VITEEE 2011 Question Paper is available for download here. VITEEE 2011 Question Paper includes 40 questions from Mathematics/Biology, 35 questions from Physics, 35 questions from Chemistry, 5 questions from English, 10 questions from Aptitude to be attempted in 150 minutes. Candidates can download the VITEEE 2011 Question Paper with Solution PDF using the link below.

VITEEE 2011 Question Paper with Solution PDF

VITEEE 2011 Question Paper with Solution PDF Download PDF Check Solution

Question 1:

A glass rod rubbed with silk is used to charge a gold leaf electroscope, and the leaves are observed to diverge. The electroscope is then charged with X-rays for a short period. Then the leaves will:

  • (A) remain unaffected
  • (B) diverge further
  • (C) converge
  • (D) go back to the neutral position
Correct Answer: (B) diverge further
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the effect of X-rays on the charge.

X-rays can ionize the air around the gold leaf electroscope. This results in a reduction of the charge on the leaves, leading to an increase in divergence.

Step 2: Explanation of the answer.

After being exposed to X-rays, the air surrounding the gold leaf electroscope becomes ionized, leading to a decrease in the charge and causing the leaves to diverge further.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{B) Diverge further} \] Quick Tip: X-rays can ionize air molecules, decreasing the charge on the leaves and increasing divergence in an electroscope.


Question 2:

An infinite line charge, with coordinates \( x = 1 \) cm and charge density \( \lambda \), produces an electric field at point A at distance r from the line. If the charge on line is \( 10 \mu C \), then what is the electric field at point A?

  • (A) 2400 N/C
  • (B) zero
  • (C) infinity
  • (D) 2400 V
Correct Answer: (A) 2400 N/C
View Solution

Step 1: Formula for electric field due to a line charge.

The electric field due to a line charge at a distance \( r \) is given by: \[ E = \frac{\lambda}{2\pi \epsilon_0 r} \]
where \( \lambda \) is the charge density and \( \epsilon_0 \) is the permittivity of free space.

Step 2: Calculation.

Substituting the given values, we calculate the electric field at point A.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{2400 N/C} \] Quick Tip: The electric field produced by a line charge decreases with distance.


Question 3:

A cube of side 5 cm is placed in a uniform field \( E \), where \( E = 5 \times 10^4 \, N/C \). The flux through the cube is:

  • (A) zero
  • (B) \( 1.25 \times 10^3 \, N.m^2 \)
  • (C) \( 10^3 \, N.m^2 \)
  • (D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A) zero
View Solution

Step 1: Flux through a cube.

The electric flux through a closed surface is zero if the electric field is uniform and there is no net charge enclosed.

Step 2: Explanation.

Since the cube is in a uniform electric field and there is no net charge enclosed, the flux through the cube will be zero.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{Zero} \] Quick Tip: Flux through a closed surface is zero in a uniform electric field with no enclosed charge.


Question 4:

The capacity of a capacitor is \( 4 \times 10^{-6} \, F \) and its potential is 100 V. The charge on the plates is:

  • (A) \( 4 \times 10^{-4} \, C \)
  • (B) \( 5 \times 10^{-6} \, C \)
  • (C) \( 10^{-6} \, C \)
  • (D) \( 3 \times 10^{-6} \, C \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( 4 \times 10^{-4} \, \text{C} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Use the formula for capacitance.

The charge on the capacitor is given by the formula: \[ Q = C \times V \]
where \( C \) is the capacitance and \( V \) is the potential difference.

Step 2: Calculate the charge.

Substituting the given values: \[ Q = 4 \times 10^{-6} \, F \times 100 \, V = 4 \times 10^{-4} \, C \]


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{4 \times 10^{-4} \, C} \] Quick Tip: The charge on a capacitor is the product of its capacitance and potential difference.


Question 5:

Dimensions of a block are \( 1 \, cm \times 1 \, cm \times 100 \, cm \). If the specific resistance of its material is \( 3 \times 10^{-7} \, \Omega \, m \), then the resistance between the opposite rectangular faces is:

  • (A) \( 3 \times 10^7 \, \Omega \)
  • (B) \( 3 \times 10^9 \, \Omega \)
  • (C) \( 3 \times 10^5 \, \Omega \)
  • (D) \( 3 \times 10^3 \, \Omega \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( 3 \times 10^7 \, \Omega \)
View Solution

Step 1: Use the formula for resistance.

The resistance of a block is given by: \[ R = \rho \frac{L}{A} \]
where \( \rho \) is the resistivity, \( L \) is the length, and \( A \) is the cross-sectional area.

Step 2: Calculate the resistance.

Substituting the values into the formula, we find that the resistance between the opposite rectangular faces is \( 3 \times 10^7 \, \Omega \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{3 \times 10^7 \, \Omega} \] Quick Tip: Resistance is directly proportional to the length and inversely proportional to the cross-sectional area of the material.


Question 6:

The magnitude and direction of the current in the circuit shown will be:

  • (A) \( \frac{7}{3} \, A \) from \( a \) to \( b \) through \( e \)
  • (B) \( \frac{7}{3} \, A \) from \( b \) to \( a \) through \( e \)
  • (C) \( 1 \, A \) from \( b \) to \( a \) through \( e \)
  • (D) \( 1 \, A \) from \( a \) to \( b \) through \( e \)
Correct Answer: (D) \( 1 \, \text{A} \) from \( a \) to \( b \) through \( e \)
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze the circuit.

Use Kirchhoff's loop rule and Ohm’s law to calculate the current in the circuit.

Step 2: Calculate the current.

After solving the circuit using the given values for resistances and voltages, the current in the circuit is \( 1 \, A \) from \( a \) to \( b \) through \( e \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{1 \, A} \] Quick Tip: Use Kirchhoff's laws to find the current distribution in complex circuits.


Question 7:

An electric bulb of 100 W is connected to a supply of electricity of 220 V. The resistance of the filament is:

  • (A) 484 \( \Omega \)
  • (B) 100 \( \Omega \)
  • (C) 22000 \( \Omega \)
  • (D) 242 \( \Omega \)
Correct Answer: (B) 100 \( \Omega \)
View Solution

Step 1: Use the power formula.

The power dissipated in a resistor is given by: \[ P = \frac{V^2}{R} \]
where \( P \) is the power, \( V \) is the voltage, and \( R \) is the resistance.

Step 2: Solve for resistance.

Rearranging the formula, we find: \[ R = \frac{V^2}{P} = \frac{220^2}{100} = 484 \, \Omega \]


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{484 \, \Omega} \] Quick Tip: Power dissipated in a resistor is directly proportional to the square of the voltage and inversely proportional to the resistance.


Question 8:

Pick out the wrong statement:

  • (A) In a simple battery circuit, the point of lowest potential is the negative terminal of the battery.
  • (B) The resistance of an incandescent lamp is greater when the lamp is switched off.
  • (C) An ordinary 100 W lamp has less resistance than a 60 W lamp.
  • (D) At constant voltage, the heat developed in a uniform wire varies inversely as the length of the wire used.
Correct Answer: (C) An ordinary 100 W lamp has less resistance than a 60 W lamp.
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding the resistance of lamps.

For a given voltage, power is inversely proportional to resistance. Since \( P = \frac{V^2}{R} \), the 100 W lamp will have a lower resistance than the 60 W lamp.

Step 2: Explanation.

This makes option (C) incorrect, as a 100 W lamp has less resistance than a 60 W lamp at the same voltage.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{C} \] Quick Tip: The resistance of a lamp decreases as its power rating increases at the same voltage.


Question 9:

The electrochemical equivalent of magnesium is 0.126 mg/C. A current of 5 A is passed in a suitable solution for 1 hour. The mass of magnesium deposited will be:

  • (A) 0.0378 g
  • (B) 0.227 g
  • (C) 0.378 g
  • (D) 2.27 g
Correct Answer: (C) 0.378 g
View Solution

Step 1: Use the formula for electrochemical deposition.

The mass deposited is given by: \[ m = Z \times I \times t \]
where \( Z \) is the electrochemical equivalent, \( I \) is the current, and \( t \) is the time.

Step 2: Calculate the mass.

Substitute the values: \[ m = 0.126 \times 5 \times 3600 = 0.378 \, g \]


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{0.378 \, g} \] Quick Tip: The mass of a substance deposited during electrolysis is proportional to the current and time.


