The NMAT 2025 question paper with solutions is available here for free download. NMAT is conducted by GMAC (Graduate Management Admission Council), and the paper carries 108 questions across three sections - Language Skills, Quantitative Skills, and Logical Reasoning - to be attempted in 120 minutes. These are memory-based questions, as GMAC does not release the official paper.

NMAT 2025 Question Paper with Solutions Download PDF Check Solutions

NMAT 2025 Questions with Solutions

Question 1:

”In recent years, technological advancements in AI and machine learning have fundamentally altered how we approach daily tasks. The growing reliance on these systems brings both challenges and opportunities, especially in areas like automation, healthcare, and customer service.”
What is the primary concern regarding the increased use of AI in daily tasks as mentioned in the passage?

  • (A) AI technology is improving the healthcare system.
  • (B) The growing reliance on AI creates new challenges.
  • (C) AI technology is becoming cost-effective.
  • (D) The demand for automation is decreasing.

Question 2:

Identify the grammatically correct version of the sentence:
"The manager explained that the new policy would be beneficial for the employees, as well as improving productivity."

  • (A) beneficial for the employees, as well as improve productivity.
  • (B) beneficial to the employees, and also improves productivity.
  • (C) beneficial to the employees, and also improving productivity.
  • (D) beneficial for the employees, and also improving productivity.

Question 3:

Choose the word that is most nearly opposite in meaning to "benevolent."

  • (A) Generous
  • (B) Hostile
  • (C) Kind
  • (D) Supportive

Question 4:

If \( 2x + 3 = 11 \), what is the value of \( x \)?

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 5

Question 5:

A shopkeeper offers a discount of 20% on an article originally priced at ₹1,250. What is the selling price after the discount?

  • (A) ₹1,000
  • (B) ₹950
  • (C) ₹1,150
  • (D) ₹1,200

Question 6:

A table below shows the sales figures of a company over four months.

What is the average sales per month in the given period?

  • (A) ₹13.75 crores
  • (B) ₹14.25 crores
  • (C) ₹15 crores
  • (D) ₹16 crores

Question 7:

In a class of 10 students, K is to the left of L but to the right of M. N is to the left of M and to the right of J. J is to the left of K but to the right of L. Which of the following is true?

  • (A) J is to the left of M.
  • (B) K is to the right of N.
  • (C) L is to the left of K.
  • (D) J is to the right of L.

Question 8:

Statement 1: All engineers are good at problem-solving.
Statement 2: Some problem-solvers are good at coding.
Conclusion: Some engineers are good at coding.
Which of the following is correct?

  • (A) Conclusion is true.
  • (B) Conclusion is false.
  • (C) Conclusion cannot be determined.
  • (D) Both the statements are unrelated.

Question 9:

A man’s father is the brother of his mother’s brother. How is the man related to his mother’s brother?

  • (A) Nephew
  • (B) Son
  • (C) Brother
  • (D) Grandson

Question 10:

In a class of 50 students:
30 like cricket
20 like football
15 like both cricket and football
How many students like only cricket?

  • (A) 15
  • (B) 20
  • (C) 25
  • (D) 30

Question 11:

If the square represents dancers, circle represents the singers, and rectangle represents the chefs, then how many teachers are there who are not singers?

  • (A) 13
  • (B) 12
  • (C) 10
  • (D) 9

Question 12:

What will come in the place of x?

  • (A) N
  • (B) M
  • (C) O
  • (D) P
Detailed Solution

Question 13:

What will come in the place of the question mark in the question figure?

  • (A) 4
  • (B) 6
  • (C) 8
  • (D) 5

Question 14:

How many factors of 1080 contain exactly one trailing zero?

  • (A) 12
  • (B) 6
  • (C) 8
  • (D) 15

Question 15:

If the odds in favour of an event A are 3 : 4 and the odds against another independent event B are 7 : 4, find the probability that at least one of the events will happen.

  • (A) 7/18
  • (B) 7/11
  • (C) 5/8
  • (D) 8/19

Question 16:

Find the cost price of an article sold by the shopkeeper on selling the article at Rs. 240?
% Statement 1 I. If the article sold at 25% more the profit earned will be Rs. 40.
% Statement 2 II. Marked price of article is Rs. 400 and profit percentage is equal to discount percentage offered and profit percentage is 40%.

  • (A) If the question can be answered by using statement I alone.
  • (B) If the question can be answered by using statement II alone.
  • (C) If the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be answered by either statement alone.
  • (D) If the question can be answered by using either statement I or statement II alone.

Question 17:

Which digit will come in place of the question mark?


