and IV

Formation of an embryo from an unfertilized female gamete

• (1) \(Apomixis\)
• (2) \(Apogamy\)
• (3) \(Apospory\)
• (4) \(Parthenogenesis\)

Identify the wrong matching

• (1) \(Self-Sterility - Gloriosa\)
• (2) \(Herkogamy - Hibiscus\)
• (3) \(Protandry - Sunflower\)
• (4) \(Protogyny - Datura\)

Correct floral formula of mustard plant:

• (1) Ebr Ebrl \(\oplus\) ♂ ♀ \( K_{2+2} C_4 A_{2+4} \overline{G} (2)\)
• (2) Br Ebrl \(\oplus\) ♂ ♀ \( K_{2+2} C_4 A_{2+4} \overline{G} (2)\)
• (3) Ebr Ebrl \(%\) ♂ ♀ \( K_{2+2} C_4 A_{2+4} \overline{G} (2)\)
• (4) Ebr Ebrl \(\oplus\) ♂ ♀ \( K_{2+2} C_4 A_{2+4} \overline{G} (4)\)

Match the different shapes of the cells:

• (1) I - D, II - B, III - C, IV - A
• (2) I - C, II - D, III - B, IV - A
• (3) I - D, II - C, III - A, IV - B
• (4) I - D, II - C, III - B, IV - A

Chromosomes with equal arms:

• (1) Metacentric chromosome
• (2) Submetacentric chromosome
• (3) Telocentric chromosome
• (4) Acrocentric chromosome

In DNA, the bond between the phosphate and hydroxyl group of sugar:

• (1) Hydrogen bond
• (2) Glycosidic bond
• (3) Ester bond
• (4) Peptide bond

Identify the correct combinations from the following:

• (1) I and III
• (2) I and IV
• (3) I and II
• (4) III and IV

Assertion (A): Phloem fibres (bast fibres) are made up of sclerenchymatous cells.

Reason (R): Phloem fibres are generally absent in primary phloem but found in secondary phloem.

• (1) A and R are correct. R is the correct explanation of A
• (2) A and R are correct. R is not the correct explanation of A
• (3) A is correct but R is incorrect
• (4) A is incorrect but R is correct

Identify A, B, C, and D parts in the vascular bundle of monocot stem:

• (1) A - Metaxylem, B - Protoxylem, C - Phloem, D - Lysigenous cavity
• (2) A - Phloem, B - Metaxylem, C - Protoxylem, D - Lysigenous cavity
• (3) A - Phloem, B - Protoxylem, C - Metaxylem, D - Lysigenous cavity
• (4) A - Phloem, B - Metaxylem, C - Lysigenous cavity, D - Protoxylem

The tissues generally present exterior to the vascular cambium made up of these tissues:

• (1) Periderm and secondary phloem
• (2) Periderm and primary phloem
• (3) Phellum and secondary phloem
• (4) Phellogen and cork

Identify the correct combinations from the following:

• (1) II and III
• (2) I, II and III
• (3) II, III and IV
• (4) I, III and IV

Assertion (A): Hydrophytes contain aerenchyma, which helps in gaseous exchange and buoyancy.

Reason (R): Mechanical tissues and xylem are poorly developed.

• (1) A and R are correct. R is the correct explanation of A
• (2) A and R are correct. R is not the correct explanation of A
• (3) A is correct but R is incorrect
• (4) A is incorrect but R is correct

Assertion [A] : Bulk flow can be achieved either positive hydrostatic pressure gradient or a negative hydrostatic pressure gradient.

Reason [R] : Movement in the xylem is always bidirectional.

• (1) A and R are correct. R is the correct explanation of A
• (2) A and R are correct. R is not the correct explanation of A
• (3) A is correct but R is incorrect
• (4) A is incorrect but R is correct

Match the following list:

• (1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
• (2) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
• (3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
• (4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

Assertion (A): Some essential elements can alter the osmotic potential of a cell.

Reason (R): Sulphur is the main constituent of several coenzymes.

• (1) A and R are correct. R is the correct explanation of A
• (2) A and R are correct. R is not the correct explanation of A
• (3) A is correct but R is incorrect
• (4) A is incorrect but R is correct

Match the following list:

• (1) A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii
• (2) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
• (3) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv
• (4) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv

Find the incorrect statement regarding Enzymes

A, Enzyme catalysing the linking together of 2 compounds are lyases

B. Glutamic acid is converted as glutamine in the presence of glutamine synthetase

C. The average content of ‘S’ and that of transition state is called activation energy

D. Inorganic catalysts work similar to enzymes at high temperature

• (1) A, D
• (2) A, B
• (3) C, D
• (4) B, D

Choose the correct statement among the following

A. First action spectrum of photosynthesis was observed by Cladophora experiments

B. Chlorophyll ‘b will be blue green in the Chromatogram

C. In the Biosynthetic phase of photosynthesis ATP and NADPH are used

D. Inphotosynthesis light saturation occurs at 10 % of full sun light

E. In CAM plants RuBisCo will be absent

• (1) A, B, C
• (2) A, C, D
• (3) B, D, E
• (4) A, D, E

Assertion (A): Light harvesting complexes made up of many pigments bound to proteins and are called antennae.

Reason (R): Antennae absorb different wavelengths of light.

