IIT JAM 2025 Biotechnology Question Paper Available Download Solution pdf with Answer Key

Shivam Yadav's profile photo

Shivam Yadav

Updated on - Nov 7, 2025

IIT JAM 2025 Biotechnology (BT) Exam scheduled for today, February 2, 2025, in Shift 2, between 2:30 PM and 5:30 PM has now been concluded. The IIT JAM 2025 Biotechnology Question Paper and the Answer Key is available for download .

Approximately 15,000 candidates are expected to appear for IIT JAM 2025 in Biotechnology (BT), which consists of 60 questions divided into 30 MCQs, 10 MSQs, and 20 NATs carrying a total of 100 marks, but negative marking only in MCQs.

Also, Check: IIT JAM 2025 Question Paper

IIT JAM 2025 Biotechnology(BT) Question Paper with Answer Key PDFs

IIT JAM 2025 Biotechnology(BT) Question Paper with Answer Key PDFs Download PDF Check Solutions

IIT JAM 2025 Biotechnology (BT): Expected Difficulty Level


Question 1:

The porphyrin ring (tetrapyrrole structure) is NOT found in functional

  • (A) chlorophyll
  • (B) hemoglobin
  • (C) hemocyanin
  • (D) leghemoglobin

Question 2:

If

and \(P + P^T = I\), the value of \(\alpha \; (0 \leq \alpha \leq \pi/2)\) is

  • (A) \(\dfrac{\pi}{2}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{\pi}{3}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{3\pi}{2}\)
  • (D) \(0\)

Question 3:

After how many cycles of polymerase chain reaction (PCR), the amplified product of required length is generated for the first time from a chromosomal DNA template?

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 5

Question 4:

In humans, Down syndrome is caused by

  • (A) Trisomy 16
  • (B) Trisomy 18
  • (C) Trisomy 21
  • (D) Trisomy 22

Question 5:

Which one of the following hormones is produced by the adrenal gland?

  • (A) Thyroxine
  • (B) Cortisol
  • (C) Insulin
  • (D) Melatonin

Question 6:

What is the ploidy level of a sporophyte in angiosperms?

  • (A) n
  • (B) 2n
  • (C) 3n
  • (D) 4n

Question 7:

The standard free energy change (\(\Delta G^0\)) of the binding reaction between different sweet molecules and a common sweet taste receptor are given. Which amongst these molecules is the sweetest at the same molar concentration?

  • (A) Sucrose (-6.7 kcal mol\(^{-1}\))
  • (B) Saccharin (-9.7 kcal mol\(^{-1}\))
  • (C) Alitame (-11.1 kcal mol\(^{-1}\))
  • (D) Neotame (-12.1 kcal mol\(^{-1}\))

Question 8:

The correct order of electronegativity of the given elements is

  • (A) B > C > N > O > F
  • (B) F > O > N > C > B
  • (C) F > N > O > C > B
  • (D) O > F > N > C > B

Question 9:

Which of the following terrestrial biomes has the highest animal diversity?

  • (A) Tropical forest
  • (B) Savana
  • (C) Chaparral
  • (D) Tundra

Question 10:

An electric circuit with a resistor of constant resistance ‘R’ is maintained at a constant voltage ‘V’. Based on Ohm’s law, if the current ‘I’ through the circuit is doubled, the power ‘P’ dissipated across the resistor is

  • (A) \(P/2\)
  • (B) \(P\)
  • (C) \(2P\)
  • (D) \(4P\)

Question 11:

Sequence comparison of which of the following genes is used as a measure of evolutionary divergence across bacterial species?

  • (A) pbpG
  • (B) slyD
  • (C) 16S rRNA
  • (D) 18S rRNA

Question 12:

Which of the following activities is NOT possessed by the human immunodeficiency virus-1 reverse transcriptase?

