IIT JAM 2023 Biotechnology (BT) Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

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Shivam Yadav

Updated on - Nov 7, 2025

IIT JAM 2023 Biotechnology (BT) Question Paper with Answer Key pdf is available for download. IIT JAM 2023 BT exam was conducted by IIT Guwahati in shift 2 on February 12, 2023. In terms of difficulty level, IIT JAM 2023 Biotechnology (BT) paper was of moderate level. IIT JAM 2023 question paper for BT comprised a total of 60 questions.

IIT JAM 2023 Biotechnology (BT) Question Paper with Answer Key PDFs

IIT JAM 2023 Biotechnology (BT) Question Paper with Answer Key PDFs Download PDF Check Solutions

Question 1:

Which one of the following compounds inhibits the polymerization of tubulin to microtubules in animal cells?

  • (1) ATP
  • (2) Taxol
  • (3) Thymosin
  • (4) Vinblastine

Question 2:

Arrange the following elements in increasing order of their electronegativity according to the Pauling scale: C, Na, Be, and Br.

  • (1) Be, Na, C, Br
  • (2) Br, C, Na, Be
  • (3) Na, Be, C, Br
  • (4) Na, C, Be, Br

Question 3:

Which one of the following is NOT a plant vascular tissue?

  • (1) Phloem
  • (2) Periderm
  • (3) Stele
  • (4) Xylem

Question 4:

A growing shoot of a germinating seedling encounters an underground obstacle. Which one of the following hormones elicits the 'triple response' to the underground obstacle?

  • (1) Auxin
  • (2) Cytokinin
  • (3) Ethylene
  • (4) Gibberellins

Question 5:

Which one of the following pairs of antibodies contains ‘J-chain’ in their multimeric form?

  • (1) IgA and IgE
  • (2) IgA and IgM
  • (3) IgD and IgE
  • (4) IgD and IgG

Question 6:

Restriction enzymes that recognize the same nucleotide sequence but cleave at different positions are called:

  • (1) heterohypekomers
  • (2) isocaudomers
  • (3) isoschizomers
  • (4) neoschizomers

Question 7:

Which one of the following does NOT belong to the freshwater ecosystem?

  • (1) Estuary
  • (2) Lentic
  • (3) Lotic
  • (4) Wetland

Question 8:

Which one of the following is transcribed by RNA polymerase III in eukaryotes?

  • (1) 18S rRNA
  • (2) 28S rRNA
  • (3) miRNA
  • (4) tRNA

Question 9:

Given the following sets:
\( A = \{2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12\} \)
\( B = \{8, 10, 12, 14, 16, 18\} \)
\( C = \{7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13\} \)

Find \( (A \cap B) \cup (B \cap C) \).

  • (1) {8, 10, 12, 14}
  • (2) {8, 10, 12}
  • (3) {7, 8, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14}
  • (4) {4, 6, 7, 8, 10, 11, 12, 13}

Question 10:

Rain is falling vertically with a speed of 40 m/s. Wind starts blowing with a speed of 16 m/s from west to east. How should a person, who is standing, hold his umbrella to avoid getting wet?

  • (1) At an angle of about 22° with vertical towards east
  • (2) At an angle of about 22° with vertical towards west
  • (3) At an angle of about 66° with vertical towards east
  • (4) At an angle of about 66° with vertical towards west

Question 11:

Which one of the following statements about the G1 checkpoint of the eukaryotic cell division cycle is INCORRECT?

  • (1) Cell assures the existence of favorable extracellular environment
  • (2) Cell assures the DNA has no damage
  • (3) Cell assures the damaged DNAs are directed for repair mechanism
  • (4) Cell assures complete replication of DNA

Question 12:

Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r].

Assertion [a]: Nitric oxide is involved in transient paracrine and autocrine signaling.

Reason [r]: Nitric oxide is highly reactive, with a lifetime of few seconds, yet can diffuse freely across membranes.

  • (1) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]
  • (2) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]
  • (3) Both [a] and [r] are false
  • (4) Only [a] is true but [r] is false

Question 13:

In mice, a trait is determined by a dominant allele Y and a recessive allele y. What proportion of the offspring from a \( YY \times yy \) cross is expected to be homozygous recessive in the F1 generation?

