The SNAP 2011 Question Paper is now available for download with answer key and detailed solutions PDF. SNAP is conducted as a computer‑based test and divided into three sections: General English, Quantitative, Data Interpretation & Logical Reasoning. There is no sectional time limit, and each correct answer is awarded one mark, while each incorrect answer incurs a penalty of 0.25 marks.

SNAP 2011 Question Paper with Solutions PDF

SNAP 2011 Question Paper Download PDF Check Solutions

SNAP 2011 Questions with Solutions

Question 1:

"Swayamsidha" is a scheme launched by the Government of India to help:

  • (A) School children only
  • (B) Health workers only
  • (C) Senior citizens without any regular income
  • (D) Women only
Correct Answer: (D) Women only View Solution

Question 2:

What is 'Share Swap'?

  • (A) A business takeover in which acquiring company uses its own stock to pay for the acquired company.
  • (B) When a company uses its own share to get some short-term loan for working capital requirement.
  • (C) When companies are required to float a new issue to earn capital for expansion programmes, each shareholder gets some additional preferential share.
  • (D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A) A business takeover in which acquiring company uses its own stock to pay for the acquired company.
View Solution

Question 3:

Regarding "carbon credits" which of the following statements is NOT correct?

  • (A) The carbon credits system was ratified in conjunction with Kyoto Protocol
  • (B) Carbon credits are awarded to those countries or groups who have reduced the greenhouse gases below their emission quota
  • (C) The goal of carbon credit system is to reduce carbon dioxide emission
  • (D) Carbon credits are traded at a price fixed from time to time by the United Nations Environment Programme
Correct Answer: (D) Carbon credits are traded at a price fixed from time to time by the United Nations Environment Programme
View Solution

Question 4:

Both Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Foreign Institutional Investor (FII) are related to investment in a country. Which one of the following statements best represents an important difference between the two?

  • (A) FII helps bring better management skills and technology while FDI only bring capital
  • (B) FII helps in increasing capital availability in general, while FDI only targets specific sectors
  • (C) FDI flows only into secondary markets while FII targets primary markets
  • (D) FII is considered to be more stable than FDI
Correct Answer: (B) FII helps in increasing capital availability in general, while FDI only targets specific sectors
View Solution

Question 5:

In context of global oil prices, “Brent crude oil” is frequently referred to in the news. What does this term imply?
1) It is a major classification of crude oil.

2) It is sourced from North Sea.

3) It does not contain sulphur.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  • (A) 2 only
  • (B) 1 and 2 only
  • (C) 1 and 3 only
  • (D) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only
View Solution

Question 6:

With reference to "Look East Policy" of India consider the following statements:
1. India wants to establish itself as an important regional player in the East Asian affairs.

2. India wants to plug the vacuum created by the termination of Cold war.

3. India wants to restore the historical and cultural ties with its neighbors in Southeast and East Asia.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • (A) 1 only
  • (B) 1 and 3 only
  • (C) 3 only
  • (D) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: (B) 1 and 3 only
View Solution

Question 7:

Recently "oilzapper" was in news. What is it?

  • (A) It is eco friendly technology for the remediation of oily sludge and oil spills
  • (B) It is the latest technology developed under sea oil exploration
  • (C) It is genetically engineered high biofuel-yielding maize variety
  • (D) It is the latest technology to control accidentally caused flames from oil wells
Correct Answer: (A) It is eco friendly technology for the remediation of oily sludge and oil spills
View Solution

Question 8:

Why is the offering of "teaser loans" by commercial banks a cause of economic concern?
1. The teaser loans are considered to be an aspect of sub-prime lending and banks may be exposed to the risk of defaulters in future.

2. The teaser loans are given to inexperienced entrepreneurs to set up manufacturing or export units.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • (A) 1 only
  • (B) 2 only
  • (C) Both 1 and 2
  • (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: (A) 1 only
View Solution

Question 9:

Why is the government of India disinvesting its equity in the Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSE)?
1. The Government intends to use the revenue earned from disinvestment mainly to pay the external debt.

2. The Government no longer intends to retain the management control of CPSEs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • (A) 1 only
  • (B) 2 only
  • (C) Both 1 and 2
  • (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: (A) 1 only
View Solution

Question 10:

The book "Unto this Last" which influenced Gandhiji, was authored by:

  • (A) Boris Yeltsin
  • (B) Pushkin
  • (C) Ruskin Bond
  • (D) John Ruskin
Correct Answer: (D) John Ruskin
View Solution

Question 11:

Besides USA, India has signed, with which of the following countries the agreement being named as "Cooperation Agreement on the development of Peaceful Uses of Nuclear Energy"?

  • (A) Italy
  • (B) Germany
  • (C) France
  • (D) Australia
Correct Answer: (C) France
View Solution

Question 12:

Which of the following country is not a member of the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG)?

  • (A) Russia
  • (B) USA
  • (C) Italy
  • (D) Iran
Correct Answer: (D) Iran
View Solution

Question 13:

Many times we read in the newspaper that several companies are adopting the FCCBs route to raise capital. What is the full form of FCCB?

  • (A) Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds
  • (B) Foreign Convertible Credit Bonds
  • (C) Financial Consortium and Credit Bureau
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds
View Solution

Question 14:

As per the reports published in various newspapers, RBI has asked banks to make a plan to provide banking services in villages having population of 2000. This directive issued by the RBI will fall in which of the following categories?

  • (A) Plan for financial inclusion
  • (B) Efforts to meet Priority sector lending
  • (C) Extension of Internet and Branchless banking
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) Plan for financial inclusion
View Solution

Question 15:

Which of the following is/are treated as artificial currency?

  • (A) ADR
  • (B) GDR
  • (C) Both GDR and ADR
  • (D) SDR
Correct Answer: (D) SDR
View Solution

Question 16:

Which of the following terms indicates a mechanism used by commercial banks to provide credit to the Government?

  • (A) Cash Credit Ratio
  • (B) Debit Service Obligation
  • (C) Liquidity Adjustment Facility
  • (D) Statutory Liquidity Ratio
Correct Answer: (D) Statutory Liquidity Ratio
View Solution

Question 17:

Who among the following was not part of the drafting committee of the Lokpal Bill?

