IIT JAM 2024 Chemistry (CY) Question Paper (Available)- Download Solution PDF with Answer Key

Shivam Yadav's profile photo

Shivam Yadav

Updated on - Nov 7, 2025

IIT JAM 2024 Chemistry (CY) Question Paper with Answer Key pdf is available for download. IIT JAM 2024 CY exam was conducted by IIT Madras in shift 1 on February 11, 2024. In terms of difficulty level, IIT JAM 2024 Chemistry (CY) paper was of easy to moderate. IIT JAM 2024 question paper for CY comprised a total of 60 questions.

IIT JAM 2024 Chemistry (CY) Question Paper with Solution PDFs

IIT JAM 2024 Chemistry Question Paper PDF  download iconDownload Check Solutions

IIT JAM 2024 Chemistry Questions with Solutions

Question 1:

The following dipeptide derivative is used as an artificial sweetener:
Artificial sweetener

The constituent α-amino acids of this dipeptide are:

  1. phenylalanine and glutamic acid.
  2. phenylalanine and aspartic acid.
  3. tyrosine and aspartic acid.
  4. tyrosine and glutamic acid.

Question 2:

The suitable reagent combination for the following transformation is:

Transformation Structure

  1. (i) meta-chloroperbenzoic acid (m-CPBA); (ii) NaOH; (iii) aqueous HCl
  2. (i) OsO4; (ii) aqueous HCl
  3. (i) I2/NaOH; (ii) aqueous HCl
  4. (i) dimethyldioxirane (DMDO); (ii) aqueous HCl

Question 3:

For the reaction:

Reaction 3

If the concentration of KCN is increased four times, then the rate of the reaction would be:

  1. unaffected.
  2. increased by two times.
  3. decreased by four times.
  4. increased by four times.

Question 4:

Consider the wavefunction ψ(x) = N[exp(ikx) + exp(-ikx)]. The complex conjugate ψ*(x) is:

  1. N[exp(-ikx) – exp(ikx)]
  2. N*[exp(-ikx) – exp(ikx)]
  3. N*[exp(ikx) + exp(-ikx)]
  4. 2N[sin(kx)]

Question 5:

Wavelength of X-rays used in a diffraction experiment is 1.54 Å. X-rays are diffracted from a set of planes with an interplanar spacing of 1.54 Å. Then the angle θ (in degrees) corresponding to the first-order Bragg diffraction is:

  1. 30°
  2. 15°
  3. 45°
  4. 90°

Question 6:

Identify the reaction for which, at equilibrium, a change in the volume of the closed reaction vessel at a constant temperature will not affect the extent of the reaction.

  1. CaCO3(s) ⇌ CaO(s) + CO2(g)
  2. H2(g) + I2(g) ⇌ 2HI(g)
  3. 2NO2(g) ⇌ N2O4(g)
  4. CO2(s) ⇌ CO2(g)

Question 7:

Among [Ti(H2O)6]3+, [NiCl4]2-, [CrO4]2-, and [Mn(H2O)6]2+, the complex that exhibits the largest molar absorptivity in the visible region of the electronic absorption spectrum is:

  1. [Ti(H2O)6]3+
  2. [NiCl4]2-
  3. [CrO4]2-
  4. [Mn(H2O)6]2+

Question 8:

[Co(NH3)6(SO4)]Br and [Co(NH3)6]BrSO4 are examples of:

  1. ionization isomers
  2. linkage isomers
  3. optical isomers
  4. coordination isomers

Question 9:

The pair of proteins having heme core is:

  1. hemoglobin and myoglobin
  2. hemerythrin and myoglobin
  3. hemoglobin and hemocyanin
  4. hemocyanin and hemerythrin

Question 10:

The shape of SCN- is:

  1. linear
  2. bent
  3. pyramidal
  4. trigonal planar

Question 11:

The major product formed in the following reaction is:

Reaction 11

is

  1. Option 11 A
  2. Option 11 B
  3. Option 11 C
  4. Option 11 D

Question 12:

The major product formed in the following reaction is:

Reaction 12

is

  1. Option 12 A
  2. Option 12 B
  3. Option 12 C
  4. Option 12 D

Question 13:

The major product formed in the following reaction is:

Reaction 13

is

  1. Option 13 A
  2. Option 13 B
  3. Option 13 C
  4. Option 13 D

Question 14:

In the following reaction:

Reaction 14

optically pure ester X formed a product that did not exhibit optical rotation ([α]D= 0) due to the formation of:

(Note: Ts = para-toluenesulfonyl; Ac = acetyl)

  1. cis-1,2-diacetoxycyclohexane.
  2. a racemic mixture of trans-1,2-diacetoxycyclohexane.
  3. cyclohexene.
  4. cyclohexene oxide.