  • (1) 0
  • (2) 0.25
  • (3) 0.5
  • (4) 1

Question 14:

Match the molecules in Group I with the type of bonds present in them, in Group II.

  • (1) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2
  • (2) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4
  • (3) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2
  • (4) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

Question 15:

What is the splitting pattern of proton \( H^a \) of the following compound in its \( ^1H \) NMR spectrum?


  • (1) Doublet
  • (2) Doublet of doublet
  • (3) Multiplet
  • (4) Triplet

Question 16:

Which one of the following statements is correct about solute transport across membranes?

  • (1) Passive transporters decrease the activation energy and do not facilitate the transport of polar compounds
  • (2) The direction in which a charged solute tends to move spontaneously across a membrane does not depend on the electrical gradient across the membrane
  • (3) All ABC transporters do not have nucleotide binding domain
  • (4) P-type ATPases get reversibly phosphorylated as a part of transport cycle

Question 17:

Match the type of DNA repair mechanism in Group I with the enzyme(s) involved in Group II.

  • (1) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2
  • (2) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3
  • (3) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3
  • (4) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3

Question 18:

Tetracycline binds to the:

  • (1) 30S subunit and inhibits aminoacyl-tRNA binding
  • (2) 50S subunit and inhibits aminoacyl-tRNA binding
  • (3) 30S subunit and prevents codon:anticodon interactions
  • (4) 50S subunit and blocks exit of growing polypeptide chain

Question 19:

In the ‘Southern blot’ technique, which of the following reagents is used to detect the presence of a desired DNA fragment?

  • (1) Ethidium bromide
  • (2) DNA probe
  • (3) Silver nitrate
  • (4) DNase

Question 20:

The pedigree given below shows individuals affected (shaded circles/rectangles) by chronic hypertension. Assuming 100% penetrance, the inheritance of this trait is:


  • (1) Autosomal dominant
  • (2) Autosomal recessive
  • (3) Sex-linked dominant
  • (4) Sex-linked recessive

Question 21:

Which one of the following statements about photoproteins in plants is INCORRECT?

  • (1) Phytochromes are activated by red light
  • (2) Phytochromes are inactivated by far-red light
  • (3) Cryptochromes are sensitive to blue light
  • (4) Phototropins are insensitive to blue light

Question 22:

Match the microorganisms in Group I with the human diseases in Group II.

  • (1) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2
  • (2) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3
  • (3) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4
  • (4) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4

Question 23:

Which one of the following is correct in the case of conjugation of a high frequency recombination (Hfr) strain with an \(F^{-}\) strain of \textit{E. coli?

  • (1) Recombination frequency is high, F factor transfer frequency is low
  • (2) Recombination frequency is high, F factor transfer frequency is high
  • (3) Recombination frequency is low, F factor transfer frequency is high
  • (4) Recombination frequency is low, F factor transfer frequency is low

Question 24:

Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and Reason [r].

Assertion [a]: The cardiovascular organization called double circulation provides vigorous flow of blood to the brain, muscles, and other organs.

Reason [r]: The blood is pumped a second time after it loses pressure in the capillary beds of the lungs or skin.

  • (1) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]
  • (2) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]
  • (3) Both [a] and [r] are false
  • (4) [a] is true but [r] is false

Question 25:

The inability in humans to taste capsaicin resides in a single gene difference between two alleles P and p. The allele P for tasting is dominant over the nontasting allele. In a population of 400 individuals in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, 64 are nontasters. How many individuals are heterozygous for the gene?

  • (1) 64
  • (2) 128
  • (3) 144
  • (4) 192

Question 26:

A genetic linkage map represents the:

  • (1) relative locations of genes on a chromosome
  • (2) distribution of the mutational hotspots
  • (3) phylogenetic linkage among organisms
  • (4) accurate physical distances among loci

Question 27:

Class II MHC molecules are NOT expressed by:

  • (1) B-cells
  • (2) dendritic cells
  • (3) macrophages
  • (4) T-cells

Question 28:

Which one of the following enzymes is required to ensure the replication of a negative-sense or negative-strand RNA virus?

