Karnataka PGCET 2026 MBA Question Paper is available for download here. Karnataka Examinations Authority (KEA) has conducted Karnataka PGCET 2026 MBA exam on June 14 from 10.30 am to 12.30 pm. Karnataka PGCET 2026 MBA Question Paper consists of 100 questions for 100 marks to be attempted in 120 minutes.

  • Karnataka PGCET MBA Question Paper 2026 is divided into Computer Awareness, Analytical Ability and logical Reasoning, Quantitative Analysis, English language and General Knowledge questions.
  • Each correct answer carries 1 mark and there is no negative marking for incorrect answers.

Karnataka PGCET 2026 MBA Question Paper with Solutions

Karnataka PGCET MBA Question Paper 2026 Download PDF Check Solutions


Question 1:

Which component of the central processing unit is primarily responsible for fetching, decoding and executing instructions?

  • (A) Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU)
  • (B) Control Unit (CU)
  • (C) Cache Memory
  • (D) Registers

Question 2:

Arrange the given events in chronological order.

Option Event
(b) Creation of WWW
(a) Launch of Google
(d) Launch of Facebook
(c) Introduction of the iPhone

Correct Order: (b) → (a) → (d) → (c)

  • (A) \( b \rightarrow a \rightarrow d \rightarrow c \)
  • (B) \( a \rightarrow c \rightarrow d \rightarrow b \)
  • (C) \( b \rightarrow d \rightarrow a \rightarrow c \)
  • (D) \( d \rightarrow a \rightarrow b \rightarrow c \)

Question 3:

Which type of RAM is generally used as the main memory in modern PCs and requires periodic refreshing?

  • (A) Flash
  • (B) ROM
  • (C) DRAM
  • (D) SRAM

Question 4:

Match the following Network devices in List-I with its Functions in List-II.

List-I List-II
(a) Hub (i) Connects two LAN networks
(b) Bridge (ii) Connects different networks
(c) Router (iii) Connects networks using different protocols
(d) Gateway (iv) Connects multiple devices in a network

  • (A) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
  • (B) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii
  • (C) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
  • (D) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii

Question 5:

Which type of memory is used to maximize speed in large scientific computers?

  • (A) Fixed-length memory
  • (B) Variable-length memory
  • (C) Cloud storage
  • (D) Tape drives

Question 6:
Option Statement Type
(i) Reduced Data Redundancy Advantage
(ii) Improved Data Security Advantage
(iii) Increased Data Inconsistency Not an advantage
(iv) Backup and Recovery Advantage

Correct Answer: (i), (ii), (iv)

  • (A) (i) and (ii)
  • (B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
  • (C) (i), (ii) and (iv)
  • (D) (i) and (iii)

Question 7:

Which metric is most useful for measuring performance when handling floating-point operations involving very large OR very small numbers that require high precision calculations?

  • (A) Cache size
  • (B) FLOPS
  • (C) Latency
  • (D) Clock speed (GHz)

Question 8:

Which of the following programming language uses objects, classes, inheritance, and polymorphism?

  • (A) BASIC
  • (B) C++
  • (C) FORTRAN
  • (D) COBOL

Question 9:

Match the following and select the correct answer for popular programming languages in List-I with their use cases in List-II.

List-I List-II
(a) Java (i) Game development and high performance apps
(b) Python (ii) Web development, front-end scripting
(c) JavaScript (iii) Data Science and AI
(d) C++ (iv) Enterprise apps and Android apps

  • (A) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
  • (B) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
  • (C) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
  • (D) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i

Question 10:

Which of the following is NOT the layer of the UNIX operating system?

  • (A) Kernel layer
  • (B) Shell layer
  • (C) Utilities layer
  • (D) BIOS layer

Question 11:

In an operating system, the interval between the time of submission of a job to the system for processing and the time of first response from the system for the job is known as

  • (A) Throughput
  • (B) Response Time
  • (C) Turnaround Time
  • (D) Computing Time

Question 12:

Which of the following is NOT a Network Operating System?

  • (A) Android
  • (B) Unix
  • (C) Windows Server
  • (D) Linux

Question 13:

Which of the following operations is NOT typically performed by the Arithmetic Logic Unit?

  • (A) Logical AND, OR and NOT
  • (B) Comparison of values
  • (C) Addition and Subtraction
  • (D) Data transfer between RAM and storage

Question 14:

The seven and eight-bit alphanumeric code that is needed to represent more than 64 characters is called ________.

