IIT JAM 2024 Biotechnology (BT) Question Paper (Available)- Download Solution pdf with Answer Key

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Shivam Yadav

Updated on - Nov 7, 2025

IIT JAM 2024 Biotechnology (BT) Question Paper with Answer Key pdf is available for download. IIT JAM 2024 BT exam was conducted by IIT Madras in shift 2 on February 11, 2024. In terms of difficulty level, IIT JAM 2024 Biotechnology (BT) paper was of moderate level. IIT JAM 2024 question paper for BT comprised a total of 60 questions.

IIT JAM 2024 Biotechnology (BT) Question Paper with Solution PDFs

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IIT JAM 2024 Biotechnology Questions with Solutions

Question 1:

Which one of the following is a simple tissue system in plants?

  1. Epidermis
  2. Parenchyma
  3. Phloem
  4. Xylem

Question 2:

In DNA replication, the Okazaki fragments are joined by:

  1. DNA helicase
  2. DNA ligase
  3. DNA polymerase
  4. DNA primase

Question 3:

The most abundant type of RNA in a metabolically active mammalian cell is:

  1. mRNA
  2. rRNA
  3. snoRNA
  4. tRNA

Question 4:

Which organelle in a eukaryotic cell is the site of the electron transport chain?

  1. Endoplasmic reticulum
  2. Golgi apparatus
  3. Mitochondrion
  4. Peroxisome

Question 5:

RNA is a polymer of:

  1. Glycosides
  2. Ribonucleosides
  3. Ribonucleotides
  4. Riboses

Question 6:

Which one of the following is present in a bacterial cell?

  1. 28S rRNA
  2. 70S ribosome
  3. Chitinous cell wall
  4. Histones

Question 7:

Which color of light excites a natural GFP to emit green fluorescence?

  1. Blue
  2. Green
  3. Infrared
  4. Red

Question 8:

Which one of the following hormones promotes fruit ripening?

  1. Abscisic acid
  2. Auxin
  3. Ethylene
  4. Gibberellin

Question 9:

Which one of the following has a catalytic RNA?

  1. Ribonuclease H
  2. Ribozyme
  3. RNA polymerase I
  4. RNA polymerase II

Question 10:

The number of significant figures in a reported measurement of 0.00361 is:

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 6

Question 11:

Match the terminology in Group I with the stimulus in Group II that generates growth response of plants.

Group I: P. Gravitropism Q. Phototropism R. Thigmotropism S. Chemotropism

Group II: 1. Light 2. Touch 3. Chemical 4. Gravity

  1. P – 3, Q – 4, R – 2, S – 1
  2. P – 2, Q – 1, R – 3, S – 4
  3. P – 4, Q – 1, R – 2, S – 3
  4. P – 4, Q – 2, R – 1, S – 3

Question 12:

The correct hierarchy of taxa in the Linnaean classification of eukaryotes is:

  1. Kingdom, class, phylum, order, family, genus
  2. Kingdom, order, class, phylum, family, genus
  3. Kingdom, phylum, order, family, class, genus
  4. Kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus

Question 13:

Which one of the following statements about polyploidy is correct?

  1. Autopolyploids are derived from a single species.
  2. Autopolyploids are derived from two different species.
  3. Allopolyploids are derived from a single species.
  4. Allopolyploids are not fertile when mated with each other.

Question 14:

Which one of the following hormones is a tyrosine derivative?

  1. Epinephrine
  2. Estradiol
  3. Progesterone
  4. Testosterone

Question 15:

Which one of the following immunoglobulins crosses the human placenta?

  1. IgA
  2. IgE
  3. IgG
  4. IgM

Question 16:

Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion (A) and the Reason (R).

Assertion (A): The resolving power of a transmission electron microscope is higher than that of the light microscope.

Reason (R): The wavelength of electrons is shorter than that of visible light.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct reason for (A).
  3. Both (A) and (R) are false.
  4. (A) is true but (R) is false.

Question 17:

Match the morphology in Group I with the corresponding microorganism in Group II.

Group I: P. Coccus Q. Rod R. Comma S. Spiral

Group II: 1. Treponema 2. Bacillus 3. Neisseria 4. Vibrio

  1. P – 3, Q – 2, R – 4, S – 1
  2. P – 4, Q – 1, R – 3, S – 2
  3. P – 2, Q – 4, R – 1, S – 3
  4. P – 1, Q – 2, R – 3, S – 4

Question 18:

Which one of the following genetic crosses and their results indicates cytoplasmic inheritance?