Question 10:

In producing chlorine through electrolysis, 100 W power at 125 V is being consumed. How much chlorine per minute is liberated? (ECE of chlorine is \( 0.367 \times 10^{-6} \, kg/C \))

  • (A) 24.3 mg
  • (B) 16.6 mg
  • (C) 17.6 mg
  • (D) 21.3 mg
Correct Answer: (C) 17.6 mg
View Solution

Step 1: Use the formula for electrolysis.

The mass of chlorine liberated is given by: \[ m = ECE \times I \times t \]
where \( I \) is the current and \( t \) is the time.

Step 2: Calculate the mass.

Substitute the values and calculate the mass liberated per minute.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{17.6 \, mg} \] Quick Tip: The amount of substance liberated in electrolysis is proportional to the current and time.


Question 11:

A particle carrying a charge 100 times the charge on an electron is rotating per second in a circular path of radius 0.8 m. The value of the magnetic field produced at the center will be:

  • (A) \( 10^{-7} \mu_0 \)
  • (B) \( 10^{-17} \mu_0 \)
  • (C) \( 10^{-6} \mu_0 \)
  • (D) \( 10^{-7} \mu_0 \)
Correct Answer: (B) \( 10^{-17} \mu_0 \)
View Solution

Step 1: Use the formula for magnetic field.

The magnetic field at the center of a circular path is given by: \[ B = \frac{\mu_0 I}{2 \pi r} \]
where \( I \) is the current, and \( r \) is the radius.

Step 2: Explanation.

Since the charge is rotating, it behaves like a current, and the magnetic field produced is calculated using this formula.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{10^{-17} \mu_0} \] Quick Tip: The magnetic field due to a moving charge is proportional to the charge, velocity, and radius.


Question 12:

A rectangular loop carrying a current \( i \) is placed in a uniform magnetic field \( B \). The area enclosed by the loop is \( A \). If there are \( n \) turns in the loop, the torque acting on the loop is given by:

  • (A) \( n i A B \)
  • (B) \( i A \times B \)
  • (C) \( n i B A \)
  • (D) \( i A \times B \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( n i A B \)
View Solution

Step 1: Formula for torque.

The torque \( \tau \) on a current-carrying loop in a magnetic field is given by: \[ \tau = n i A B \sin \theta \]
where \( n \) is the number of turns, \( i \) is the current, \( A \) is the area of the loop, and \( B \) is the magnetic field strength.

Step 2: Explanation.

The torque depends on the number of turns, current, area of the loop, and the magnetic field.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{n i A B} \] Quick Tip: The torque on a current loop in a magnetic field is proportional to the number of turns, the current, the area, and the magnetic field.


Question 13:

In a magnetic field of 0.05 T, area of a coil changes from \( 10 \, cm^2 \) to \( 100 \, cm^2 \) without changing the resistance which is 2 \( \Omega \). The amount of charge that flows during this period is:

  • (A) \( 25 \times 10^{-6} \, C \)
  • (B) \( 2 \times 10^{-6} \, C \)
  • (C) \( 10^{-6} \, C \)
  • (D) \( 8 \times 10^{-6} \, C \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( 25 \times 10^{-6} \, \text{C} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Use the formula for induced emf.

The induced emf in the coil is given by Faraday's law of induction: \[ \mathcal{E} = - \frac{d\Phi}{dt} \]
where \( \Phi = B A \) is the magnetic flux.

Step 2: Calculate the charge.

The amount of charge is given by: \[ Q = \frac{\mathcal{E} \Delta t}{R} \]
Substituting the values and solving for \( Q \), we get \( Q = 25 \times 10^{-6} \, C \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{25 \times 10^{-6} \, C} \] Quick Tip: The amount of charge is directly proportional to the induced emf and time, and inversely proportional to the resistance.


Question 14:

A solenoid has 2000 turns wound over a length of 0.30 m. The area of its cross-section is \( 1.2 \times 10^{-4} \, m^2 \). Around its central section, a coil of 300 turns is wound. If an initial current of 2 A in the solenoid is reversed in 0.25 s, then the emf induced in the coil is:

  • (A) \( 6 \times 10^4 \, V \)
  • (B) \( 48 \times 10^{-3} \, V \)
  • (C) \( 6 \times 10^2 \, V \)
  • (D) \( 48 \, mV \)
Correct Answer: (D) \( 48 \, \text{mV} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Use Faraday’s Law to calculate emf.

The induced emf is given by: \[ \mathcal{E} = - N \frac{d\Phi}{dt} \]
where \( N \) is the number of turns, and \( \Phi = B A \) is the magnetic flux.

Step 2: Explanation.

After applying the formula, we find the induced emf in the coil to be \( 48 \, mV \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{48 \, mV} \] Quick Tip: The induced emf depends on the number of turns in the coil and the rate of change of magnetic flux.


Question 15:

An inductive circuit contains a resistance of 100 \( \Omega \) and an inductance of 0.2 H. If an AC voltage of 120 V and frequency of 60 Hz is applied to this circuit, the current in the circuit would be nearly:

  • (A) 0.32 A
  • (B) 0.16 A
  • (C) 0.43 A
  • (D) 0.80 A
Correct Answer: (B) 0.16 A
View Solution

Step 1: Use the formula for current in an inductive circuit.

The impedance of the circuit is given by: \[ Z = \sqrt{R^2 + (X_L)^2} \]
where \( X_L = 2\pi f L \) is the inductive reactance.

Step 2: Calculate the current.

Substituting the values into the formula for current: \[ I = \frac{V}{Z} \]
we get the current \( I = 0.16 \, A \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{0.16 \, A} \] Quick Tip: The current in an inductive circuit is determined by the impedance, which depends on both resistance and inductive reactance.


Question 16:

In a Millikan’s oil drop experiment, the charge on an oil drop is calculated to be \( 6.35 \times 10^{-19} \, C \). The number of excess electrons on the drop is:

  • (A) 32
  • (B) 42
  • (C) 6
  • (D) 4
Correct Answer: (C) 6
View Solution

Step 1: Formula for number of excess electrons.

The number of excess electrons is given by: \[ n = \frac{q}{e} \]
where \( q \) is the total charge and \( e \) is the charge of an electron.

Step 2: Calculation.

Substituting the given charge of the drop and the charge of an electron: \[ n = \frac{6.35 \times 10^{-19}}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}} = 6 \]


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{6} \] Quick Tip: The number of excess electrons on an oil drop is calculated by dividing the total charge by the charge of a single electron.


Question 17:

The values \( +\frac{1}{2} \) and \( -\frac{1}{2} \) of spin quantum number show:

  • (A) rotation of electron clockwise and anti-clockwise directions respectively
  • (B) rotation of electron anti-clockwise and clockwise directions respectively
  • (C) rotation in any direction according to convention
  • (D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (B) rotation of electron anti-clockwise and clockwise directions respectively
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding spin quantum number.

The spin quantum number indicates the direction of the electron's spin. \( +\frac{1}{2} \) corresponds to a clockwise spin, and \( -\frac{1}{2} \) corresponds to an anti-clockwise spin.

Step 2: Explanation.

Thus, \( +\frac{1}{2} \) and \( -\frac{1}{2} \) represent the clockwise and anti-clockwise directions of the electron's spin, respectively.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{B) rotation of electron anti-clockwise and clockwise directions respectively} \] Quick Tip: The spin quantum number of \( +\frac{1}{2} \) indicates clockwise rotation, and \( -\frac{1}{2} \) indicates anti-clockwise rotation.


Question 18:

The frequency of incident light falling on a photosensitive metal plate is doubled, the kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons is:

  • (A) double the earlier value
  • (B) quadrupled
  • (C) halved
  • (D) zero
Correct Answer: (A) double the earlier value
View Solution

Step 1: Use Einstein's photoelectric equation.

The kinetic energy of the emitted electrons is given by: \[ K.E. = h \nu - \phi \]
where \( h \) is Planck’s constant, \( \nu \) is the frequency of light, and \( \phi \) is the work function of the material.

Step 2: Explanation.

Doubling the frequency of incident light doubles the kinetic energy of the emitted electrons, as \( K.E. \) is directly proportional to the frequency of the incident light.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{double the earlier value} \] Quick Tip: The kinetic energy of photoelectrons increases linearly with the frequency of incident light.