  • (A) Synthesis of DNA from RNA
  • (B) Synthesis of DNA from DNA
  • (C) Degradation of RNA strand of RNA:DNA hybrid
  • (D) Synthesis of mRNA from DNA

Question 13:

Bacterial cloning vectors and bacterial expression vectors are differentiated by the presence of

  • (A) antibiotic resistance gene cassette
  • (B) origin of replication
  • (C) promoter and ribosome-binding site
  • (D) unique restriction sites

Question 14:

The final stage of peptidoglycan (PG) biosynthesis is marked by PG cross-link formation and remodeling. Which of the following enzymes does NOT take part in these processes?

  • (A) Transglycosidases
  • (B) Transpeptidases
  • (C) Transaminases
  • (D) DD-carboxypeptidases

Question 15:

The first evidence of ‘gene transfer’ was demonstrated in 1928 by

  • (A) Joshua Lederberg in Escherichia coli
  • (B) Frederick Griffith in Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • (C) Joshua Lederberg in bacteriophages
  • (D) Alexander Fleming in Penicillium notetum

Question 16:

Which of the following statements about eukaryotic asymmetric cell division is NOT correct?

  • (A) Chromosomes are unequally distributed in the daughter cells
  • (B) Chromosomes are equally distributed in the daughter cells
  • (C) RNA and proteins are unequally distributed in the daughter cells
  • (D) Cytoplasmic contents are unequally distributed in the daughter cells

Question 17:

Which of the following represents the CORRECT order of events in the eukaryotic cell cycle?

  • (A) G1 → S → G2 → M
  • (B) S → G1 → M → G2
  • (C) G1 → S → M → G2
  • (D) S → G1 → G2 → M

Question 18:

The receptors for gamma amino butyric acid (GABA) in humans are

  • (A) ligand gated chloride ion channels
  • (B) ligand gated sodium ion channels
  • (C) ligand gated potassium ion channels
  • (D) ligand gated calcium ion channels

Question 19:

Which of the following cell types is infected by the human immunodeficiency virus-1?

  • (A) T-helper lymphocytes
  • (B) T-cytotoxic lymphocytes
  • (C) Plasma cells
  • (D) B-lymphocytes

Question 20:

The IR stretching frequency of the carbonyl (C=O) group of a typical saturated ketone is 1715 cm\(^{-1}\). The IR stretching frequencies for the carbonyl groups present in three different acetophenone derivatives are given. Match the molecules in Group I with their corresponding frequencies in Group II.

  • (A) P-1, Q-2, R-3
  • (B) P-2, Q-3, R-1
  • (C) P-3, Q-1, R-2
  • (D) P-3, Q-2, R-1

Question 21:

Two charges \(10 \times 10^{-8}\,C\) and \(-6 \times 10^{-8}\,C\) are located 16 cm apart. The point(s) on the line joining the two charges, where the net electric potential is zero, will be

[Take the potential at infinity to be zero]

  • (A) 10 cm and 40 cm away from the positive charge on the side of the negative charge
  • (B) 10 cm and 40 cm away from the negative charge on the side of the positive charge
  • (C) 10 cm away from the negative charge on the side of the positive charge
  • (D) 40 cm away from the negative charge on the side of the positive charge

Question 22:

Match the pair of organisms in Group I with their community interaction pattern in Group II.

  • (A) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2
  • (B) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
  • (C) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2
  • (D) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4

Question 23:

Match the animals in Group I with the major form of excreted nitrogen metabolite in Group II.

  • (A) P-3, Q-1, R-2
  • (B) P-1, Q-2, R-3
  • (C) P-2, Q-3, R-1
  • (D) P-3, Q-2, R-1

Question 24:

Identify the taxa that constitute a paraphyletic group in the given phylogenetic tree.
 


  • (A) A, B, C
  • (B) D, E, F
  • (C) B, C, D
  • (D) C, D, E

Question 25:

Which of the following is the CORRECT combination of a synthetic auxin and a synthetic cytokinin?