  • (A) Card code
  • (B) ASCII code
  • (C) IEEE code
  • (D) Internal code

Question 15:

A group of eight distinct elements can be represented by a ______ code.

  • (A) Three-bit
  • (B) Two-bit
  • (C) Four-bit
  • (D) Eight-bit

Question 16:

Consider the following weights in the BCD code.
\[ (i)\;4 \qquad (ii)\;8 \qquad (iii)\;1 \qquad (iv)\;2 \]

Find the correct sequence from left to right.

  • (A) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii)
  • (B) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
  • (C) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
  • (D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

Question 17:

What is the decimal equivalent of \((B65F)_{16}\)?

  • (A) \((46876)_{10}\)
  • (B) \((46687)_{10}\)
  • (C) \((48676)_{10}\)
  • (D) \((47686)_{10}\)

Question 18:

Add the binary numbers \(10011\) and \(1001\) in both decimal and binary forms. The values are:

  • (A) \(11100\) in binary, \(28\) in decimal
  • (B) \(00011\) in binary, \(20\) in decimal
  • (C) \(10101\) in binary, \(18\) in decimal
  • (D) \(11101\) in binary, \(19\) in decimal

Question 19:

Which of the following definition is true for 2's complement subtract operation?

  • (A) To subtract two numbers X and Y, form the 2's complement of Y and then add it to X.
  • (B) To subtract two numbers X and Y, form the 2's complement of X and then add it with Y.
  • (C) To subtract two numbers X and Y, form the 2's complement of Y and then subtract it from X.
  • (D) To subtract two numbers X and Y, form the 2's complement of X and then subtract Y from it.

Question 20:

Consider the following statements:

Step Operation
(i) Perform addition/subtraction on the mantissas
(ii) Set the exponent of the result
(iii) Choose the number with the smaller exponent and shift its mantissa
(iv) Normalize the result

Correct sequence: (iii) → (i) → (iv) → (ii)

  • (A) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
  • (B) (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)
  • (C) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
  • (D) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)

Question 21:
Option Number Representation System
(a) Sign-and-magnitude
(b) Sign-9's complement
(c) 1's complement
(d) Sign-10's complement
  • (A) (a) and (c)
  • (B) (a) and (b)
  • (C) (b) and (d)
  • (D) (c) and (d)

Question 22:

Which of the following best suits an operating system?

  • (A) Resource utilizer
  • (B) Workstation
  • (C) Resource allocator
  • (D) Application program

Question 23:

Kernel mode operation is also called as ________.

  • (A) Interactive mode
  • (B) System mode
  • (C) User mode
  • (D) Symmetric mode

Question 24:

Consider the following storage levels and find the correct sequence for the migration of the integer A from larger storage to smaller one.
\[ (i)\ Hardware Register \] \[ (ii)\ Main Memory \] \[ (iii)\ Cache \] \[ (iv)\ Magnetic Disk \]

  • (A) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
  • (B) (iv), (ii), (iii), (i)
  • (C) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)
  • (D) (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)

Question 25:

The correct result of 2's complement addition operation for the following values is ______.
\[ 0010 \quad (+2) \]
\[ 0011 \quad (+3) \]

  • (A) 0101
  • (B) 0100
  • (C) 1100
  • (D) 1110

Question 26:

Match the following List-I with corresponding List-II.

List-I List-II
(a) Binomial (i) x = 0, 1 only two values
(b) Normal (ii) Discrete distribution
(c) Statistic (iii) Symmetric distribution
(d) Bernoulli (iv) Not a distribution

  • (A) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
  • (B) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
  • (C) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
  • (D) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i

Question 27:

Find the missing term in the given sequence.
\[ 1,\ 5,\ 5,\ 10,\ 4,\ 15,\ 13,\ \hspace{1cm} \]

  • (A) \(17\)
  • (B) \(16\)
  • (C) \(9\)
  • (D) \(20\)

Question 28:

Sangeetha was facing north-west direction. If she was playing carrom with Sudha in the standard seating pattern, in which direction was Sudha facing?

  • (A) North-West
  • (B) North-East
  • (C) South-West
  • (D) South-East

Question 29:

If \(X\), \(Y\) and \(Z\) are independent and identically distributed (i.i.d.) random variables, then the mean and variance of \(X\), \(Y\) and \(Z\) are

  • (A) Mean and variance are same for \(X\), \(Y\) and \(Z\)
  • (B) Mean and variance are different for \(X\), \(Y\) and \(Z\)
  • (C) Mean is same but variance is different for \(X\), \(Y\) and \(Z\)
  • (D) Mean is different but variance is same for \(X\), \(Y\) and \(Z\)

Question 30:

If a lion has four legs, a monkey has four legs and an elephant has four legs, then how many legs do we have?