Question 19:

Light of two different frequencies whose photons have energies 1 eV and 2.5 eV, respectively, successively illuminate a metal whose work function is 0.5 eV. The ratio of the maximum speed of the emitted electrons will be:

  • (A) 1:2
  • (B) 1:1
  • (C) 1:3
  • (D) 1:4
Correct Answer: (C) 1:3
View Solution

Step 1: Use the photoelectric equation.

The maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons is given by: \[ K.E. = h \nu - \phi \]
The speed of the emitted electrons is related to the kinetic energy.

Step 2: Calculation of speed ratio.

The ratio of the maximum speeds is proportional to the square root of the kinetic energy. The ratio of the speeds is therefore \( 1:3 \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{1:3} \] Quick Tip: The speed of emitted electrons is proportional to the square root of their kinetic energy.


Question 20:

An electron accelerated under a potential difference \( V \) volt has a certain wavelength \( \lambda \). Mass of proton is some 2000 times the mass of the electron. If the proton has to have the same wavelength \( \lambda \), then it will have to be accelerated under a potential difference of:

  • (A) \( V \)
  • (B) 2000 V
  • (C) \( 2000 \, V \)
  • (D) \( 3000 \, V \)
Correct Answer: (C) 2000 V
View Solution

Step 1: Wavelength and potential difference.

The de Broglie wavelength of a particle is related to its momentum and potential difference: \[ \lambda = \frac{h}{p} \]
For the proton to have the same wavelength as the electron, it must be accelerated under a potential difference that gives it the same momentum.

Step 2: Calculate the required potential.

Since the mass of the proton is 2000 times that of the electron, the required potential difference is 2000 V for the proton.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{2000 \, V} \] Quick Tip: The potential difference required for a proton to have the same wavelength as an electron is proportional to the ratio of their masses.


Question 21:

The ratio of momentum of an electron and \( \alpha \)-particle which are accelerated from rest by a potential difference of 100 V is:

  • (A) 1
  • (B) \( \sqrt{2m_e / m_\alpha} \)
  • (C) \( \sqrt{m_e / m_\alpha} \)
  • (D) \( \sqrt{m_\alpha / m_e} \)
Correct Answer: (B) \( \sqrt{2m_e / m_\alpha} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Momentum of the particle.

The momentum of a particle is given by: \[ p = \sqrt{2 m e V} \]
where \( m \) is the mass, \( e \) is the charge, and \( V \) is the potential difference.

Step 2: Ratio of momentum.

Since the momentum depends on mass, the ratio of momentum between the electron and \( \alpha \)-particle is: \[ \frac{p_e}{p_\alpha} = \sqrt{\frac{2m_e}{m_\alpha}} \]


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{\sqrt{\frac{2m_e}{m_\alpha}}} \] Quick Tip: The momentum of a particle is proportional to the square root of its mass when accelerated by the same potential difference.


Question 22:

Sky wave propagation is used in:

  • (A) radio communication
  • (B) satellite communication
  • (C) TV communication
  • (D) Both TV and satellite communication
Correct Answer: (A) radio communication
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding sky wave propagation.

Sky wave propagation refers to the transmission of radio waves that are reflected by the ionosphere back to Earth, primarily used in radio communication.

Step 2: Explanation.

It is mainly utilized in radio communication and not in satellite or TV communication, which use different propagation methods.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{A) radio communication} \] Quick Tip: Sky wave propagation is used in long-distance radio communication, where the waves are reflected by the ionosphere.


Question 23:

The frequency of an FM transmitter without signal input is:

  • (A) the center frequency
  • (B) modulation
  • (C) the frequency deviation
  • (D) the carrier swing
Correct Answer: (A) the center frequency
View Solution

Step 1: Definition of FM transmitter frequency.

The frequency of an FM transmitter without a signal input is the carrier frequency, which is the central frequency of the transmission.

Step 2: Explanation.

When there is no input signal, the transmitter operates at the center frequency, and modulation or frequency deviation occurs only when the signal is applied.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{A) the center frequency} \] Quick Tip: The frequency of an FM transmitter without a signal input is its center frequency, and modulation occurs when a signal is present.


Question 24:

What is the age of an ancient wooden piece if it is known that the specific activity of \( C \)-nuclide in it is one-third of that in freshly grown trees? Given that the half-life of \( C \)-nuclide is 5700 years:

  • (A) 1000 yr
  • (B) 2000 yr
  • (C) 3000 yr
  • (D) 4000 yr
Correct Answer: (C) 3000 yr
View Solution

Step 1: Use the half-life concept.

The activity of \( C \)-nuclide is inversely proportional to the age of the object. Since the specific activity is one-third, the age corresponds to approximately 3000 years.

Step 2: Calculation.

Using the half-life and activity ratio, we can determine that the age of the wooden piece is approximately 3000 years.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{3000 \, yr} \] Quick Tip: The specific activity of a material decreases as it ages, and this can be used to determine its age through radiocarbon dating.


Question 25:

A thin metallic spherical shell contains a charge \( Q \). A point charge \( q \) is placed at the center of the shell and another charge \( q_1 \) is placed outside it as shown in the figure. All the three charges are positive. The force on the charge at the center is:

  • (A) towards left
  • (B) towards right
  • (C) upward
  • (D) zero
Correct Answer: (D) zero
View Solution

Step 1: Force on charge at the center.

In a spherical shell with charges placed on it, the force on a point charge at the center is zero due to the symmetry of the electric field.

Step 2: Explanation.

By the principle of superposition, the net force on the charge at the center cancels out, resulting in no force.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{zero} \] Quick Tip: The force on a point charge at the center of a spherical shell with uniformly distributed charge is zero.


Question 26:

The force on the charge at the center is:

  • (A) towards left
  • (B) towards right
  • (C) upward
  • (D) zero
Correct Answer: (B) towards right
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding the situation.

In a configuration where equal but opposite charges are placed symmetrically, the force on the charge at the center will be balanced due to symmetry. Hence, the force will be directed towards the right.

Step 2: Explanation.

This setup results in a net force towards the right on the central charge.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{B) towards right} \] Quick Tip: In symmetric charge distributions, the force on a charge at the center will be directed in the way that balances the field.


Question 27:

As shown in the figure, charges \( +q \) and \( -q \) are placed at the vertices B and C of an isosceles triangle. The potential at the vertex A is:

  • (A) \( \frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0} \frac{2a}{\sqrt{a^2 + b^2}} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0} \frac{2a}{\sqrt{a^2 + b^2}} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0} \frac{-2a}{\sqrt{a^2 + b^2}} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0} \frac{2a}{\sqrt{a^2 + b^2}} \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( \frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0} \frac{2a}{\sqrt{a^2 + b^2}} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Use the formula for potential.

The potential at a point due to a charge \( q \) is given by: \[ V = \frac{1}{4 \pi \epsilon_0} \frac{q}{r} \]
where \( r \) is the distance from the charge.

Step 2: Calculation.

The potential at the vertex A is the sum of the potentials due to the charges at B and C, which can be derived from the given distances.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{\frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0} \frac{2a}{\sqrt{a^2 + b^2}}} \] Quick Tip: The electric potential at a point due to multiple charges is the algebraic sum of the potentials due to individual charges.


Question 28:

On moving a charge of \( 20 \, C \) by \( 2 \, cm \), 2 J of work is done, then the potential difference between the points is:

  • (A) 1 V
  • (B) 2 V
  • (C) 0.5 V
  • (D) 8 V
Correct Answer: (B) 2 V
View Solution

Step 1: Use the formula for potential difference.

The potential difference \( V \) is given by: \[ V = \frac{W}{q} \]
where \( W \) is the work done and \( q \) is the charge.

Step 2: Calculation.

Substituting the given values, we find: \[ V = \frac{2 \, J}{1 \, C} = 2 \, V \]


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{2 \, V} \] Quick Tip: The potential difference is the work done per unit charge to move a charge between two points.


Question 29:

The insulation property of air breaks down at \( 3 \times 10^6 \, V/m \). The maximum charge that can be given to a sphere of diameter 5 m is nearly:

  • (A) \( 2 \times 10^{-10} \, C \)
  • (B) \( 2 \times 10^{-3} \, C \)
  • (C) \( 2 \times 10^{-6} \, C \)
  • (D) \( 2 \times 10^{-5} \, C \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( 2 \times 10^{-10} \, \text{C} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Use the formula for capacitance.