Question 18:

How many numbers \( x \) exist such that \( 10^{11}<x<10^{12} \) and the sum of digits of \( x \) is 1?


Question 19:

A and B are two junctions with 31 stations between them. In how many ways can a train go from A to B while halting at 6 stations between them such that any consecutive pair of halts (including A and B) are separated by an odd number of stations?


Question 20:

If \( 3 \log x = 2 \log y = \log x + \log y + 1/5 \), then what is the value of \( xy \)?


Question 21:

In how many ways can you create 5-letter words using the letters of the word 'AMBIDEXTROUS' such that there is no repetition of letters and there are exactly 3 consonants and 2 vowels?


Question 22:

What will be the output if the input is 26?

  • (A) 6
  • (B) 8
  • (C) 10
  • (D) 12

Question 23:

What will be the output of the 4th step if the input is 11?

  • (A) 3
  • (B) 5
  • (C) 7
  • (D) 9

Comprehension:

Funky Pizzeria was required to supply Pizzas to three different parties. The total number of pizzas it had to deliver was 800, 70% of which was to be delivered to Party 3 and the rest equally divided between Party 1 and Party 2. Pizzas could be of Thin Crust (T) or Deep Dish (D) variety and come in either Normal Cheese (NC) or Extra Cheese (EC) versions.

Read More Hence, there are 4 types of pizzas: T-NC, T-EC, D-NC, D-EC. Partial information about proportions of T and NC pizzas ordered by the three parties are given below. 


Question 24:

How many Thin Crust pizzas were to be delivered to Party 3?

  • (A) 398
  • (B) 162
  • (C) 196
  • (D) 364

Question 25:

For Party 2, if 50% of the Normal Cheese pizzas were of Thin Crust variety, what was the difference between the numbers of T-EC and D-EC pizzas to be delivered to Party 2?

  • (A) 18
  • (B) 12
  • (C) 30
  • (D) 24

Question 26:

How many Normal Cheese pizzas were required to be delivered to Party 1?

  • (A) 104
  • (B) 84
  • (C) 16
  • (D) 196

Question 27:

How many Thin Crust pizzas were to be delivered to Party 3?

  • (A) 398
  • (B) 162
  • (C) 196
  • (D) 364
Detailed Solution

Question 28:

For Party 2, if 50% of the Normal Cheese pizzas were of Thin Crust variety, what was the difference between the numbers of T-EC and D-EC pizzas to be delivered to Party 2?

  • (A) 18
  • (B) 12
  • (C) 30
  • (D) 24
Detailed Solution

Question 29:

How many Normal Cheese pizzas were required to be delivered to Party 1?

  • (A) 104
  • (B) 84
  • (C) 16
  • (D) 196
Detailed Solution

Question 30:

Persons A and B decide to arrive and meet sometime between 7 and 8 pm. Whoever arrives first will wait for ten minutes for the other person. If the other person doesn't turn up inside ten minutes, then the person waiting will leave. What is the probability that they will meet?

  • (A) $\frac{1}{2}$
  • (B) $\frac{1}{6}$
  • (C) $\frac{5}{6}$
  • (D) $\frac{11}{36}$

Question 31:

Rearrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph. A. I ate my breakfast with pleasure and was about to remove a plank to procure myself a little water when I heard a step, and looking through a small chink, I beheld a young creature, with a pail on her head, passing before my hovel.
B. As she walked along, seemingly incommoded by the burden, a young man met her, whose countenance expressed a deeper despondence.
C. It was indeed a paradise compared to the bleak forest, my former residence, the rain-dropping branches, and dank earth.
D. Yet she was meanly dressed, a coarse blue petticoat and a linen jacket being her only garb; her fair hair was plaited but not adorned: she looked patient yet sad.
E. The girl was young and of gentle demeanor, unlike what I have since found cottages and farmhouse servants to be.

  • (A) CBDEA
  • (B) CAEBD
  • (C) CAEDB
  • (D) CEBDA

Question 32:

Objects are not coloured in any ........., reduced or not; and thus we are free to .......... a scientific ontology which does not colour among the basic properties of its basic .............

  • (A) sense, rumour, comprise, embody
  • (B) drift, concur, subsume, entities
  • (C) demeanor, embark, include, bailiwick
  • (D) form, accept, inoculate, dexterity

Question 33:

It .......... that most people will not buy a new car if they don’t think they can pay for it.

