IIT JAM 2024 Geology (GG) Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

IIT JAM 2024 Geology (GG) Question Paper with Solution

Question 1:

The plate tectonic setting of Benioff-Wadati zone is:

• (A) Continental rift
• (B) Subduction zone
• (C) Passive margin
• (D) Mid-oceanic ridge

Question 2:

Neutron-rich unstable nuclides undergo:

• (A) Beta-minus (negatron) decay
• (B) Beta-plus (positron) decay
• (C) Alpha-decay
• (D) Electron capture

Question 3:

Which one of the following textures is found in alkali olivine basalt?

• (A) Rapakivi
• (B) Graphic
• (C) Blastoporphyritic
• (D) Intergranular

Question 4:

The mineral metabasalt is

Question 5:

Glossopteris is found in which of the following formations?

Question 6:

In a sequence of undeformed sedimentary rocks, younger rocks overlie older rocks. This conforms to the principle of

Question 7:

Dropstones are found in

Question 8:

The sedimentary structure formed by unidirectional current is

Question 9:

Which of the following is the precursor of petroleum?

Question 10:

Which of the following is an amorphous variety of SiO₂?

Question 11:

The name of an igneous rock having a modal composition of 55% olivine, 40% orthopyroxene, and 5% plagioclase, as per the IUGS classification scheme, is

Question 12:

Which of the following is the correct decreasing order of abundance of elements in our solar system?

Question 13:

The suture of a cephalopod having smooth saddles and crenulated lobes is called

Question 14:

Which of the following is a body fossil?

Question 15:

Match the morphological features in Group I with the corresponding taxa in Group II.

Question 16:

Match the sedimentary features/structures in Group I with the corresponding processes in Group II.

Question 17:

Match the geomorphic features in Group I with the corresponding environments in Group II.

Question 18:

The correct hierarchy of the given stratigraphic units is:

Question 19:

Match the minerals in Group I with their highest order of interference color in Group II (for 0.03 mm mineral thickness).

Question 20:

The saturated thickness of an unconfined aquifer is defined by the distance between:

Question 21:

Darcy’s law quantifies the volume of groundwater flow:

Question 22:

According to Strahler’s stream ordering system, what is the highest order of stream in the given diagram?

Question 23:

A tunnel with vertical walls and arched crown is constructed through a set of sedimentary beds. The thickness of individual beds is significantly less than the wall-height of the tunnel. For which of the following conditions, one of the tunnel walls becomes unstable?

Question 24:

A plunging fold will NOT show a V-shaped outcrop pattern on a planar ground surface if the plunge of the fold axis is:

Question 25:

The given map shows the outcrop patterns of beds (1 - 4) across a fault plane, F – F’, on a flat ground. X and Y refer to the two blocks across F – F’. Which one of the following options is the correct interpretation of the structure depicted on the map?

Question 26:

The crystal form "dome" contains:

Question 27:

The symbols [100], {100}, and (100) in a crystal represent the sequence:

Question 28:

Match the stratigraphic units in Group I with the corresponding Archean cratons in Group II.

Question 29:

Which one of the metamorphic facies sequence in order of increasing metamorphic grade defines thermal metamorphism?

Question 30:

Nickel ores are NOT associated with:

Question 31:

Which of the following statements on mantle partial melting are correct?

Question 32:

Which of the following fossil groups are from the Siwalik Group?

Question 33:

The correct stratigraphic successions arranged from the oldest to the youngest are:

Question 34:

Which of the following combinations are correctly matched?

Question 35:

High drainage density is representative of a terrain with:

Question 36:

Mass-wasting processes are:

Question 37:

Which ones of the following correspond to the Pyroxene group?

Question 38:

Which of the following processes are correctly matched with corresponding deformation structures?

Question 39:

For the given Barrovian metamorphic sequence, which of the following statements are correct?

Question 40:

Which ones of the following are formed by brittle deformation?