• (1) A and R are correct. R is the correct explanation of A
• (2) A and R are correct. R is not the correct explanation of A
• (3) A is correct but R is incorrect
• (4) A is incorrect but R is correct

Match the following list:

• (1) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii
• (2) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
• (3) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
• (4) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv

Choose the correct statement related to growth rate, conditions and growth substances:

A. Root elongation is the arithmetic growth

B. Geometric growth shows sigmoid growth curve

C. Turgidity helps the cells in extension growth

D. Natural cytokinins are synthesised in older parts of the plant

• (1) A, B, C
• (2) B, C, D
• (3) A, C, D
• (4) A, B, D

Match the following list:

• (1) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
• (2) A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii
• (3) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
• (4) A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii

Match the following list:

• (1) A-II-iv, B-I-ii, C-IV-i, D-III-iii
• (2) A-II-iii, B-I-iv, C-III-ii, D-II-i
• (3) A-I-iii, B-I-ii, C-IV-i, D-III-iv
• (4) A-I-iv, B-III-ii, C-IV-iii, D-III-i

Match the following list:

• (1) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
• (2) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv
• (3) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i
• (4) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv

Identify the similar behavior between chromosomes and genes:

A. Only one pair segregates independently

B. Occurs in pairs

C. Segregates at the gamete formation and only one of each pair is transmitted to gametes

D. Pair segregates independently

• (1) A, B
• (2) C, D
• (3) A, D
• (4) B, C

Choose the correct statements regarding DNA discovery:

A. Watson, a physicist and Crick, a zoologist were awarded Nobel prize in 1962

B. The data based on X-ray diffraction was used for DNA structure

C. Two nucleotides can be linked in the 5' to 3' direction through phosphodiester bond

D. CsCl gradient is used to measure the densities of DNA

• (1) A, B
• (2) B, D
• (3) C, D
• (4) A, C

Match the following list:

• (1) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
• (2) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
• (3) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii
• (4) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii

Match the following list:

• (1) A-III-ii, B-II-iv, C-I-iii, D-II-i
• (2) A-II-iii, B-I-ii, C-IV-i, D-III-iv
• (3) A-IV-i, B-I-iii, C-II-iv, D-III-ii
• (4) A-II-iii, B-III-iv, C-IV-ii, D-I-i

Assertion (A): In general, gene gun method is used to insert DNA into the competent host.

Reason (R): In biolistic method, cells are bombarded with DNA coated with microparticles of gold.

• (1) A and R are correct. R is the correct explanation of A
• (2) A and R are correct. R is not the correct explanation of A
• (3) A is correct but R is incorrect
• (4) A is incorrect but R is correct

Assertion (A): PCR is used to detect HIV.

Reason (R): It is based on the principle of antigen-antibody interaction.

• (1) A and R are correct. R is the correct explanation of A
• (2) A and R are correct. R is not the correct explanation of A
• (3) A is correct but R is incorrect
• (4) A is incorrect but R is correct

Study the table and find the correct combination:

• (1) I, III
• (2) II, IV
• (3) I, II
• (4) III, IV

Assertion [A]: Genetic variability is the root of any breeding programme.

Reason [R]: The entire collection of plants or seeds having all the diverse alleles for all genes in a given crop is called germ plasm collection.

• (1) A and R are correct. R is the correct explanation of A.
• (2) A and R are correct. R is not the correct explanation of A.
• (3) A is correct but R is incorrect.
• (4) A is incorrect but R is correct.

Choose the correct statement related to biological control agents:

A. No negative impact on plants, mammals, birds, or insects.

B. Ecologically sensitive area is being treated.

C. Species-specific insecticidal applications.

D. Integrated pest management is not benefited.

• (1) A, C, D
• (2) B, C, D
• (3) A, B, C
• (4) A, B, D

Select the correct combinations:

• (1) II, III
• (2) III, IV
• (3) I, II
• (4) I, IV

Assertion [A]: Nematodes are pseudocoelomates.

Reason [R]: Perivisceral space is filled with parenchyma derived from mesoderm.

• (1) A and R are true. R is correct explanation for A.
• (2) A and R are true. R is not correct explanation for A.
• (3) A is true. But R is false.
• (4) A is false. But R is true.

Study the following and identify the incorrect combinations:

• (1) I, II
• (2) III, IV
• (3) II, III
• (4) I, IV

Assertion (A): In parazoans, different types of cells are functionally isolated.

Reason (R): The cells in sponges are arranged as loose cell aggregates.

• (1) A and R are true. R is the correct explanation for A
• (2) A and R are true. But R is not the correct explanation for A
• (3) A is true. But R is false.
• (4) A is false. But R is true

Choose the correct statements regarding bilateral symmetry:

I. This symmetry is advantageous to slow-moving animals.

II. The animals with this symmetry can respond efficiently to new environments due to cephalization.

III. The median sagittal plane divides the organism into two antimeres.

IV. The animals with this symmetry lack a definite body form.

• (1) I, III
• (2) II, IV
• (3) I, IV
• (4) II, III

Choose the correct combination regarding neuroglia:

• (1) II, III
• (2) II, IV
• (3) I, IV
• (4) I, III

Choose the incorrect statements regarding Siphonopoda:


I. They show open type of circulatory system.

II. Brain is enclosed in cartilaginous cranium.

III. Some possess ink gland.

IV. Development includes trochophore larva.

• (1) II, III
• (2) I, IV
• (3) I, III
• (4) II, IV

Choose the correct combination among the following:

• (1) I, II
• (2) II, IV
• (3) I, IV
• (4) II, III

Nuclei pulposi are:

• (1) Blocks of muscles
• (2) Hydrostatic organ
• (3) Remnants of notochord in the intervertebral discs
• (4) Taste buds on the tongue

Choose the incorrect combination among the following:

• (1) I, III
• (2) II, IV
• (3) I, II
• (4) III, IV

Study the following and pick up the correct statements:


I. The peripheral doublets of a flagellum are interconnected by linkers called nexins.

II. The basal granule of flagellum is connected to plasma membrane and nucleus by rootlets.

III. Flagellum in Monas are strichomonate type.

IV. Pantomonemantic flagellum is found in Polytoma.

• (1) I, III
• (2) II, IV
• (3) II, III
• (4) I, II

Reticulopodia are found in:

• (1) Entamoeba
• (2) Euglypha
• (3) Elphidium
• (4) Actinophrys

Assertion [A]: Preparation of vaccine for malaria is very difficult.

