The NMAT 2024 question paper with solutions is available here for free practice. NMAT is conducted by GMAC (Graduate Management Admission Council), and the paper carries 108 questions across three sections - Language Skills, Quantitative Skills, and Logical Reasoning - to be attempted in 120 minutes. These are memory-based questions, as GMAC does not release the official paper.

NMAT 2024 Question Paper with Solutions Download PDF Check Solutions

NMAT 2024 Questions with Solutions

Question 1:

24 men can complete a piece of work in 16 days. 16 women can complete the same work in 12 days. 8 men and 8 women started working on the task. After 6 days, x men were added to the group such that the work was finished in 4 more days. Find the value of x.

  • (A) 24
  • (B) 32
  • (C) 36
  • (D) 40

Question 2:

There are 3 chess players in the 1st year, 4 chess players in the 2nd year, and 5 chess players in the 3rd year of college. What is the probability of selecting a team of 4 chess players if at least one player is from the 1st year?

  • (A) 41/55
  • (B) 27/110
  • (C) 19/66
  • (D) 37/60

Question 3:

A number \( x = 3.1212121212\ldots \). By what least number should we multiply \( x \), so that we obtain an integer?

  • (A) 3
  • (B) 9
  • (C) 30
  • (D) 33

Question 4:

If \( x^2 + y^2 + z^2 = 3 \), which of the following cannot be the value of \( xy + yz + zx \)?

  • (A) -2
  • (B) -1
  • (C) 0
  • (D) 1

Question 5:

A company manufactures only three types of vehicles: bikes, cars, and trucks. In 2021, the number of bikes manufactured was 40% of the number of bikes manufactured in 2022. The number of trucks manufactured in 2022 was 25% more than in 2021. In 2022, the number of trucks manufactured was the average of the number of bikes and cars manufactured that year. The company manufactured 10% fewer cars in 2021 as compared to 2022. The total number of vehicles produced in 2022 was 120,000. In 2021, the ratio of bikes and trucks manufactured was 1:4. How many cars were produced in 2022?

  • (A) 50000
  • (B) 54000
  • (C) 55000
  • (D) 60000

Question 6:

Some students are sitting in a row. Amrit is at 19th position from the left. Rahul is 8th to the left of Amrit and 6th to the left of Dhaval. If Dhaval is 12th from the right, how many students are there in the row?

  • (A) 28
  • (B) 29
  • (C) 30
  • (D) 31

Question 7:

A, B, C, D, E, and F form three couples that are traveling on a train. Their ages are 24, 28, 29, 32, 34, and 35 years, not necessarily in the same order. Two of them are assigned upper berths, while one each is assigned a lower, a middle, a side lower, and a side upper berth.

The sum of the ages of the females is 14 years less than the sum of the ages of the males.
E is the youngest of the males and is assigned one of the side berths.
None of the females is assigned an upper berth.
The 32-year-old is assigned the middle berth.
D is 28 years old and is assigned the middle lower berth.
Neither A nor C is assigned an upper berth.
F is older than B. Which of the following statements is definitely true?

  • (A) C is older than three other people.
  • (B) A is assigned a lower berth.
  • (C) The two oldest persons are assigned upper berths.
  • (D) A is older than B.

Question 8:

Choose the pair that best expresses a similar relationship to the one expressed in the given pair: enchant : captivate :: urge : ?

  • (A) confuse
  • (B) avert
  • (C) disagree
  • (D) enforce

Question 9:

What is the remainder when \(2^{31}\) is divided by 7?

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 5

Question 10:

What is the units digit of \(7^{95}\)?

  • (A) 7
  • (B) 9
  • (C) 1
  • (D) 3

Question 11:

How many positive factors (divisors) does 360 have?

  • (A) 24
  • (B) 20
  • (C) 18
  • (D) 12

Question 12:

A number is first increased by 20% and then the result is decreased by 20%. What is the net percentage change?