  • (A) stands for reason
  • (B) stands to reason
  • (C) stands at reason
  • (D) stands in reason

Question 34:

Tiger Woods' tumble down (A) the world rankings continued this week (B) as he slip to eighth place (C) behind England's Paul Casey (D) who moved up one (E). A sentence is divided into five parts, with a number assigned for each part. Identify the part that has a grammatical error. The number of that part is the answer.

  • (A) Tiger Woods' tumble down
  • (B) the world rankings continued this week
  • (C) as he slip to eighth place
  • (D) behind England's Paul Casey

Question 35:

We left the little river of Kaligram, ______ as the blood circulation in a dying man, and dropped down in another current of a flowing stream which led us faster to a region where land and water seemed to merge into each other.

  • (A) sluggish, briskly
  • (B) indolent, undignified
  • (C) tardy, belated
  • (D) active, lively

Question 36:

Arrange the following sentences in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph.
(A) We are a long way over the green pastures.
(B) We have left the corn-fields behind, and have just come into the forest.
(C) Here, we halt at that small inn, which ornamented over the doors and windows with green branches for the Midsummer festival.
(D) The whole kitchen is hung round with branches of birch and the berries of the mountain-ash.
(E) The oat-cakes hang on long poles under the ceiling; the berries are suspended above the head of the old woman who is just scouring her brass kettle bright.

  • (A) Only A
  • (B) C, D and E
  • (C) B and C only
  • (D) E and D only

Question 37:

In the following questions a sentence is fragmented into four parts and labelled 1, 2, 3, and 4. One of the fragments may carry a grammatical/usage error in the context of the sentence. Choose the INCORRECT part for your answer. (If there is no error, choose 5.)
The thickly wooded states of (1) /Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand in central India (2)/are homes of millions of (3) indigenous tribal peoples. (4) No Error (5)

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4

Question 38:

From among the given alternatives, choose the one that best completes the sentence.
The impact of India’s projections as a market for nuclear reactors worth \$150 billion has transformed India’s image far too much to be _____.

  • (A) considered as a global leader
  • (B) left unrealistically evil
  • (C) crowned as king
  • (D) marginalised as puerile

Question 39:

From the following words, identify which word will make a similar analogous relationship as the first pair.
Pervers: Troublesome :: Subservient:

  • (A) Dominating
  • (B) Compliant
  • (C) Extreme
  • (D) Coincidental

Question 40:

In the following question, identify the INCORRECT sentence or sentences.
A. At the beginning of those two weeks, I evangelized courageous to my roommate.
B. Isn’t this fantastic? I would say. But I saw he does not have the same interest.
C. Slowly I retreated to my room. I became ashamed of the consumption,
D. and the only way to compare the shame is to an addict and his addiction.

  • (A) A only
  • (B) A, B and C
  • (C) B and D only
  • (D) D only

Question 41:

Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate word/set of words from the given options.
The audience was captivated by his _____ voice, and even the members at the back of the auditorium could clearly hear each word that was spoken.

  • (A) mellifluous
  • (B) sonorous
  • (C) mellisonant
  • (D) dulcet

Question 42:

Fill in the blanks in the passage with the most appropriate set of words from the options for each blank.
........ the view that each species has been independently created, I can see no explanation ........ this great fact ............ the classification of all organic beings; but, ......... the best of my judgment, it is explained ......... inheritance and the complex action of natural selection, entailing extinction and divergence of character, ......... we have seen illustrated in the diagram.

  • (A) At, of, in, to, through, as
  • (B) For, of, in, though, as
  • (C) On, of, at, to, through, to
  • (D) On, of, in, to, through, as

Question 43:

Choose the word which is opposite in meaning to "profligacy".

  • (A) Extravagance
  • (B) Lucrative
  • (C) Rhetoric
  • (D) Thrift

Question 44:

From the given options, select the synonym of the underlined word.
Once the shrubs begin to \(\underline{smother}\) the little plants, we have to move them.

  • (A) Abstain
  • (B) Frighten
  • (C) Unleash
  • (D) Stifle

Question 45:

Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate prepositions.
He thought the sunlight falling _____ the water _____ noon, moving river light too bright ____ look ___.

  • (A) about, in, at, to, for
  • (B) of, on, at, to, at
  • (C) about, in, at, to, for
  • (D) on, on, by, to, on

Question 46:

Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate pair of words from the given options.
Only a person who is _____ self-centred has the ___ and the stamina to write essays.