Reason [R]: Plasmodium keeps changing its surface antigens from time to time.

• (1) A and R are true. R is the correct explanation for A.
• (2) A and R are true. R is not correct explanation for A.
• (3) A is true. But R is false.
• (4) A is false. But R is true.

It interferes with the transport of the neurotransmitter dopamine.

• (1) Morphine
• (2) Heroin
• (3) Hashish
• (4) Cocaine

Match the following:

• (1) A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III
• (2) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II
• (3) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II
• (4) A - II, B - IV, C - III, D - I

In female cockroach, ovaries lie in these segments.

• (1) Mesothorax to 4 abdominal segments
• (2) Last four abdominal segments
• (3) Thoracic segments
• (4) 2 to 6 abdominal segments

Assertion (A): In compound eyes of cockroach, superposition images are formed.

Reason (R): Absence of retinal sheath in ommatidia.

• (1) A and R are true. R is the correct explanation for A.
• (2) A and R are true. R is not the correct explanation for A.
• (3) A is true. But R is false.
• (4) A is false. But R is true.

Study the following and pick up the incorrect statements:


I. In commensalism both partners are benefitted due to each other.

II. In amensalism no partner is benefitted.

III. In parasitism, one partner is benefitted and the other is harmed.

IV. In competition both the partners are benefitted.

• (1) I, II
• (2) II, III
• (3) III, IV
• (4) I, IV

Identify the nekton from the following organisms:

• (1) Gerris
• (2) Volvax
• (3) Dytiscus
• (4) Dimeutes

Match the following:

• (1) A-IV, B-I, C-V, D-II
• (2) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
• (3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
• (4) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-V

Prorennin is activated by:

• (1) Enterokinase
• (2) Pepsin
• (3) Hydrochloric acid
• (4) Trypsin

Statement I: Volume of air inspired or expired during normal inspiration or expiration is called tidal volume.

Statement II: The volume of air that remains in the lungs after normal expiration is called residual volume.

• (1) Both the statements I and II are correct.
• (2) Both statements I and II are wrong.
• (3) Statement I is true. But II is false.
• (4) Statement I is false. But II is true.

Match the following:

• (1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
• (2) A-IV, B-I, C-V, D-II
• (3) A-II, B-IV, C-V, D-III
• (4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

Assertion (A): Reptiles and birds adopted uricotelism.

Reason (R): To conserve water.

• (1) A and R are true. R is the correct explanation for A.
• (2) A and R are true. But R is not the correct explanation for A.
• (3) A is true. But R is false.
• (4) A is false. But R is true.

Identify the correct statement related to calcium ions in muscle contraction

• (1) Detaches the myosin head from the thin filament
• (2) Binds to troponin to remove the mask of active sites of actin for myosin
• (3) Activate the myosin ATPase by binding to it
• (4) Prevents the formation of bonds between myosin and actin

It acts as only inhibitory neurotransmitter

• (1) Dopamine
• (2) Glycine
• (3) Serotonin
• (4) Acetylcholine

Assertion (A): Neurohypophysis of the pituitary gland releases a hormone, which is helpful for child birth.

Reason (R): Neurohypophysis releases relaxin, which contracts the uterine muscles during child birth.

• (1) A and R are true. R is correct explanation for A.
• (2) A and R are true. But R is not correct explanation for A.
• (3) A is true. But R is false.
• (4) A is false. But R is true.

Match the following:

• (1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
• (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
• (3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
• (4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

One of the following is a secondary lymphoid organ:

• (1) Bone marrow
• (2) Thymus gland
• (3) Bursa of Fabricius
• (4) Spleen

Identify the incorrect match:

• (1) Interferons – Produced by virus infected cells
• (2) Interleukins – Produced by erythrocytes
• (3) Paratope – Antigen binding site in antibody
• (4) Epitope – Antibody binding site in antigen

The state of cease of menstrual cycles in women is called:

• (1) Menopause
• (2) Ovulation
• (3) Menarche
• (4) Fertilization

Assertion [A]: Myometrium is an important layer of the uterus.

Reason [R]: Myometrium allows the uterus to enlarge in pregnancy and causes strong contractions during parturition.

• (1) A and R are true. R is the correct explanation for A.
• (2) A and R are true. But R is not the correct explanation for A.
• (3) A is true. But R is false.
• (4) A is false. But R is true.

Amniocentesis is a clinical procedure to detect ___ in an unborn baby.

• (1) Brain disorders
• (2) Heart disorders
• (3) Genetic disorders
• (4) Kidney problems

Haemophilia B is a ___

• (1) X linked dominant disorder caused due to the deficiency of Factor IX
• (2) X linked recessive disorder caused due to the deficiency of Factor IX
• (3) X linked recessive disorder caused due to the deficiency of Factor VIII
• (4) X linked dominant disorder caused due to the deficiency of Factor VII

In this disorder, the person exhibits characteristics like short stature, gonadal dysgenesis, webbed neck, broad shield-like chest.