  • (A) Salman Khurshid
  • (B) Anna Hazare
  • (C) Arvind Kejriwal
  • (D) Kiran Bedi
Correct Answer: (D) Kiran Bedi
View Solution

Question 18:

Criminal procedure is a subject of which of the following lists?

  • (A) State List
  • (B) Concurrent List
  • (C) Union List
  • (D) Both 1 and 3
Correct Answer: (B) Concurrent List
View Solution

Question 19:

One of the world’s biggest Uranium resources was recently found in

  • (A) Andhra Pradesh
  • (B) Maharashtra
  • (C) Jharkhand
  • (D) Uttarakhand
Correct Answer: (A) Andhra Pradesh
View Solution

Question 20:

Which of the following was the first venture of Kishore Biyani?

  • (A) Pantaloons
  • (B) Big Bazaar
  • (C) Central
  • (D) Future Capital Holdings
Correct Answer: (A) Pantaloons
View Solution

Question 21:

Who among the following is often referred to as father of India’s “Green Revolution”?

  • (A) Dr. Verghese Kurien
  • (B) Dr. Amrita Patel
  • (C) M. S. Swaminathan
  • (D) Gurudev Khush
Correct Answer: (C) M. S. Swaminathan
View Solution

Question 22:

Who among the following directed the movie Peepli Live?

  • (A) Ashutosh Gowarikar
  • (B) Kiran Rao
  • (C) Anusha Rizvi
  • (D) Seema Chisti
Correct Answer: (C) Anusha Rizvi
View Solution

Question 23:

The point at which solid, liquid and gaseous forms of a substance co-exist is called

  • (A) sublimation
  • (B) distillation point
  • (C) triple point
  • (D) melting point
Correct Answer: (C) Triple Point
View Solution

Question 24:

The limit beyond which the stars suffer internal collapse is called the

  • (A) Raman Effect
  • (B) Chandrashekhar Limit
  • (C) Aurora Borealis
  • (D) Quasan Zone
Correct Answer: (B) Chandrashekhar Limit
View Solution

Question 25:

UNDP reports publish every year the Human Development Index (HDI). Which of the following is not a criterion used to measure the HDI?

  • (A) Health
  • (B) Education
  • (C) Living Standards
  • (D) Human Rights
Correct Answer: (D) Human Rights
View Solution

Question 26:

The software company i-flex Solutions was originally a division of which famous financial services company?

  • (A) Citicorp
  • (B) ICICI
  • (C) HSBC
  • (D) ABN Amro Bank
Correct Answer: (A) Citicorp
View Solution

Question 27:

Which of the following is not a member of SAARC?

  • (A) Bhutan
  • (B) Bangladesh
  • (C) Burma
  • (D) Maldives
Correct Answer: (C) Burma
View Solution

Question 28:

Which article of the Indian Constitution recognizes Hindi in Devanagari Script as the official language of India?

  • (A) Article 345
  • (B) Article 343
  • (C) Article 348
  • (D) Article 334
Correct Answer: (B) Article 343
View Solution

Question 29:

India has finally woken up to the needs of the country’s elderly. With the number of people in the 60+ age group in India expected to increase to 100 million in 2013 and to 198 million in 2030, the Health Ministry is all set to roll out the:

  • (A) National Programme for Health Care of the Elderly
  • (B) National Programme for Senior Citizens
  • (C) National Programme for Old Aged
  • (D) Rashtriya Vriddha Swasthya Yojana
Correct Answer: (A) National Programme for Health Care of the Elderly
View Solution

Question 30:

Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) can now cast votes in their home constituencies in India.
2. The NRI can cast his vote by postal balloting.

  • (A) 1 only
  • (B) 2 only
  • (C) Both 1 and 2
  • (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: (A) 1 only
View Solution

Question 31:

In a landmark move, which of these State governments has set up a Savarna Aayog, a commission to identify the deprived and underprivileged families among upper castes?

  • (A) Uttar Pradesh
  • (B) Bihar
  • (C) Madhya Pradesh
  • (D) Rajasthan
Correct Answer: (B) Bihar
View Solution

Question 32:

Which of these countries has announced one billion US dollar aid for the reconstruction of Nalanda University?

  • (A) Japan
  • (B) Singapore
  • (C) Malaysia
  • (D) China
Correct Answer: (D) China
View Solution

Question 33:

What is the name of the in-house magazine to be published by the Indian Railways, to be distributed to the passengers on high end trains?

  • (A) Rail Vishwa
  • (B) Rail Bandhu
  • (C) Rail Mail
  • (D) Rail Patra
Correct Answer: (B) Rail Bandhu
View Solution

Question 34:

The government, in February 2011, set up a task force to create a way to provide direct subsidies to the ultimate beneficiaries on petroleum working gas and fertilizers. The task force will be headed by –

  • (A) Nandan Nilekani
  • (B) Apoorva Sinha
  • (C) Sangam Chitra
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (A) Nandan Nilekani
View Solution

Question 35:

Which of these countries has been added in the 'BRIC' (Brazil - Russia - India - Chin(A) group of emerging economies?

  • (A) South Korea
  • (B) Venezuela
  • (C) South Africa
  • (D) Malaysia
Correct Answer: (C) South Africa
View Solution

Question 36:

Which of the following countries was the host of the First Asian Yoga Championship held recently?

  • (A) Thailand
  • (B) Cambodia
  • (C) Vietnam
  • (D) Laos
Correct Answer: (A) Thailand
View Solution

Question 37:

Who among the following has been defeated by Saina Nehwal, who has won the Swiss Open Grand Prix Gold title recently, becoming the First Indian to do so?

  • (A) Ji Hyun Sung
  • (B) Wang Lin
  • (C) Kamilla Rytter Juhl
  • (D) Shinta Mulia Sari
Correct Answer: (A) Ji Hyun Sung
View Solution

Question 38:

On March 6, 2011, the Supreme Court held that which body has ample powers to enact legislation with respect to extra-territorial aspects for the security of India?

  • (A) President
  • (B) Prime Minister
  • (C) Supreme Court
  • (D) Parliament
Correct Answer: (D) Parliament
View Solution

Question 39:

Which country has appointed Brigadier General Ravinder Singh as its next Army Chief, the first Sikh in nearly 30 years to be given the force’s baton?