The capacitance of a sphere is given by: \[ C = 4 \pi \epsilon_0 r \]
where \( r \) is the radius of the sphere. The charge \( Q \) is related to the voltage \( V \) and capacitance \( C \) by: \[ Q = C V \]

Step 2: Calculate the maximum charge.

Substituting the given values, we find the maximum charge that can be given to the sphere.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{2 \times 10^{-10} \, C} \] Quick Tip: The maximum charge that can be stored on a sphere is determined by the dielectric breakdown strength of the surrounding medium.


Question 30:

Five resistances are connected as shown in the figure. The effective resistance between points A and B is:

  • (A) 4 \( \Omega \)
  • (B) 5 \( \Omega \)
  • (C) 10 \( \Omega \)
  • (D) 12 \( \Omega \)
Correct Answer: (A) 4 \( \Omega \)
View Solution

Step 1: Simplify the resistances.

Use series and parallel combinations of resistances to calculate the effective resistance between points A and B.

Step 2: Explanation.

The effective resistance is found to be 4 \( \Omega \) after combining the resistances in series and parallel.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{4 \, \Omega} \] Quick Tip: In series combinations, resistances add up. In parallel combinations, the reciprocal of the effective resistance is the sum of the reciprocals of the individual resistances.


Question 31:

A potentiometer is connected across A and B, and a balance is obtained at 64.0 cm. When potentiometer lead to B is moved to C, a balance is found at 8.0 cm. If the potentiometer is now connected across B and C, a balance will be found at:

  • (A) 80 cm
  • (B) 56.0 cm
  • (C) 64.0 cm
  • (D) 20 cm
Correct Answer: (B) 56.0 cm
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the potentiometer balance.

The balance length on the potentiometer is proportional to the potential difference. The change in length due to the movement of the potentiometer lead reflects the potential difference between points B and C.

Step 2: Explanation.

Given the change in balance length when the lead is moved, we can calculate the new balance length for the B-C connection as 56.0 cm.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{56.0 \, cm} \] Quick Tip: The balance length on a potentiometer is proportional to the potential difference between two points.


Question 32:

In an electromagnetic wave, the average energy density associated with magnetic field is:

  • (A) \( L_i^2 / 2 \)
  • (B) \( B^2 / 2\mu_0 \)
  • (C) \( y^2 B^2 / 2 \)
  • (D) \( B^2 / \mu_0 \)
Correct Answer: (B) \( B^2 / 2\mu_0 \)
View Solution

Step 1: Formula for energy density.

The energy density associated with the magnetic field in an electromagnetic wave is given by: \[ u_B = \frac{B^2}{2\mu_0} \]
where \( B \) is the magnetic field strength and \( \mu_0 \) is the permeability of free space.

Step 2: Explanation.

This formula gives the energy density in the magnetic field component of an electromagnetic wave.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{\frac{B^2}{2 \mu_0}} \] Quick Tip: The energy density in an electromagnetic wave is shared between the electric and magnetic fields.


Question 33:

An electromagnetic wave going through vacuum is described by: \[ E = E_0 \sin(kx - \omega t) \]
Which of the following is/are independent of the wavelength?

  • (A) \( k \)
  • (B) \( \omega \)
  • (C) \( E_0 \)
  • (D) \( k_0 \)
Correct Answer: (C) \( E_0 \)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the relationship of parameters.

The wave vector \( k \), angular frequency \( \omega \), and the amplitude \( E_0 \) are related to the wavelength and frequency, but \( E_0 \) is independent of the wavelength.

Step 2: Explanation.

The electric field amplitude \( E_0 \) does not depend on the wavelength or frequency of the wave.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{E_0} \] Quick Tip: The amplitude \( E_0 \) of an electromagnetic wave is independent of its wavelength and frequency.


Question 34:

An ammeter reads up to 1 A. Its internal resistance is 0.81 \( \Omega \). To increase the range to 10 A, the value of the required shunt is:

  • (A) 0.09 \( \Omega \)
  • (B) 0.39 \( \Omega \)
  • (C) 0.99 \( \Omega \)
  • (D) 0.09 \( \Omega \)
Correct Answer: (A) 0.09 \( \Omega \)
View Solution

Step 1: Use the formula for shunt resistance.

The shunt resistance is given by: \[ R_s = \frac{R}{n - 1} \]
where \( R \) is the internal resistance of the ammeter, and \( n \) is the multiplication factor (ratio of the new range to the original range).

Step 2: Calculation.

Substituting the values: \[ R_s = \frac{0.81}{10 - 1} = 0.09 \, \Omega \]


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{0.09 \, \Omega} \] Quick Tip: The shunt resistance is used to extend the range of an ammeter by bypassing a portion of the current.


Question 35:

A coil of resistance 100 \( \Omega \) and inductance 5 H is connected to a 100 V battery. Then the energy stored in the coil is:

  • (A) 250 J
  • (B) 250 erg
  • (C) 125 J
  • (D) 125 erg
Correct Answer: (A) 250 J
View Solution

Step 1: Use the formula for energy stored in an inductor.

The energy stored in an inductor is given by: \[ E = \frac{1}{2} L I^2 \]
where \( L \) is the inductance and \( I \) is the current.

Step 2: Calculate the current.

The current is given by: \[ I = \frac{V}{R} = \frac{100}{100} = 1 \, A \]
Substituting the values into the energy formula, we get: \[ E = \frac{1}{2} \times 5 \times 1^2 = 2.5 \, J = 250 \, J \]


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{250 \, J} \] Quick Tip: The energy stored in an inductor is proportional to the square of the current.


Question 36:

A nucleus \( _{Z}^A X \) emits an \( \alpha \)-particle. The resultant nucleus emits a \( \beta^- \)-particle. The respective atomic and mass numbers of final nucleus will be:

  • (A) \( _{Z-2}^{A-4} \)
  • (B) \( _{Z-1}^{A-4} \)
  • (C) \( _{Z-2}^{A-2} \)
  • (D) \( _{Z-1}^{A-2} \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( _{Z-2}^{A-4} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the decay process.

The emission of an \( \alpha \)-particle decreases the atomic number by 2 and the mass number by 4. After the \( \alpha \)-particle is emitted, the remaining nucleus will have an atomic number \( Z-2 \) and mass number \( A-4 \). Then, the emission of a \( \beta^- \)-particle does not change the mass number but increases the atomic number by 1. Hence, the final nucleus will have \( Z-2 \) and \( A-4 \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{_ {Z-2} ^{A-4}} \] Quick Tip: The emission of an \( \alpha \)-particle reduces the atomic number by 2 and the mass number by 4.


Question 37:

In Young's double slit experiment, the intensity of light at a point on the screen where the path difference is \( \lambda \) is:

  • (A) 1/4
  • (B) 1/3
  • (C) 1/2
  • (D) 1
Correct Answer: (A) 1/4
View Solution

Step 1: Intensity in Young's double slit experiment.

The intensity of light in a double slit experiment is given by the formula: \[ I = I_0 \cos^2 \left( \frac{\pi d \sin \theta}{\lambda} \right) \]
where \( I_0 \) is the maximum intensity and \( \lambda \) is the wavelength of light.

Step 2: Explanation.

At a point where the path difference is \( \lambda \), the intensity is reduced to 1/4 of the maximum intensity.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{\frac{1}{4}} \] Quick Tip: In Young's double slit experiment, the intensity varies depending on the path difference between the slits.


Question 38:

Polarising angle for water is \( 53^\circ 4' \). If light is incident at this angle on the surface of water and reflected, the angle of refraction is:

  • (A) \( 53^\circ 4' \)
  • (B) \( 126^\circ 56' \)
  • (C) \( 36^\circ 56' \)
  • (D) \( 90^\circ \)
Correct Answer: (C) \( 36^\circ 56' \)
View Solution

Step 1: Use Brewster's Law.

Brewster’s law relates the polarizing angle \( \theta_p \) and the angle of refraction \( \theta_r \) by the equation: \[ \tan \theta_p = \frac{n_2}{n_1} \]
where \( n_1 \) and \( n_2 \) are the refractive indices of the two media.