• (1) Klinefelter’s syndrome
• (2) Turner’s syndrome
• (3) Downs syndrome
• (4) Edwards syndrome

Identify the autosomal colour blindness.

• (1) Myopia
• (2) Tritanopia
• (3) Protanopia
• (4) Deuteranopia

Identify the correct statement:

• (1) Chromosome 1 has the highest number of genes in human beings.
• (2) X Chromosome has the fewest genes in human beings.
• (3) In human, more than 50% of the genome codes for proteins.
• (4) Smallest known human gene codes for dystrophin.

Assertion (A): Animals recapitulate the biochemical aspects of their ancestors.

Reason (R): Mammalian embryo first excretes urea, then uric acid and finally ammonia.

• (1) A and R are true. R is the correct explanation for A.
• (2) A and R are true. But R is not the correct explanation for A.
• (3) A is true. But R is false.
• (4) A is false. But R is true.

Identify the correct statement with regard to the evolution of man:

• (1) Dryopithecus was more man-like.
• (2) Ramapithecus was more ape-like.
• (3) First human-like being was Homo habilis.
• (4) Early modern human of European region is Homo erectus.

The first transgenic cow Rosie milk is enriched with:

• (1) Alpha lactalbumin
• (2) Dystrophin
• (3) Oxytocin
• (4) Human chorionic Gonadotropin

Tall T-wave in ECG indicates

• (1) Hyperkalemia
• (2) Hypokalemia
• (3) Hypercalcemia
• (4) Tachycardia

If the errors in the measurement of the mass and side of a cubical block are 2% and 1% respectively, then the error in the determination of the density of the material of the block is

• (1) 8%
• (2) 6%
• (3) 3%
• (4) 5%

The relation between velocity \( V \) (in ms\(^{-1}\)) and the displacement \( x \) (in meters) of a particle in motion is \( 2V = \sqrt{37 + 32x} \). The acceleration of the particle is

• (1) 32 ms\(^{-2}\)
• (2) 8 ms\(^{-2}\)
• (3) 16 ms\(^{-2}\)
• (4) 4 ms\(^{-2}\)

The velocity of a boat in still water is 13 ms\(^{-1}\). If water in a river is flowing with a velocity of 5 ms\(^{-1}\), the ratio of the times taken by the boat to cross the river in the shortest path and shortest time is

• (1) 12:5
• (2) 13:5
• (3) 13:12
• (4) 1:1

A body is projected horizontally from the top of a tall tower. At a time of 3.5 s from the projection, the horizontal and vertical displacements of the body are equal. The velocity of projection of the body is (acceleration due to gravity = 10 ms\(^2\))

• (1) 30 ms\(^{-1}\)
• (2) 35 ms\(^{-1}\)
• (3) 15 ms\(^{-1}\)
• (4) 17.5 ms\(^{-1}\)

The apparent weight of a girl in a moving lift is 25% more than her true weight. If the lift starts from rest, the distance travelled by the girl in the first 2 s is (acceleration due to gravity = 10 ms\(^2\))

• (1) 25 m
• (2) 10 m
• (3) 5 m
• (4) 15 m

A body slides down an inclined plane of angle of inclination 30\(^\circ\) with a constant velocity of 10 ms\(^{-1}\). If the body is pushed up the same plane with a velocity of 20 ms\(^{-1}\), the distance moved by the body before coming to rest is (acceleration due to gravity = 10 ms\(^2\))

• (1) 10 m
• (2) 15 m
• (3) 20 m
• (4) 30 m

An elevator can carry a maximum load of 2000 kg (elevator + passengers) and is moving up with a constant speed of 9 km/h. If the frictional force opposing the motion is \( 5 \times 10^3 \) N, the minimum power delivered by the motor to the elevator is (acceleration due to gravity = 10 ms\(^2\))

• (1) 26.25 kW
• (2) 52.5 kW
• (3) 31.25 kW
• (4) 62.5 kW

A ball strikes a horizontal floor at 45°. If 25% of its kinetic energy is lost in the collision, then the coefficient of restitution is:

• (1) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
• (2) \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \)
• (3) \( \frac{1}{2\sqrt{2}} \)
• (4) \( \frac{1}{4} \)

A solid flywheel of mass 20 kg and radius 100 mm revolves at 600 revolutions per minute. If the coefficient of friction is 0.1 and to stop the flywheel in 3.14 s, the force to be applied against is approximately:

• (1) 30 N
• (2) 20 N
• (3) 300 N
• (4) 200 N

A torque of 10 Nm is applied on a wheel having angular momentum of 2 kg m\(^2\) s\(^{-1}\). The angular momentum of the wheel after 4 s is:

• (1) 40 kg m\(^2\) s\(^{-1}\)
• (2) 42 kg m\(^2\) s\(^{-1}\)
• (3) 4 kg m\(^2\) s\(^{-1}\)
• (4) 4.2 kg m\(^2\) s\(^{-1}\)

The displacement of a particle varies with time as \( x = 4 \sin 3\omega t \). If its motion is simple harmonic, then its maximum acceleration is:

• (1) \( 12 \omega^2 \)
• (2) \( 36 \omega^2 \)
• (3) \( 144 \omega^2 \)
• (4) \( 24 \omega^2 \)

The mass 'm' oscillates in simple harmonic motion with an amplitude 'A' as shown in the figure. The amplitude of point \(P\) is

• (1) \( \frac{K_1 A}{K_2} \)
• (2) \( \frac{K_2 A}{K_1} \)
• (3) \( \frac{K_1 A}{K_1 + K_2} \)
• (4) \( \frac{K_2 A}{K_1 + K_2} \)