  • (A) Thailand
  • (B) Singapore
  • (C) Malaysia
  • (D) Indonesia
Correct Answer: (B) Singapore
View Solution

Question 40:

Anant Pai, better known as 'Uncle Pai', who recently died, was the creator of which among the following comic series?

  • (A) Chacha Chaudhary
  • (B) Chandamama
  • (C) Indrajaal
  • (D) Amar Chitra Katha
Correct Answer: (D) Amar Chitra Katha
View Solution

Question 41:

In each of the questions below, one term in the given number series is wrong. Find out the wrong term.

Statements given:
A. Only if water level in the coastal areas rises, then the people change their lifestyle.

B. People change their lifestyle only if they are rewarded.

C. If people are rewarded, then they will not change their lifestyle.

D. If the temperature rises, then the water level in the coastal areas rises.

E. Whenever the water level in the coastal area rises, then the temperature rises.

F. Unless the people change their lifestyle, temperature rises.

G. People are rewarded.

H. Water level in the coastal areas does not rise.

  • (A) C, D, F, G and H
  • (B) G, F, D, B and H
  • (C) E, F, G, H and B
  • (D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (C) E, F, G, H and B
View Solution

Question 42:

Each question consists of a set of numbered statements. Assume each statement is individually true. Each option lists a subset of these statements. Choose the option whose statements are logically \emph{consistent} among themselves.

Statements:
A. If Kumar sings, then the audience sleep.

B. If Kumar sings, then the audience dance.

C. Unless the audience do not dance, the concert will be successful.

D. Only if the audience dance, the concert will be successful.

E. If Vina dances, then Kumar sings.

F. Kumar sings only if Vina dances.

G. Vina dances.

H. The concert is successful.

  • (A) C, F, G, B and H
  • (B) A, C, F, G and H
  • (C) E, C, G, B and H
  • (D) Both (2) and (3)
Correct Answer: (C) E, C, G, B and H
View Solution

Question 43:

Who always speaks the truth?

  • (A) A
  • (B) B
  • (C) C
  • (D) D
Correct Answer: (D) D
View Solution

Question 44:

How is B related to C?

  • (A) Father
  • (B) Mother
  • (C) Wife
  • (D) Husband
Correct Answer: (C) Wife
View Solution

Question 45:

Which of the following statements must be true?

  • (A) A's grandmother alternates between the truth and lie.
  • (B) C's wife always speaks the truth.
  • (C) A's grandfather always speaks the truth.
  • (D) B's daughter always tells lies.
Correct Answer: (D) B's daughter always tells lies.
View Solution

Question 46:

A cube of side 7 cm is kept in the corner of a room and painted on three faces (each with a different colour). The cube is then cut into 343 smaller cubes of side 1 cm. How many smaller cubes do not have any face painted?

  • (A) 125
  • (B) 180
  • (C) 144
  • (D) 216
Correct Answer: (D) 216
View Solution

Question 47:

How many smaller cubes have exactly one colour on them?

  • (A) 108
  • (B) 72
  • (C) 36
  • (D) 24
Correct Answer: (A) 108
View Solution

Question 48:

How many smaller cubes have at the most two faces painted?

  • (A) 343
  • (B) 342
  • (C) 256
  • (D) 282
Correct Answer: (B) 342
View Solution

Question 49:

Amit started at the intersection of streets no. 7 and 8. He drove 3 km north, 3 km west and 4 km south. Which further route could bring him back to his starting point?

I. 3 km east, then 2 km south

II. 1 km north, then 3 km east

III. 1 km north, then 2 km west

  • (A) I only
  • (B) II only
  • (C) I and II only
  • (D) II and III only
Correct Answer: (B) II only
View Solution

Question 50:

After driving as stated in Q49, Amit did not return to his starting point but instead drove 4 km east and 1 km north. How far is he from his starting point?

  • (A) 5 km
  • (B) 4 km
  • (C) 1 km
  • (D) 7 km
Correct Answer: (C) 1 km
View Solution

Question 51:

For X = 3, Y = 2 and N = 100, how many steps are performed before the machine stops?

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 5
Correct Answer: (C) 4
View Solution

Question 52:

In the above question (51), what is the final value of X?

  • (A) 6
  • (B) 20
  • (C) 72
  • (D) 360
Correct Answer: (D) 360
View Solution

Question 53:

In the above question (51), what is the final value of Y?

  • (A) 4
  • (B) 5
  • (C) 6
  • (D) 20
Correct Answer: (C) 6
View Solution

Question 54:

If the value of N is changed to 500, what would be the final value of X?

  • (A) 360
  • (B) 500
  • (C) 560
  • (D) 2160
Correct Answer: (D) 2160
View Solution

Question 55:

If X = 2 and Y = 3, what should be the minimum value of N such that the final value of Y is 7?

  • (A) 300
  • (B) 360
  • (C) 720
  • (D) 860
Correct Answer: (A) 300
View Solution

Question 56:

If Sunil is ranked sixth and Ankit is ranked fifth, which of the following can be true?

  • (A) Vicky is ranked first or fourth
  • (B) Raman is ranked second or third
  • (C) Tony is ranked fourth or fifth
  • (D) Deepak is ranked third or fourth
Correct Answer: (D) Deepak is ranked third or fourth
View Solution

Question 57:

If Raman gets the highest, Vicky should be ranked not lower than:

  • (A) Second
  • (B) Third
  • (C) Fourth
  • (D) Fifth
Correct Answer: (C) Fourth
View Solution

Question 58:

If Raman is ranked second and Ankit is ranked first, which of the following must be true?

  • (A) Sunil is ranked third
  • (B) Tony is ranked third
  • (C) Priya is ranked sixth
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (D) None of these
View Solution

Question 59:

If Sunil is ranked second, which of the following can be true?

  • (A) Deepak gets more than Vicky
  • (B) Vicky gets more than Sunil
  • (C) Priya gets more than Raman
  • (D) Priya gets more than Vicky
Correct Answer: (A) Deepak gets more than Vicky
View Solution

Question 60:

If Vicky is ranked fifth, which of the following must be true?