  • (A) \(2\)
  • (B) \(4\)
  • (C) \(6\)
  • (D) \(8\)

Question 31:

Which of the following Venn diagram best represents the relationship among Americans, Professors and Men?


  • (A) Both A and B
  • (B) Both C and D
  • (C) Only A
  • (D) Only B

Question 32:

In the following figure, square represents students, triangle represents teachers, circle represents professors and rectangle represents Indians.




Which set of letters represents Indians who are not students?

  • (A) E and F
  • (B) I and G
  • (C) E, A and F
  • (D) G, E and A

Question 33:

Choose the missing term in place of question mark (?) on the basis of the relationship between the word given on the left/right side of the sign of analogy.
\[ BOOKS : 2,15,15,11,19 :: PAPER : ? \]

  • (A) 16, 5, 16, 1, 18
  • (B) 18, 5, 16, 1, 16
  • (C) 16, 1, 16, 5, 18
  • (D) 32, 2, 32, 10, 36

Question 34:

Choose the correct meaning of degrees of freedom in statistical concept if \(n\) is number of observations.

  • (A) Number of independent observations
  • (B) Number of dependent observations
  • (C) Either independent or dependent observations
  • (D) Neither independent nor dependent observations

Question 35:

Match the following List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II
(a) Mean (i) List of individual values
(b) Median (ii) Value appears most often
(c) Mode (iii) Average for complete data
(d) Frequency Distribution (iv) Location average

  • (A) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
  • (B) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
  • (C) a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii
  • (D) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii

Question 36:

The two statements given are followed by two Conclusions I and II. You have to consider the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts.

Statements:


Statistics is a process of data analysis.
Knowledge requires light to enlighten the core of cognitive aspect.


Conclusions:


Statistics is the tool to analyse the data and decision-making.
Statistics is a static process for mind.

  • (A) Only Conclusion I follows
  • (B) Only Conclusion II follows
  • (C) Both Conclusions I and II follow
  • (D) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows

Question 37:

Given below are pictures of a dice.



Which number is on the face opposite to 3?

  • (A) 6
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 5

Question 38:

In the following question, two statements are given. They may or may not be cause and effect relationship between the two statements.

Statement I: As the income increases, the expenditure also increases.

Statement II: The age of wife and husband changes in positive direction.

Choose an appropriate option.

  • (A) If Statement I is the cause and Statement II is its effect
  • (B) If Statement II is the cause and Statement I is its effect
  • (C) If both the Statements are independent causes
  • (D) If both the Statements are independent effects

Question 39:

It is desirable to be able to distinguish between strong arguments and weak arguments. Strong arguments are those which are both important and directly related to the question. Weak arguments are those which are of minor importance and also may not be directly related to the question or may be related to trivial aspects of the question.
The Statement below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a strong argument and which is a weak argument.


Statement: Should larger the sample size minimize the experimental error?

Arguments:

I. Yes, this is one of the ways to improve the efficiency of the estimator.

II. No, sample size is not at all a matter.

  • (A) If only Argument I is strong
  • (B) If only Argument II is strong
  • (C) If either I or II is strong
  • (D) If neither I nor II is strong

Question 40:

‘A’ and ‘B’ are two stations 465 km apart. A train starts from ‘A’ at 10 a.m. and travels towards ‘B’ at 65 kmph. Another train starts from ‘B’ at 11 a.m. and travels towards ‘A’ at 35 kmph. At what time do they meet?

  • (A) 3:00 a.m.
  • (B) 3:00 p.m.
  • (C) 3:05 a.m.
  • (D) 3:05 p.m.

Question 41:

Five years ago, mother was three times older than daughter. Ten years later, mother will be twice as old as daughter. How old are daughter and mother now?

  • (A) (25,55)
  • (B) (20,50)
  • (C) (25,50)
  • (D) (20,55)

Question 42:

The area of a rectangle gets reduced by 40 square units if its length is reduced by 7 units and breadth is increased by 2 units. If we increase the length by 4 units and breadth by 4 units, then the area is increased by 108 square units. Find the length and breadth.