  • (A) 4% increase
  • (B) No change
  • (C) 4% decrease
  • (D) 2% decrease

Question 13:

If 40% of a number is 240, then 75% of the same number is:

  • (A) 400
  • (B) 450
  • (C) 500
  • (D) 540

Question 14:

In an election between two candidates, the winner secured 60% of the total valid votes and won by a margin of 900 votes. Find the total number of valid votes.

  • (A) 3600
  • (B) 4000
  • (C) 4500
  • (D) 5400

Question 15:

A shopkeeper buys an article for Rs 80 and sells it for Rs 100. What is his profit percentage?

  • (A) 20%
  • (B) 25%
  • (C) 15%
  • (D) 30%

Question 16:

An article sold for Rs 660 yields a profit of 10%. What is its cost price?

  • (A) 600
  • (B) 620
  • (C) 640
  • (D) 660

Question 17:

By selling an article for Rs 450, a man loses 10%. At what price should he sell it to gain 20%?

  • (A) 540
  • (B) 560
  • (C) 580
  • (D) 600

Question 18:

What is the average of the first 10 natural numbers?

  • (A) 5
  • (B) 5.5
  • (C) 6
  • (D) 4.5

Question 19:

The average of 5 numbers is 27. If one of the numbers, 35, is removed, what is the average of the remaining four?

  • (A) 25
  • (B) 26
  • (C) 24
  • (D) 27

Question 20:

The average age of 11 players in a team is 28 years. If the captain is 33 years old, what is the average age of the remaining 10 players?

  • (A) 26.5
  • (B) 27
  • (C) 27.5
  • (D) 28

Question 21:

A can complete a piece of work in 12 days and B can complete it in 18 days. Working together, how many days will they take to finish the work?

  • (A) 6 days
  • (B) 7.2 days
  • (C) 8 days
  • (D) 9 days

Question 22:

Two numbers are in the ratio 3 : 5 and their sum is 64. What is the larger number?

  • (A) 24
  • (B) 32
  • (C) 40
  • (D) 45

Question 23:

If A : B = 2 : 3 and B : C = 4 : 5, and A = 16, what is the value of C?

  • (A) 20
  • (B) 24
  • (C) 28
  • (D) 30

Question 24:

A train 120 metres long crosses a pole in 6 seconds. What is the speed of the train in km/h?

  • (A) 60 km/h
  • (B) 72 km/h
  • (C) 80 km/h
  • (D) 90 km/h

Question 25:

A man travels from town P to town Q at 30 km/h and returns along the same road at 60 km/h. What is his average speed for the whole journey?

  • (A) 40 km/h
  • (B) 45 km/h
  • (C) 48 km/h
  • (D) 50 km/h

Question 26:

Two trains start at the same time from two stations 180 km apart and move towards each other at 40 km/h and 50 km/h respectively. After how much time will they meet?

  • (A) 1.5 hours
  • (B) 2 hours
  • (C) 2.5 hours
  • (D) 3 hours

Question 27:

A fair die is rolled once. What is the probability of getting a prime number?

  • (A) \(\dfrac{1}{3}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{1}{6}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{1}{2}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{2}{3}\)

Question 28:

Two fair coins are tossed together. What is the probability of getting at least one head?

  • (A) \(\dfrac{3}{4}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{1}{2}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{1}{4}\)
  • (D) \(1\)

Question 29:

A bag contains 4 red balls and 6 blue balls. One ball is drawn at random. What is the probability that it is red?

  • (A) \(\dfrac{3}{5}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{1}{5}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{1}{2}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{2}{5}\)

Question 30:

In how many distinct ways can the letters of the word LEADER be arranged?

  • (A) 720
  • (B) 180
  • (C) 360
  • (D) 120

Question 31:

In how many ways can a committee of 3 members be chosen from a group of 8 people?

  • (A) 56
  • (B) 64
  • (C) 48
  • (D) 72

Question 32:

How many 3-digit numbers can be formed using the digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 without repeating any digit?