  • (A) brutally, canter
  • (B) conscientiously, endurance
  • (C) selfishly, diffidence
  • (D) congenially, effrontery

Question 47:

Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
If Sentence (C), "The leaders in the caravan came up, with some thirty horses, and we exchanged courteous greetings," is the first sentence, what is the order of other sentences after rearrangement?
A. It was an uninteresting, mealy-faced child, with a very marked obliquity of vision, but I felt much compassion for him; he wore such a look of patient suffering.
B. And for we wandered, but only on our return we saw animals far in the distance.
C. The leaders in the caravan came up, with some thirty horses, and we exchanged courteous greetings.
D. They vanished in space and we, leaving Abdul in charge of the horses, set off on our excursion.
E. One of the sandagurs, out of the convoy, carried in front of him a large bundle of clothing containing a boy.

  • (A) ADBE
  • (B) EBDA
  • (C) EDAB
  • (D) FBAD

Question 48:

This question consists of two capitalized words that have a certain relationship to each other, followed by a certain pair of words. Choose the pair that is RELATED to each other in the same way as the capitalized pair.
ASCERTAIN : DISREGARD :: DEVIOUS : ?

  • (A) Deceitful
  • (B) Cunning
  • (C) Honest
  • (D) Murky

Question 49:

This question consists of two capitalized words that have a certain relationship to each other, followed by a certain pair of words. Choose the pair that is RELATED to each other in the same way as the capitalized pair.
MASTICATE : RUMINATION

  • (A) Assimilate : Digestion
  • (B) Absorb : Nourishment
  • (C) Ingestion : Egestion
  • (D) Protein : Gestation

Question 50:

Out of the words given in the options below, choose the word that fits into the maximum number of blanks.
A. Admitting his crimes served as a _____ for the man.
B. The boy _____ his big brother who was teasing him.
C. The criminal felt a _____ when the priest absolved him of his sins.
D. The baby started smiling when the mother _____ him.
E. The judge _____ on the circumstances before coming to a decision.

  • (A) coddled
  • (B) deliberated
  • (C) catharsis
  • (D) peace

Question 51:

The given sentence has been broken up into four different parts. The error, if any, will be in any one part of the sentence. Select the option which contains the part of the sentence which has an error (spelling, grammatical, or contextual). If there is no error, choose option five.
By the first evening, (1) Israeli Air Force fighter-bomber aircraft had bombed (2) roughly 100 Hamas-operated security installations (3) during the first wave of the strike. (4)

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4

Question 52:

Each question has a sentence that has an underlined part. Choose the option which rephrases the underlined part in the most appropriate manner in terms of grammar and usage.
In an attempt to boost their profits, many edible oil-producing companies have been engaging themselves in propaganda against commonly used oils and promoting exotic and expensive varieties of oils \(\underline{as\ more\ healthier\ options.} \)
 

  • (A) as most healthiest options
  • (B) as less healthy option
  • (C) as healthier options
  • (D) as much healthiest option

Question 53:

Arrange the jumbled sentences in order.
A. When quizzed on his ‘surprising’ reaction after missing out on a century, Flintoff reckoned that scoring one run less than the hallowed figure of 100 didn’t matter as England had achieved victory.
B. The Lancastrian’s knock eventually won the match for his country and he was awarded the man-of-the-match prize.
C. It didn’t stop him from celebrating hundreds with much exuberance afterwards, but his temporary insight retains a special place in my memory.
D. In 2004, after being dismissed on 99 in an ODI against India at the Oval, the former England all-rounder Andrew Flintoff wore a contented smile as he walked off the field.
E. There’s something magical about the multiples of 10, which I have never understood.

  • (A) EADCB
  • (B) EACDB
  • (C) DECBA
  • (D) DBACE

Question 54:

Read the sentences and choose the option that best arranges them in a logical order.
A. To help control this runoff and to generate hydroelectric power, the Lower Colorado River Authority operates a series of dams that form the Texas Highland Lakes.
B. The eastern part of the city is relatively flat, whereas the western part and western suburbs consist of scenic rolling hills on the edge of the Texas Hill Country.
C. The city is also situated on the Balcones Fault, which, in much of Austin, runs roughly the same route as Loop 1 (Mopac Expressway).
D. The lakes also provide venues for boating, swimming, and other forms of recreation within several parks located on the lake shores.
E. Because the hills to the west are primarily limestone rock with a thin covering of topsoil, portions of the city are frequently subjected to flash floods from the runoff caused by thunderstorms.

  • (A) CBADE
  • (B) BEACD
  • (C) BEDAC
  • (D) CBEAD

Question 55:

When three different varieties of a chemical are mixed in the ratio 3 : 7 : 8, the cost price of the mixture is Rs.\ 15 per litre. However, when the same varieties are mixed in the ratio 2 : 5 : 9, the cost price of the mixture is Rs.\ 18 per litre. What is the cost price of the mixture formed (in Rs.\ per litre) when the same three varieties of chemical are mixed in the ratio 6 : 13 : 5?