  • (1) DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
  • (2) DNA polymerase
  • (3) RNA-dependent DNA polymerase
  • (4) RNA-dependent RNA polymerase

Question 29:

The relationship between birth weight and degree of survival (log[ \(\frac{survivors}{non-survivors}\) ]) in 6908 human births is shown below. The mode of selection for birth weight is:


  • (1) directional
  • (2) disruptive
  • (3) diversifying
  • (4) stabilizing

Question 30:

Match the recombinant DNA products in Group I with their applications in Group II.

  • (1) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4
  • (2) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2
  • (3) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2
  • (4) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

Question 31:

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about telophase?

  • (1) Daughter chromosomes are yet to form
  • (2) New nuclear envelope starts to reassemble
  • (3) Division of cytoplasm begins
  • (4) Nuclear membrane disappears

Question 32:

The characteristic morphological change(s) in cells undergoing apoptosis is/are:

  • (1) Formation of blebs on cell surface
  • (2) Swelling and bursting of cells
  • (3) Collapse of the cytoskeleton
  • (4) Condensation and fragmentation of nuclear chromatin

Question 33:

A species of fish living in a lake are separated by drying up of the lake into two separate lakes. After several hundreds of years of separation, the two groups are unable to mate. These groups are now considered to be different:

  • (1) communities
  • (2) organisms
  • (3) populations
  • (4) species

Question 34:

Which of the following compound(s) is/are aromatic?

\begin{flushleft

  • (1) Compound A
  • (2) Compound B
  • (3) Compound C
  • (4) Compound D

Question 35:

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct for the given compound?


  • (1) It can have a maximum of four stereoisomers
  • (2) It can have a maximum of two stereoisomers
  • (3) It is a chiral compound
  • (4) It is an achiral compound

Question 36:

Which of the following is/are essential feature(s) of high-fidelity DNA polymerases used in polymerase chain reaction (PCR)?

  • (1) 5′→3′ exonuclease activity
  • (2) Endonuclease activity
  • (3) 3′→5′ exonuclease activity
  • (4) Optimum temperature for activity ≥72 °C

Question 37:

Which of the following option(s) represent(s) the evolutionary relationship between the bird and bat wings as structures for flying?

  • (1) analogous
  • (2) convergence
  • (3) divergence
  • (4) homologous

Question 38:

Different segments of a photosynthetic filamentous alga are exposed to different wavelengths of light as shown below. After a period of time, bacteria known to migrate towards high oxygen concentration are spread on the surface of the alga. Which region(s) of the alga will have maximum bacterial congregation?


  • (1) P and R
  • (2) P and Q
  • (3) Only P
  • (4) Only Q

Question 39:

Hyperventilation (breathing rapidly and deeply) causes which of the following event(s) in the arterial blood?

  • (1) Decrease in C\(O_2\) concentration
  • (2) Decrease in proton concentration
  • (3) Increase in pH
  • (4) Increase in \(O_2\) concentration

Question 40:

Which of the given statement(s) about synthetic oligonucleotides is/are correct?

  • (1) Chemical synthesis extends the DNA chain from 3′→5′ end
  • (2) They can be utilized for site-directed mutagenesis
  • (3) Chemical synthesis extends the DNA chain from 5′→3′ end
  • (4) They can be utilized as radiolabeled probes

Question 41:

The net number of molecule(s) of NADH formed from one molecule of glucose in glycolysis under aerobic conditions is/are ______.


Question 42:

The number of possible unique combination(s) of linear tetrapeptides that can be made from four different amino acids using each amino acid only once in the chain is/are ______.


Question 43:

Among i-BuNH\textsubscript{2}, NH\textsubscript{3}, Me\textsubscript{2}NH, EtNH\textsubscript{2}, the number of compound(s) more basic than MeNH\textsubscript{2} is/are ______.


Question 44:

Among K\textsuperscript{+}, Li\textsuperscript{+}, Rb\textsuperscript{+}, Cs\textsuperscript{+}, the number of cation(s) having ionic radii more than Na\textsuperscript{+} is/are ______.


Question 45:

Among the five fragments given below:

CH\textsubscript{2–CH\textsubscript{3, CH\textsubscript{3–CH\textsubscript{3, CH\textsubscript{3–CH\textsubscript{2–CH\textsubscript{2, CH\textsubscript{2=CH–CH\textsubscript{2\textsuperscript{+, [CH\textsubscript{3–CH\textsubscript{2–CH\textsubscript{3]\textsuperscript{+,

the number of fragment(s) accelerated to the analyzer tube in a mass spectrometer with electron ionization is/are ______.


