IIT JAM 2025 Geology Question Paper with Answer Key PDF Available

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Shivam Yadav

Updated on - Nov 7, 2025

The IIT JAM 2025 Geology exam which was conducted today, February 2, 2025, in shift 1 from 9:30 AM to 12:30 PM is now over and the IIT JAM 2025 Chemistry (CY) Question Paper with Answer Key PDF is available for download.

The Geology exam was exactly as expected with 60 questions containing negative marks only for MCQs. Initial feedback indicated that the exam was of moderate difficulty level, with a fair cut of both types of questions distributed equally across all sections, and students considered the exam to be as expected with many persons declaring that the difficulty level was right for the most.

Also, Check: IIT JAM 2025 Question Paper

IIT JAM 2024 Geology (GG) Question Paper with Answer Key PDFs

IIT JAM 2024 Geology (GG) Question Paper with Answer Key PDFs Download PDF Check Solutions
IIT JAM 2025 Chemistry Question Paper

IIT JAM 2025 Geology (GG) Question Paper with Solutions


Question 1:

The density contrast across which one of the following transitions in the Earth is maximum?

  • (A) Upper crust – lower crust
  • (B) Upper mantle – lower mantle
  • (C) Lower mantle – outer core
  • (D) Outer core – inner core

Question 2:

Which one of the following is NOT an ultramafic rock?

  • (A) Wehrlite
  • (B) Olivine websterite
  • (C) Harzburgite
  • (D) Anorthosite

Question 3:

The longitude of the person’s position at a place 3 hours ahead of UTC (Prime Meridian) is

  • (A) \( 15^\circ E \)
  • (B) \( 30^\circ W \)
  • (C) \( 45^\circ E \)
  • (D) \( 45^\circ W \)

Question 4:

Which one of the following does NOT have a polymorph?

  • (A) Fluorite
  • (B) Pyrite
  • (C) Calcite
  • (D) Diamond

Question 5:

Which one of the following CORRECTLY describes the footwall block relative to the hanging wall of a planar normal fault?

  • (A) Lies above the fault plane and relatively moves down
  • (B) Lies below the fault plane and relatively moves horizontally
  • (C) Lies above the fault plane and relatively moves up
  • (D) Lies below the fault plane and relatively moves up

Question 6:

Which one of the following minerals has a characteristic pale yellow streak?

  • (A) Sphalerite
  • (B) Pyrite
  • (C) Hematite
  • (D) Cuprite

Question 7:

Which of the following is a fluorite deposit?

  • (A) Sonapahar, Meghalaya
  • (B) Mangampeta, Andhra Pradesh
  • (C) Belka Pahar, Rajasthan
  • (D) Dongargaon, Maharashtra

Question 8:

According to Dunham’s classification, which one of the following limestones is grain-supported and contains mud?

  • (A) Wackestone
  • (B) Packstone
  • (C) Grainstone
  • (D) Mudstone

Question 9:

Which one of the following vertebrate fauna is a Proboscidea?

  • (A) Hipparion
  • (B) Mastodon
  • (C) Indratherium
  • (D) Sivapithecus

Question 10:

Which one of the following is an undifferentiated meteorite?

  • (A) Basaltic achondrite
  • (B) Carbonaceous chondrite
  • (C) Eucrite
  • (D) Pallasite

Question 11:

Which one of the following is the CORRECT sequence of igneous rocks with increasing SiO2 content?

  • (A) basalt → komatiite → dacite → andesite
  • (B) dacite → basalt → komatiite → andesite
  • (C) basalt → dacite → andesite → komatiite
  • (D) komatiite → basalt → andesite → dacite

Question 12:

The schematic diagram given below shows textual relationship among garnet, muscovite, biotite and kyanite in a metapelite. Biotite defines S1 foliation and muscovite defines S2 and S3 foliations. S1, S2, and S3 fabrics were developed during distinct deformation events D1, D2, and D3, respectively. Which one of the following represents the pre-D3 mineral assemblage?