  • (A) 12
  • (B) 15
  • (C) 9
  • (D) 18

Question 56:

There are 20 girls and 15 boys in a class. 1/5 of the girls and 2/5 of the boys bring their lunch from home. One of the students who brings lunch from home is chosen at random. Find the probability that the student is a girl.

  • (A) 1/3
  • (B) 2/3
  • (C) 1/2
  • (D) 2/5

Question 57:

Tickets for a concert were sold at Rs. 2, Rs. 4, and Re. 1. Twelve more tickets were sold at Rs. 4 instead of Rs. 2, and twice tickets were sold at Re. 1. If the total amount collected is Rs. 288, then how many tickets of Rs. 2 were sold?

  • (A) 30
  • (B) 24
  • (C) 25
  • (D) 28

Question 58:

What is the remainder when \( 256^{74} \) is divided by 231?

  • (A) 0
  • (B) 1
  • (C) 147
  • (D) 149

Question 59:

A and B are employed to complete a work. When A worked at twice his normal efficiency and B worked at half his normal efficiency, the work was completed in 17 days. If A had worked at five times his normal efficiency and B worked at one-fourth of his normal efficiency, the work would have been completed in 10 days. If B works alone, how many days does he need to complete the work?

  • (A) 21.25
  • (B) 23.75
  • (C) 25.25
  • (D) 20.75

Question 60:

The questions given below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer:
The number of employees from company A and B is 900 and 1015 respectively. Number of male employees from A is what percent of the number of female employees from A?
Statement I: The number of male employees from B is 10% more than that of the number of male employees from A. The number of female employees from B is 15% more than that of the number of female employees from A.
Statement II: The number of female employees from B is 175 more than that of the number of female employees from A and the difference between the number of male and female employees from B is 135.

  • (A) Statement I alone is sufficient, whereas Statement II alone is not sufficient.
  • (B) Statement II alone is sufficient, whereas Statement I alone is not sufficient.
  • (C) Either Statement I alone or Statement II alone is sufficient.
  • (D) Both the statements together are necessary.

Question 61:

In each of these questions, two equations (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve both the equations and give answer:
I. \( 14x^2 - (7 + 2\sqrt{2})x + 3.50\sqrt{2} = 0 \)
II. \( \sqrt{(4y + 1)} - \sqrt{(y + 3)} = 2 \)

  • (A) \( x>y \)
  • (B) \( x<y \)
  • (C) \( x \geq y \)
  • (D) \( x \leq y \)

Question 62:

Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer:
A, B, and C are three pipes in a tank. A and B are outlet pipes and C is an inlet pipe. The ratio of the efficiency of A : B is 3 : 1 and that of B : C is 1 : 2. What is the capacity of the tank?
Statement I: If all three pipes are opened, the water in the tank will decrease at the rate of 30 litres per minute.
Statement II: The time taken by C to fill the tank is 60 minutes less than the time taken by B to empty the tank.

  • (A) If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
  • (B) If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
  • (C) If data either in statement I alone or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
  • (D) If data in both statements I \& II together are necessary to answer the question.

Question 63:

There are three groups of students M1, M2, and M3, having 20, 30, and 40 students respectively. If one student each from M1 and M3 leave their respective groups and join M2, the average weight of M1 and M3 decreases by 2 kg each and the average weight of M2 increases by 3 kg. By how much (in kg) does twice the average weight of M2 differ from the sum of the average weights of M1 and M3?

  • (A) 20
  • (B) 26
  • (C) 38
  • (D) 19

Question 64:

School Administrator: The number of fourteen year olds in Britain who are considered "gifted" that is who score higher than 90% of their peers on the mandatory secondary school entrance exam (MSEEE) - has increased steadily over the past decade.
If the school administrator's findings are correct, which of the following can be concluded on the basis of those findings?

  • (A) There has been at least some improvement in British education over the past decade.
  • (B) The number of British fourteen year olds who are not considered gifted has decreased over the past decade.
  • (C) The number of British fourteen year olds taking the MSEEE has increased over the past decade.
  • (D) Preparation for the MSEEE has improved in British schools over the past decade.

Question 65:

The complaints in Tatkal bookings are increasing day by day. Overwhelmed by the number of complaints, the Railway department has decided to reduce the advance reservation period from two days to one day. Besides this, there will be no refund upon cancellation of confirmed Tatkal tickets, except in the case of cancelled trains or delays in arrival or departure times of trains.
Which of the following options cannot be a conclusion that can be drawn from the given information?