  • (A) Sunil scores the highest
  • (B) Raman is ranked second
  • (C) Tony is ranked third
  • (D) Ankit is ranked second
Correct Answer: (A) Sunil scores the highest
View Solution

Question 61:

In 2002, according to a news poll, 36% of the voters had leaning towards party “Y”. In 2004, this figure rose to 46%. But in another survey the percentage was down to 40%. Therefore, the party “Z” is likely to win the next election. Which of the following, if true, would seriously weaken the above conclusion?

  • (A) People tend to switch their votes at the last minute.
  • (B) It has been showed that 85% of the voters belonging to the party “Y” vote in an election as compared to 80% of the voters belonging to party “Z”.
  • (C) 35% of people favour party “Z”.
  • (D) No one can predict how people will vote.
Correct Answer: (C) 35% of people favour party “Z”.
View Solution

Question 62:

Inflation rose by 5% over the second quarter, by 4% during the first quarter and higher than 3% recorded during the same time last year. However, the higher price index did not seem to alarm National stock Index as stock prices remain steady. Which of the following, if true, could explain the reaction of National stock Index?

  • (A) RBI announced that it will take necessary corrective measures
  • (B) Stock prices were steady because of a fear that inflation would continue
  • (C) Economists warned that inflation would continue
  • (D) Much of the quarterly increase in the price level was due to a summer drought effect on food price.
Correct Answer: (D) Much of the quarterly increase in the price level was due to a summer drought effect on food price.
View Solution

Question 63:

Pick up the appropriate analogy. Birth : Dirge

  • (A) Sunset : sunrise
  • (B) Security check : arrival
  • (C) Marriage : alimony
  • (D) Welcome address : vote of thanks
Correct Answer: (C) Marriage : alimony
View Solution

Question 64:

Beautiful beaches attract people, no doubt about it. Just look at this city’s beautiful beaches, which are among the most overcrowded beaches in the state. Which of the following exhibits a pattern of reasoning most similar to the one in the argument above?

  • (A) Moose and bear usually appear at the same drinking hole at the same time of day. Therefore, moose and bear must grow thirsty at about the same time.
  • (B) Children who are scolded severely tend to misbehave more often than other children. Hence if a child is not scolded severely that child is less likely to misbehave.
  • (C) This software programme helps increase the work efficiency of its users. As a result, these users have more free time for other activities.
  • (D) During warmer weather my dog suffers from fleas more than during cooler weather. Therefore, fleas must thrive in a warm environment.
Correct Answer: (D) During warmer weather my dog suffers from fleas more than during cooler weather. Therefore, fleas must thrive in a warm environment.
View Solution

Question 65:

No national productivity measures are available for underground industries that may exist but remain unreported. On the other hand, at least some industries that are run entirely by self-employed industrialists are included in national productivity measures. From this information, which conclusion follows?

  • (A) There are at least some industries run entirely by self-employed industrialists that are underground industries.
  • (B) No industries that are run entirely by self-employed industrialists operate underground.
  • (C) There are at least some industries other than those run entirely by self-employed industrialists that are underground industries.
  • (D) There are at least some industries run entirely by self-employed industrialists that are not underground industries.
Correct Answer: (D) There are at least some industries run entirely by self-employed industrialists that are \emph{not} underground industries.
View Solution

Question 66:

Nilu has never received a violation from the Federal Aviation Administration during her 16-year flying career. Nilu must be a great pilot.
Which of the following can be said about the reasoning above?

  • (A) The definitions of the terms create ambiguity
  • (B) The argument uses circular reasoning
  • (C) The argument is built upon hidden assumptions
  • (D) The argument works by analogy
Correct Answer: (C) The argument is built upon hidden assumptions
View Solution

Question 67:

Many people argue that the death penalty deters murder. However, the notorious killer Tom Hanks deliberately moved to a state that imposes the death penalty just before embarking on a series of ferocious murders. Thus, it seems clear that the existence of the death penalty does not serve as a deterrent to murder. The argument above may best be characterized as:

  • (A) an appeal to emotion
  • (B) a flawed analogy
  • (C) a general conclusion based on a specific example
  • (D) circular reasoning
Correct Answer: (C) a general conclusion based on a specific example
View Solution

Question 68:

What number should replace the question mark in the figure?



  • (A) 1
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 12
  • (D) 6
Correct Answer: (D) 6
View Solution

Question 69:

The fewer restrictions there are on the advertising of legal services, the more lawyers there are who advertise their services, and the lawyers who advertise a specific service usually charge less for that service than lawyers who do not advertise. Therefore if the state removes any of its current restrictions, such as the one against advertisements that do not specify fee arrangements, overall consumer legal costs will be lower than if the state retains its current restrictions. If the statements above are true, which of the following must be true?

  • (A) Some lawyers who now advertise will charge more for specific services if they do not have to specify fee arrangements in the advertisements.
  • (B) More consumers will use legal services if there are fewer restrictions on the advertising of legal services.
  • (C) If the restrictions against advertisements that do not specify fee arrangements is removed, more lawyers will advertise their services.
  • (D) If more lawyers advertise lower prices for specific services, some lawyers who do not advertise will also charge less than they currently charge for those services.
Correct Answer: (C) If the restrictions against advertisements that do not specify fee arrangements is removed, more lawyers will advertise their services.
View Solution

Question 70:

The fewer restrictions there are on the advertising of legal services, the more lawyers there are who advertise their services, and the lawyers who advertise a specific service usually charge less for that service than lawyers who do not advertise. Therefore if the state removes any of its current restrictions, such as the one against advertisements that do not specify fee arrangements, overall consumer legal costs will be lower than if the state retains its current restrictions. Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the argument concerning overall consumer legal costs?

  • (A) The state is unlikely to remove all of the restrictions that apply solely to the advertising of legal services.
  • (B) Lawyers who do not advertise generally provide legal services of the same quality as those provided by lawyers who do advertise.
  • (C) Most lawyers who now specify fee arrangements in their advertisements would continue to do so even if the specification were not required.
  • (D) Most lawyers who advertise specific services do not lower their fees for those services when they begin to advertise.
Correct Answer: (D) Most lawyers who advertise specific services do not lower their fees for those services when they begin to advertise.
View Solution

Question 71:

A train travelling at 36 kmph crosses a platform in 20 seconds and a man standing on the platform in 10 seconds. What is the length of the platform in meters?