  • (A) 8 units and 15 units respectively
  • (B) 12 units and 15 units respectively
  • (C) 15 units and 8 units respectively
  • (D) 15 units and 12 units respectively

Question 43:

There are four consecutive odd numbers \(x_1, x_2, x_3\) and \(x_4\) and three consecutive even numbers \(y_1, y_2\) and \(y_3\). The average of odd numbers is 12 less than the average of even numbers. If the sum of three even numbers is 32 less than the sum of four odd numbers, then the average of \(x_1, x_2, x_3\) and \(x_4\) is

  • (A) \(60\)
  • (B) \(64\)
  • (C) \(62\)
  • (D) \(68\)

Question 44:

There is a list of a hospital with admitted patients by age for one day. There were 1000 patients attended. Among these patients, children below 5 years were 600; 200 were between the age of 5 years and 45 years and 200 were above 45 years. Then the proportion of patients attended by the hospital to be of age less than five years and adults of 45 years and above is

  • (A) \(0.60\)
  • (B) \(0.20\)
  • (C) \(0.80\)
  • (D) \(0.40\)

Question 45:

A class of 40 students showed that 20% were taller, 40% were shorter and 40% were shortest. Then the probability that the students are either taller or shortest is?

  • (A) \(0.60\)
  • (B) \(0.40\)
  • (C) \(0.20\)
  • (D) \(0.80\)

Question 46:

In a certain college in Andhra Pradesh there were 800 students. Among them 320 were normal, 200 with anaemia, 160 with B-complex deficiency and 120 with Vitamin A deficiency. Complete the table and identify the correct statements.


  • (A) Statements (i) and (ii) are correct
  • (B) Statements (i) and (iii) are correct
  • (C) Statements (ii) and (iv) are correct
  • (D) Statements (iii) and (iv) are correct

Question 47:

Consider the following statements:

[(i)] If you add 9 to each entry that adds 9 to the average.
[(ii)] If you add 9 to each entry that adds 9 to the standard deviation.
[(iii)] If you double each entry on a list that doubles the average.
[(iv)] If you double each entry on a list that doubles the standard deviation.


Which of the following is correct?

  • (A) Statements (i) and (ii) are correct
  • (B) Statements (ii) and (iii) are correct
  • (C) Statements (iii) and (iv) are correct
  • (D) Statements (ii) and (iv) are correct

Question 48:

The distribution of qualitative variables is summarised as

  • (A) Mean and Standard deviation
  • (B) Median and Interquartile range
  • (C) Median and Percentage
  • (D) Frequency and Percentage

Question 49:

The distribution of family income in 1987 in a city is given below:

Percentile Family Income
1 1300
10 8500
25 17100
50 30800
75 48000
90 68500
99 125000


Statement (i): 50% of the population has income less than
30,800.

Statement (ii): Middle 50% of the population has income in the range
(17,100 -- 48,000).

Statement (iii): 99% of the population has the income
(1,25,000).

Statement (iv): Median income is
(30,800).

  • (A) Statements (i) and (ii) are correct
  • (B) Statements (ii) and (iii) are correct
  • (C) Statements (i) and (iii) are correct
  • (D) Statements (iii) and (iv) are correct

Question 50:

The following table shows the number of working hours and the number of employees employed in a small-scale industry.

Number of Working Hours Number of Employees
3–5 7
5–7 10
7–9 16
9–11 47
11–13 12
13–15 8
Total 100


Statement (i): Average number of working hours of employees is 9.42 hours.

Statement (ii): The number of workers working less than nine hours is 33.

Statement (iii): The number of workers working more than average working hours is 67.

Choose the correct answer:

  • (A) Statements (i) and (ii) are correct
  • (B) Statements (ii) and (iii) are correct
  • (C) Statements (i) and (iii) are correct
  • (D) Statement (i) is correct but (ii) is false

Question 51:

Correlation coefficient is not affected by


[(i)] Interchanging the two variables
[(ii)] Adding the same number to all the values of one variable
[(iii)] Multiplying all the values of one variable by the same positive number
[(iv)] Multiplying all the values of one variable by the same negative number


Choose the correct answer from the following:

  • (A) All the four statements are correct
  • (B) Statements (i) and (ii) are correct
  • (C) Statements (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
  • (D) Statements (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct

Question 52:

Find the Mean and Median of the data
\[ 11,\ 7,\ 6,\ 9,\ 12,\ 15,\ 19,\ 20 \]

  • (A) Mean = 12, Median = 11
  • (B) Mean = 11.5, Median = 12.38
  • (C) Mean = 12.38, Median = 11.5
  • (D) Mean = 12.38, Median = 11.00

Question 53:

In a cross-sectional study conducted at a clinic, the researcher is interested to know what proportion of the patients is suffering from tuberculosis and HIV.