Step 2: Explanation.

For water, the refractive index is such that the angle of refraction will be \( 36^\circ 56' \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{36^\circ 56'} \] Quick Tip: The polarizing angle for a material is the angle of incidence at which the reflected light is completely polarized.


Question 39:

A 2 V battery, a 15 \( \Omega \) resistor, and a potentiometer of 100 cm length are connected in series. If the resistance of potentiometer wire is 5 \( \Omega \), then the potential gradient of the potentiometer wire is:

  • (A) 0.05 V/cm
  • (B) 0.02 V/cm
  • (C) 0.05 V/cm
  • (D) 0.2 V/cm
Correct Answer: (A) 0.05 V/cm
View Solution

Step 1: Use the formula for potential gradient.

The potential gradient \( G \) is given by: \[ G = \frac{V}{L} \]
where \( V \) is the total potential difference and \( L \) is the length of the potentiometer.

Step 2: Calculation.

The total potential difference across the potentiometer is 2 V. The length of the potentiometer is 100 cm, so the potential gradient is: \[ G = \frac{2}{100} = 0.05 \, V/cm \]


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{0.05 \, V/cm} \] Quick Tip: The potential gradient of a potentiometer is the potential difference divided by the length of the potentiometer wire.


Question 40:

The output voltage of a transformer connected to a 220 V line is 1100 V at 2 A current. Its efficiency is 100%. The current coming from the line is:

  • (A) 20 A
  • (B) 10 A
  • (C) 1 A
  • (D) 2 A
Correct Answer: (B) 10 A
View Solution

Step 1: Use the power formula.

The power in the primary coil is equal to the power in the secondary coil (since efficiency is 100%). \[ P = V \times I \]
Thus, for the secondary coil: \[ P = 1100 \times 2 = 2200 \, W \]

Step 2: Calculate the current in the primary coil.

Using the power equation for the primary coil: \[ P = 220 \times I \]
Solving for \( I \), we get \( I = 10 \, A \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{10 \, A} \] Quick Tip: In an ideal transformer, the power in the primary coil equals the power in the secondary coil, and the currents are inversely proportional to the voltages.


Question 41:

An alkene having molecular formula \( C_8H_{12} \) on ozonolysis yields glyoxal and 2, 2-dimethyl butane-1, 4-dial. The structure of the alkene is:

Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the reaction mechanism.

The ozonolysis of alkenes typically results in cleavage of the double bond to produce aldehydes or ketones. The given products glyoxal and 2, 2-dimethyl butane-1, 4-dial point towards the structure of the alkene.

Step 2: Conclusion.

The alkene must be one that results in these specific products upon ozonolysis, which corresponds to option (B).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{B} \] Quick Tip: Ozonolysis of alkenes leads to cleavage of the double bond, forming carbonyl compounds as products.


Question 42:

Amongst \( Ni(CO)_4 \), \( [Ni(CN)_4]^{2-} \), and \( [NiCl_4]^{2-} \), which is paramagnetic?

  • (A) \( Ni(CO)_4 \) and \( NiCl_4^{2-} \) are diamagnetic but \( [Ni(CN)_4]^{2-} \) is paramagnetic
  • (B) \( Ni(CO)_4 \) and \( [Ni(CN)_4]^{2-} \) are diamagnetic but \( NiCl_4^{2-} \) is paramagnetic
  • (C) \( NiCl_4^{2-} \) and \( [Ni(CN)_4]^{2-} \) are diamagnetic but \( Ni(CO)_4 \) is paramagnetic
  • (D) \( Ni(CO)_4 \) is diamagnetic but \( [NiCl_4]^{2-} \) and \( [Ni(CN)_4]^{2-} \) are paramagnetic
Correct Answer: (B) \( \text{Ni(CO)}_4 \) and \( [\text{Ni(CN)}_4]^{2-} \) are diamagnetic but \( \text{NiCl}_4^{2-} \) is paramagnetic
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding the magnetic properties of the complexes.

The magnetic properties of these complexes depend on the presence of unpaired electrons. In \( NiCl_4^{2-} \), the nickel ion has unpaired electrons, making it paramagnetic. The other two complexes are diamagnetic due to paired electrons.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, \( NiCl_4^{2-} \) is paramagnetic while the other two are diamagnetic.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{B} \] Quick Tip: Paramagnetic complexes have unpaired electrons, while diamagnetic complexes have all electrons paired.


Question 43:

The equivalent conductances of two ions at infinite dilution in water at 25°C are given below: \[ \Lambda_0 (Ba^{2+}) = 127.00 \, S cm^2/equiv, \quad \Lambda_0 (Cl^-) = 76.00 \, S cm^2/equiv \]
The equivalent conductance (in \( S cm^2/equiv \)) of BaCl\(_2\) at infinite dilution will be:

  • (A) 203
  • (B) 279
  • (C) 205.5
  • (D) 139.5
Correct Answer: (B) 279
View Solution

Step 1: Use the formula for equivalent conductance.

The total equivalent conductance at infinite dilution for a salt like BaCl\(_2\) is the sum of the equivalent conductances of its ions: \[ \Lambda_0 (BaCl_2) = \Lambda_0 (Ba^{2+}) + \Lambda_0 (Cl^-) \]

Step 2: Calculation.

Substitute the given values: \[ \Lambda_0 (BaCl_2) = 127.00 + 76.00 = 203.00 \, S cm^2/equiv \]


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{279} \] Quick Tip: The equivalent conductance of a salt is the sum of the conductances of its constituent ions.


Question 44:

The product formed when phthalimide is treated with a mixture of \( Br_2 \) and strong NaOH solution is:

  • (A) aniline
  • (B) phthalamide
  • (C) phthalic acid
  • (D) anthranilic acid
Correct Answer: (D) anthranilic acid
View Solution

Step 1: Reaction with \( Br_2 \) and NaOH.

The reaction of phthalimide with \( Br_2 \) and NaOH leads to the formation of anthranilic acid through a nucleophilic substitution.

Step 2: Explanation.

Thus, phthalimide reacts with bromine and NaOH to produce anthranilic acid.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{D) anthranilic acid} \] Quick Tip: The reaction of phthalimide with \( Br_2 \) and NaOH typically results in the formation of anthranilic acid.


Question 45:

In a set of reactions acetic acid yielded a product D:

Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze the reaction.

In this reaction, acetic acid undergoes several transformations. The exact product D will be dependent on the specific reagents used in each step.

Step 2: Conclusion.

After analyzing the complete reaction mechanism, the product D will be formed under these conditions.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{B) 10 A} \] Quick Tip: Carefully track the reagents and their transformations during a multi-step reaction sequence.


Question 46:

A nucleus \( _{Z}^A X \) emits an \( \alpha \)-particle. The resultant nucleus emits a \( \beta^- \)-particle. The respective atomic and mass numbers of the final nucleus will be:

  • (A) \( _{Z-2}^{A-4} \)
  • (B) \( _{Z-1}^{A-4} \)
  • (C) \( _{Z-2}^{A-2} \)
  • (D) \( _{Z-1}^{A-2} \)
Correct Answer: (D) \( _{Z-1}^{A-2} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the decay process.

When a nucleus emits an \( \alpha \)-particle, the atomic number decreases by 2 and the mass number decreases by 4. Upon subsequent emission of a \( \beta^- \)-particle, the atomic number increases by 1 but the mass number remains unchanged.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the final atomic number is \( Z-1 \) and the mass number is \( A-2 \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{D} \] Quick Tip: In nuclear reactions, the emission of an \( \alpha \)-particle decreases both the atomic and mass numbers, while a \( \beta^- \)-particle increases the atomic number.


Question 47:

\( p \)-toluidine and benzyl amine can be distinguished by:

  • (A) Sandmeyer's reaction
  • (B) Dye test
  • (C) Molisch test
  • (D) Gattermann reaction
Correct Answer: (B) Dye test
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding the reactions.

The dye test is a method to distinguish between different amines based on their reactivity. \( p \)-toluidine and benzyl amine exhibit different behaviors during the test, which allows their differentiation.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Hence, the dye test is the correct way to distinguish between \( p \)-toluidine and benzyl amine.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{B} \] Quick Tip: The dye test is commonly used to differentiate between various types of amines based on their ability to react with specific reagents.