  • (A) 240 meters
  • (B) 100 meters
  • (C) 200 meters
  • (D) 300 meters
Correct Answer: (B) 100 meters
View Solution

Question 72:

By walking at \(\tfrac{4}{5}\) of his usual speed, a man reaches office 10 minutes later than usual. What is his usual time?

  • (A) 20 min
  • (B) 40 min
  • (C) 30 min
  • (D) 50 min
Correct Answer: (B) 40 min
View Solution

Question 73:

A man and a woman 81 miles apart from each other, start travelling towards each other at the same time. If the man covers 5 miles per hour to the woman’s 4 miles per hour, how far will the woman have travelled when they meet?

  • (A) 27
  • (B) 36
  • (C) 45
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B) 36
View Solution

Question 74:

Two people were walking in opposite directions. Both of them walked 6 miles forward then took right and walked 8 miles. How far is each from starting positions?

  • (A) 14 miles and 14 miles
  • (B) 10 miles and 10 miles
  • (C) 6 miles and 6 miles
  • (D) 12 miles and 12 miles
Correct Answer: (B) 10 miles and 10 miles
View Solution

Question 75:

Four men and three women can do a job in 6 days. When 5 men and 6 women work on the same job, the work gets completed in 4 days. How long will 2 women and 3 men take to do the job?

  • (A) 18
  • (B) 10
  • (C) 8.3
  • (D) 12
Correct Answer: (C) 8.3
View Solution

Question 76:

Ram completes 60% of a task in 15 days and then takes the help of Rahim and Rachel. Rahim is 50% as efficient as Ram is and Rachel is 50% as efficient as Rahim is. In how many more days will they complete the work?

  • (A) \(\tfrac{121}{3}\)
  • (B) \(\tfrac{151}{7}\)
  • (C) \(\tfrac{40}{7}\)
  • (D) \(\tfrac{65}{7}\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(\tfrac{40}{7}\)
View Solution

Question 77:

A and B can do a piece of work in 21 and 24 days respectively. They start the work together and after some days A leaves the work and B completes the remaining work in 9 days. After how many days did A leave?

  • (A) 5
  • (B) 7
  • (C) 8
  • (D) 6
Correct Answer: (B) 7
View Solution

Question 78:

A trader makes a profit equal to the selling price of 75 articles when he sold 100 of the articles. What % profit did he make in the transaction?

  • (A) 33.33%
  • (B) 75%
  • (C) 300%
  • (D) 150%
Correct Answer: (C) 300%
View Solution

Question 79:

In a 100 M race, if A gives B a start of 20 meters, then A wins the race by 5 seconds. Alternatively, if A gives B a start of 40 meters the race ends in a dead heat. How long does A take to run 200 M?

  • (A) 10 seconds
  • (B) 20 seconds
  • (C) 30 seconds
  • (D) 40 seconds
Correct Answer: (C) 30 seconds
View Solution

Question 80:

A 4 cm cube is cut into 1 cm cubes. What is the percentage increase in the surface area after such cutting?

  • (A) 4%
  • (B) 300%
  • (C) 75%
  • (D) 400%
Correct Answer: (B) 300%
View Solution

Question 81:

A number G236G0 can be divided by 36 if G is:

  • (A) 8
  • (B) 6
  • (C) 1
  • (D) More than one values are possible
Correct Answer: (A) 8
View Solution

Question 82:

Amit can do a work in 12 days and Sagar in 15 days. If they work on it together for 4 days, then the fraction of the work that is left is:

  • (A) \(\dfrac{3}{20}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{3}{5}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{2}{5}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{2}{20}\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(\dfrac{2}{5}\)
View Solution

Question 83:

A rectangular park 60 m long and 40 m wide has two concrete crossroads running in the middle of the park and rest of the park has been used as a lawn. If the area of the lawn is 2109 sq. m, then what is the width of the road?

  • (A) 2.91 m
  • (B) 3 m
  • (C) 5.82 m
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B) 3 m
View Solution

Question 84:

A bag contains 5 white and 3 black balls; another bag contains 4 white and 5 black balls. From any one of these bags a single draw of two balls is made. Find the probability that one of them would be white and another black ball.

  • (A) \(\dfrac{275}{504}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{5}{18}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{5}{9}\)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) \(\dfrac{275}{504}\)
View Solution

Question 85:

In which year was the percentage increase in the consumption of rice over the previous year the highest?

  • (A) 2007
  • (B) 2008
  • (C) 2009
  • (D) 2010
Correct Answer: (B) 2008
View Solution

Question 86:

What is the population of country A in the year 2008 (in million)?

  • (A) 2.64 million
  • (B) 2.72 million
  • (C) 2.79 million
  • (D) 2.85 million
Correct Answer: (C) 2.79 million
View Solution

Question 87:

The ratio of exports to consumption in the given period was the highest in the year?

  • (A) 2006
  • (B) 2007
  • (C) 2008
  • (D) 2009
Correct Answer: (A) 2006
View Solution

Question 88:

In which of the given years was the population of country A the highest?

  • (A) 2007
  • (B) 2008
  • (C) 2009
  • (D) 2010
Correct Answer: (D) 2010
View Solution

Question 89:

The percentage of time which he spends in school is:

  • (A) 38%
  • (B) 30%
  • (C) 40%
  • (D) 25%
Correct Answer: (B) 30%
View Solution

Question 90:

How much time (in per cent) does he spend in games in comparison to sleeping?

  • (A) 30%
  • (B) 40%
  • (C) 25%
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) 25%
View Solution

Question 91:

If he spends the time in games equal to the home work and remains constant in other activities, then the percentage decrease in time of sleeping:

  • (A) 15%
  • (B) 12.5%
  • (C) 20%
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B) 12.5%
View Solution

Question 92:

What is the difference in time (in hours) spent in school and in home work?