The gravitational field due to a mass distribution is \( E = \frac{K}{x^3} \) along x-direction (K is a constant). Taking the gravitational potential to be zero at infinity, its value at a distance \( x \) is:

• (1) \( \frac{K}{x} \)
• (2) \( \frac{K}{2x} \)
• (3) \( \frac{K}{x^2} \)
• (4) \( \frac{K}{2x^2} \)

The Poisson’s ratio of a material is 0.4. If the force is applied to a wire of this material, there is a decrease of cross-sectional area by 2%. The percentage increase in its length is:

• (1) 3%
• (2) 2.5%
• (3) 1%
• (4) 0.5%

A U-tube is partially filled with water. Oil which does not mix with water is next poured into one side of the U-tube until entire water rises by 25 cm on the other side. If the density of oil is 0.8 g cm\(^{-3}\), the oil level will stand higher than the water level by:

• (1) 6.25 cm
• (2) 12.50 cm
• (3) 31.75 cm
• (4) 63.50 cm

A substance of mass \( m \) requires a power input of \( P \) to remain in the molten state at its melting point. When the power is turned off, the sample completely solidifies in time \( t \). The latent heat of the substance is

• (1) \( \frac{P t}{m} \)
• (2) \( \frac{P m}{t} \)
• (3) \( \frac{m}{P t} \)
• (4) \( \frac{t}{P m} \)

In which of the following thermodynamic processes, the total amount of heat supplied to the system is only used to rise the temperature?

• (1) Isothermal process
• (2) Adiabatic process
• (3) Isobaric process
• (4) Isochoric process

The oxygen gas of 5 moles is heated at constant pressure from 300 K to 320 K. The amount of energy spent during this expansion is (For oxygen \( C_p = 7 \, Cal/mol \cdot degree C \), \( C_v = 5 \, Cal/mol \cdot degree C \))

• (1) 200 Cal
• (2) 250 Cal
• (3) 350 Cal
• (4) 100 Cal

A gas with a ratio of specific heats, \( \gamma = \frac{4}{3} \), is heated isobarically. The percentage of the given heat used in external work done is

• (1) 15 %
• (2) 25 %
• (3) 50 %
• (4) 60 %

The ratio of kinetic energy of a molecule of neon to that of the oxygen gas at 27°C is

• (1) \( \frac{3}{2} \)
• (2) \( \frac{3}{5} \)
• (3) \( \frac{2}{3} \)
• (4) \( \frac{5}{3} \)

A metal rod of 50 cm length is clamped at its midpoint and is set to vibrations. The density of that metal is \( 2 \times 10^3 \, kg/m^3 \). Young's modulus of that metal is \( 8 \times 10^8 \, Nm^2 \). The fundamental frequency of the vibration is

• (1) 2500 Hz
• (2) 2 kHz
• (3) 2.75 kHz
• (4) 200 Hz

A lens with refractive index \( \frac{3}{2} \) has a power of +5 diopters in air. If it is completely immersed in water, its power is (in diopters). The refractive index of water is \( \frac{4}{3} \)

• (1) 1.25
• (2) 1.3
• (3) 1.35
• (4) 1.20

Two light sources of intensities \( I \) and \( 9I \) produce interference fringes on a screen. The phase difference between the beams is \( \frac{\pi}{2} \) at point A and at point B on the screen. The difference between resultant intensities at point A and B is

• (1) \( 2I \)
• (2) \( 4I \)
• (3) \( 6I \)
• (4) \( 8I \)

A rectangular coil of size 15 cm \( \times \) 20 cm is placed in XY plane in a region of uniform electric field \( 3 \times 10^3 \, KVm^{-1} \). Then the electric flux through the coil is:

• (1) 9 Vm
• (2) 90 Vm
• (3) 900 Vm
• (4) 99 Vm

A parallel plate capacitor has two plates of area 'A' separated by distance 'd'. The capacitor is charged to a potential difference 'V' and the battery is disconnected. A metal plate with area 'A' and thickness \( \frac{d}{2} \) is inserted between the plates, so that it is always parallel to the plates. The work done on the metal slab while it was inserted is:

• (1) \( -\frac{\epsilon_0 A V^2}{4d} \)
• (2) \( -\frac{\epsilon_0 A V^2}{2d} \)
• (3) \( -\frac{\epsilon_0 A V^2}{d} \)
• (4) \( -\frac{2 \epsilon_0 A V^2}{d} \)

“Introduction of small charged sphere into a larger one, we can keep piling up larger and larger amount of charge on the later” – This is the principle of the:

• (1) Tangent Galvanometer
• (2) AC Generator
• (3) Van de Graff generator
• (4) Envelope detector

What is the equivalent resistance between the points A and B of the network?

• (1) \( \frac{57}{7} \, \Omega \)
• (2) 8 \( \Omega \)
• (3) 6 \( \Omega \)
• (4) \( \frac{57}{5} \, \Omega \)

A wire of resistance 0.2 \( \Omega/cm \) is bent to form a square ABCD of side 10 cm. A similar wire is connected between the corners B and D. If 2 V battery is connected across A and C, the power dissipated is

• (1) 4 W
• (2) 1 W
• (3) 2 W
• (4) 8 W

Two charged particles of the same charge but different masses \(m_1\) and \(m_2\) are projected with the same velocity \(V\) normally into the uniform magnetic field \(B\) as shown in the figure. The maximum separation of the particles is:

• (1) \( \frac{|(m_2 - m_1)|V}{|qB|} \)
• (2) \( \frac{(m_2 - m_1)V}{|2qB|} \)
• (3) \( \frac{2(m_2 - m_1)V}{|qB|} \)
• (4) \( \frac{|(m_2 - m_1)|V}{|4qB|} \)

Two bar magnets A and B are identical and arranged as shown. Their lengths are negligible compared to the separation between them. A magnetic needle placed between the magnets at point P gets deflected through an angle \( \theta \) under their influence. The ratio of distances \( d_1 \) and \( d_2 \) is:

• (1) \( (2 \cot \theta)^{1/3} \)
• (2) \( (2 \cot \theta)^{1/2} \)
• (3) \( (2 \tan \theta)^{1/3} \)
• (4) \( (2 \tan \theta)^{1/2} \)

A superconductor exhibits:

• (1) Ferro magnetism
• (2) Para magnetism
• (3) Dia magnetism
• (4) Ferri magnetism

A helicopter has metallic blades with length 4 m extending outward from the central point and rotating at 3 rev/s. If the vertical component of Earth's magnetic field is 40 µT, then the emf induced between the blade tip and the central point is

• (1) 3.14 mV
• (2) 2.83 mV
• (3) 16 mV
• (4) 6 mV

In a series LCR circuit, the voltage across resistance of \( 2000 \, \Omega \) is 200 V and the resonant frequency is \( 400 \, rad/s \). The capacitance \( C \) value is 4 μF. At resonance, the voltage across \( L \) is

• (1) 3.25 V
• (2) 6.25 V
• (3) 625 V
• (4) 62.5 V

The electric field for an electromagnetic wave is given by \( E = 40 \sin(kz - 6 \times 10^8 t) \), where the magnitude of \( E_0 \) is in V/m. The magnitude of the wave vector \( k \) is

• (1) 8 rad/m
• (2) 4.5 rad/m
• (3) 2 rad/m
• (4) 12 rad/m

The ratio of de-Broglie wavelengths for the electron and proton moving with the same velocity is given as (m\(_e\): mass of electron, m\(_p\): mass of proton)

• (1) \( m_p: m_e \)
• (2) \( m_e: m_p \)
• (3) \( m_e^2: m_p \)
• (4) \( m_p^2: m_e^2 \)

The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy of an electron in a Bohr orbit of a hydrogen atom is

• (1) \(1: -1\)
• (2) \(1: 3\)
• (3) \(-1: 2\)
• (4) \(2: -5\)

The rate of a radioactive disintegration at an instant is \( 10^8 \, s^{-1} \). The half-life of the radioactive sample is \( 3.3 \times 10^{12} \, s \). The number of radioactive atoms present in the sample at that instant of time is

• (1) \( 4.7 \times 10^{10} \)
• (2) \( 3.6 \times 10^{20} \)
• (3) \( 4.7 \times 10^{20} \)
• (4) \( 4.7 \times 10^{25} \)

Two amplifiers are connected one after the other in series (cascaded). The first amplifier has a voltage gain of 10 and the second has a voltage gain of 20. If the input signal is 0.01 Volt, calculate the output AC signal.

• (1) 0 V
• (2) 1 V
• (3) 2 V
• (4) 3 V

When a transistor in CE configuration, the resistance connected at the collector circuit and base circuit are 10 \( \Omega \) and 8 \( \Omega \) respectively, if the AC current gain \( \beta_{ac} = 1.4 \), then the voltage amplification is

• (1) 1.5
• (2) 1.75
• (3) 2.0
• (4) 2.25

A carrier wave of peak voltage 16 V is used to transmit a message signal. What should be the peak voltage of the modulating signal in order to have a modulation index of 75%?

• (1) 8 V
• (2) 10 V
• (3) 12 V
• (4) 14 V

The \( n_1 \) and \( n_2 \) values for the 3rd line of the Paschen series of the hydrogen spectrum are respectively:

• (1) 3 and 4
• (2) 3 and 5
• (3) 3 and 6
• (4) 2 and 5

The wavenumber of the first line of the Lyman series of the hydrogen spectrum is equal to the wavenumber of the second line of the Balmer series of \( X^{n+} \) ion. What is \( X^{n+} \)?

• (1) \( Li^{2+} \)
• (2) \( Be^{3+} \)
• (3) \( He^{2+} \)
• (4) \( B^{4+} \)

The first ionization enthalpy (IE\(_1\)) and second ionization enthalpy (IE\(_2\)) of Mg(g) are 178 and 348 kcal mol\(^{-1}\) respectively. The energy required for the reaction Mg(g) \(\rightarrow\) Mg\(^{2+}\)(g) + 2e\(^{-}\) (in kcal mol\(^{-1}\)) is:

• (1) +170
• (2) +526
• (3) -170
• (4) -526

Two statements are given below:


Statement I: Octet theory accounts for the shape of the molecules.


Statement II: Octet theory does not explain the relative stability of the molecules.


