IIT JAM 2022 Biotechnology (BT) Question Paper with Answer Key PDFs (February 13)

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Shivam Yadav

Updated on - Nov 6, 2025

IIT JAM 2022 Biotechnology (BT) Question Paper with Answer Key pdf is available for download. The exam was conducted by IIT Roorkee on February 13, 2022. In terms of difficulty level, IIT JAM Biotechnology (BT) was of Moderate level. The question paper comprised a total of 60 questions.

IIT JAM 2022 Biotechnology (BT) Question Paper with Answer Key PDFs

IIT JAM 2022 Biotechnology (BT) Question Paper with Answer Key PDFs Download PDF Check Solutions

Question 1:

Which of the following is involved in the innate immune response in higher mammals?

  • (1) T cell antigen receptor
  • (2) B cell antigen receptor
  • (3) Toll-like receptor
  • (4) Major histocompatibility complex-II molecule

Question 2:

Which among the following belongs to the family "Retroviridae"?

  • (1) Human Immunodeficiency virus
  • (2) Ebola virus
  • (3) Dengue virus
  • (4) Influenza virus

Question 3:

Which of the following is a glycolipid?

  • (1) Cerebroside
  • (2) Phosphatidylcholine
  • (3) Phosphatidylserine
  • (4) Cardiolipin

Question 4:

Which of the following bacterial components contains "dipicolinic acid"?

  • (1) Endospore
  • (2) Capsule
  • (3) Flagella
  • (4) Pili

Question 5:

The fossilization process in which mineral-rich water penetrates through the pores of decomposed organic matter is known as _____.

  • (1) Carbonization
  • (2) Chemical fossilization
  • (3) Petrifaction
  • (4) Microfossilization

Question 6:

A random fluctuation in gene frequency is called

  • (1) Genetic drift
  • (2) Genetic load
  • (3) Panmixis
  • (4) Genetic shift

Question 7:

The number of "Barr Bodies" present in a somatic cell of a woman suffering from Turner syndrome is

  • (1) 0
  • (2) 1
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 3

Question 8:

Which of the following are produced by Mangrove trees to survive in the waterlogged swampy forests?

  • (1) Trichomes
  • (2) Pneumatophores
  • (3) Spermatophores
  • (4) Cambia

Question 9:

Indeterminate growth in plants is due to the presence of perpetually undifferentiated tissues, called as

  • (1) Tracheids
  • (2) Meristems
  • (3) Parenchyma
  • (4) Sclerenchyma

Question 10:

The osmotic potential (\( \psi \)) of pure water is ______ Mpa.

  • (1) -1
  • (2) 0
  • (3) 0.1
  • (4) 10

Question 11:

Bacteria containing a tuft of flagella that comes out from one pole is called

  • (1) Lophotrichous
  • (2) Peritrichous
  • (3) Monotrichous
  • (4) Amphitrichous

Question 12:

Which of the following activity is associated with Klenow fragment?

  • (1) 5'-3' exonuclease activity
  • (2) 5'-3' endonuclease activity
  • (3) Polymerase activity
  • (4) 3'-5' exonuclease activity

Question 13:

A frameshift mutation is caused by

  • (1) 5-Bromouracil
  • (2) Acridine
  • (3) Glutathione
  • (4) Hypoxanthine

Question 14:

The zone of a pond system where respiration is more than production is called as

  • (1) Limnetic zone
  • (2) Littoral zone
  • (3) Epilimnion zone
  • (4) Benthic zone

Question 15:

An organism that causes obstruction of the lymphatic system in humans is

  • (1) Borrelia burgdorferi
  • (2) Brucella abortus
  • (3) Yersinia pestis
  • (4) Wuchereria bancrofti

Question 16:

A man having a dominant genetic trait (TT genotype) can taste phenylthiocarbamide (PTC), marries a woman who cannot taste PTC. The PTC tasting ability of their biological son and daughter is

  • (1) Son taster; Daughter non-taster
  • (2) Daughter taster; Son non-taster
  • (3) Both are non-tasters
  • (4) Both are tasters

Question 17:

Which of the following enzymes is absent in a person suffering from Alkaptonuria?