  • (A) 120
  • (B) 100
  • (C) 80
  • (D) 60

Question 33:

In what ratio must rice costing Rs 30 per kg be mixed with rice costing Rs 40 per kg so that the mixture costs Rs 34 per kg?

  • (A) 2 : 3
  • (B) 3 : 2
  • (C) 4 : 3
  • (D) 3 : 4

Question 34:

A 40-litre mixture contains milk and water in the ratio 3 : 1. How many litres of water must be added to make the ratio 1 : 1?

  • (A) 10 litres
  • (B) 15 litres
  • (C) 20 litres
  • (D) 25 litres

Question 35:

20 litres of a 20% alcohol solution is mixed with 30 litres of a 30% alcohol solution. What is the alcohol concentration of the final mixture?

  • (A) 26%
  • (B) 25%
  • (C) 24%
  • (D) 28%

Question 36:

If \(x + \dfrac{1}{x} = 4\), then what is the value of \(x^2 + \dfrac{1}{x^2}\)?

  • (A) 18
  • (B) 12
  • (C) 16
  • (D) 14

Question 37:

Solve for x: \(3x - 7 = 2x + 5\).

  • (A) 10
  • (B) 11
  • (C) 12
  • (D) 13

Question 38:

If \(2x + 3y = 12\) and \(x = 3\), what is the value of y?

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 2

Question 39:

If \(\alpha\) and \(\beta\) are the roots of \(x^2 - 5x + 6 = 0\), what is the value of \(\alpha^2 + \beta^2\)?

  • (A) 13
  • (B) 12
  • (C) 25
  • (D) 11

Question 40:

Choose the word that is closest in meaning to the given word: BENEVOLENT

  • (A) Kind
  • (B) Cruel
  • (C) Wealthy
  • (D) Clever

Question 41:

Choose the word that is most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to the given word: FRUGAL

  • (A) Thrifty
  • (B) Extravagant
  • (C) Economical
  • (D) Careful

Question 42:

Choose the word that is closest in meaning to the given word: OBSCURE

  • (A) Clear
  • (B) Bright
  • (C) Vague
  • (D) Famous

Question 43:

Choose the word that is most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to the given word: RELUCTANT

  • (A) Unwilling
  • (B) Hesitant
  • (C) Averse
  • (D) Eager

Question 44:

Choose the word that is closest in meaning to the given word: METICULOUS

  • (A) Careful
  • (B) Careless
  • (C) Lazy
  • (D) Hasty

Question 45:

Choose the word that is most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to the given word: ABUNDANT

  • (A) Plentiful
  • (B) Scarce
  • (C) Ample
  • (D) Copious

Question 46:

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word: The manager was so ______ with praise that employees rarely knew whether they had done well.

  • (A) generous
  • (B) lavish
  • (C) sparing
  • (D) liberal

Question 47:

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word: Her ______ comments about his work hurt him deeply, as they were sharp and bitter.

  • (A) flattering
  • (B) gentle
  • (C) kind
  • (D) caustic

Question 48:

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word: The new law will ______ all previous regulations on the subject.

  • (A) supersede
  • (B) support
  • (C) obey
  • (D) delay

Question 49:

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word: He is so ______ that he believes almost every rumour he hears.

  • (A) sceptical
  • (B) gullible
  • (C) cautious
  • (D) shrewd

Question 50:

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word: The findings of the first study were ______ by three later experiments, confirming the result.

  • (A) refuted
  • (B) ignored
  • (C) corroborated
  • (D) questioned

Question 51:

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word: After running the marathon, she had a ______ appetite and ate everything on the table.

  • (A) poor
  • (B) mild
  • (C) slight
  • (D) ravenous

Question 52:

Choose the grammatically correct sentence.

  • (A) Each of the students has submitted his assignment.
  • (B) Each of the students have submitted their assignment.
  • (C) Each of the student have submitted his assignment.
  • (D) Each of the students have submitted his assignment.