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 8
Correct Answer: (C) 4
View Solution

Question 93:

If he spends \(\tfrac{1}{3}\)rd time of homework in Mathematics then the number of hours he spends in rest of the subjects in home work:

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4
Correct Answer: (B) 2
View Solution

Question 94:

Three parallel lines are cut by two transversals as shown in the given figure. If AB = 2 cm, BC = 4 cm and DE = 1.5 cm, then the length of EF is:



  • (A) 2 cm
  • (B) 3 cm
  • (C) 3.5 cm
  • (D) 4 cm
Correct Answer: (B) 3 cm
View Solution

Question 95:

Find the value of \(\log_{10} 10 + \log_{10} 10^{2} + \cdots + \log_{10} 10^{n}\).

  • (A) \(n^{2}+1\)
  • (B) \(n^{2}-1\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{(n^{2}+n)\,n(n+1)}{2 \cdot 3}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{n^{2}+n}{2}\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(\dfrac{n^{2}+n}{2}\)
View Solution

Question 96:

The sum of a number and its reciprocal is thrice the difference of the number and its reciprocal. The number is:

  • (A) \(\pm \sqrt{2}\)
  • (B) \(\pm \dfrac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
  • (C) \(\pm \dfrac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\)
  • (D) \(\pm \sqrt{3}\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(\pm \sqrt{2}\)
View Solution

Question 97:

The total number of natural numbers that lie between 10 and 300 and are divisible by 9 is

  • (A) 32
  • (B) 30
  • (C) 33
  • (D) 34
Correct Answer: (A) 32
View Solution

Question 98:

If \({}^{n}C_{x}=56\) and \({}^{n}P_{x}=336\), then find \(n\) and \(x\).

  • (A) \(7,\,3\)
  • (B) \(8,\,4\)
  • (C) \(8,\,3\)
  • (D) \(9,\,6\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(8,\,3\)
View Solution

Step 1: Use the relation between permutations and combinations.

Recall \({}^{n}P_{x} = {}^{n}C_{x}\,x!\).

Given \({}^{n}P_{x}=336\) and \({}^{n}C_{x}=56\), \[ 336 = 56 \cdot x! \Rightarrow x! = \frac{336}{56}=6 \Rightarrow x=3. \]


Step 2: Substitute \(x=3\) into the combination value.
\[ {}^{n}C_{3} = 56 \Rightarrow \frac{n(n-1)(n-2)}{3!}=56 \Rightarrow \frac{n(n-1)(n-2)}{6}=56 \Rightarrow n(n-1)(n-2)=336. \]


Step 3: Solve for \(n\).

Test \(n=8\): \(8\cdot7\cdot6=336\) \Rightarrow true. Hence \(n=8\).
\[ \boxed{n=8,\; x=3} \] Quick Tip: When both \({}^{n}C_{x}\) and \({}^{n}P_{x}\) are given, first use \({}^{n}P_{x}={}^nC_x\,x!\) to get \(x\), then plug into the combination to find \(n\).


Question 99:

One side of an equilateral triangle is 24 cm. The midpoints of its sides are joined to form another triangle whose midpoints are in turn joined to form still another triangle. This process continues indefinitely. Find the sum of the perimeters of all the triangles.

  • (A) 144 cm
  • (B) 72 cm
  • (C) 536 cm
  • (D) 676 cm
Correct Answer: (A) 144 cm
View Solution

Question 100:

The probability that a leap year selected at random contains either 53 Sundays or 53 Mondays, is:

  • (A) \(\tfrac{17}{53}\)
  • (B) \(\tfrac{1}{53}\)
  • (C) \(\tfrac{3}{7}\)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) \(\tfrac{3}{7}\)
View Solution

Question 101:

Find the intercepts made by the line \(3x + 4y - 12 = 0\) on the axes.

  • (A) 2 and 3
  • (B) 4 and 3
  • (C) 3 and 5
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B) 4 and 3
View Solution

Question 102:

The average of 4 distinct prime numbers \(a, b, c, d\) is 35, where \(a < b < c < d\). \(a\) and \(d\) are equidistant from 36, and \(b\) and \(c\) are equidistant from 34. Find the difference between \(a\) and \(d\).

  • (A) 30
  • (B) 14
  • (C) 21
  • (D) Cannot be determined
Correct Answer: (B) 14
View Solution

Question 103:

Ramsukh bhai sells rasgulla at Rs. 15 per kg. A rasgulla is made up of flour and sugar in the ratio 5:3. The ratio of price of sugar and flour is 7:3 (per kg). Thus he earns \(66 \tfrac{2}{3}%\) profit. What is the cost price of sugar?

  • (A) Rs. 10/kg
  • (B) Rs. 9/kg
  • (C) Rs. 18/kg
  • (D) Rs. 14/kg
Correct Answer: (D) Rs. 14/kg
View Solution

Question 104:

A reduction of 20% in the price of sugar enables a person to purchase 6 kg more for Rs. 240. What is the original price per kg of sugar?

  • (A) Rs. 10/kg
  • (B) Rs. 8/kg
  • (C) Rs. 6/kg
  • (D) Rs. 5/kg
Correct Answer: (A) Rs. 10/kg
View Solution

Question 105:

A solid sphere is melted and recast into a right circular cone with a base radius equal to the radius of the sphere. What is the ratio of the height and radius of the cone so formed?

  • (A) 4 : 3
  • (B) 2 : 3
  • (C) 3 : 4
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (D) None of these
View Solution

Question 106:

The speed of scooter, car, and train are in the ratio of 1 : 4 : 16. If all of them cover equal distance then the ratio of time taken/velocity for each of the vehicle is:

  • (A) 256 : 16 : 1
  • (B) 1 : 4 : 16
  • (C) 16 : 4 : 1
  • (D) 16 : 1 : 4
Correct Answer: (A) 256 : 16 : 1
View Solution

Question 107:

B is twice efficient as A and A can do a piece of work in 15 days. A started the work and after a few days B joined him. They completed the work in 11 days from the starting. For how many days did they work together?

  • (A) 1 day
  • (B) 2 days
  • (C) 6 days
  • (D) 5 days
Correct Answer: (B) 2 days
View Solution

Question 108:

A, B, C and D purchased a restaurant for Rs. 56 lakhs. The contribution of B, C and D together is 460% that of A alone. The contribution of A, C and D together is 366.66% that of B’s contribution and the contribution of C is 40% that of A, B and D together. The amount contributed by D is:

  • (A) 10 lakhs
  • (B) 12 lakhs
  • (C) 16 lakhs
  • (D) 18 lakhs
Correct Answer: (D) 18 lakhs
View Solution

Question 109:

The salary of Raju and Ram is 20% and 30% less than the salary of Saroj respectively. By what percent is the salary of Raju more than the salary of Ram?