Question 15:

The major products X and Y in the following reactions respectively, are:

Reaction 15
  1. Option 15 A
  2. Option 15 B
  3. Option 15 C
  4. Option 15 D

Question 16:

The major product formed in the following reaction is:

Reaction 16

is

  1. Option 16 A
  2. Option 16 B
  3. Option 16 C
  4. Option 16 D

Question 17:

The acidity of the compounds shown below follows the order:

Reaction 17
  1. I > III > IV
  2. II > IV > III > I
  3. I > II > III
  4. III > IV > II > I

Question 18:

The major product formed in the following reaction is:

Reaction 18

is

  1. Option 18 A
  2. Option 18 B
  3. Option 18 C
  4. Option 18 D

Question 19:

The ratio of osmotic pressures of aqueous solutions of 0.01 M BaCl2 to 0.005M NaCl is:

  1. 3:1
  2. 1:4
  3. 1:1
  4. 3:2

Question 20:

In the cell reaction P+(aq) + Q(s) → P(s) +Q+(aq) the EMF of the cell, Ecell, is zero. The standard EMF of the cell, Eocell is Given: Activities of all solids are unity. Activity of P+(aq) is 2 M. Activity of Q+(aq) is 1 M. R - universal gas constant; T -temperature; F - Faraday constant)

  1. RT/F
  2. RT/2F
  3. -(RT/F)ln(2)
  4. (RT/F)ln(2)

Question 21:

Consider photoelectric effect. The number of incident photons is the same for all frequencies. The plot that best describes the dependence of the number of photoelectrons n emitted as a function of the incident light frequency ν is:

  1. Option 21 A
  2. Option 21 B
  3. Option 21 C
  4. Option 21 D

Question 22:

If nitrogen and oxygen gases are at the same temperature, the correct statement according to the kinetic theory of gases is:

  1. Average kinetic energy of nitrogen and oxygen molecules is inversely proportional to temperature.
  2. For nitrogen and oxygen molecules, the root mean square speed is equal to the most probable speed.
  3. Average speed of nitrogen molecules is less than the average speed of oxygen molecules.
  4. Average kinetic energies of nitrogen and oxygen molecules are equal.

Question 23:

A system undergoes one clockwise cycle from point X back to point X as shown in the figure below:

Reaction 23

The correct statement about this process is:

  1. Internal energy of the system decreases at the end of the cycle.
  2. Entropy of the system increases at the end of the cycle.
  3. System performs work on the surroundings during the cycle.
  4. Heat exchanged between system and surroundings is zero during the cycle.

Question 24:

For the reaction below:

Reaction 24

The oxidation states of Mn in P and Q, respectively, are:

  1. +1 and +1
  2. -1 and +1
  3. -1 and -1
  4. +1 and -1

Question 25:

The number and nature of d–d transition(s) in the case of Sc2+ in an octahedral crystal field, respectively, are:

  1. 1 and spin allowed.
  2. 3 and spin allowed.
  3. 1 and Laporte allowed.
  4. 3 and Laporte allowed.

Question 26:

The d-d transitions in [Mn(H2O)6]2+ and [Ti(H2O)4]3+, respectively, are:

  1. symmetry allowed and symmetry forbidden.
  2. symmetry forbidden and symmetry allowed.
  3. symmetry allowed and symmetry allowed.
  4. symmetry forbidden and symmetry forbidden.

Question 27:

A pair of isosteric compounds is:

  1. H2NBH2 and C2H6
  2. H3N-BH3 and C2H6
  3. B2H6 and C2H6
  4. H3N-BH3 and B2H6

Question 28:

Zn–C bond polarity in the compounds below follows the order:

Reaction 28
  1. I > II > III
  2. III > I > II
  3. II > III > I
  4. II > I > III

Question 29:

B2 and C2, respectively, are:

  1. paramagnetic and diamagnetic.
  2. diamagnetic and paramagnetic.
  3. paramagnetic and paramagnetic.
  4. diamagnetic and diamagnetic.