  • (A) No refund will be made upon the cancellation of confirmed tickets in any case.
  • (B) Some of the trains may get cancelled or run later than the original schedule.
  • (C) The Railway department is making efforts to improve the scenario by changing some rules.
  • (D) The Tatkal booking system is not functioning well, the Railway department realizes this.

Question 66:

Two trains A and B start simultaneously in the opposite direction from two points A and B and arrive at their destinations 9 and 4 hours respectively after their meeting each other. At what rate does the second train B travel if the first train travels at 80 km per hour.

  • (A) 100 km/hr
  • (B) 110 km/hr
  • (C) 120 km/hr
  • (D) 130 km/hr

Question 67:

A pedestrian and a cyclist start simultaneously towards each other from Aurangabad and Paithan which are 40 km apart and meet 2 hours after the start. Then they resumed their trips and the cyclist arrives at Aurangabad 7 hours 30 minutes earlier than the pedestrian arrives at Paithan. Which of these could be the speed of the pedestrian?

  • (A) 3 km/hr
  • (B) 4 km/hr
  • (C) 5 km/hr
  • (D) 6 km/hr

Question 68:

An ant climbing up a vertical pole ascends 12 meters and slips down 5 meters in every alternate hour. If the pole is 63 meters high how long will it take it to reach the top?

  • (A) 18 hours
  • (B) 17 hours
  • (C) 16 hours 35 minutes
  • (D) 16 hours 40 minutes

Question 69:

A tank of capacity 25 litres has an inlet and an outlet tap. If both are opened simultaneously, the tank is filled in 5 minutes. But if the outlet flow rate is doubled and taps opened the tank never gets filled up. Which of the following can be outlet flow rate in litres/min?

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 6
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 3

Question 70:

Developing a line of smartphones would require a research-and-development push that would directly trade off with our R & D efforts on five other products. Plus, a line of MP3 players - another product we have discussed developing - has an inherently higher profit potential than a line of smartphones and would be cheaper to manufacture.
The electronics manufacturer's statements, if true, most strongly support which one of the following?

  • (A) Developing a line of MP3 players would not trade off with the R & D efforts on an other products.
  • (B) The manufacturer is more likely to make money by developing a line of MP3 players than it is by developing a line of smartphones.
  • (C) Developing a line of smartphones would be a bad business decision for the manufacturer.
  • (D) The manufacturer will make money if it develops a line of MP3 players.

Question 71:

A shopkeeper marks his goods 40% above the cost price and then allows a discount of 25%. His profit percent is

  • (A) 5%
  • (B) 10%
  • (C) 15%
  • (D) 12%

Question 72:

A shopkeeper sells an item for \(\textrm{Rs }960\) and gains 20%. The cost price of the item is

  • (A) Rs 768
  • (B) Rs 820
  • (C) Rs 850
  • (D) Rs 800

Question 73:

The average of 11 numbers is 50. If the average of the first six numbers is 49 and that of the last six numbers is 52, then the sixth number is

  • (A) 54
  • (B) 56
  • (C) 58
  • (D) 52

Question 74:

A train 180 m long crosses a platform 270 m long in 30 seconds. The speed of the train is

  • (A) 54 km/h
  • (B) 45 km/h
  • (C) 60 km/h
  • (D) 50 km/h

Question 75:

A boat covers 12 km downstream in 2 hours and returns the same distance upstream in 3 hours. The speed of the stream is

  • (A) 2 km/h
  • (B) 1 km/h
  • (C) 1.5 km/h
  • (D) 0.5 km/h

Question 76:

A can finish a piece of work in 12 days and B can finish it in 15 days. Working together, they will finish the work in

  • (A) 7 days
  • (B) 6 days
  • (C) 6 and 2/3 days
  • (D) 7 and 1/2 days

Question 77:

A pipe A can fill a tank in 6 hours and pipe B can empty the full tank in 8 hours. If both pipes are opened together, the tank will be filled in

  • (A) 20 hours
  • (B) 18 hours
  • (C) 24 hours
  • (D) 12 hours

Question 78:

If 20% of \(a\) equals \(b\), then \(b\%\) of 20 is the same as

  • (A) 4% of a
  • (B) 5% of a
  • (C) 20% of a
  • (D) 10% of a

Question 79:

A man spends 75% of his income. If his income increases by 20% and his expenditure increases by 10%, his savings increase by

  • (A) 40%
  • (B) 30%
  • (C) 45%
  • (D) 50%

Question 80:

The number of different ways in which the letters of the word LEADER can be arranged is