Tuberculosis (Yes) Tuberculosis (No)
HIV +ve 16 4
HIV -ve 24 456


The probability that a person selected is not suffering from both tuberculosis and HIV is

  • (A) 0.8
  • (B) 0.2
  • (C) 0.912
  • (D) 0.962

Question 54:

The sampling procedure and the situation is given in the following table:

  • (A) a–ii, b–iv, c–iii, d–i
  • (B) a–ii, b–i, c–iv, d–iii
  • (C) a–iv, b–iii, c–ii, d–i
  • (D) a–iii, b–ii, c–iv, d–i

Question 55:

If the probability of getting Rh+ve is 0.9 and probability of new born being male is \(1/2\), then the probability of new born being male with Rh+ve is

  • (A) 0.95
  • (B) 0.45
  • (C) 0.50
  • (D) 0.25

Question 56:

Read the following sentences and identify which of them are in the passive form.


[(a)] My pocket is picked.
[(b)] The snake was killed by the boy.
[(c)] He asked him to get out.
[(d)] They were asked to keep quiet.

  • (A) (a), (b) and (d)
  • (B) (a), (b) and (c)
  • (C) (a), (c) and (d)
  • (D) (b), (c) and (d)

Question 57:

Choose the appropriate question tag:

You heard what I told him, ________

  • (A) Did you?
  • (B) Didn't you?
  • (C) Won't you?
  • (D) Don't you?

Question 58:

Choose the best alternative and complete the sentence.

In my opinion, he seems to enjoy ________ to school.


[(i)] not going
[(ii)] going
[(iii)] by going
[(iv)] in going

  • (A) (i) and (ii)
  • (B) (ii) and (iv)
  • (C) (iii) and (i)
  • (D) (iv) and (i)

Question 59:

The words similar in meaning to the word 'zigzag'.


[(a)] Oblique
[(b)] Winding
[(c)] Straight
[(d)] Direct

  • (A) (a) and (c)
  • (B) (b) and (c)
  • (C) (b) and (d)
  • (D) (a) and (b)

Question 60:

The sentence that is opposite in meaning to the sentence, ``He has been always vindictive''.

  • (A) He has the mind to forgive.
  • (B) He was not useful to anyone.
  • (C) He has been in the habit of praising everyone.
  • (D) He has never been friendly.

Question 61:

Find the sentences that are grammatically incorrect.


[(i)] I asked him not to do that.
[(ii)] I asked him don't be doing that.
[(iii)] I asked him he won't be doing that.
[(iv)] I asked him, should he do that.

  • (A) (i), (iii), (iv)
  • (B) (i), (ii), (iii)
  • (C) (ii), (iii), (iv)
  • (D) (i), (iv), (ii)

Question 62:

Choose the correct option which has rectified the error in the following sentence:

The news are that the war will come to an end soon.

  • (A) The news is that the war will be coming to an end soon
  • (B) The news is that the war will come to an end soon
  • (C) The news was that the war will be coming to an end soon
  • (D) The news were that the war will come to an end soon

Question 63:

Choose the correct option which has rectified the error in the following sentence:

We will be going to Shimla in the vacation in May.

  • (A) We will be going to Shimla during the vacation in May
  • (B) We will be going for Shimla in the vacation in May
  • (C) We will be going to Shimla by the vacation in May
  • (D) We will be going to Shimla on the vacation in May

Question 64:

Match the words in List-I with those in List-II.


 

Event Year
(b) 1989
(a) 1998
(d) 2004
(c) 2007

  • (A) a – i, b – ii, c – iii, d – iv
  • (B) a – ii, b – iv, c – iii, d – i
  • (C) a – iii, b – ii, c – iv, d – i
  • (D) a – iv, b – iii, c – i, d – ii

Question 65:

The meaning of the following idiomatic expression 'under a cloud'.