The correct answer is:

• (1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
• (2) Both statement-I and statement-II are not correct
• (3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is not correct
• (4) Statement-I is not correct but statement-II is correct

Arrange the following molecules in decreasing order of their dipole moments:

\( H_2O, NF_3, H_2S, NH_3 \)

• (1) \( H_2O > NF_3 > H_2S > NH_3 \)
• (2) \( NF_3 > H_2O > H_2S > NH_3 \)
• (3) \( NF_3 > H_2O > NH_3 > H_2S \)
• (4) \( H_2O > NH_3 > H_2S > NF_3 \)

For a gas, deviation from ideal behaviour is maximum at:

• (1) \(0^{\circ}C\) & 1.0 atm
• (2) \(-25^{\circ}C\) & 5.0 atm
• (3) \(-25^{\circ}C\) & 2.0 atm
• (4) \(100^{\circ}C\) & 1.0 atm

At \(T(K)\), the rms velocity of methane is \(x \, ms^{-1}\). What is the kinetic energy (in J) of 8 g of methane at the same temperature? (Assume methane as an ideal gas)

• (1) \(2 \times 10^{-3}x^2\)
• (2) \(4 \times 10^{-3}x^2\)
• (3) \(4 \times 10^{-3}x\)
• (4) \(3 \times 10^{-3}x\)

The oxidation state of vanadium in Rb\(_4\)Na[\(HV_{10}\)O\(_28\)] is \(x\) and the oxidation state of chlorine in Ca(ClO\(_2\))\(_2\) is \(y\). The sum of \(x\) and \(y\) is:

• (1) 6
• (2) 8
• (3) 5
• (4) 10

One mole of an ideal gas undergoes a change of state from (1.0 atm, 3.0 L, 200 K) to (4.0 atm, 5.0 L, 250 K) with a change in internal energy of 60 L-atm. What is the change in enthalpy of the process (in kJ)? (1 L-atm = 101 J)

• (1) 6.66
• (2) 7.77
• (3) 7.07
• (4) 8.88

Observe the following processes:


I. \( O_2(l) \rightarrow O_2(g) \)


II. \( N_2(g) + 3H_2(g) \rightarrow 2NH_3(g) \)


III. \( C(s, graphite) \rightarrow C(s, diamond) \)


IV. \( N_2(g, 1 \, atm) \rightarrow N_2(g, 10 \, atm) \)


V. \( H_2(g) \rightarrow 2H(g) \)


VI. Temperature of a crystalline solid is raised from 0 K to 115 K


For how many of the above processes, change in entropy is negative?

• (1) 2
• (2) 3
• (3) 4
• (4) 1

At T(K), the value of \( K_c \) for the reaction

\[ AO_2(g) + BO_2(g) \leftrightarrow{} AO_3(g) + BO(g) \]

is 16. In a one-litre closed flask, 1 mole each of \( AO_2(g) \), \( BO_2(g) \), \( AO(g) \), and \( BO(g) \) were taken and heated to T(K). What are the equilibrium concentrations (in mol L\(^{-1}\)) of \( BO_2(g) \) and \( BO(g) \) respectively?

• (1) 1.6, 0.4
• (2) 0.467, 1.533
• (3) 1.533, 0.467
• (4) 0.4, 1.6

At 298 K, the ionization constant of \( CN^- \) is \( 2.08 \times 10^{-6} \). What is the ionization constant of its conjugate acid? (Given \( K_w = 10^{-14} \))

• (1) \( 2.08 \times 10^{-8} \)
• (2) \( 4.8 \times 10^{-9} \)
• (3) \( 4.8 \times 10^{-10} \)
• (4) \( 2.08 \times 10^{-7} \)

Which of the following properties of \( D_2O \) is less when compared to \( H_2O \)?

• (1) Melting point
• (2) Dielectric constant
• (3) Enthalpy of vaporization
• (4) Viscosity

The total number of products formed in the following reactions:



LiNO\(_3\) \(\xrightarrow{\Delta}\) Products
NaNO\(_3\) \(\xrightarrow{\Delta}\) Products
Be(NO\(_3\))\(_2\) \(\xrightarrow{\Delta}\) Products

• (1) 7
• (2) 9
• (3) 6
• (4) 8

In which of the following reactions, hydrogen is one of the products formed?



Reaction of BF\(_3\) with LiAlH\(_4\) in diethyl ether
Hydrolysis of diborane
Oxidation of sodium borohydride with iodine
Combustion of diborane

• (1) ii, iv only
• (2) ii, iii only
• (3) i, iii only
• (4) i, iv only

Identify the correctly matched sets:



CO - neutral oxide
GeO - acidic oxide
PbO - basic oxide


The correct option is:

• (1) i, iii only
• (2) ii, iii only
• (3) i, ii only
• (4) i, ii, iii

Which of the following is present in the photochemical smog?

• (1) Acetyl nitrate
• (2) Chlorofluorocarbons
• (3) Methoxy acetyl nitrate
• (4) Peroxy acetyl nitrate

What is \(R_f\) of B in the following reaction?

• (1) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
• (2) \( \frac{2}{3} \)
• (3) \( \frac{3}{4} \)
• (4) \( \frac{4}{3} \)

Observe the following reaction sequence

Correct statement regarding Y is

• (1) Aromatic in nature
• (2) Aliphatic in nature
• (3) \(-CO\) group present in it
• (4) \(-COOH\) group present in it

A metal crystallizes in fcc lattice. The edge length of the unit cell is 200 pm. What is the radius (in m) of the metal atom?