  • (A) 2,4-Dichlorophenoxy acetic acid (2,4-D) and Indole-3-acetic acid (IAA)
  • (B) 2,4-Dichlorophenoxy acetic acid (2,4-D) and 6-Benzylamino purine (BAP)
  • (C) 6-Benzylamino purine (BAP) and Zeatin
  • (D) Indole-3-acetic acid (IAA) and Zeatin

Question 26:

Mechanism of antibacterial action of polymyxins relies on the

  • (A) inhibition of 30S ribosomal subunit
  • (B) disruption of peptidoglycan synthesis
  • (C) inhibition of DNA replication of bacteria
  • (D) disruption of membrane architecture of bacteria

Question 27:

The 5' cap of eukaryotic mRNAs contains

  • (A) a modified guanine nucleotide
  • (B) a modified adenine nucleotide
  • (C) a modified cytosine nucleotide
  • (D) a modified uracil nucleotide

Question 28:

Which one of the following statements is CORRECT about Agrobacterium tumefaciens-mediated plant transformation?

  • (A) The marker gene for the selection of plant transformant is located outside the T-DNA segment of the transformation plasmid
  • (B) The marker gene for the selection of bacterial transformant is located within the T-DNA segment of the transformation plasmid
  • (C) Two T-DNA border sequences (left and right) are essential to design a binary vector system
  • (D) In binary vector system, the vir genes and two T-DNA border sequences (left and right) are present in the same transformation plasmid

Question 29:

Which of the following conditions is CORRECT for free expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic condition? (q = heat, \(\Delta T = \) temperature difference, w = work)

  • (A) \( q = 0, \Delta T < 0, w \neq 0 \)
  • (B) \( q = 0, \Delta T \neq 0, w = 0 \)
  • (C) \( q \neq 0, \Delta T = 0, w = 0 \)
  • (D) \( q = 0, \Delta T = 0, w = 0 \)

Question 30:

Four alkyl halides, MeBr, EtBr, iPrBr, and tBuBr, undergo S\(_N\)2 reactions in the presence of hydroxide ion to yield the corresponding alcohols and the halide ion. The CORRECT order of the alkyl halides based on the rates of reactions is

  • (A) MeBr > EtBr > iPrBr > tBuBr
  • (B) tBuBr > iPrBr > EtBr > MeBr
  • (C) iPrBr > tBuBr > EtBr > MeBr
  • (D) EtBr > iPrBr > tBuBr > MeBr

Question 31:

Which of the following statement(s) is/are CORRECT about Deinococcus radiodurans?

  • (A) It has a cell wall consisting of several layers, including an outer membrane that lacks lipid A
  • (B) Peptidoglycan in its cell wall has ornithine, in place of diaminopimelic acid, in the N-acetyl muramic acid cross-bridges
  • (C) It is a Gram-negative organism
  • (D) It can survive an exposure up to 15000 Gy of ionizing radiation

Question 32:

Which of the following statement(s) is/are CORRECT about 'stringent response' in bacteria?

  • (A) It is linked to reduced growth rate
  • (B) Guanosine tetraphosphate (ppGpp) alone is sufficient to trigger the process
  • (C) Both guanosine tetraphosphate (ppGpp) and guanosine pentaphosphate (pppGpp) are required to trigger the process
  • (D) RelA and/or SpoT are/is involved in triggering the process

Question 33:

The method(s) used to detect a DNA fragment of 150 base pairs is/are

  • (A) agarose gel electrophoresis
  • (B) northern blotting
  • (C) polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis
  • (D) western blotting

Question 34:

The component(s) of the apoptosome is/are

  • (A) cytochrome c
  • (B) procaspase 9
  • (C) caspase 3
  • (D) caspase 8

Question 35:

Which of the following statement(s) is/are CORRECT for lac repressor expressed from the lacI gene?

  • (A) The lac repressor is allosterically controlled and it binds to lac operator
  • (B) The gene lacI is in the 'cis' configuration with respect to lac operon
  • (C) The presence of glucose weakens the binding of lac repressor to lac operator
  • (D) The lac repressor regulates 'in trans' the expression of a gene cloned under the control of lac promoter

Question 36:

Which of the following condition(s) lead(s) to reduced affinity of \(O_2\) for human hemoglobin?