Question 53:

Choose the grammatically correct sentence.

  • (A) The list of items are on the table.
  • (B) The list of items is on the table.
  • (C) The list of items were on the table.
  • (D) The list of item are on the table.

Question 54:

Choose the grammatically correct sentence.

  • (A) He is one of those who always helps his friends.
  • (B) He is one of those who always is helping his friends.
  • (C) He is one of those who always help their friends.
  • (D) He is one of those who always helping their friends.

Question 55:

Choose the grammatically correct sentence.

  • (A) Neither the teacher nor the students was present.
  • (B) Neither the teacher nor the students is present.
  • (C) Neither the teacher nor the students has present.
  • (D) Neither the teacher nor the students were present.

Question 56:

Choose the grammatically correct sentence.

  • (A) I look forward to meeting you next week.
  • (B) I look forward to meet you next week.
  • (C) I look forward for meeting you next week.
  • (D) I look forward to met you next week.

Question 57:

Choose the grammatically correct sentence.

  • (A) She is more senior than me in the office.
  • (B) She is senior to me in the office.
  • (C) She is more senior to me in the office.
  • (D) She is senior than me in the office.

Question 58:

Arrange the sentences P, Q, R and S in the correct order to form a coherent paragraph. P: However, the invention of the printing press changed everything. Q: For centuries, books were copied by hand. R: This made them rare and expensive. S: Suddenly, books could be produced quickly and cheaply.

  • (A) QPRS
  • (B) QRSP
  • (C) QRPS
  • (D) PQRS

Question 59:

Arrange the sentences P, Q, R and S in the correct order to form a coherent paragraph. P: The team worked overtime for weeks. Q: A new project was assigned to the marketing team. R: Finally, the campaign was launched successfully. S: They brainstormed several creative ideas.

  • (A) QPSR
  • (B) SQPR
  • (C) QSRP
  • (D) QSPR

Question 60:

Arrange the sentences P, Q, R and S in the correct order to form a coherent paragraph. P: It began to rain heavily. Q: We decided to go for a picnic. R: So we cancelled our plans. S: We packed food and gathered our friends.

  • (A) QSPR
  • (B) QPSR
  • (C) SQPR
  • (D) QSRP

Question 61:

Arrange the sentences P, Q, R and S in the correct order to form a coherent paragraph. P: Gandhi returned to India in 1915. Q: He was born in Porbandar in 1869. R: He soon became a leader of the freedom movement. S: He studied law in London.

  • (A) QPSR
  • (B) QSPR
  • (C) SQPR
  • (D) QRSP

Question 62:

Arrange the sentences P, Q, R and S in the correct order to form a coherent paragraph. P: This discovery revolutionized medicine. Q: Alexander Fleming noticed mould killing bacteria. R: In 1928, he was studying bacteria in his lab. S: He named the substance penicillin.

  • (A) QRSP
  • (B) RQPS
  • (C) RQSP
  • (D) QRPS

Question 63:

Arrange the sentences P, Q, R and S in the correct order to form a coherent paragraph. P: They cut down thousands of trees. Q: The villagers needed more farmland. R: As a result, the soil began to erode. S: The barren land could no longer hold water.

  • (A) QRPS
  • (B) PQRS
  • (C) QPSR
  • (D) QPRS

Question 64:

Read the passage and answer the question. Passage: The Sundarbans, a vast mangrove forest in the delta of the Ganges, is home to the Royal Bengal Tiger. These tigers have adapted to swimming in the salty waters and hunting in the dense swamps. Rising sea levels, however, now threaten their habitat. Conservationists warn that without urgent action, large parts of the forest could disappear within decades. Question: According to the passage, what threatens the tigers' habitat?