  • (A) Experiencing cloudy weather
  • (B) Enjoying favourable luck
  • (C) Under suspicion
  • (D) Under observation

Question 66:

To work on this project is like flogging a dead horse. This idiomatic expression means

  • (A) Harping upon a question that has been settled
  • (B) Dragging something too far
  • (C) Overspending time
  • (D) Driving a horse

Question 67:

Find the analogy for the following.
\[ Asthma : Lungs :: Conjunctivitis : ? \]

  • (A) Blood
  • (B) Heart
  • (C) Eyes
  • (D) Teeth

Question 68:

Match the works given in List-I with the writers in List-II.


 

List-I List-II
(a) Caesar and Cleopatra (i) George Eliot
(b) Antony and Cleopatra (ii) Jane Austen
(c) Pride and Prejudice (iii) George Bernard Shaw
(d) Middlemarch (iv) William Shakespeare

  • (A) a – iii, b – iv, c – ii, d – i
  • (B) a – i, b – ii, c – iii, d – iv
  • (C) a – ii, b – iii, c – i, d – iv
  • (D) a – iv, b – ii, c – i, d – iii

Question 69:

'The Pilgrim's Progress' was written by ________.

  • (A) John Bunyan
  • (B) John Milton
  • (C) John Swift
  • (D) Jonathan Swift

Question 70:

Substitute the following phrase with one word, choosing from the given options.

A person who does not believe in God.


[(a)] Theist
[(b)] Non-believer
[(c)] Cultist
[(d)] Atheist

  • (A) (a) and (c) are correct
  • (B) (b) and (d) are correct
  • (C) (b) and (c) are correct
  • (D) (b) and (a) are correct

Question 71:

Which of the following is/are not the methods for Environmental Study?


[(a)] TOW
[(b)] ETOP
[(c)] SWOC
[(d)] MRTP

  • (A) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
  • (B) Only (b)
  • (C) (a) and (d)
  • (D) Only (d)

Question 72:

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct option using the codes given below:


 

List-I (Name of the Sports) List-II (Arjuna Award Winners-2025)
(a) Athletics (i) Harmanpreet Singh
(b) Hockey (ii) Sarabjot Singh
(c) Shooting (iii) Vantika Agrawal
(d) Chess (iv) Jyothi Yarraji

  • (A) a – i, b – iv, c – iii, d – ii
  • (B) a – i, b – iii, c – iv, d – ii
  • (C) a – iv, b – i, c – ii, d – iii
  • (D) a – iv, b – iii, c – ii, d – i

Question 73:

Which of the following statements regarding international environment related protocols/agreements are correct?


[(I)] The Montreal Protocol addresses ozone depletion.
[(II)] The Paris Agreement aims to limit global warming to well below \(2^\circ C\).
[(III)] The Kyoto Protocol (1997) committed developed nations to an average of 5% GHG reduction over 2008--2012.

  • (A) (I), (II) and (III) are correct
  • (B) Only (I) and (II) are correct
  • (C) Only (II) and (III) are correct
  • (D) Only (I) and (III) are correct

Question 74:

Consider the following statements and select the correct answer using the codes given below:


[(I)] Depreciation of currency improves exports.
[(II)] Depreciation of currency improves imports.
[(III)] Appreciation of currency improves exports.
[(IV)] Appreciation of currency worsens the imports.

  • (A) Only (II) is correct
  • (B) (I), (II) and (III) are correct
  • (C) (I), (II) and (IV) are correct
  • (D) Only (I) is correct

Question 75:

The 'scalar chain' in management refers to

  • (A) Chain of customers
  • (B) Line of authority from top to bottom
  • (C) Line of responsibility from top to bottom
  • (D) Distribution channel in marketing

Question 76:

Match the List-I (Management Thinkers) with List-II (Contributions) and choose the correct option.


 

List-I (Management Thinkers) List-II (Contributions)
(a) F.W. Taylor (i) Administrative principles of management
(b) Henri Fayol (ii) Human relations approach
(c) Elton Mayo (iii) Scientific management principles
(d) Peter F. Drucker (iv) Management by objectives

  • (A) a – iii, b – i, c – iv, d – ii
  • (B) a – i, b – iii, c – iv, d – ii
  • (C) a – iii, b – ii, c – iv, d – i
  • (D) a – iii, b – i, c – ii, d – iv

Question 77:

Which of the statements given below is/are correct?


[(a)] Angel investors provide funding at an early stage of a startup.
[(b)] An IPO allows a company to raise funds from the public.
[(c)] All startups must go for IPO to survive.

  • (A) (a) and (b)
  • (B) (b) and (c)
  • (C) (c) only
  • (D) (a) and (c)

Question 78:

The 'Desert National Park' is located in which of the following places?