Question 46:

A restriction endonuclease has a recognition site of 3 bases. Assuming random arrangement of nucleotides, the probability that this endonuclease will cut a piece of DNA is ______ (rounded off to three decimal places).


Question 47:

A massless ideal spring is hanging vertically. A sphere of mass 500 g, suspended from the spring, stretches the spring from its initial position by 50 cm when it reaches equilibrium. The force constant of the spring is ______ N m\textsuperscript{-1}. (Use g = 10 m s\textsuperscript{-2})


Question 48:

Whales can dive undersea to depths of 2 km. The pressure on the whale at this depth (ignoring atmospheric pressure) is ______ × 10\textsuperscript{6} Pa. (Density of seawater = 1 g cm\textsuperscript{-3} and g = 10 m s\textsuperscript{-2})


Question 49:

The order of the differential equation \( \frac{d^3y}{dx^3} + 2\frac{d^2y}{dx^2} - 3\frac{dy}{dx} + 6x^4y = 0 \) is ______.


Question 50:

The value of \( \lim_{x \to -3} \frac{2x + 6}{x + 3} \) is ______.


Question 51:

The ΔG°′ and K′\textsubscript{eq} values of ATP hydrolysis are -32.34 kJ mo\(L^{-1}\) and 4.6 × 10⁵ respectively. The ΔG°′ and K′\textsubscript{eq values of enzymatic hydrolysis of glucose-6-phosphate to glucose and phosphate are -13.18 kJ mo\(L^{-1}\) and 203.8, respectively. The ΔG°′ value of the reaction of glucose-6-phosphate formation from glucose and ATP by hexokinase is ______ kJ mo\(L^{-1}\) (rounded off to two decimal places). [All reactions are carried out at pH 7.0 and 25°C.]


Question 52:

K\textsubscript{m} and V\textsubscript{max} of an enzyme preparation are 5 μM and 30 μM \(min^{-1}\) respectively. Considering K\textsubscript{i value of competitive inhibitor is 60 μM, the velocity (V₀) of this enzyme-catalyzed reaction in the presence of 200 μM substrate and 600 μM competitive inhibitor is ______ μM \(min^{-1}\) (rounded off to two decimal places).


Question 53:

The heat required to convert 2 kg of water at 20°C in a calorimeter to steam at 100°C and at atmospheric pressure (1 atm) is ______ kJ. (Specific heat capacity of water = 4.2 kJ \(kg^{-1}\) \(K^{-1}\) and latent heat of steam = 2256 kJ \(kg^{-1}\).)


Question 54:

An electron is accelerated from rest through a potential difference of 200 V. The de Broglie wavelength associated with this electron is ______ nm. (Rounded off to two decimal places) (Planck’s constant = 6.6 × \(10^{-34}\) J·s, 1 eV = 1.6 × \(10^{-19}\) J, mass of an electron = 9.1 × \(10^{-31}\) kg)


Question 55:

Given data consists of distinct values of \( x_i \) occurring with frequencies \( f_i \). The mean value for the data is ______. (rounded off to one decimal place)


Question 56:

A random variable X and its probability distribution is given below. The value of P(X ≤ 5) is ______. (rounded off to one decimal place)


Question 57:

A protein solution of 1 μM has transmission of 40% at 280 nm, when measured in a 1 cm cuvette using a UV-Visible spectrophotometer. The transmission of the same solution, when measured using a 2 cm cuvette is ______ %. (rounded off to the nearest integer)


Question 58:

If a bacterial culture with a doubling time of 30 minutes starts with two cells, then the number of cells after 4 hours are ______.


Question 59:

The rate of transcription in a bacterium is 50 nucleotides/min and the average molecular weight of an amino acid is 110 Da. Time taken for synthesis of the mRNA of a protein with molecular weight of 110 kDa is ______ min. (rounded off to one decimal place)


Question 60:

Consider a first-order reaction A → B. The initial concentration of A is 100 mol \(L^{-1}\) and the value of first-order rate constant is 0.01 \(min^{-1}\). The concentration of A after 10 min of reaction is ________ mol \(L^{-1}\) (rounded off to one decimal place).


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