  • (A) Rising sea levels
  • (B) Hunting by poachers
  • (C) Loss of prey
  • (D) Deforestation for farming

Question 65:

Read the passage and answer the question. Passage: The Sundarbans, a vast mangrove forest in the delta of the Ganges, is home to the Royal Bengal Tiger. These tigers have adapted to swimming in the salty waters and hunting in the dense swamps. Rising sea levels, however, now threaten their habitat. Conservationists warn that without urgent action, large parts of the forest could disappear within decades. Question: The passage suggests that the Royal Bengal Tigers of the Sundarbans:

  • (A) Avoid water entirely
  • (B) Have adapted to swim in salty water
  • (C) Are found across all of India
  • (D) Hunt only on dry land

Question 66:

Read the passage and answer the question. Passage: Remote work has reshaped modern offices. Many companies report that employees are more productive at home, saving hours once lost to commuting. Yet some managers worry that collaboration and team spirit suffer when colleagues rarely meet in person. To balance both, several firms now follow a hybrid model, mixing office days with work-from-home. Question: What is a concern raised by some managers about remote work?

  • (A) Employees become less productive
  • (B) Commuting time increases
  • (C) Collaboration and team spirit may suffer
  • (D) Salaries rise sharply

Question 67:

Read the passage and answer the question. Passage: Remote work has reshaped modern offices. Many companies report that employees are more productive at home, saving hours once lost to commuting. Yet some managers worry that collaboration and team spirit suffer when colleagues rarely meet in person. To balance both, several firms now follow a hybrid model, mixing office days with work-from-home. Question: The hybrid model mentioned in the passage refers to:

  • (A) Working only from home
  • (B) Working only from the office
  • (C) Hiring more managers
  • (D) Mixing office days with work-from-home

Question 68:

Read the passage and answer the question. Passage: Honeybees communicate the location of food through a waggle dance. The angle of the dance relative to the sun tells other bees the direction, while the duration indicates the distance. This behaviour was first decoded by Karl von Frisch, who won a Nobel Prize for it. It remains one of the clearest examples of symbolic communication in the animal world. Question: In the waggle dance, the duration of the dance indicates:

  • (A) The distance to the food
  • (B) The direction of the food
  • (C) The type of food
  • (D) The number of bees

Question 69:

Read the passage and answer the question. Passage: Honeybees communicate the location of food through a waggle dance. The angle of the dance relative to the sun tells other bees the direction, while the duration indicates the distance. This behaviour was first decoded by Karl von Frisch, who won a Nobel Prize for it. It remains one of the clearest examples of symbolic communication in the animal world. Question: Karl von Frisch is mentioned in the passage as the person who:

  • (A) Discovered honey
  • (B) Decoded the waggle dance
  • (C) Trained bees to dance
  • (D) Invented a new dance

Question 70:

Choose the option that best completes the analogy: Ornithologist : Birds :: Entomologist : ?

  • (A) Plants
  • (B) Fish
  • (C) Insects
  • (D) Reptiles

Question 71:

Choose the option that best completes the analogy: Pen : Write :: Knife : ?

  • (A) Sharp
  • (B) Kitchen
  • (C) Metal
  • (D) Cut

Question 72:

Choose the option that best completes the analogy: Foal : Horse :: Cub : ?

  • (A) Bear
  • (B) Dog
  • (C) Cat
  • (D) Cow

Question 73:

Choose the option that best completes the analogy: Book : Chapter :: Play : ?

  • (A) Stage
  • (B) Act
  • (C) Actor
  • (D) Audience

Question 74:

Choose the option that best completes the analogy: Thirst : Water :: Hunger : ?

  • (A) Eat
  • (B) Stomach
  • (C) Food
  • (D) Cook

Question 75:

Choose the option that best completes the analogy: Teacher : School :: Doctor : ?

  • (A) Patient
  • (B) Medicine
  • (C) Nurse
  • (D) Hospital

Question 76:

Pointing to a photograph, a man said, 'She is the daughter of my grandfather's only son.' How is the woman in the photograph related to the man?