Question 41:

The value of φ (phi) of a sediment grain having a diameter of 0.125 mm is ______ (In integer).

Question 42:

The vertical separation of a displaced horizontal stratum along a dip-slip reverse fault is 10 m when measured on a section perpendicular to the fault-strike. If the dip of the fault is 30°, the net slip of the fault will be ______ m (In integer).

Question 43:

The dips of the normal and overturned limbs of a horizontal-overturned antiform are 30° and 70°, respectively. The interlimb angle of this fold is ______ degrees (In integer).

Question 44:

In a mineral with formula KAl₃Si₃O₁₀(F_0.5OH_x), the value of ‘x’ is ______. (Round off to one decimal place)

Question 45:

The atom percent of Fe in pyrrhotite of composition Fe_0.77S is ______.

Question 46:

Consider the univariant metamorphic reaction Albite = Jadeite + Quartz. The minimum number of chemical components required to describe the composition of all the phases is ______.

Question 47:

The mean flow velocity of water in an open channel having an average depth of 0.2 m, and with Froude Number 4, is ______ m/s. (Round off to one decimal place; Use g = 9.8 m/s²)

Question 48:

An aquifer has a cross-sectional area of 10 m² and a hydraulic conductivity of 0.25 cm/s. The volume of water that will flow per second through the aquifer for a hydraulic gradient of 0.04 is ______ cm³. (Round off to three decimal places)

Question 49:

The geothermal gradient in the continental crust is 0.02°C/m. If the surface temperature is 25°C, the temperature at a depth of 18 km from the surface is ______°C. (In integer)

Question 50:

The area of a triangular block of a massive orebody is 1500 m². If the thickness of the orebody is 5 m, 6 m, and 7 m at the three corners of the triangular block, and the ore density is 2.5 tons/m³, the estimated ore reserve of the block is ______ tons. (In integer)

Question 51:

Clinopyroxene crystallizing from a basaltic magma has Sm concentration of 24 ppm. If the clinopyroxene-melt partition coefficient for Sm is 1.2, the concentration of Sm in the basaltic magma will be ______ ppm.

Question 52:

The lithostatic pressure at a depth of 36.5 km in the continental crust having an average density of 2800 kg/m³, is ______ GPa.

Question 53:

The fraction of ²⁴⁄₁₁ Na atoms remaining after a decay interval of 5.0 hours will be ______. (Round off to three decimal places) (Use t_1/2 ) = 15.0 hours)

Question 54:

The thickness of a dipping coal bed measured along a vertical drill hole is 15 m. If the dip of the coal bed is 30°, the orthogonal thickness of the coal bed is ______ m.

Question 55:

The mole fraction of forsterite in olivine with MgO = 29.17 weight%, FeO = 34.65 weight%, and SiO₂ = 36.18 weight% is ______. (Round off to two decimal places; use molecular weights: MgO = 40.31, FeO = 71.85, SiO₂ = 60.00)

Question 56:

A partially saturated soil sample has a volume of 1200 cc. The volume of water present in the sample is 300 cc. The mass of solid in the sample is 1908 g and the particle density is 2.65 g/cc. The porosity (n) of the soil sample is ______ %.

Question 57:

A rock element during deformation experienced a pressure change of 50,000 N/m², due to which its volume changed from 4 cm³ to 3.9 cm³. The bulk modulus of the rock is ______ × 10⁶ N/m².

Question 58:

For an anisotropic crystal of thickness 0.04 mm and refractive indices of 1.636 and 1.486 along the slow and fast directions, respectively, the retardation produced is ______ mm.

Question 59:

An orebody contains pyrite and chalcopyrite in the same molar proportions. The percentage concentration of Cu in the ore will be ______ %.

Question 60:

In the given isobaric binary temperature-composition (T-X) phase diagram involving solids A and B, the fraction of melt remaining at point Q for a magma having initial composition P will be ______.