  • (A) 720
  • (B) 240
  • (C) 360
  • (D) 120

Question 81:

Two fair dice are rolled together. The probability that the sum of the numbers shown is 9 is

  • (A) 1/6
  • (B) 1/9
  • (C) 1/12
  • (D) 1/8

Question 82:

The value of \(\sqrt{0.0064}\) is

  • (A) 0.08
  • (B) 0.008
  • (C) 0.8
  • (D) 0.064

Question 83:

The highest common factor (HCF) of 72, 108 and 180 is

  • (A) 18
  • (B) 36
  • (C) 24
  • (D) 12

Question 84:

A 40 litre mixture contains milk and water in the ratio 3:1. The quantity of water that must be added so that the ratio becomes 3:2 is

  • (A) 6 litres
  • (B) 8 litres
  • (C) 5 litres
  • (D) 10 litres

Question 85:

If \(a^2+b^2=41\) and \(ab=20\), then the value of \(a+b\) is

  • (A) 7
  • (B) 9
  • (C) 11
  • (D) 8

Question 86:

Choose the word that is the closest in meaning (synonym) to the word: ABATE

  • (A) Increase
  • (B) Subside
  • (C) Confuse
  • (D) Support

Question 87:

Choose the word that is most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning (antonym) to the word: BENEVOLENT

  • (A) Generous
  • (B) Kind
  • (C) Malevolent
  • (D) Cheerful

Question 88:

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word: She was praised for her _____ handling of the crisis.

  • (A) adept
  • (B) inept
  • (C) reluctant
  • (D) careless

Question 89:

Fill in the blank with the correct form of the verb: The manager asked the team to _____ the report by Friday.

  • (A) submit
  • (B) submits
  • (C) submitting
  • (D) submitted

Question 90:

Identify the part of the sentence that contains an error: Neither of the two boys (A) / have completed (B) / their homework (C) / on time (D).

  • (A) Neither of the two boys
  • (B) have completed
  • (C) their homework
  • (D) on time

Question 91:

Choose the grammatically correct sentence.

  • (A) He is senior than me.
  • (B) He is more senior to me.
  • (C) He is senior to me.
  • (D) He is senior from me.

Question 92:

Arrange the four sentences P, Q, R and S in the correct order to form a coherent paragraph. P: It began to rain heavily. Q: We were walking in the park. R: So we ran for shelter. S: Suddenly the sky turned dark.

  • (A) QSPR
  • (B) QPSR
  • (C) SQPR
  • (D) PQRS

Question 93:

Read the passage and answer the question. Passage: Remote work has reshaped how companies operate. While it offers flexibility and cuts commuting time, it also blurs the line between professional and personal life, and can weaken team bonding when colleagues rarely meet face to face. Question: According to the passage, a drawback of remote work is

  • (A) Reduced flexibility
  • (B) Longer commutes
  • (C) Weaker team bonding
  • (D) Higher office rent

Question 94:

Read the passage and answer the question. Passage: Remote work has reshaped how companies operate. While it offers flexibility and cuts commuting time, it also blurs the line between professional and personal life. Question: In the passage, the word blurs most nearly means

  • (A) Sharpens
  • (B) Makes unclear
  • (C) Removes
  • (D) Strengthens

Question 95:

Pointing to a man, a woman said, His mother is the only daughter of my mother. How is the woman related to the man?

  • (A) Sister
  • (B) Grandmother
  • (C) Mother
  • (D) Aunt

Question 96:

A is the brother of B. B is the sister of C. C is the father of D. How is A related to D?

  • (A) Father
  • (B) Uncle
  • (C) Brother
  • (D) Grandfather

Question 97:

If P x Q means P is the father of Q, and P + Q means P is the brother of Q, then which expression shows that A is the uncle of B?

  • (A) A + C x B
  • (B) A x C + B
  • (C) A + B x C
  • (D) C x A + B

Question 98:

A man said, That boy's father is my father's son, and I have no brothers. Who is the boy to the man?

  • (A) Nephew
  • (B) Son
  • (C) Cousin
  • (D) Grandson

Question 99:

Statements: All roses are flowers. Some flowers fade quickly. Conclusion: Some roses fade quickly. Choose the correct option.

  • (A) Definitely true
  • (B) Definitely false
  • (C) Does not necessarily follow
  • (D) Both statements are conclusions

Question 100:

Statements: Some pens are books. All books are papers. Conclusions: I. Some pens are papers. II. All papers are books. Which conclusion follows?