  • (A) Sister
  • (B) Mother
  • (C) Aunt
  • (D) Daughter

Question 77:

A is B's brother. C is A's mother. D is C's father. B is E's daughter. How is A related to D?

  • (A) Grandfather
  • (B) Grandson
  • (C) Son
  • (D) Nephew

Question 78:

Introducing a man, a woman said, 'His mother is the only daughter of my mother.' How is the woman related to the man?

  • (A) Grandmother
  • (B) Aunt
  • (C) Mother
  • (D) Sister

Question 79:

In a family code, 'P @ Q' means P is the brother of Q, 'P # Q' means P is the mother of Q, 'P & Q' means P is the father of Q, and 'P % Q' means P is the sister of Q. Which of the following means that P is the maternal uncle of Q?

  • (A) P # M @ Q
  • (B) P % M # Q
  • (C) P @ M & Q
  • (D) P @ M # Q

Question 80:

Rahul said, 'This girl is the wife of the grandson of my mother.' How is Rahul related to the girl?

  • (A) Father-in-law
  • (B) Grandfather
  • (C) Father
  • (D) Brother-in-law

Question 81:

Statements: All pens are books. All books are tables. Conclusions: I. All pens are tables. II. Some tables are pens. Which conclusion follows?

  • (A) Only conclusion I follows
  • (B) Only conclusion II follows
  • (C) Both I and II follow
  • (D) Neither I nor II follows

Question 82:

Statements: Some cats are dogs. All dogs are animals. Conclusions: I. Some cats are animals. II. All animals are dogs. Which conclusion follows?

  • (A) Only conclusion I follows
  • (B) Only conclusion II follows
  • (C) Both I and II follow
  • (D) Neither I nor II follows

Question 83:

Statements: No book is a pen. All pens are pencils. Conclusions: I. Some pencils are not books. II. No book is a pencil. Which conclusion follows?

  • (A) Both I and II follow
  • (B) Only conclusion I follows
  • (C) Only conclusion II follows
  • (D) Neither I nor II follows

Question 84:

Statements: All roses are flowers. Some flowers are red. Conclusions: I. Some roses are red. II. Some flowers are roses. Which conclusion follows?

  • (A) Only conclusion I follows
  • (B) Both I and II follow
  • (C) Only conclusion II follows
  • (D) Neither I nor II follows

Question 85:

Statements: All students are hardworking. No hardworking person is lazy. Conclusions: I. No student is lazy. II. Some hardworking persons are students. Which conclusion follows?

  • (A) Only conclusion I follows
  • (B) Only conclusion II follows
  • (C) Neither I nor II follows
  • (D) Both I and II follow

Question 86:

Statement: To improve punctuality, a school announced that students who arrive late will be fined. Which of the following is an assumption implicit in this decision?

  • (A) Students are always late to school.
  • (B) The school is short of funds.
  • (C) The fear of a fine will discourage students from arriving late.
  • (D) Parents will pay the fines on time.

Question 87:

Argument: The city should build more bicycle lanes because doing so will reduce traffic congestion. Which of the following, if true, most strengthens this argument?

  • (A) Bicycles are cheaper to own than cars.
  • (B) A recent survey shows many car commuters would cycle to work if dedicated, safe lanes were available.
  • (C) Some other cities have banned cars from their centres.
  • (D) Cycling regularly improves personal fitness.

Question 88:

A company claims its new keyboard increases typing speed, citing that employees who used the new keyboard typed faster than those who did not. Which of the following, if true, most weakens this conclusion?

  • (A) The new keyboard costs more than the old one.
  • (B) Typing speed matters for the company's productivity.
  • (C) A few employees disliked the new keyboard.
  • (D) The employees who used the new keyboard were chosen because they were already the fastest typists.

Question 89:

Statement: Every year, more tourists visit a coastal town than the year before, yet the number of hotels in the town has stayed the same. Which of the following conclusions is best supported?