  • (A) kyanite + garnet + biotite
  • (B) garnet + biotite + muscovite
  • (C) garnet + kyanite + muscovite
  • (D) biotite + garnet + kyanite

Question 13:

Which one of the following characteristic mineral assemblages represents eclogite facies metamorphism of a pelitic protolith?

  • (A) garnet + K-feldspar + sillimanite + cordierite
  • (B) talc + kyanite + phengite + garnet
  • (C) chlorite + muscovite + biotite + albite
  • (D) staurolite + chloritoid + biotite + garnet

Question 14:

Which one of the following drainage patterns is formed by stream paths that follow circular segments?

  • (A) Annular
  • (B) Trellis
  • (C) Radial
  • (D) Centripetal

Question 15:

A mineral displays magenta interference colour (retardation, \( \Delta m = 550 \, nm \)) under crossed polarized light. If an accessory plate adds retardation of 100 nm, the interference colour observed is:

  • (A) 1st order yellow
  • (B) 1st order green
  • (C) 2nd order blue
  • (D) 2nd order red

Question 16:

Match the symmetry elements in Group I with the corresponding crystal system in Group II.

  • (A) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
  • (B) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
  • (C) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2
  • (D) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-3

Question 17:

Match the cycles in Group I with the corresponding processes in Group II.

  • (A) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3
  • (B) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1
  • (C) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4
  • (D) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

Question 18:

Which one of the following is the oldest volcanics?

  • (A) Deccan
  • (B) Panjal
  • (C) Sylhet
  • (D) Rajmahal

Question 19:

The following map shows an outcrop of a coal bed that intersects the elevation contours. Which one of the following statements is CORRECT?
 


  • (A) Bed intersects a spur and dip of bed is less than gradient of spur axis
  • (B) Bed intersects a valley and dip of bed is greater than valley gradient
  • (C) Bed intersects a spur and dip of bed is equal to gradient of spur axis
  • (D) Bed intersects a valley and dip of bed is less than valley gradient

Question 20:

Refer the dam section shown below. Which one of the following conditions represents the most stable state of the dam against rotation about its center of gravity?
 


  • (A) T > 3W and L < H
  • (B) Resultant force of T and W passes through the base of the dam
  • (C) H > 3L and T = W
  • (D) Resultant force of T and W passes outside the base of the dam

Question 21:

Which one of the following is related to porphyry Cu-Mo deposit?

  • (A) Host rock is pegmatite
  • (B) Forms due to first boiling process
  • (C) Occurs in rift settings
  • (D) Forms due to sulfur saturation

Question 22:

Which one of the following statements is CORRECT for coal?

  • (A) Sapropelic coals are composed of a mixture of macroscopic plant debris
  • (B) Fusain is a microlithotype in coal
  • (C) Clarain is grey in color and has dull lustre
  • (D) High value of vitrinite reflectance indicates a low rank coal

Question 23:

Which one of the following sedimentary structures is formed by rapid release of water?

  • (A) Ripple lamination
  • (B) Gutter cast
  • (C) Convolute lamination
  • (D) Prod mark

Question 24:

Which one of the following represents the CORRECT combination of stratigraphic unit with its corresponding age?

  • (A) Barail Formation – Miocene
  • (B) Mahadek Formation – Oligocene
  • (C) Naredi Formation – Eocene
  • (D) Dalmia Puram Formation – Paleocene

Question 25:

Match the stratigraphic units in Group I with their corresponding basins in Group II.

  • (A) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4
  • (B) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
  • (C) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1
  • (D) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2

Question 26:

Match the morphological features in Group I with their corresponding descriptions given in Group II.

  • (A) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
  • (B) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1
  • (C) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1
  • (D) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4

Question 27:

Which one of the following is a Paleozoic flora?

  • (A) Williamsonia
  • (B) Dicroidium
  • (C) Gangamopteris
  • (D) Nilssonia

Question 28:

Which one of the following lithospheric plates has the least length of convergent boundary?

  • (A) Pacific
  • (B) Indian
  • (C) Antarctic
  • (D) South American

Question 29:

Which one of the following elements in the Earth is a chalcophile and shows siderophilic behavior?