  • (A) Reduction of pH of blood plasma from pH 7.4 to 7.2
  • (B) Decrease of partial pressure of \(CO_2\) in the lungs from 6 to 2 kPa
  • (C) Enhancement of intracellular 2, 3-bis phosphoglycerate (BPG) level from 5 to 8 mM
  • (D) Increase in ambient CO level from 1 to 600 ppm

Question 37:

Which of the following metabolite(s) accumulate(s) in the blood of a human adult consuming a ketogenic diet?

  • (A) D-β-hydroxybutyrate
  • (B) Acetoacetate
  • (C) Pyruvate
  • (D) Oxaloacetate

Question 38:

In ‘Futile Cycle’ chemical energy is dissipated as heat due to two opposite biochemical reactions. Which of the following biochemical reaction(s) is/are a part of ‘Futile Cycle’?

  • (A) Glucose \(\leftrightarrow\) Glucose-6-phosphate
  • (B) Fructose-6-phosphate \(\leftrightarrow\) Fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
  • (C) Glucose-6-phosphate \(\leftrightarrow\) Fructose-6-phosphate
  • (D) 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate \(\leftrightarrow\) 3-phosphoglycerate

Question 39:

Which of the following statement(s) is/are CORRECT in the classical ‘ABC model’ for genetic control of flower development?

  • (A) ‘Class A’ genes solely determine sepal identity
  • (B) ‘Class B’ genes solely determine petal identity
  • (C) ‘Class C’ genes solely determine stamen identity
  • (D) ‘Class C’ genes solely determine carpel identity

Question 40:

Which of the following is/are CORRECT for the two molecules shown?


  • (A) They are stereoisomers
  • (B) Each of them has two stereogenic centers
  • (C) They are mirror images of each other
  • (D) They are diastereoisomers

Question 41:

Free energy change for transport of an uncharged solute across a membrane against a \(1 \times 10^3\) fold concentration gradient at 25°C is ............... kJ mol\(^{-1}\). (rounded off to 2 decimals) \[ R = 8.315 \, J mol^{-1} \, K^{-1} \]


Question 42:

A forest has four different tree species (A, B, C, and D) and their numbers are: \( A = 60 \); \( B = 20 \); \( C = 10 \); and \( D = 10 \).

The Shannon biodiversity index of the trees in this forest is ................... (rounded off to 2 decimals)


Question 43:

In a plant species, the genotype \( DDEE \) is crossed with the genotype \( ddee \); and the F1 is test crossed. Considering that the two genes are linked and 20 map unit (cM) apart in the chromosome, the percentage (%) of the test cross progeny with the genotype \( ddee \) is ........................ (answer in integer)


Question 44:

In a farm animal breeding programme, the animal with the dominant A phenotype, the recessive b phenotype, the dominant D phenotype, and the recessive e phenotype are commercially important. The inheritance of these traits follows Mendelian laws. From the tetra-hybrid cross of two genotypes AaBbDdEe and AaBbDdEe, the expected frequency of offspring that will show all the above-mentioned desired phenotypes is ................... (rounded off to 3 decimals)


Question 45:

The wavelength of a photon emitted during a transition from \( n = 3 \) to \( n = 2 \) state in the H atom is .............. nm. (answer in integer).