  • (A) The town will soon build new hotels.
  • (B) Tourists prefer coastal towns to hill stations.
  • (C) The occupancy of the existing hotels is likely increasing.
  • (D) Hotel room prices in the town have fallen.

Question 90:

A bookstore introduced a loyalty card that gives a discount on every tenth purchase, and afterwards its sales rose. Which of the following is an assumption behind the decision to launch this card?

  • (A) Customers would make repeat purchases in order to earn the discount.
  • (B) The store sells only books and nothing else.
  • (C) Every customer signed up for the loyalty card.
  • (D) Discounts always reduce the store's overall profit.

Question 91:

In a certain code, 'FLOWER' is written as 'GMPXFS'. How is 'GARDEN' written in that code?

  • (A) HBSEFO
  • (B) HBSFEO
  • (C) HBTEFO
  • (D) IBSEFO

Question 92:

Find the next number in the series: 3, 6, 11, 18, 27, ?

  • (A) 36
  • (B) 38
  • (C) 40
  • (D) 42

Question 93:

What is the present age of the father? Statement I: The father is 30 years older than his son. Statement II: The son is 10 years old now.

  • (A) Statement I alone is sufficient, but statement II alone is not sufficient.
  • (B) Statement II alone is sufficient, but statement I alone is not sufficient.
  • (C) Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  • (D) Each statement alone is sufficient.

Question 94:

Is the integer x an even number? Statement I: x is a multiple of 4. Statement II: x is a multiple of 3.

  • (A) Statement I alone is sufficient, but statement II alone is not sufficient.
  • (B) Statement II alone is sufficient, but statement I alone is not sufficient.
  • (C) Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  • (D) Each statement alone is sufficient.

Question 95:

What is the value of the two-digit number N? Statement I: The sum of the digits of N is 9. Statement II: N is equal to 45.

  • (A) Statement I alone is sufficient, but statement II alone is not sufficient.
  • (B) Statement II alone is sufficient, but statement I alone is not sufficient.
  • (C) Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  • (D) Each statement alone is sufficient.

Question 96:

What is the value of the number n? Statement I: n is the only even prime number. Statement II: n is the positive square root of 4.

  • (A) Statement I alone is sufficient, but statement II alone is not sufficient.
  • (B) Statement II alone is sufficient, but statement I alone is not sufficient.
  • (C) Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  • (D) Each statement alone is sufficient.

Question 97:

A man walks 5 km towards the North, then turns right and walks 3 km, then turns right again and walks 5 km. How far and in which direction is he from his starting point?

  • (A) 3 km East
  • (B) 3 km West
  • (C) 8 km East
  • (D) 5 km North

Question 98:

If '+' means multiply, '-' means add, 'x' means divide, and 'div' means subtract, then what is the value of: 16 div 4 + 5 - 2 ?

  • (A) 18
  • (B) 6
  • (C) -2
  • (D) 2

Question 99:

In a certain code, the value of a word is the sum of the alphabet positions of its letters (A=1, B=2, ..., Z=26). If 'CAT' = 24 and 'DOG' = 26, then what is the value of 'RAT'?

  • (A) 37
  • (B) 44
  • (C) 41
  • (D) 39

Question 100:

Five friends P, Q, R, S and T are sitting in a row facing North. R is at the extreme left end. S is at the extreme right end. T is immediately to the left of S. Q is immediately to the right of P. Who is sitting in the middle of the row?

  • (A) P
  • (B) Q
  • (C) R
  • (D) T

Question 101:

Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. A is adjacent to B and F. C is adjacent to B and D. E is adjacent to D and F. Who is sitting directly opposite to B?

  • (A) A
  • (B) C
  • (C) E
  • (D) D

Question 102:

In a group, Amit is taller than Bijay but shorter than Chetan. Deepak is taller than Chetan. Esha is shorter than Bijay. Who is the tallest in the group?