  • (A) 33.33%
  • (B) 50%
  • (C) 15.18%
  • (D) 14.28%
Correct Answer: (D) 14.28%
View Solution

Question 110:

The radius of a wire is decreased to one-third and its volume remains the same. The new length is how many times the original length?

  • (A) 2 times
  • (B) 4 times
  • (C) 5 times
  • (D) 9 times
Correct Answer: (D) 9 times
View Solution

Question 111:

By triumph the author means–

  • (A) sin
  • (B) loss
  • (C) sorrow
  • (D) victory
Correct Answer: (D) victory
View Solution

Question 112:

When the dead look after the afterwards the living should look at life–

  • (A) forever
  • (B) for some months
  • (C) for only a short while
  • (D) in the past
Correct Answer: (C) for only a short while
View Solution

Question 113:

By rapture the author means an emotion involving great–

  • (A) trepidation
  • (B) thrill
  • (C) fear
  • (D) joy
Correct Answer: (D) joy
View Solution

Question 114:

By the last line “It … waters”, the author means that the mind is only–

  • (A) a mirage
  • (B) an illusion
  • (C) magic
  • (D) a reflection
Correct Answer: (D) a reflection
View Solution

Question 115:

The tone of this passage is–

  • (A) social
  • (B) moral
  • (C) reflective
  • (D) philosophical
Correct Answer: (D) philosophical
View Solution

Question 116:

The most suitable title for this passage would be–

  • (A) The Surface of the Waters
  • (B) My Mind
  • (C) The Human Race
  • (D) Alive and Kicking
Correct Answer: (D) Alive and Kicking
View Solution

Question 117:

The repetition of messages or the use of superfluous expressions is called ……………………

  • (A) redundancy
  • (B) hyperbole
  • (C) alliteration
  • (D) allegory
Correct Answer: (A) redundancy
View Solution

Question 118:

Choose the correct option. Ink : pen : paper

  • (A) watch : dial : strap
  • (B) book : paper : words
  • (C) farmer : plough : field
  • (D) colour : brush : canvas
Correct Answer: (D) colour : brush : canvas
View Solution

Question 119:

Choose the correct option for \emph{realia}.

  • (A) theoretical constructs
  • (B) fabricated examples
  • (C) objects from real life
  • (D) based on reality
Correct Answer: (C) objects from real life
View Solution

Question 120:

Choose the grammatically correct option from the following:

  • (A) ‘Are these gloves belonging to you?’ she asked.
  • (B) ‘Does this gloves belong to you?’ she asked.
  • (C) ‘Do these gloves belongs to you?’ she asked.
  • (D) ‘Do these gloves belong to you?’ she asked.
Correct Answer: (D) ‘Do these gloves belong to you?’ she asked.
View Solution

Question 121:

Choose the grammatically correct option from the following:

  • (A) I live in a house in a street in the countryside. The street is called “Bear Street” and the house is old - more than 100 years old!
  • (B) I live in the house in the street countryside. The street is called “Bear Street” and the house is old - more than 100 years old!
  • (C) I live in a house in the street in the countryside. The street is called “Bear Street” and the house is old - more than 100 years old!
  • (D) I live in a house in a street in the countryside. The street is called “Bear Street” and a house is old - more than 100 years old!
Correct Answer: (A) I live in a house in a street in the countryside. The street is called “Bear Street” and the house is old - more than 100 years old!
View Solution

Question 122:

Choose the grammatically correct option from the following:

  • (A) The teachers will be able to visit our schools and compare our teaching methods to their own.
  • (B) The teachers will be able to pay a visit to our schools and compare teaching methods for their own.
  • (C) The teachers will be able to visit our schools and compare our teaching methods with their own.
  • (D) The teachers will be able to visit our school and compare their teaching method with their own.
Correct Answer: (C) The teachers will be able to visit our schools and compare our teaching methods with their own.
View Solution

Question 123:

Choose the grammatically correct option from the following:

  • (A) Could you give me the amount that you filled out in the check which was sent?
  • (B) Could you give me the amount what you filled out in the check you sent?
  • (C) Could you give me the amount for which you filled out in the check you sent?
  • (D) Could you give me the amount wherein you filled out in the check you sent?
Correct Answer: (A) Could you give me the amount that you filled out in the check which was sent?
View Solution

Question 124:

Choose the grammatically correct option from the following:

  • (A) I have completed the work yesterday.
  • (B) I did completed the work yesterday.
  • (C) I have had completed the work yesterday.
  • (D) I completed the work yesterday.
Correct Answer: (D) I completed the work yesterday.
View Solution

Question 125:

Choose the grammatically correct option from the following:

  • (A) The train couldn’t stop in time and crashed with the truck.
  • (B) The train couldn’t stop in time and crashed into the truck.
  • (C) The train couldn’t stop in time and crashed against the truck.
  • (D) The train couldn’t stop in time and crashed before the truck.
Correct Answer: (B) The train couldn’t stop in time and crashed into the truck.
View Solution

Question 126:

Choose the correct synonymous word or description for the quoted word “referred to”.

  • (A) described as
  • (B) included in
  • (C) supported for
  • (D) reformed as
Correct Answer: (A) described as
View Solution

Question 127:

Choose the correct synonymous word or description for the quoted word “independent”.

  • (A) self-centered
  • (B) impartial
  • (C) self-seeking
  • (D) self-possessed
Correct Answer: (B) impartial
View Solution

Question 128:

Choose the correct synonymous word or description for the quoted word “deter”.

  • (A) swell
  • (B) prevent
  • (C) propel
  • (D) lucubrate
Correct Answer: (B) prevent
View Solution

Question 129:

Choose the correct synonymous word or description for the quoted word “grievances”.

  • (A) complaints
  • (B) dishonesty
  • (C) committees
  • (D) opinions
Correct Answer: (A) complaints
View Solution

Question 130:

Choose the correct synonymous word or description for the quoted word “ombudsman”.