Question 46:

The limit of the function \( \lim_{x \to 2} \frac{2x^2 + 2x - 12}{x^2 - 4} \) is .............. (rounded off to 1 decimal)


Question 47:

A candle is placed 18 cm in front of a concave mirror to generate a real, inverted and doubly magnified image. The radius of curvature of the concave mirror is ................ cm. (answer in integer)


Question 48:

\( E^\circ \) value of a Daniell cell \( Zn | Zn^{2+} \, (aq) || Cu^{2+} \, (aq) | Cu \) is ............ V. (rounded off to 2 decimals)


Question 49:

A population of bacterial cells grows from 10,000 to 100,000,000 cells in 6 hours. The generation time of the bacterial population is ........... min. (rounded off to 2 decimals)


Question 50:

In a sampling expedition near a peninsula, 180 dolphins from a large population of dolphins were captured and marked by tagging their dorsal fins. The tagged dolphins were then allowed to join back into the population. In a subsequent expedition, 42 dolphins were photographed from the same large population. Among these, 7 dolphins contained the tags. Assuming that the population size remains the same and that tags were not lost, the estimated population size of dolphins in the peninsula is ........... (answer in integer)


Question 51:

The area bounded by the curve \( y = \sin x \) and the x-axis between \( x = 0 \) and \( x = \frac{3\pi}{2} \) is ............. sq. units. (answer in integer)


Question 52:

The number of 7 letter words (with or without meaning) starting with the letter B that can be formed using the letters of the word BIOLOGY is .............. (answer in integer)


Question 53:

Three particles A, B, C with masses of 100 g, 200 g, and 300 g, respectively, are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangular structure with a side length of 2 m. A is placed at the \( (0, 0) \) position and B is placed at \( (2, 0) \) position in a Cartesian coordinate system. Assume that \( \triangle ABC \) lies parallel to the base. The distance between the center of mass and the position of the particle A is ........... m. (rounded off to 2 decimals)


Question 54:

An insect weighing 5 g takes off vertically for a distance of 100 cm with a speed of 4 m s\(^{-1}\) by using its hind legs. Ignoring the resistance due to air, the magnitude of the average net force exerted by the hind legs during the take-off is ............ N. (rounded off to 3 decimals)


Question 55:

A buffer solution is composed of 0.1 M acetic acid and 0.15 M sodium acetate. The change in pH of 1 L buffer solution upon addition of 50 mL of 1.0 M NaOH is ............... (rounded off to 2 decimals)


Question 56:

In a reaction \( A + B \to C \), the initial rate of formation of C at 25°C was measured for different initial concentrations of A and B as given. The overall order of the reaction with respect to both A and B is ................. (answer in integer)
 

Table 1: Experimental data showing initial concentrations and rates of formation.

Question 57:

A cDNA was synthesized from the mRNA of a eukaryotic gene. After cloning and sequence analysis, the double-stranded cDNA of 614 bp revealed 125 bp 5'-UTR and 120 bp 3'-UTR. The number of amino acids present in the polypeptide encoded by this gene is ............... (answer in integer)


Question 58:

A rare genetic disorder resulting from homozygosity for a recessive allele (\( r \)) occurs in 2 out of every 10,000 individuals in a population. Assuming that (i) the disorder is not lethal, (ii) the disorder does not impact reproductive success, (iii) no new mutations are introduced in the population, and (iv) the population follows Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the percentage (%) of the carriers in the population that pass the \( r \) allele to offspring is .......... (rounded off to 1 decimal)


Question 59:

The vector, shown in the figure, has promoter and RBS sequences in the 300 bp region between the restriction sites for enzymes X and Y. There are no other sites for X and Y in the vector. The promoter is directed towards the Y site. The insert containing only an ORF provides 3 fragments after digestion with both enzymes X and Y. The ORF is cloned in the correct orientation in the vector using the single restriction enzyme Y. The size of the largest fragment of the recombinant plasmid expressing the ORF upon digestion with enzyme X is ........... bp. (answer in integer)
 



Question 60:

The length of the edge of a variable cube is increasing at the rate of 25 cm s\(^{-1}\). If the initial length of the edge of the cube is 10 cm, the rate of increase of the surface area of the cube is .............. cm\(^2\) s\(^{-1}\). (answer in integer)

Fees Structure

Structure based on different categories

CategoriesState
General1500
sc750

In case of any inaccuracy, Notify Us! 

Comments


No Comments To Show