Question 30:

Mobility of ions Li+, Na+, K+, Ag+ in water at 298 K follows the order:

  1. K+ < Ag+ < Na+ < Li+
  2. Li+ < K+ < Na+ < Ag+
  3. Ag+ < Li+ < K+ < Na+
  4. Li+ < Na+ < Ag+ < K+

Question 31:

The suitable synthetic route(s) for the following transformation:

Reaction 31

Cyclohexanol → Cyclohexanone

  1. (i)para-toluenesulfonyl chloride (TsCl), pyridine; (ii)KI; (iii)Mg/Et2O; (iv)CO2; (v)aq. HCl
  2. (i)para-toluenesulfonyl chloride (TsCl), pyridine; (ii)KCN; (iii)conc. aq. NaOH, reflux; (iv)aq. HCl
  3. (i) CrO3, H2SO4; (ii)SOCl2; (iii)CH2N2; (iv)Ag2O, H2O
  4. (i)CrO3, H2SO4; (ii)CH2N2

Question 32:

The compound(s) which on reaction with CH3MgBr followed by treatment with aqueous NH4Cl would produce 1-methyl-1-phenylethanol as the major product is/are:

  1. methyl benzoate.
  2. phenyl acetate.
  3. acetaldehyde.
  4. acetophenone.

Question 33:

Among the following, the compound(s) which produce the same osazone as that obtained from D-glucose, when reacted with phenylhydrazine, is/are:

  1. Option 33 A
  2. Option 33 B
  3. Option 33 C
  4. Option 33 D

Question 34:

Among the following, the chiral molecule(s) is/are:

  1. Option 34 A
  2. Option 34 B
  3. Option 34 C
  4. Option 34 D

Question 35:

The correct assumption(s) required to derive Langmuir adsorption isotherm is/are:

  1. Adsorption is limited to a monolayer on adsorbing surface.
  2. All binding sites on adsorbing surface are identical.
  3. Adsorption of a molecule on a site enhances binding of other molecules on neighboring sites.
  4. Rate of adsorption and rate of desorption are equal at equilibrium.

Question 36:

For one mole of an ideal gas, the correct statement(s) is/are:

  1. (∂U/∂V)T = 0
  2. (∂U/∂T)V > 0
  3. (∂P/∂T)V > 0
  4. (∂V/∂P)T > 0

Question 37:

Consider the exothermic chemical reaction: O2(g)+2H2(g) = 2H2O(g) at equilibrium in a closed container. The correct statement(s) is/are:

  1. At equilibrium, introduction of catalyst increases product formation.
  2. Equilibrium constant decreases with increase in temperature.
  3. The equilibrium constant Kp increases with pressure.
  4. Decrease in volume of reaction vessel increases product formation.

Question 38:

Elements and their processes of extraction/purification are given. The correct pair(s) is/are:

  1. Na; Downs process
  2. Ni; Mond process
  3. B; Frasch process
  4. Al; Bayer process

Question 39:

The correct statement(s) about the ligand substitution/exchange reaction is/are:

  1. The rate is faster in the case of SF6 than in [AlF6]3-.
  2. The rate is faster in the case of [Mg(H2O)6]2+ than in [Sr(H2O)6]2+.
  3. The rate of water exchange is faster in the case of [Ni(H2O)6]2+ than in [Co(NH3)5(H2O)]3+.
  4. The rate is faster in case of [Cr(H2O)6]2+ than in [Cr(H2O)6]3+

Question 40:

The stretching frequency of CO in H3B·CO is:

  1. greater than the stretching frequency in free CO.
  2. lesser than the stretching frequency in free CO.
  3. lesser than the stretching frequency of CO in Fe(CO)5.
  4. greater than the stretching frequency of CO in Fe(CO)5.