  • (A) Jodhpur and Bikaner
  • (B) Jaisalmer and Barmer
  • (C) Jaisalmer and Jodhpur
  • (D) Barmer and Bikaner

Question 79:

Match the items in List-I with items in List-II and choose the correct answer.


 

List-I List-II
(a) Solar cell (i) Perfect diamagnet
(b) LED (ii) Voltage-controlled Voltage Source (VCVS)
(c) Op-amp (iii) Photovoltaic device
(d) Superconductor (iv) p-n junction diode

  • (A) a – iv, b – i, c – ii, d – iii
  • (B) a – iii, b – iv, c – ii, d – i
  • (C) a – ii, b – iv, c – i, d – iii
  • (D) a – iii, b – i, c – ii, d – iv

Question 80:

Which organization/foundation has instituted and sponsoring the prestigious 'Saraswati Samman' literary award?

  • (A) K.K. Birla Foundation
  • (B) Azim Premji Foundation
  • (C) Sahitya Akademi
  • (D) Infosys Foundation

Question 81:

Match the states in List-I with its famous dance form in List-II.


 

List-I List-II
(a) Kerala (i) Bharatanatyam
(b) Assam (ii) Kathakali
(c) Tamil Nadu (iii) Kuchipudi
(d) Andhra Pradesh (iv) Sattriya

  • (A) a – iii, b – iv, c – i, d – ii
  • (B) a – ii, b – iv, c – i, d – iii
  • (C) a – iv, b – ii, c – iii, d – i
  • (D) a – ii, b – iii, c – i, d – iv

Question 82:

Which is the correct sequence of the court/field dimensions of the following games from small court to large court?


[(a)] Basketball
[(b)] Football
[(c)] Handball
[(d)] Tennis
[(e)] Badminton

  • (A) (e), (d), (a), (c), (b)
  • (B) (e), (a), (d), (b), (c)
  • (C) (d), (c), (a), (b), (e)
  • (D) (d), (a), (c), (e), (b)

Question 83:

Which is the correct sequence of the process of communication?


[(a)] Receiver
[(b)] Encoder
[(c)] Channel
[(d)] Source

  • (A) (a), (c), (b), (d)
  • (B) (b), (d), (a), (c)
  • (C) (c), (a), (b), (d)
  • (D) (d), (b), (c), (a)

Question 84:

Consider the following statements regarding business reports:


[(a)] A good report should be objective and concise.
[(b)] Reports should contain verified facts and findings.
[(c)] Visual aids like graphs disrupt the flow in reports.
[(d)] Business reports should avoid any logical structure.


Which of the statements given above are correct?

  • (A) (a), (b) and (c) only
  • (B) (c) and (d) only
  • (C) (a) and (d) only
  • (D) (a) and (b) only

Question 85:

Consider the following statements regarding Indian puppetry.

Statement I: 'Kathputli' is a form of shadow puppetry originating from the state of Rajasthan.

Statement II: 'Tholpavakoothu' is a traditional glove puppet form practised in Kerala.

  • (A) Both Statements I and II are correct
  • (B) Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
  • (C) Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
  • (D) Both Statements I and II are incorrect

Question 86:

Match the playwrights in List-I with their most iconic play in List-II.


 

List-I List-II
(a) Girish Karnad (i) Andhayug
(b) Vijay Tendulkar (ii) Adhe-Adhure
(c) Mohan Rakesh (iii) Sakharam Binder
(d) Dharamvir Bharati (iv) Hayavadana

  • (A) a – iv, b – i, c – ii, d – iii
  • (B) a – iv, b – iii, c – ii, d – i
  • (C) a – iv, b – iii, c – i, d – ii
  • (D) a – iii, b – i, c – ii, d – iv

Question 87:

The first Indian Hindu Marriage Act was enacted after Independence in the year:

  • (A) 1951
  • (B) 1952
  • (C) 1953
  • (D) 1955

Question 88:

The Tibetan Buddhist settlement at Bylakuppe is situated in which taluk?

  • (A) Periyapatna
  • (B) Chamarajanagar
  • (C) Srirangapatna
  • (D) Mandya

Question 89:

Match the authors with their plays/books.