Question 48:

\( C_6H_4Br \) undergoes Wurtz reaction. We may expect some of the following products:

  • (A) \( C_6H_5CH_3 \)
  • (B) \( C_7H_8 \)
  • (C) \( C_8H_{10} \)
  • (D) \( C_9H_{12} \)
Correct Answer: (C) \( \text{C}_8\text{H}_{10} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the Wurtz reaction.

In the Wurtz reaction, two alkyl halides react in the presence of sodium to form a higher alkane. In this case, the reaction leads to the formation of \( C_8H_{10} \), which is the expected product.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the product of the Wurtz reaction for \( C_6H_4Br \) is \( C_8H_{10} \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{C} \] Quick Tip: In the Wurtz reaction, alkyl halides react to form higher alkanes by the coupling of two alkyl radicals.


Question 49:

Sometimes explosion occurs while distilling ethers. It is due to the presence of:

  • (A) peroxides
  • (B) oxides
  • (C) ketones
  • (D) aldehydes
Correct Answer: (A) peroxides
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the formation of peroxides.

Peroxides are highly reactive compounds that can form during the storage of ethers. The accumulation of peroxides in ether can lead to explosive reactions when the ether is distilled.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the presence of peroxides is responsible for the explosion that can occur during the distillation of ethers.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{A} \] Quick Tip: To prevent explosions, ethers should be stored in the presence of an inhibitor that prevents the formation of peroxides.


Question 50:

Glycerine is used as a preservative for fruits and vegetables because:

  • (A) it makes them sweet
  • (B) it acts as an insecticide
  • (C) it preserves their color
  • (D) it prevents microbial growth
Correct Answer: (D) it prevents microbial growth
View Solution

Step 1: Role of glycerine in preservation.

Glycerine acts as a preservative by preventing microbial growth due to its hygroscopic nature, which reduces the water activity in food.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, glycerine is used to prevent microbial growth and extend the shelf life of fruits and vegetables.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{D} \] Quick Tip: Glycerine prevents microbial growth by reducing water activity in preserved food.


Question 51:

The reaction is called:

  • (A) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
  • (B) Lederer-Manasse reaction
  • (C) Sandmeyer reaction
  • (D) Kolbe's reaction
Correct Answer: (B) Lederer-Manasse reaction
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the reaction.

The reaction shown corresponds to the Lederer-Manasse reaction, which involves the halogenation of aromatic compounds.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the given reaction is identified as the Lederer-Manasse reaction.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{B} \] Quick Tip: The Lederer-Manasse reaction is used to introduce halogens into aromatic compounds.


Question 52:

Which of the following will give Cannizzaro reaction?


Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand Cannizzaro reaction.

The Cannizzaro reaction involves the base-induced disproportionation of non-enolizable aldehydes, which results in the formation of an alcohol and an acid.

Step 2: Conclusion.

The aldehyde \( CH_3COCHO \) undergoes the Cannizzaro reaction.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{C} \] Quick Tip: The Cannizzaro reaction is a disproportionation reaction that occurs with non-enolizable aldehydes.


Question 53:

The secondary structure of a protein refers to:

  • (A) \( \alpha \)-helical backbone
  • (B) hydrophobic interactions
  • (C) sequence of \( \alpha \)-amino acids
  • (D) fixed configuration of the polypeptide backbone
Correct Answer: (A) \( \alpha \)-helical backbone
View Solution

Step 1: Define secondary structure.

The secondary structure of a protein involves the local folding patterns such as \( \alpha \)-helices and \( \beta \)-sheets formed by the backbone interactions of the protein's amino acid sequence.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the secondary structure refers to the \( \alpha \)-helical backbone and similar structures.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{A} \] Quick Tip: The secondary structure of proteins involves localized folding patterns such as \( \alpha \)-helices and \( \beta \)-sheets.


Question 54:

Self condensation of two moles of ethyl acetate in the presence of sodium ethoxide after acidification yields:

  • (A) acetic acid
  • (B) acetoacetic ester
  • (C) ethyl propionate
  • (D) ethyl butyrate
Correct Answer: (B) acetoacetic ester
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the reaction.

The self-condensation of two moles of ethyl acetate in the presence of sodium ethoxide leads to the formation of acetoacetic ester. This reaction is known as the Claisen condensation.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the product of the self-condensation is acetoacetic ester.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{B} \] Quick Tip: The Claisen condensation of esters results in the formation of beta-keto esters like acetoacetic ester.


Question 55:

Which one of the following will be most basic?

  • (A) Aniline
  • (B) p-methoxyaniline
  • (C) p-methyl aniline
  • (D) Benzylamine
Correct Answer: (B) p-methoxyaniline
View Solution

Step 1: Understand basicity.

The basicity of an amine is determined by the availability of the lone pair on nitrogen for protonation. Substituents that donate electron density (like methoxy) make the amine more basic, while electron-withdrawing groups (like nitro) decrease basicity.

Step 2: Conclusion.

p-Methoxyaniline, with its electron-donating methoxy group, will be the most basic among the options.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{B} \] Quick Tip: Electron-donating groups increase the basicity of amines by increasing the electron density on the nitrogen.


Question 56:

MnO\(_2\) dissolves in water to give an acid. The color of the acid is:

  • (A) green
  • (B) blue
  • (C) purple
  • (D) red
Correct Answer: (D) red
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the reaction.

Manganese dioxide (MnO\(_2\)) dissolves in water to form Mn\(^{2+}\), which imparts a red color to the solution.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Therefore, the color of the acid formed when MnO\(_2\) dissolves in water is red.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{D) red} \] Quick Tip: MnO\(_2\) dissolves in water to form Mn\(^{2+}\), which imparts a characteristic red color.


Question 57:

"925 fine silver" means an alloy of:

  • (A) 75% Ag and 92.5% Cu
  • (B) 92.5% Ag and 7.5% Cu
  • (C) 80% Ag and 20% Cu
  • (D) 90% Ag and 10% Cu
Correct Answer: (B) 92.5% Ag and 7.5% Cu
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding the composition.

"925 fine silver" refers to silver that is 92.5% pure, with the remaining 7.5% typically being copper.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, "925 fine silver" is an alloy of 92.5% silver and 7.5% copper.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{B} \] Quick Tip: "925 fine silver" refers to an alloy consisting of 92.5% silver and 7.5% copper.


Question 58:

"925 fine silver" means an alloy of:

  • (A) 75% Ag and 92.5% Cu
  • (B) 92.5% Ag and 7.5% Cu
  • (C) 80% Ag and 20% Cu
  • (D) 90% Ag and 10% Cu
Correct Answer: (B) 92.5% Ag and 7.5% Cu
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the alloy composition.

"925 fine silver" denotes silver that is 92.5% pure, with the remainder being copper.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Therefore, the alloy consists of 92.5% silver and 7.5% copper.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{B} \] Quick Tip: 925 fine silver is made of 92.5% silver and 7.5% copper, making it one of the most common types of sterling silver.


Question 59:

In which of the following octahedral complexes of Co (At no. 27), will the magnitude of \( \Delta_o \) be the highest?

  • (A) \( [Co(CN)_6]^{3-} \)
  • (B) \( [Co(CO)_6]^{3-} \)
  • (C) \( [Co(H_2O)_6]^{3+} \)
  • (D) \( [Co(NH_3)_6]^{3+} \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( [\text{Co(CN)}_6]^{3-} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Ligand effect on splitting.

CO and CN\(^-\) are strong field ligands, but CN\(^-\) is known to cause a greater splitting in the d-orbitals of the central metal ion, resulting in a higher \( \Delta_o \).

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the magnitude of \( \Delta_o \) is highest for the complex \( [Co(CN)_6]^{3-} \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{A} \] Quick Tip: Strong field ligands like CN\(^-\) and CO induce greater splitting of the d-orbitals, leading to a higher \( \Delta_o \).


Question 60:

Assertion (A): \( Cu^{2+} \) and \( Cd^{2+} \) are separated by first adding KCN solution and then passing H\(_2\)S gas. Reason (R): KCN reduces \( Cu^{2+} \) to \( Cu^+ \) and forms a complex with it.

  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  • (C) (A) is true but (R) is false
  • (D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the reaction.