• (1) \(\sqrt[3]{0.353} \times 10^{-10}\)
• (2) \(\sqrt[3]{0.512} \times 10^{-10}\)
• (3) \(\sqrt{0.353} \times 10^{-10}\)
• (4) \(\sqrt[3]{0.253} \times 10^{-10}\)

0.1 mole of H\(_3\)PO\(_3\) is present in 500 mL of solution. The normality of it is:

• (1) 0.2 N
• (2) 0.3 N
• (3) 0.4 N
• (4) 0.6 N

1 g of \(XY_2\) is dissolved in 20 g of \(C_6H_6\). The \(\Delta T_f\) of resultant solution is 2.318 K. When 1 g of \(XY_4\) is dissolved in 20 g of C6H6, its \(\Delta T_f\) is found to be 1.314 K. What are the atomic masses of X and Y respectively?
(\(k_f\) of \(C_6H_6\) IS 5.1 K kg \(mol^-1\)

• (1) 42 u, 26 u
• (2) 38 u, 30 u
• (3) 30 u, 38 u
• (4) 26 u, 42 u

The cell reaction of a cell is given below: \[ 2 \, Cu^{+} \rightarrow Cu + Cu^{2+} \]
What is \( E^0_{cell} \) (in V)?
(Given: E^0_{Cu^{2+/Cu^{+ = x  V; \quad E^0_{Cu^{+/Cu = y  V)

• (1) \( x - y \)
• (2) \( y - x \)
• (3) \( x + y \)
• (4) \( -x - y \)

At T(K), the decomposition of N2O5(g) is a first-order reaction. The initial pressure of N2O5(g) is 'a' atm. After time, t, the total pressure of the reaction is 'p' atm. The rate constant (k) of the reaction is

• (1) \( k = \frac{1}{t} \ln \left( \frac{a}{a - 2p} \right) \)
• (2) \( k = \frac{1}{t} \ln \left( \frac{3a}{3a - 2p} \right) \)
• (3) \( k = \frac{1}{t} \ln \left( \frac{3a}{3a - p} \right) \)
• (4) \( k = \frac{1}{2} \ln \left( \frac{3a}{5a - 2p} \right) \)

The correct statements about the adsorption of gas on solid adsorbent are:



Adsorption is always exothermic.
Physisorption may transform into chemisorption at high temperature.
Physisorption increases with increasing temperature but chemisorption decreases with increasing temperature.
In physisorption enthalpy of adsorption is 100 kJ mol\(^{-1}\).


Options:

• (1) II \& IV only
• (2) III \& IV only
• (3) II \& III only
• (4) I \& II only

The electrolyte which is highly effective for the coagulation of antimony sulphide sol is:


Options:

• (1) \( K_2 SO_4 \)
• (2) \( CaCl_2 \)
• (3) \( AlCl_3 \)
• (4) \( Na_3 PO_4 \)

Match the following:




Options:

• (1) A-II, B-III, C-V, D-I
• (2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
• (3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
• (4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

In the disproportionation reaction of nitrous acid, X is formed along with nitric acid and water. X can also be obtained by the reaction of:

• (1) Zn + dil. HNO\(_3\)
• (2) Zn + Conc. HNO\(_3\)
• (3) Cu + dil. HNO\(_3\)
• (4) Cu + Conc. HNO\(_3\)

Fusion of MnO\(_2\) with KOH in presence of KNO\(_3\) produces a dark green colour compound "X". X disproportionates in acidic solution and gives 'Y', 'Z' and water. The sum of spin only magnetic moment values of 'Y' and 'Z' is:

• (1) 3.87
• (2) 5.92
• (3) 4.90
• (4) 2.83

The number of ions present in tris(ethane-1,2-diamine)cobalt(III) sulphate is:

• (1) 2
• (2) 4
• (3) 5
• (4) 3

In which of the following the polymer is correctly matched with the catalyst used for its preparation?



Teflon - Persulphate
Low density polythene - Triethyl aluminium and titanium tetrachloride
Terylene - Zinc acetate/antimony trioxide


Correct answer is:

• (1) I, III only
• (2) I, II only
• (3) II, III only
• (4) I, II, III

Sucrose is a disaccharide of which of the following?

• (1) I, III
• (2) I, II
• (3) II, III
• (4) II, IV

Amino acids are represented by the following general structure:






Find out the pair in which amino acid is correctly matched with its group R:

• (1) Lys - -(CH\(_2\))\(_4\)-NH\(_2\)
• (2) Val - -CH\(_2\)CH(CH\(_3\))\(_2\)
• (3) Thr - -CH\(_2\)OH
• (4) Asp - -CH\(_2\)CONH\(_2\)

Match the following:







Options:

• (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
• (2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
• (3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
• (4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

What is D in the given sequence of reaction?







Options:

• (1) Aniline
• (2) Cyanobenzene
• (3) Benzene isocyanide
• (4) Benzamide

What is X in the following reaction?






Options:

• (1) Butan-2-ol
• (2) 2-methyl propan-2-ol
• (3) 2-Methyl propan-1-ol
• (4) Butan-1-ol

Observe the following set of reactions:







Correct statement regarding Y and B is:

• (1) Both Y and B are dehydrated with Conc. H\(_2\)SO\(_4\)/443 K
• (2) Both Y and B are dehydrated with 20% H\(_3\)PO\(_4\)/358 K
• (3) Y is dehydrated with Conc. H\(_2\)SO\(_4\)/443 K and B with 20% H\(_3\)PO\(_4\)/358 K
• (4) B is dehydrated with Conc. H\(_2\)SO\(_4\)/443 K and Y with 20% H\(_3\)PO\(_4\)/358 K

What is Y in the following reaction sequence?

• (1)
• (2)
• (3)
• (4)

Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

What are X and Z in the following reaction sequence?








Options:

• (1) CrO\(_3\)/H\(_2\)SO\(_4\); Propiophenone
• (2) CrO\(_3\)/H\(_2\)SO\(_4\); Acetophenone
• (3) PCC; Propiophenone
• (4) PCC; Acetophenone

Two statements are given below


Benzanamine can be prepared from phthalimide.
Benzanamine is less basic than phenyl methanamine.

• (1) Both statements I & II are correct
• (2) Both statements I & II are not correct
• (3) Statement I is correct, but statement II is not correct
• (4) Statement I is not correct, but statement II is correct