  • (A) Chetan
  • (B) Deepak
  • (C) Amit
  • (D) Bijay

Question 103:

Five subjects - Maths, Physics, Chemistry, Biology and English - are taught one per day from Monday to Friday. Maths is taught on Monday. Chemistry is taught on Friday. Biology is taught on the day immediately after Physics. English is taught on some day before Physics. On which day is Physics taught?

  • (A) Thursday
  • (B) Tuesday
  • (C) Monday
  • (D) Wednesday

Question 104:

Six people P, Q, R, S, T and U live on six different floors of a building (floor 1 is the lowest and floor 6 is the topmost). P lives on floor 3. Q lives just above P. R lives on the topmost floor. S lives on floor 1. T lives just below R. Who lives on floor 2?

  • (A) U
  • (B) P
  • (C) Q
  • (D) T

Question 105:

Find the odd one out: 8, 27, 64, 100, 125.

  • (A) 27
  • (B) 64
  • (C) 100
  • (D) 125

Question 106:

Find the odd one out: BD, FH, JL, MN, PR.

  • (A) BD
  • (B) MN
  • (C) JL
  • (D) PR

Question 107:

A wall clock shows the time 4:20. What time will its mirror image (a left-right reflection) show?

  • (A) 7:40
  • (B) 8:40
  • (C) 7:20
  • (D) 6:40

Question 108:

Which of the following capital letters looks exactly the same as its own mirror image when reflected across a vertical line (left-right flip)?

  • (A) B
  • (B) E
  • (C) F
  • (D) A

NMAT 2024 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme Explained

NMAT 2024 is a computer-based test of single-best-answer MCQs, with each of the three sections individually timed.

  • Total questions: 108 MCQs, 36 in each of the three sections
  • Sections: Language Skills (36), Quantitative Skills (36), Logical Reasoning (36)
  • Duration: 120 minutes, with sectional limits of 28, 52, and 40 minutes
  • Total marks: 324, with 3 marks for every correct answer
  • Marking scheme: +3 for a correct answer and no negative marking

High-Weightage Areas in NMAT 2024 to Focus On First

All three sections carry equal weight at 36 questions each, so balance your prep, but a few topics recur heavily in the memory-based paper.

  • Quantitative Skills: arithmetic (percentages, ratio, time and work, averages) dominates, with number systems and probability
  • Language Skills: fill in the blanks, para jumbles, and synonyms-antonyms lead, with a reading comprehension set
  • Logical Reasoning: blood relations, syllogisms, and coding-decoding appear most, plus arrangement puzzles
  • Speed matters: Quantitative Skills gets 52 minutes for 36 questions, so pace is as important as accuracy

How to Use the NMAT 2024 Question Paper for Practice

Treat this paper as a timed mock first, then review every question with its detailed solution.

  • Attempt all 108 questions in 120 minutes under exam-like conditions before checking answers
  • Since there is no negative marking, attempt every question and never leave one blank
  • Review each solution using the Detailed Solution link on every question below
  • Redo the sections where you lost the most time, especially Quantitative Skills

NMAT 2024 Question Paper FAQs

Ques. How many questions are there in the NMAT 2024 question paper?

Ans. The NMAT paper has 108 questions in total, split equally into three sections of 36 each - Language Skills, Quantitative Skills, and Logical Reasoning - to be solved in 120 minutes.

Ques. Is there negative marking in NMAT 2024?

Ans. No. NMAT has no negative marking. Every correct answer gives 3 marks and there is no penalty for a wrong answer, so you should attempt all 108 questions.

Ques. Does GMAC release the official NMAT 2024 question paper?

Ans. No, GMAC does not release the official NMAT question paper. The questions here are memory-based, reconstructed to match the actual exam pattern, topics, and difficulty for practice.

Ques. Where can I practise the NMAT 2024 question paper with solutions for free?

Ans. You can practise all 108 NMAT 2024 questions with detailed solutions on this page, each linked to a full step-by-step solution below.