  1. Wild-type male × mutant female → 100% progeny are mutant
  2. Wild-type male × mutant female → 25% progeny are wild-type
  3. Mutant male × wild-type female → 50% progeny are mutant
  4. Mutant male × wild-type female → 75% progeny are wild-type

Question 19:

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic morphological feature of apoptotic cells?

  1. Disassembly of nuclear envelope
  2. DNA fragmentation
  3. Increased cell size
  4. Membrane blebbing

Question 20:

Competition between two populations in an ecosystem is:

  1. Beneficial (+) to both the populations
  2. Deleterious (-) to both the populations
  3. Beneficial (+) to one population, but deleterious (-) to the other population
  4. Beneficial (+) to one population, but no effect (0) on the other population

Question 21:

Adenine constitutes 0.16 mole fraction in a given single-stranded DNA. What is the mole fraction of uracil in the resultant RNA, if this entire DNA fragment is transcribed?

  1. 0.16
  2. 0.32
  3. 0.34
  4. 0.68

Question 22:

Which one of the following is NOT used as a component in subunit vaccines?

  1. Capsular polysaccharide
  2. Inactivated exotoxin
  3. Inactivated virus
  4. Viral glycoprotein

Question 23:

Metabolic acidosis is associated with decreased plasma level of:

  1. Bicarbonate
  2. Lactate
  3. Oxygen
  4. Urea

Question 24:

Genes in two species that are derived from the same ancestral gene in their most recent common ancestor are called:

  1. Analogs
  2. Heterologs
  3. Orthologs
  4. Paralogs

Question 25:

An object is placed 15 cm in front of a convex mirror, which has a radius of curvature 30 cm. Which one of the following is true of the image formed?

  1. Real and inverted
  2. Real and upright
  3. Virtual and inverted
  4. Virtual and upright

Question 26:

If a variable z shows a standard normal distribution, then the percent probability that 0 < z² < 1 is:

  1. 34
  2. 68
  3. 95
  4. 99

Question 27:

In the chick embryo, the ectoderm generates:

  1. Alveolar cells
  2. Germ cells
  3. Neurons
  4. Red blood cells

Question 28:

The boiling points of Iodomethane, Dibromomethane, Bromomethane, Chloromethane follow the order:

  1. Bromomethane > Dibromomethane > Iodomethane > Chloromethane
  2. Bromomethane > Iodomethane > Chloromethane > Dibromomethane
  3. Dibromomethane > Iodomethane > Bromomethane > Chloromethane
  4. Iodomethane > Bromomethane > Chloromethane > Dibromomethane

Question 29:

Chromosome duplication during the cell cycle occurs in:

  1. G1 phase
  2. G2 phase
  3. M phase
  4. S phase

Question 30:

Ionic character of the covalent bonds in the compounds Cl2, HCl, NaCl, NaF follows the order:

  1. Cl2 > NaCl > HCl > NaF
  2. HCl > Cl2 > NaF > NaCl
  3. HCl > NaCl > NaF > Cl2
  4. NaF > NaCl > HCl > Cl2

Question 31:

Which of the following is/are lateral meristems?

  1. Cork cambium
  2. Procambium
  3. Protoderm
  4. Vascular cambium

Question 32:

Which of the following statement(s) about Golden Rice is/are correct?

  1. Consumption of it increases vitamin A levels
  2. Consumption of it increases vitamin D levels
  3. Consumption of it increases vitamin K levels
  4. It is a transgenic crop containing β-carotene

Question 33:

Which of the following statement(s) about eukaryotic DNA topoisomerase is/are correct?

  1. Topoisomerase I creates transient single-strand breaks
  2. Topoisomerase I creates transient double-strand breaks
  3. Topoisomerase II creates transient single-strand breaks
  4. Topoisomerase II creates transient double-strand breaks

Question 34:

Which of the following method(s) is/are used to estimate protein concentration?

  1. Anthrone
  2. Biuret
  3. Bradford
  4. Lowry

Question 35:

Which of the following is/are example(s) of a lotic ecosystem?

  1. Lake
  2. Pond
  3. River
  4. Stream

Question 36:

Which of the following statement(s) about the effect of genetic drift is/are correct?