  • (A) Only I follows
  • (B) Only II follows
  • (C) Both follow
  • (D) Neither follows

Question 101:

Statements: No cat is a dog. All dogs are animals. Conclusion: No cat is an animal. The conclusion

  • (A) Follows
  • (B) Does not follow
  • (C) Cannot be determined from data
  • (D) Both parts follow

Question 102:

Statements: All engineers are creative. Some creative people are rich. Conclusion: Some engineers are rich. The conclusion

  • (A) Follows
  • (B) Does not follow
  • (C) Is definitely true
  • (D) Both parts follow

Question 103:

Statement: All the students passed the examination. Which of the following is an implicit assumption in this statement?

  • (A) The examination was easy.
  • (B) The students appeared for the examination.
  • (C) No one had failed earlier.
  • (D) The teacher was strict.

Question 104:

If + means x, x means -, - means /, and / means +, then the value of 6 + 2 - 4 / 3 is

  • (A) 12
  • (B) 6
  • (C) 14
  • (D) 8

Question 105:

If sky is called sea, sea is called water, and water is called air, then where do fish live?

  • (A) sea
  • (B) water
  • (C) air
  • (D) sky

Question 106:

A man walks 5 km towards the north, then turns right and walks 3 km, then turns right again and walks 5 km. How far is he from his starting point?

  • (A) 3 km
  • (B) 5 km
  • (C) 8 km
  • (D) 13 km

Question 107:

A person facing north turns 90 degrees clockwise, then 180 degrees, and finally 90 degrees anticlockwise. Which direction is the person facing now?

  • (A) North
  • (B) South
  • (C) East
  • (D) West

Question 108:

Six friends sit in a row facing north. P is to the left of Q but to the right of R. S is to the right of Q, and T sits between Q and S. Who is sitting at the extreme left?

  • (A) P
  • (B) Q
  • (C) R
  • (D) S

Question 109:

Choose the odd one out.

  • (A) Square
  • (B) Rectangle
  • (C) Triangle
  • (D) Rhombus

Question 110:

A clock shows 4 o'clock. What time will its mirror image show?

  • (A) 8:00
  • (B) 7:00
  • (C) 9:00
  • (D) 6:00

NMAT 2025 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme Explained

NMAT 2025 is a computer-based test of single-best-answer MCQs, with each of the three sections individually timed.

  • Total questions: 108 MCQs, 36 in each of the three sections
  • Sections: Language Skills (36), Quantitative Skills (36), Logical Reasoning (36)
  • Duration: 120 minutes, with sectional limits of 28, 52, and 40 minutes
  • Total marks: 324, with 3 marks for every correct answer
  • Marking scheme: +3 for a correct answer and no negative marking

High-Weightage Areas in NMAT 2025 to Focus On First

All three sections carry equal weight at 36 questions each, so balance your prep, but a few topics recur heavily in the memory-based paper.

  • Quantitative Skills: arithmetic (percentages, ratio, time and work, averages) dominates, with number systems and probability
  • Language Skills: fill in the blanks, para jumbles, and synonyms-antonyms lead, with a reading comprehension set
  • Logical Reasoning: blood relations, syllogisms, and coding-decoding appear most, plus arrangement puzzles
  • Speed matters: Quantitative Skills gets 52 minutes for 36 questions, so pace is as important as accuracy

How to Use the NMAT 2025 Question Paper for Practice

Treat this paper as a timed mock first, then review every question with its detailed solution.

  • Attempt all 108 questions in 120 minutes under exam-like conditions before checking answers
  • Since there is no negative marking, attempt every question and never leave one blank
  • Review each solution using the Detailed Solution link on every question below
  • Redo the sections where you lost the most time, especially Quantitative Skills

NMAT 2025 Question Paper FAQs

Ques. How many questions are there in the NMAT 2025 question paper?

Ans. The NMAT paper has 108 questions in total, split equally into three sections of 36 each - Language Skills, Quantitative Skills, and Logical Reasoning - to be solved in 120 minutes.

Ques. Is there negative marking in NMAT 2025?

Ans. No. NMAT has no negative marking. Every correct answer gives 3 marks and there is no penalty for a wrong answer, so you should attempt all 108 questions.

Ques. Does GMAC release the official NMAT 2025 question paper?

Ans. No, GMAC does not release the official NMAT question paper. The questions here are memory-based, reconstructed to match the actual exam pattern, topics, and difficulty for practice.

Ques. Where can I download the NMAT 2025 question paper with solutions PDF for free?

Ans. You can download the NMAT 2025 question paper and solutions as free PDFs from the download table at the top of this page, and practise all 108 questions with detailed solutions below.