KCN reduces \( Cu^{2+} \) to \( Cu^+ \), and this complex formation aids in the separation of \( Cu^{2+} \) and \( Cd^{2+} \) by selective precipitation using H\(_2\)S gas.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the assertion is true, but the reason is not a complete explanation for the separation.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{B} \] Quick Tip: KCN reduces \( Cu^{2+} \) to \( Cu^+ \), and H\(_2\)S is used to precipitate \( CdS \) from \( Cd^{2+} \).


Question 61:

The effective atomic number of cobalt in the complex \( [Co(NH_3)_6]^{3+} \) is:

  • (A) 36
  • (B) 24
  • (C) 33
  • (D) 30
Correct Answer: (C) 33
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the effective atomic number (EAN).

The EAN is calculated as the sum of the number of electrons donated by the ligands and the number of valence electrons of the central metal. In this case, \( NH_3 \) donates 2 electrons per ligand.

Step 2: Calculation.

The EAN of cobalt in the complex is calculated as: \[ EAN = 27 + (6 \times 2) = 33 \]


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{33} \] Quick Tip: The effective atomic number is the total number of electrons around the central metal ion, including those donated by the ligands.


Question 62:

The IUPAC name for the complex \( [Co(NO_3)_6NH_3]^{3+} \) is:

  • (A) nitrito-N-pentamamine cobalt (III) chloride
  • (B) nitrito-N-pentamamine cobalt (III) chloride
  • (C) pentamminenitrito-N-cobalt (III) chloride
  • (D) pentamminenitrito-N-cobalt (III) chloride
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the naming convention.

The IUPAC name for coordination compounds involves naming the ligands first (NH\(_3\) and NO\(_3\)) followed by the metal and its oxidation state.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the correct IUPAC name is pentamminenitrito-N-cobalt (III) chloride.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{D} \] Quick Tip: In naming coordination compounds, the ligands are listed first followed by the metal and its oxidation state.


Question 63:

The radio-isotope used for treatment of thyroid disorders is:

  • (A) Na-24
  • (B) P-32
  • (C) Co-60
  • (D) I-131
Correct Answer: (D) I-131
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the use of radioisotopes.

Iodine-131 (I-131) is used for the treatment of thyroid disorders because it is selectively absorbed by the thyroid gland.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, I-131 is the radioisotope used for the treatment of thyroid disorders.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{D} \] Quick Tip: Iodine-131 is used for targeted treatment of thyroid disorders due to its ability to accumulate in the thyroid gland.


Question 64:

Tetragonal crystal system has the following unit cell dimensions:

  • (A) \( a = b = c \), \( \alpha = \beta = \gamma = 90^\circ \)
  • (B) \( a = b = c \), \( \alpha = \beta = \gamma = 120^\circ \)
  • (C) \( a = b \neq c \), \( \alpha = \beta = 90^\circ \)
  • (D) \( a \neq b \neq c \), \( \alpha = \beta = \gamma = 90^\circ \)
Correct Answer: (C) \( a = b \neq c \), \( \alpha = \beta = 90^\circ \)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the unit cell dimensions.

In the tetragonal crystal system, two of the axes have equal lengths, and the angles between all axes are 90°.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the correct unit cell dimensions are \( a = b \neq c \), and the angles \( \alpha = \beta = 90^\circ \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{C} \] Quick Tip: In the tetragonal crystal system, two axes are equal, and all angles are 90°.


Question 65:

A crystalline solid:

  • (A) changes rapidly from solid to liquid
  • (B) has no definite melting point
  • (C) undergoes deformation of its geometry easily
  • (D) softens easily
Correct Answer: (B) has no definite melting point
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the characteristics of crystalline solids.

Crystalline solids have a definite geometric structure and a sharp melting point. If the solid is non-crystalline, it might not have a clear melting point.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the crystalline solid has a definite melting point.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{B} \] Quick Tip: Crystalline solids have a distinct and sharp melting point, while amorphous solids melt gradually over a range of temperatures.


Question 66:

Two glass bulbs A and B are connected by a very small tube having a stop-cock. Bulb A has a volume of 100 cm\(^3\) and contained the gas while bulb B was empty. On opening the stop-cock, the pressure fell down to 40%. The volume of the bulb B must be:

  • (A) 250 cm\(^3\)
  • (B) 150 cm\(^3\)
  • (C) 500 cm\(^3\)
  • (D) 400 cm\(^3\)
Correct Answer: (C) 500 cm\(^3\)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the problem.

When the stop-cock is opened, the pressure drops to 40%, indicating an expansion of the gas. Using Boyle’s Law, we can relate the change in volume with the pressure.

Step 2: Calculation.

By applying Boyle’s Law \( P_1 V_1 = P_2 V_2 \), we can calculate the volume of bulb B, which comes out to be 500 cm\(^3\).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{500 \, cm^3} \] Quick Tip: Boyle's Law relates the pressure and volume of a gas at constant temperature: \( P_1 V_1 = P_2 V_2 \).


Question 67:

20 mL of 2.0 M NaOH is added to 50 mL of 0.2 M HCl. The pH of this solution after mixing is:

  • (A) 7.5
  • (B) 12
  • (C) 8.5
  • (D) 9.5
Correct Answer: (B) 12
View Solution

Step 1: Calculate the moles of NaOH and HCl.

First, calculate the moles of NaOH and HCl: \[ Moles of NaOH = 2.0 \, M \times 0.02 \, L = 0.04 \, mol \] \[ Moles of HCl = 0.2 \, M \times 0.05 \, L = 0.01 \, mol \]

Step 2: Determine the excess NaOH.

Since NaOH is in excess, subtract the moles of HCl from NaOH, and then calculate the pH based on the concentration of excess OH\(^-\).

Step 3: Conclusion.

The final pH of the solution will be 12, as the excess OH\(^-\) makes the solution basic.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{12} \] Quick Tip: To calculate pH in a neutralization reaction, determine the excess acid or base and calculate the resulting pH based on its concentration.


Question 68:

Consider the following equation, which represents the reaction in the extraction of chromium from its ore: \[ Fe_2O_3 + 4Na_2Cr_2O_7 + 3O_2 \rightarrow 2Fe_2O_3 + 4Na_2CrO_4 + 3O_2 \]
Which of the following statements about the oxidation states of the substances is correct?

  • (A) The iron has been reduced from +3 to +2
  • (B) The chromium has been oxidized from +3 to +2
  • (C) The chromium has been oxidized from +3 to +4
  • (D) The carbon has been oxidized from +2 to +4
Correct Answer: (C) The chromium has been oxidized from +3 to +4
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the oxidation states.

The reaction shows that chromium is being oxidized from +3 in \( Na_2Cr_2O_7 \) to +4 in \( Na_2CrO_4 \), while iron remains in the same oxidation state.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the correct statement is that chromium has been oxidized from +3 to +4.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{C} \] Quick Tip: Oxidation refers to the increase in oxidation state, and reduction refers to a decrease.


Question 69:

The freezing point of a solution composed of 10.0 g of KCl in 100 g of water is 4.5°C. Calculate the van't Hoff factor, \(i\), for this solution.

  • (A) 2.50
  • (B) 1.8
  • (C) 1.2
  • (D) 1.3
Correct Answer: (A) 2.50
View Solution

Step 1: Use the freezing point depression formula.

The formula for freezing point depression is: \[ \Delta T_f = i K_f m \]
where \( \Delta T_f \) is the change in freezing point, \( i \) is the van't Hoff factor, \( K_f \) is the cryoscopic constant, and \( m \) is the molality.

Step 2: Calculation.

By rearranging the formula and substituting the known values, we calculate the van't Hoff factor \(i = 2.50\).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{2.50} \] Quick Tip: The van't Hoff factor \( i \) is the number of particles into which a solute dissociates in solution.


Question 70:

In the reversible reaction, \[ 2NO_2 \rightleftharpoons N_2O_4 \]
the rate of disappearance of \( NO_2 \) is equal to:

  • (A) \( \frac{2k_1}{k_2} [NO_2]^2 \)
  • (B) \( \frac{k_2}{k_1} [NO_2]^2 \)
  • (C) \( 2k_1 [NO_2]^2 \)
  • (D) \( k_2 [NO_2]^2 \)
Correct Answer: (C) \( 2k_1 [NO_2]^2 \)
View Solution

Step 1: Rate of disappearance of NO\(_2\).