  1. It can cause changes in the frequency of alleles at random
  2. It is a mechanism of evolution
  3. It can lead to loss of genetic variation within small populations
  4. It is significant in large populations

Question 37:

Which of the following technique(s) can be used to determine the three-dimensional structure of an organic compound?

  1. Mass spectrometry
  2. NMR spectroscopy
  3. UV-visible spectroscopy
  4. X-ray crystallography

Question 38:

Which of the following entity(ies) is/are found inside the intact nucleus of eukaryotic cells?

  1. Centrosome
  2. Lysosome
  3. Nucleolus
  4. Nucleosome

Question 39:

Which of the following is/are trace element(s)?

  1. Mn
  2. P
  3. S
  4. Zn

Question 40:

Which of the following is/are true about Retrovirus?

  1. It contains double-stranded RNA genome
  2. It can cause cancer
  3. It contains reverse transcriptase
  4. It contains double-stranded DNA genome

Question 41:

A wooden plant accumulates 10 mg/kg of 14C during its life span. A fossil of this plant was discovered and contains 2.5 mg/kg of 14C. The age of this fossil at the time of discovery is (use 5730 years as the half-life of 14C):


Question 42:

A cylinder contains 50 L of an ideal gas at a pressure of 50 atm. Assuming that the temperature remains unchanged, the volume of the gas at 1 atm is:


Question 43:

One molecule of the protein myoglobin contains one atom of iron. A myoglobin sample was found to contain 0.34% iron. The molecular weight of myoglobin is (use atomic mass of iron = 55.9 g/mol):


Question 44:

The wavelength of visible light for the green color is 600 nm. The energy of photons of this color is (Planck's constant h = 6.63 × 10-34 J.s, 1 eV = 1.6 × 10-19 J, speed of light c = 3 × 108 m/s):


Question 45:

A ball dropped from a bridge hits the surface of the water in 3 s. The height of the bridge, ignoring air resistance, is (use g = 9.8 m/s²):


Question 46:

For a given square, if the area of its incircle is 100 cm², then the area of its circumcircle is:


Question 47:

The number of peaks in the 1H NMR spectrum of methoxymethane (CH3OCH3) is:


Question 48:

The amount of agarose required to prepare 250 mL of 0.8% agarose gel is:


Question 49:

Three genes x, y, and z are located on a chromosome in a linear order. If the recombination frequencies between x and y is 0.15, and between y and z is 0.10, the expected frequency of double crossovers is:


Question 50:

A bacterial cell suspension contains 2 × 105 cells/mL. The volume of this suspension required to obtain 1.4 × 106 cells is:


Question 51:

The data provided in the table were obtained from the following reaction, carried out at 273 K:

A + B → C

Initial concentration of [A] Initial concentration of [B] Initial rate of formation of [C]
0.2 mol/L 0.2 mol/L 0.3 mol/L/s
0.4 mol/L 0.2 mol/L 0.6 mol/L/s
0.4 mol/L 0.4 mol/L 2.4 mol/L/s

The order of the reaction with respect to [A] is:


Question 52:

Ammonia is synthesized in the Haber process in the following reaction:

N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)

The temperature above which the reaction becomes spontaneous is:


Question 53:

In the given molecule, the number of chiral centers is:

chiral centers


Question 54:

Two resistors of 2 Ω and 4 Ω are combined in parallel. If this combination is connected to a battery of 16 V, the maximum current that can be drawn from the battery is:


Question 55:

A box of mass 20 kg is pulled at constant speed across a floor by a rope. The rope makes an angle of 45° with the horizontal. Assuming that friction is negligible, the work done in pulling the box by a distance of 20 m is:


Question 56:

Consider an enzyme that follows simple Michaelis-Menten kinetics, and has a KM of 5 μM. The initial velocity of the reaction will be 10 percent of the maximum velocity at a substrate concentration of:


Question 57:

The value of: lim (x2 - 9) / (x2 - 4x + 3) as x approaches 3


Question 58:

A population of 1000 plants are in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. Two alleles R and r determine a particular trait in this population. If the number of plants with RR genotype is 640, Rr genotype is 320, and rr genotype is 40, the frequency of the r allele (in percentage) in this population is:


Question 59:

If a fair coin is tossed two times, the probability that the first or the second toss will be heads is:


Question 60:

The number of bands that will be visible in the gel when exposed to UV light after complete digestion of a circular plasmid with EcoRI and XhoI is:

the number of bands



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