Question 41:

For the following compound, the number of signals expected in the 1H NMR spectrum is:

Reaction 41

Question 42:

Exhaustive hydrogenation of the following compound under Pd/C generates a saturated hydrocarbon as the product. The number of stereoisomers possible for this product is:

Reaction 42

Question 43:

For a zero-order reaction P → Q, the concentration of P becomes half of its initial concentration in 30 minutes after starting the reaction. The concentration of P becomes zero at ______ minutes. (rounded off to the nearest integer)
Correct Answer:


Question 44:

The magnitude of energy difference between the energy levels n = 3 and n = 2 of a quantum particle of mass m in a box of length L is
(Xh2)/(8mL2)
Then X = ________ (rounded off to the nearest integer)


Question 45:

The function exp(-2(x - 1)2) attains a maximum at x = ________ (rounded off to the nearest integer)


Question 46:

0.1 M aqueous solution of a weak monobasic acid has pH 2.0. The pKa of the monobasic acid is ________ (rounded off to one decimal place)


Question 47:

The enthalpy change for the reaction
C(g) + 1/2O2(g) → CO(g) is ________ kJ per mole of CO(g) produced.
(rounded off to one decimal place)
[Given:
C(g) + O2(g) → CO2(g), ΔHrxn = -393.5 kJ per mole of CO2(g) produced
CO2(g) → CO(g) + 1/2O2(g), ΔHrxn = 283.0 kJ per mole of CO(g) produced]


Question 48:

The N-O bond order in [NO]- is ________


Question 49:

The bond length of CO is 113 pm and its dipole moment (μ) is 0.1 D. The charge (in units of electronic charge) on carbon in the CO molecule including its sign is _________


Question 50:

A reaction of 10.50 g of 1,2-diphenylethane-1,2-dione with conc. NaOH followed by aqueous acidic work-up furnished 8.55 g of a carboxylic acid. The yield of the carboxylic acid in this reaction is _________%.


Question 51:

The specific rotation of an optically pure compound is +75.3 (c = 1.0 in CHCl3) at 20°C. A synthetic sample of the same compound showed a specific rotation of +66.3 (c = 1.0 in CHCl3) at 20°C. The enantiomeric excess (ee) of the synthetic sample is ________%

Question 52:

The specific rotation of an optically pure compound is +75.3 (c = 1.0 in CHCl3) at 20°C. A synthetic sample of the same compound showed a specific rotation of +66.3 (c = 1.0 in CHCl3) at 20°C. The enantiomeric excess (ee) of the synthetic sample is ________%


Question 53:

A salt QCl of a certain metal Q is electrolyzed to its elements. 40 g of metal Q is formed at an electrode. The volume of Cl2 formed at the other electrode at 1 atm pressure and 298 K is ________ litres.


Question 54:

If 1 M of a dye in water transmits 50% of incident light at 400 nm, then 2 M of the dye in water transmits ________% of the incident light at 400 nm.

Question 55:

A 1.0 L solution is prepared by dissolving 2.0 g of benzoic acid and 4.0 g of sodium benzoate in water. The pH of the resulting solution is ________ Given: Molar mass of benzoic acid is 122 g mol-1 Molar mass of sodium benzoate is 144 g mol-1 pKa of benzoic acid is 4.2)


Question 56:

The total vapour pressure of an ideal binary liquid mixture of benzene and toluene is 0.3 bar. The vapour pressure of pure benzene is 0.5 bar and that of toluene is 0.2 bar. The mole fraction of benzene in this mixture is _________.


Question 57:

The unit cell of a two-dimensional square lattice with lattice parameter a is indicated by the dashed lines as shown below:

figure

The percentage percent area occupied by the grey circles (of radius r) inside the unit cell is ___________.


Question 58:

In the oxidation of phosphorus with oxygen, 0.2 mol of P produces ________ g of PO. (Given: Atomic weight of P = 31; Atomic weight of O = 16)


Question 59:

An element E has three isotopes: 28E (abundance 92.21%, atomic mass = 27.977 a.m.u.), 29E (abundance 4.70%, atomic mass = 28.976 a.m.u.), 30E (abundance 3.09%, atomic mass = 29.974 a.m.u.). The atomic mass of E is ________ a.m.u.


Fees Structure

Structure based on different categories

CategoriesState
General1500
sc750

In case of any inaccuracy, Notify Us! 

Comments


No Comments To Show