 

List-I List-II
(a) Rabindranath Tagore (i) Mrityunjay
(b) Sumitranandan Pant (ii) Mahamayi
(c) Chandrashekhara Kambara (iii) Chidambara
(d) Birendra Kumar Bhattacharya (iv) Post Office

  • (A) a – iv, b – iii, c – ii, d – i
  • (B) a – iii, b – iv, c – i, d – ii
  • (C) a – ii, b – iii, c – iv, d – i
  • (D) a – iv, b – i, c – iii, d – ii

Question 90:

Who coined the phrase 'Unity in Diversity'?

  • (A) Mahatma Gandhi
  • (B) Jawaharlal Nehru
  • (C) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
  • (D) Rabindranath Tagore

Question 91:

Magna Carta was signed in the year

  • (A) 1066
  • (B) 1498
  • (C) 1215
  • (D) 1688

Question 92:

Match the Features of the Indian Constitution with their sources.


 

List-I List-II
(a) Fundamental Rights (i) South Africa
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy (ii) U.S.A.
(c) Parliamentary Government (iii) Ireland
(d) Election of Rajya Sabha Members (iv) U.K.

  • (A) a – ii, b – iii, c – iv, d – i
  • (B) a – iii, b – ii, c – iv, d – i
  • (C) a – ii, b – iv, c – iii, d – i
  • (D) a – iv, b – iii, c – ii, d – i

Question 93:

Match the authors with their works.


 

List-I List-II
(a) David Szalay (i) The Wilderness
(b) Samantha Harvey (ii) The Seven Moons of Maali Almeida
(c) Paul Lynch (iii) Prophet Song
(d) Shehan Karunatilaka (iv) Flesh

  • (A) a – ii, b – i, c – iii, d – iv
  • (B) a – iv, b – i, c – iii, d – ii
  • (C) a – iv, b – iii, c – i, d – ii
  • (D) a – i, b – ii, c – iii, d – iv

Question 94:

Select the correct objectives of 'Khelo India' Games among the following using the codes given below:


[(i)] Providing scholarship to sports persons
[(ii)] Promoting grassroot talent
[(iii)] Providing structured training
[(iv)] Promoting international level elite athletes

  • (A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
  • (B) (i), (iii) and (iv)
  • (C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
  • (D) (i) and (ii) only

Question 95:

Arrange the following Indian Satellites according to chronological order of launch:


[(i)] INSAT
[(ii)] Aryabhata
[(iii)] EDUSAT
[(iv)] GSAT

  • (A) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
  • (B) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
  • (C) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
  • (D) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)

Question 96:

The Nobel Peace Prize for the year 2025 was awarded to _________ country's activist _________ for "her struggle to achieve a just and peaceful transition from authoritarian rule to democracy".

  • (A) Bangladesh, Laila Rahman
  • (B) Iraq, Nadia Murad
  • (C) Venezuela, Maria Corina Machado
  • (D) Belarus, Sviatlana Tsikhanouskaya

Question 97:

Consider the following statements about the Padma Shri Award:


[(i)] Padma Shri Award is the highest civilian award in India.
[(ii)] It is awarded for distinguished service in various fields.
[(iii)] It was instituted in 1954.
[(iv)] It cannot be awarded to foreign nationals.


Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • (A) (i) and (iv) only
  • (B) (ii) and (iii) only
  • (C) (i) and (iii) only
  • (D) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

Question 98:

Which statesman from Karnataka was awarded the Bharat Ratna for his exceptional contributions to public service and administration, economic planning and industrial development, irrigation and water resource management, engineering and nation-building?

  • (A) S. Nijalingappa
  • (B) M. Visvesvaraya
  • (C) Devaraj Urs
  • (D) Kengal Hanumanthaiah

Question 99:

Which Indian cricketer was included in the ICC Hall of Fame in 2025?

  • (A) Virat Kohli
  • (B) M.S. Dhoni
  • (C) Rohit Sharma
  • (D) Ravindra Jadeja

Question 100:

The 'Common Carbon Metric' supported by UNEP has been developed for

  • (A) Assessing the carbon footprint of building operations around the world
  • (B) Enabling commercial farming entities around the world to enter carbon trade
  • (C) Enabling governments to assess the overall carbon footprint caused by their countries
  • (D) Assessing the overall carbon footprint caused by the use of fossil fuels by the world in unit time

Karnataka PGCET 2026 Exam Pattern

Parameter Details
Exam Mode OMR based
Exam Duration 120 minutes
Question Type Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
Total Questions 100 questions (all compulsory)
Maximum Marks 100
Marking Scheme +1 for correct, 0 for incorrect

Karnataka PGCET 2026 MBA Paper Analysis