  • (1) Tyrosinase
  • (2) Homogentisic acid oxidase
  • (3) Catechol dioxygenase
  • (4) Phenylalanine hydroxylase

Question 18:

The bacterium that can tolerate high concentrations of salt and also ferment mannitol is

  • (1) Staphylococcus aureus
  • (2) Staphylococcus epidermis
  • (3) Streptococcus pyogenes
  • (4) Serratia marcescens

Question 19:

Match the following

  • (1) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4
  • (2) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2
  • (3) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4
  • (4) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

Question 20:

The major product formed in the given reaction is


Question 21:

DNA gyrase can

  • (1) cut single-stranded DNA
  • (2) relax supercoiled DNA
  • (3) introduce negative supercoiling in DNA
  • (4) not utilize ATP

Question 22:

The stationary phase of cation-exchange chromatography can be

  • (1) DEAE-cellulose
  • (2) CM-cellulose
  • (3) Sephadex G-50
  • (4) Heparin-Sepharose

Question 23:

Components of a Transmission Electron Microscope are

  • (1) Electron gun, objective lens, positron beam, projector lens
  • (2) Neutron beam, projector lens, objective lens, evacuated tube
  • (3) Electron beam, projector lens, objective lens, condenser lens
  • (4) X-ray beam, projector lens, objective lens, condenser lens

Question 24:

In a honey bee population, the workers are infertile but protect the queen from intruders and help in reproduction. This is an example of

  • (1) K selection
  • (2) Sexual selection
  • (3) Kin selection
  • (4) Disruptive selection

Question 25:

For an enzyme following Michaelis-Menten kinetics, when \([S] = K_M\), the velocity \(v\) is

(\([S]\) is substrate concentration, \(K_M\) is Michaelis constant, and \(v_{max}\) is maximal velocity)

  • (1) \([S] \times v_{max}\)
  • (2) 0.75 \(\times v_{max}\)
  • (3) 0.5 \(\times v_{max}\)
  • (4) \(K_M \times v_{max}\)

Question 26:

The net equation for aerobic glycolysis is

  • (1) Glucose + 2ATP \(\rightarrow\) 2 lactate + 2ADP + 2Pi
  • (2) Glucose + 2ADP + 2Pi + 2NAD\(^+\) \(\rightarrow\) 2 pyruvate + 2ATP + 2NADH + 2H\(_2\)O + 4H\(^+\)
  • (3) Glucose + 2ADP + 2Pi \(\rightarrow\) 2 pyruvate + 2ATP + 2H\(_2\)O
  • (4) Glucose + 2ADP + 2Pi + 2NAD\(^+\) \(\rightarrow\) 2 lactate + 2ATP + 2NADH + 2H\(_2\)O + 4H\(^+\)

Question 27:

In the electron transport chain, flavin mononucleotide (FMN) can adopt ______ as the highest oxidation state and is capable of accepting or donating ______ electrons, respectively.

  • (1) 2; 2 or 3
  • (2) 2; 1 or 2
  • (3) 3; 2 or 3
  • (4) 3; 1 or 2

Question 28:

In bacteria, the \(\sigma\) factor that plays a major role in transcription during the stationary phase is

  • (1) \(\sigma^{70}\)
  • (2) \(\sigma^{54}\)
  • (3) \(\sigma^{28}\)
  • (4) \(\sigma^{32}\)

Question 29:

A rise in cytosolic calcium ion concentration just after fertilization in a sea urchin egg leads to

  • (1) Formation of fertilization envelope
  • (2) Acrosomal reaction
  • (3) Formation of vegetal pole
  • (4) Formation of animal pole

Question 30:

In a nephron, ______ follows the ascending limb of the "loop of Henle".

  • (1) Descending limb
  • (2) Distal tubule
  • (3) Collecting tubule
  • (4) Proximal tubule

Question 31:

Transpirational pull that extends down to the roots in plants can be interrupted by

  • (1) Process of cavitation
  • (2) Process of gravitation
  • (3) Formation of water vapor pockets
  • (4) Positive pressure in xylem sap

Question 32:

Transfer of plasmids into animal cells can be achieved by

  • (1) Electroporation
  • (2) Liposome-mediated process
  • (3) Calcium chloride treatment
  • (4) Sucrose treatment

Question 33:

Archael cell membranes contain lipids that are

  • (1) Ether linked
  • (2) Ester linked
  • (3) Branched alkyl chain
  • (4) Linear alkyl chain

Question 34:

Which of the following are producers in an ecological system?

  • (1) Macrophytes
  • (2) Phytoplanktons
  • (3) Zooplanktons
  • (4) Cyanobacteria

Question 35:

Which of the following acts as wound hormones in plants?