  • (A) Mg
  • (B) Fe
  • (C) Li
  • (D) Pb

Question 30:

Which one of the following set of landforms results dominantly due to erosion?

  • (A) Cirque and ventifact
  • (B) Loess and yardangs
  • (C) Barchans and till
  • (D) Moraine and eskers

Question 31:

The shaded region (P) in the given ACF diagram represents the compositional range of mafic rocks that have undergone granulite facies metamorphism. Which of the following equilibrium mineral assemblages is/are identified in these mafic rocks?
 


  • (A) plagioclase + clinopyroxene
  • (B) plagioclase + clinopyroxene + orthopyroxene
  • (C) plagioclase + orthopyroxene + garnet
  • (D) plagioclase + garnet + cordierite

Question 32:

Which of the following stereographic projections represent(s) an upright plunging fold?


  • (A) P
  • (B) Q
  • (C) R
  • (D) S

Question 33:

Which of the following property/properties of a mineral indicate(s) uniaxial negative optic sign?

  • (A) Ordinary ray is slow
  • (B) Extraordinary ray is slow
  • (C) \(n_e < n_o\)
  • (D) \(n_e > n_o\)

Question 34:

Which of the following statements related to stratigraphy is/are CORRECT?

  • (A) Grain-size of sediments progressively coarsens upward in a deltaic succession
  • (B) Paraconformity shows a distinct erosional surface
  • (C) Paleogene Period includes Paleocene, Eocene and Oligocene Epochs
  • (D) Sea-level fall causes shifting of river mouth towards deep ocean

Question 35:

Which of following combinations of sedimentary environments and their features is/are CORRECTLY matched?

  • (A) Fluvial – tabular cross-stratification
  • (B) Submarine fan – rain print
  • (C) Beach – planar lamination
  • (D) Supratidal – mud-cracks

Question 36:

Which of the following is/are characteristic feature(s) of Brachiopods?

  • (A) Valves equilateral
  • (B) Inequivalved
  • (C) Plane of symmetry between valves
  • (D) Presence of ligaments

Question 37:

Which of the following characteristics of fossils is/are necessary for biostratigraphic applications?

  • (A) Wide geographic distribution
  • (B) Long vertical range
  • (C) Good preservation of hard shells
  • (D) Facies dependence

Question 38:

Moon is considered to have been formed due to high temperature condensation of post-collisional ejected material. Which of the following statement(s) related to its mantle composition as compared to CI carbonaceous chondrite is/are CORRECT?

  • (A) Depleted in volatile and refractory elements
  • (B) Depleted in volatile and enriched in refractory elements
  • (C) Higher Rb/Sr element ratio
  • (D) Lower K/U element ratio

Question 39:

Which of the following statement(s) related to ore-forming processes is/are CORRECT?

  • (A) Lateritization involves eluviation and illuviation processes
  • (B) Stratiform sediment-hosted copper (SSC)-type deposits are formed at mid-oceanic ridges
  • (C) Fluid phase separation is the major process of formation of Mississippi Valley (MV)-type deposits
  • (D) Formation of Superior-type banded iron formation (BIF) is related to the Great Oxidation Event

Question 40:

Which of the following landforms is/are weathering dominated?

  • (A) Duricrusts
  • (B) Berms
  • (C) Inselbergs
  • (D) Tors

Question 41:

A metapelite is composed of muscovite + quartz + K-feldspar + kyanite mineral assemblage. If the muscovite and K-feldspar show solid solution between 'Na' and 'K' end-members, the minimum number of components that defines this metapelitic assemblage is ............. (In integer)


Question 42:

The mineral formula of orthopyroxene calculated on 6 Oxygen atom basis is (Mg1.2Fe0.8)Si2O6. The weight percentage of MgO in the chemical composition of orthopyroxene is ............. (Round off to one decimal place)


Question 43:

A grain has a size of 36 mm when observed under a magnification of 125 times. The actual size of the grain in µm is ............. (In integer)


Question 44:

Radiogenic atoms of \(^{40}K\) have a half-life of \(1.25 \times 10^9\) years. The percentage of \(^{40}K\) atoms left after six half-lives will be .............. (Round off to two decimal places)


Question 45:

For a \(2/m\) pyroxene, the extinction angle between the vibration direction and crystallographic axis, X ⊥ c, is 36°. Then the angle Y ⊥ b in degrees will be ............. (In integer)


Question 46:

A kimberlite pipe has a bulk density of 2.5 g/cc and contains diamond of grade 100 carat/metric ton. If the pipe contains only 1-carat diamond crystals, then the number of diamond crystals per cubic meter in the pipe is .................. (In integer)


Question 47:

Consider the present volume of the Earth’s continental crust as \(7.5 \times 10^{18}\) m³. If continental crust formation started 3.0 Ga ago, then the average rate of continental crustal growth is ............. km³ yr⁻¹. (Round off to one decimal place)


Question 48:

The Throw of a fault is 4 m and the Heave is 3 m. The Dip separation of the fault, in meters, is ............... (In integer)


Question 49:

A Rb–Sr isochron plot of cogenetic volcanic rocks yielded a slope of 0.003. The eruption age of these rocks is ............... Ma. (Round off to one decimal place)


Question 50:

The apparent dip amount of a limestone bed in the direction 010° is 30°. If the bed strikes 320°, the value of true dip amount in degrees is ............. (Round off to nearest integer)


Question 51:

A magma having density of 2900 kg m\(^-3\) just reaches the surface through a two-layered crust as shown in the figure below. Assuming isostatic equilibrium, its depth of melting is .......... km. (Round off to one decimal place)



Question 52:

The cation exchange equilibrium reaction between end-member components of orthopyroxene and ilmenite is given below:
\[ MgSiO_3 + FeTiO_3 = FeSiO_3 + MgTiO_3 \]


Question 53:

The isobaric temperature-composition (T–X) phase diagram given below shows the phase relation between components M and N. The equilibrium melting undergone by the rock R to generate the liquid of composition L is .............. % (In integer) 



Question 54:

A satellite launching vehicle is carrying a lander for Moon mapping. As shown in the figure below, P is the position where the gravitational forces exerted by Earth and Moon on the vehicle balance out. The distance \( P \) from the center of the Earth is ........... \( \times 10^5 \) km. (Round off to two decimal places)



Question 55:

The data tabulated below are for flooding events in the last 400 years. The probability of a large flood accompanied by a glacial lake outburst flood (GLOF) in 2025 is ........... \(\times 10^{-3}\). (Round off to one decimal place)
 


Question 56:

A well-developed succession of laminated shale is bound by two volcanic ash beds that were precisely dated as shown in the schematic diagram given below. Assuming a constant sedimentation rate, the age of the fossiliferous limestone bed 65 m above the basal volcanic ash bed is ............ Ma. (Round off to nearest integer)
 


Question 57:

Pumping and extraction of groundwater from an unconfined aquifer resulted in a uniform drop of water table by 40 m over an area of 1 km². If the porosity of the aquifer is 35% and specific retention is 15%, the volume of water (in m³) pumped out from the affected area is __________ \(\times 10^6\) m³. (In integer)


Question 58:

A Cu deposit of 198 tons with average grade of 1.5% Cu contains 60% chalcopyrite, 30% bornite and 10% gangue. The maximum amount of Cu that can be extracted from chalcopyrite is .......... tons. (Round off to two decimal places)


Question 59:

The orientations of two planar limbs of an overturned anticline are 045°/72°SE and 225°/37°SE. The interlimb angle of the fold in degrees is ........... (In integer)


Question 60:

Two boreholes A and B, both inclined towards 270°, penetrate a dipping coal bed at the same point and pass through it entirely in the sub-surface as shown in the figure below. The bed dips towards 270°. The thickness of the coal bed, measured along the borehole A is 10 m and along borehole B is 8 m. The angle between the two boreholes is 20°. The orthogonal thickness \( x \) of the coal bed is ........ m. (Round off to one decimal place)


Correct Answer:

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