  • (A) a government appointee who investigates complaints by private persons against bureaucrats and/or politicians.
  • (B) a government appointee who investigates complaints by government against common citizens.
  • (C) a government appointee who investigates complaints by citizens against citizens.
  • (D) a government appointee who investigates complaints by government against government officials.
Correct Answer: (A) a government appointee who investigates complaints by private persons against bureaucrats and/or politicians
View Solution

Question 131:

The committee came to a decision to discuss in detail about assorted problems that people have been facing for a long time.

  • (A) came to
  • (B) to discuss
  • (C) about
  • (D) a long time
Correct Answer: (C) about
View Solution

Question 132:

I know you must not see eye to eye with the philosophy of Ramkrishna but you must admit that he had had tremendous influence over a great many followers.

  • (A) see eye to eye
  • (B) had had
  • (C) influence over
  • (D) no error
Correct Answer: (B) had had
View Solution

Question 133:

The Principal inquired with the students if they would like their teacher to repeat the lesson again.

  • (A) inquired with
  • (B) to repeat
  • (C) again
  • (D) no error
Correct Answer: (C) again
View Solution

Question 134:

One of the security guards rushed forward, unlocked the gate and asked whether I had anything objectionable.

  • (A) security guards
  • (B) forward
  • (C) objectionable
  • (D) no error
Correct Answer: (D) no error
View Solution

Question 135:

Rearrange the following sentence fragment (P, Q, R, S) to make a meaningful sentence.

I always told them …………. and consideration for me.

P. How for me she

Q. Always exuded warmth

R. Was like a family’s

S. Elder and how she has

  • (A) PRSQ
  • (B) PQSR
  • (C) PRQS
  • (D) SQPR
Correct Answer: (A) PRSQ
View Solution

Question 136:

Rearrange the following sentence fragment (P, Q, R, S) to make a meaningful sentence.

A year or …………. foreign languages.

P. I picked up a liking for learning

Q. the largest urban area and primary

R. so after leaving Bangkok

S. city of Thailand and a place of unique beauty

  • (A) RPQS
  • (B) RQSP
  • (C) RSPQ
  • (D) SPQR
Correct Answer: (B) RQSP
View Solution

Question 137:

Choose the correct option.
This book …………. five sections

  • (A) comprises of
  • (B) comprises
  • (C) consists
  • (D) comprises to
Correct Answer: (B) comprises
View Solution

Question 138:

Choose the correct option.
My grandfather left most of his money to an NGO; the rest went directly to my daughter and ………………

  • (A) I
  • (B) me
  • (C) myself
  • (D) myself too
Correct Answer: (B) me
View Solution

Question 139:

Choose the correct option.
Parts of a country behind the coast or a river’s banks

  • (A) Isthmus
  • (B) Archipelago
  • (C) Hinterland
  • (D) Swamps
Correct Answer: (C) Hinterland
View Solution

Question 140:

Who is creating this mess?

  • (A) Who has been created this mess?
  • (B) By whom has this mess been created?
  • (C) By whom this mess is being created?
  • (D) By whom is this mess being created?
Correct Answer: (D) By whom is this mess being created?
View Solution

Question 141:

You should open the wine about three hours before you use it.

  • (A) Wine should be opened about three hours before use.
  • (B) Wine should be opened by you three hours before use.
  • (C) Wine should be opened about three hours before you use it.
  • (D) Wine should be opened about three hours before it is used.
Correct Answer: (D) Wine should be opened about three hours before it is used.
View Solution

Question 142:

In the questions below, the passage consists of six sentences. The first and the sixth sentences are given (S1, S6). The middle four sentences have been removed and jumbled up. These are labeled as P, Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences.

S1: \emph{Metals are today being replaced by polymers in many applications.

P: \emph{Above all, they are cheaper and easier to process, making them a viable alternative to metals.

Q: \emph{Polymers are essentially long chains of hydrocarbon molecules.

R: \emph{Today polymers as strong as metals have been developed.

S: \emph{These have replaced the traditional chromium-plated metallic bumpers in cars.

S6: \emph{Many Indian Institutes of Science and Technology run special programmes on polymer science.

  • (A) QRSP
  • (B) RSQP
  • (C) RQSP
  • (D) Q R P S
Correct Answer: (D) Q R P S
View Solution

Question 143:

Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word: \emph{FRUGALITY}.

  • (A) Foolishness
  • (B) Extremity
  • (C) Enthusiasm
  • (D) Economy
Correct Answer: (D) Economy
View Solution

Question 144:

Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word: \emph{HARBINGER}.

  • (A) Messenger
  • (B) Steward
  • (C) Forerunner
  • (D) Pilot
Correct Answer: (C) Forerunner
View Solution

Question 145:

Choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the given word: \emph{EXODUS}

  • (A) Influx
  • (B) Home-coming
  • (C) Return
  • (D) Restoration
Correct Answer: (A) Influx
View Solution

Question 146:

Choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the given word: \emph{EQUANIMITY}

  • (A) Resentment
  • (B) Dubiousness
  • (C) Duplicity
  • (D) Excitement
Correct Answer: (D) Excitement
View Solution

Question 147:

Find the Odd one out from the group of words.

  • (A) Bludgeon
  • (B) Dragon
  • (C) Black Jack
  • (D) Order
Correct Answer: (B) Dragon
View Solution

Question 148:

Each pair of capitalized words given is followed by four pairs of words. Select the pair that DOES NOT express a relationship similar to that expressed by the capitalized pair.

KERNAL : SHELL

  • (A) Caterpillar : Pupa
  • (B) Larva : Cocoon
  • (C) Lassitude : Syncope
  • (D) Passenger : Car
Correct Answer: (D) Passenger : Car
View Solution

Question 149:

Both of them …………… since their childhood.

  • (A) are working here
  • (B) work here
  • (C) have been working
  • (D) are liking to work
Correct Answer: (C) have been working
View Solution

Question 150:

Although initial investigations pointed towards him ……………………

  • (A) the preceding events corroborated his involvement in the crime
  • (B) the additional information confirmed his guilt
  • (C) the subsequent events established that he was guilty
  • (D) the subsequent events proved that he was innocent
Correct Answer: (D) the subsequent events proved that he was innocent
View Solution