  • (1) Ethylene
  • (2) Cytokinins
  • (3) Abscisic acid
  • (4) Dextrin

Question 36:

The enriched media used to facilitate the growth of fastidious microorganisms are

  • (1) Selenite F broth
  • (2) Blood agar
  • (3) Chocolate agar
  • (4) Loeffler’s serum

Question 37:

Match the bacterial structure to function

  • (1) (i)-(b), (ii)-(d)
  • (2) (i)-(d), (ii)-(a)
  • (3) (i)-(c), (ii)-(b)
  • (4) (i)-(d), (ii)-(c)

Question 38:

Identify the correct pairs:

  • (1) (i)-(d)
  • (2) (ii)-(b)
  • (3) (iii)-(a)
  • (4) (iv)-(c)

Question 39:

A single copy of an allele in sickle-cell heterozygous individuals reduces the frequency and severity of malaria. The reason for this is

  • (1) Low oxygen binding capacity of hemoglobin
  • (2) Single amino acid substitution in hemoglobin deforms the red blood cells
  • (3) Abnormal hemoglobin is toxic for malaria parasite
  • (4) Malaria parasite escapes the deformed red blood cells

Question 40:

The correct statement/s for bimolecular nucleophilic substitution reactions is/are

  • (1) It goes through a carbocation formation
  • (2) There is an inversion of configuration if the reacting center is chiral
  • (3) Reaction is enhanced when carried out in polar solvents
  • (4) The reaction intermediate is trigonal bipyramidal

Question 41:

A deck of ten cards is given to you as shown below in the figure. One card is drawn at random from this deck. The probability of selecting a number less than 9 is

(to one decimal place)

 


Question 42:

The average of all positive even integers less than or equal to 40 is


Question 43:

The smallest positive (non-zero) integer “n” for which the expression \[ \left( \frac{1+x}{1-x} \right)^n = 1 holds true, is \]


Question 44:

Given that \[ A = (\sin\theta \cos\theta \tan\theta + \sin\theta \cos\theta \cot\theta), the value of A is \]


Question 45:

An object is placed at the principal focus of a concave lens of focal length 10 cm. The image will be formed at ______ cm, between the optical center and the focus of the lens on the same side of the object.


Question 46:

What is the maximum number of hydrogen bonds that a water molecule can make in the liquid state?


Question 47:

How many pairs of autosomal chromosomes are there in normal humans?


Question 48:

Calculate the temperature (in K) at which the resistance of a metal becomes 20% more than its resistance at 300 K. The value of the temperature coefficient of resistance for this metal is \(2.0 \times 10^{-4} \, K^{-1}\).


Question 49:

In the \(^{1}H\) NMR spectrum of ethanol at 400 MHz, the methyl group splits into __________ number of peaks.


Question 50:

In a denaturing polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis experiment, pure intact adult human hemoglobin will yield __________ (number) bands.


Question 51:

A man throws a ball vertically up in the air with an initial velocity \(v_1\) such that it reaches a height of 12 m with a speed of 12 m/s. If he throws the same ball vertically up with an initial velocity \(v_2\) such that it reaches a maximum height of 12 m. Calculate \(v_1/v_2\).

(up to 2 decimal places)


Question 52:

What is the acceleration due to gravity (m/s²) on the surface of a planet if its radius is \( \frac{1}{4} \)th that of earth and its mass is \( \frac{1}{80} \)th that of earth? Assume that the gravity on the surface of the earth is 10 m/s².


Question 53:

In a randomly mating population, the frequency of ‘A’ allele is 0.7. What is the frequency of ‘Aa’ genotype in the next generation according to Hardy-Weinberg’s law?

(up to two decimal places)


Question 54:

The potential difference to accelerate an electron was quadrupled. By what factor does the de Broglie wavelength of the electron beam change?


Question 55:

A 500 nm light is used for imaging in a confocal microscope. What will be the best resolution (in nm) of this microscope?


Question 56:

Assuming the molecule shown below is aromatic, the value of "n" according to "Hückel’s rule" is

 


Question 57:

In an actively growing population from a single bacterium, 1,048,576 cells are present after 20th generation. How many cells were there in the 5th generation?


Question 58:

A double-stranded DNA molecule of total 5000 base pairs long, has a melting temperature of 85°C. What will be the % AT base pairs in this sample?

(up to one decimal place)


Question 59:

How many GTP molecules are required for the translocation of tRNA from P site to E site during translation elongation process in bacteria?


Question 60:

Amongst the molecules given below, the total number of molecules that have at least one sp² hybridized atom is


\( C_6H_6 \)
\( NO_2 \)
\( BF_3 \)
\( H_2O_2 \)
\( C_2H_2 \)
\( L-tryptophan \)

 


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