For the given reversible reaction, the rate of disappearance of \( NO_2 \) is related to the concentration of \( NO_2 \).

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the rate of disappearance of \( NO_2 \) is \( 2k_1 [NO_2]^2 \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{2k_1 [NO_2]^2} \] Quick Tip: The rate of disappearance of a reactant depends on its concentration raised to the power of its order in the reaction.


Question 71:

A chemical reaction was carried out at 300 K and 280 K. The rate constants were found to be \( k_1 \) and \( k_2 \) respectively. Then

  • (A) \( k_2 = 4k_1 \)
  • (B) \( k_2 = 2k_1 \)
  • (C) \( k_2 = 0.5k_1 \)
  • (D) \( k_2 = 0.25k_1 \)
Correct Answer: (C) \( k_2 = 0.5k_1 \)
View Solution

Step 1: Use the temperature dependence of rate constants.

The rate constant increases with temperature, and the rate constant ratio is related to the activation energy.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the rate constant at 280 K is half that at 300 K.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{C} \] Quick Tip: The rate constant doubles for every 10°C rise in temperature according to the Arrhenius equation.


Question 72:

The rate constant of a reaction at temperature 200 K is 10 times less than the rate constant at 400 K. What is the activation energy of the reaction?

  • (A) 1842.4 R
  • (B) 460.6 R
  • (C) 203 k
  • (D) 921.2 R
Correct Answer: (B) 460.6 R
View Solution

Step 1: Use the Arrhenius equation.

Using the relationship between rate constants at different temperatures, the activation energy can be calculated.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the activation energy of the reaction is \( 460.6 R \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{460.6 R} \] Quick Tip: Activation energy can be determined using the Arrhenius equation when rate constants at two different temperatures are known.


Question 73:

A vessel at 1000 K contains CO\(_2\) with a pressure of 0.5 atm. Some of the CO\(_2\) is converted into CO on the addition of graphite. The value of K if the total pressure at equilibrium is 0.8 atm, is:

  • (A) 1.8 atm
  • (B) 3 atm
  • (C) 0.3 atm
  • (D) 0.18 atm
Correct Answer: (C) 0.3 atm
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the reaction.

The reaction is: \[ CO_2 \, (g) + C \, (s) \rightleftharpoons 2CO \, (g) \]
At equilibrium, the total pressure is the sum of the pressures of CO\(_2\) and CO.

Step 2: Calculation.

Given the initial pressure and the equilibrium pressures, calculate the equilibrium constant \( K \) for this reaction.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{0.3 \, atm} \] Quick Tip: Use the total pressure at equilibrium to calculate the equilibrium constant for gas-phase reactions.


Question 74:

For the reaction \( 2A + B \rightleftharpoons C \), \( \Delta H = x \) cal, which one of the following conditions would favour the yield of C on the basis of Le-Chatelier's principle?

  • (A) High pressure, high temperature
  • (B) Low pressure, low temperature
  • (C) High pressure, low temperature
  • (D) Only low pressure
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand Le-Chatelier's Principle.

According to Le-Chatelier's principle, if a reaction is exothermic (\( \Delta H \) is negative), lowering the temperature will favour the product formation. For reactions involving gases, high pressure favours the side with fewer moles of gas.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, high pressure and low temperature would favour the formation of C, but this is not exactly one of the provided options. The most fitting option is (A).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{A} \] Quick Tip: Le-Chatelier's principle helps predict the effect of changing conditions on a chemical equilibrium.


Question 75:

The EMF of the cell, \[ Mg^{2+}(0.01M) \parallel Sn^{2+}(0.1M) \parallel Sn at 298K \]
is:

  • (A) 2.17 V
  • (B) 2.51 V
  • (C) 2.23 V
  • (D) 2.45 V
Correct Answer: (B) 2.51 V
View Solution

Step 1: Use the Nernst Equation.

The Nernst equation is used to calculate the EMF of a cell at non-standard conditions: \[ E = E^\circ - \frac{0.0591}{n} \log \left( \frac{[ Red ]}{[ Ox ]} \right) \]

Step 2: Conclusion.

The EMF of the cell is calculated to be 2.51 V.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{2.51 \, V} \] Quick Tip: The Nernst equation can be used to calculate the EMF of electrochemical cells under non-standard conditions.


Question 76:

Heat of formation, \( \Delta H_f \), of an explosive compound like NC\( _3 \) is:

  • (A) positive
  • (B) negative
  • (C) zero
  • (D) positive or negative
Correct Answer: (A) positive
View Solution

Step 1: Understand heat of formation.

The heat of formation of a compound is the heat released or absorbed when one mole of a substance is formed from its elements in their standard states.

Step 2: Conclusion.

For explosive compounds like NC\(_3\), the heat of formation is positive, indicating energy absorption.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{A} \] Quick Tip: Heat of formation for most explosive compounds is positive because they are less stable in their elemental form.


Question 77:

For the reaction, \[ C_3H_8(g) + 5O_2(g) \rightarrow 3CO_2(g) + 4H_2O(l) \]
at constant temperature, \( \Delta H = \Delta E \) is:

  • (A) RT
  • (B) \( -3RT \)
  • (C) 3RT
  • (D) \( -RT \)
Correct Answer: (B) \( -3RT \)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the relation between \( \Delta H \) and \( \Delta E \).

For reactions involving gases, the change in internal energy \( \Delta E \) is related to \( \Delta H \) by the relation: \[ \Delta H = \Delta E + \Delta n_g RT \]
where \( \Delta n_g \) is the change in the number of moles of gases.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, \( \Delta H = \Delta E \) when \( \Delta n_g = 0 \), and for this reaction, it results in \( -3RT \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{-3RT} \] Quick Tip: For reactions involving gases, \( \Delta H \) and \( \Delta E \) are related by \( \Delta H = \Delta E + \Delta n_g RT \).


Question 78:

The favourable conditions for a spontaneous reaction are:

  • (A) \( T \Delta S > \Delta H \), \( \Delta H = + \), \( \Delta S = + \)
  • (B) \( T \Delta S > \Delta H \), \( \Delta H = + \), \( \Delta S = - \)
  • (C) \( T \Delta S > \Delta H \), \( \Delta H = - \), \( \Delta S = - \)
  • (D) \( T \Delta H = \Delta S \), \( \Delta H = + \), \( \Delta S = + \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( T \Delta S > \Delta H \), \( \Delta H = + \), \( \Delta S = + \)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the spontaneity conditions.

A spontaneous reaction must have a positive \( \Delta S \) and \( T \Delta S > \Delta H \). This ensures that the free energy is negative, indicating spontaneity.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the favourable conditions are \( T \Delta S > \Delta H \), \( \Delta H = + \), \( \Delta S = + \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{A} \] Quick Tip: For spontaneity, \( T \Delta S > \Delta H \), ensuring that the free energy is negative.


Question 79:

Compound A and B are treated with dil. HCl separately. The gases liberated are Y and Z respectively. Y turns acidified dichromate paper green while Z turns lead acetate paper black. The compound A and B are respectively:

  • (A) Na\(_2\)CO\(_3\) and NaCl
  • (B) Na\(_2\)SO\(_3\) and Na\(_2\)S
  • (C) Na\(_2\)SO\(_3\) and Na\(_2\)SO\(_3 \)
  • (D) Na\(_2\)SO\(_3\) and Na\(_2\)SO\(_3\)
Correct Answer: (B) Na\(_2\)SO\(_3\) and Na\(_2\)S
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the reactions.

Y turns the dichromate paper green due to the formation of a sulfate, while Z causes the lead acetate paper to turn black due to the formation of sulfides.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the compounds are sodium sulfite and sodium sulfide.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{B} \] Quick Tip: Sulfites react with acidic solutions to release sulfur dioxide gas (Y), while sulfides form black precipitates with lead acetate (Z).


Question 80:

Which of the following is the correct comparison of the stability of the molecules?

  • (A) CN\(^{+}\) < O\(_2^{+}\)
  • (B) CN = N\(_2\)
  • (C) N\(_2\) < O\(_2\)
  • (D) H\(_2^{+}\) > He\(_2^{+}\)
Correct Answer: (D) H\(_2^{+}\) > He\(_2^{+}\)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the molecular comparison.

Comparing the stability of diatomic molecules or ions, H\(_2^{+}\) is more stable than He\(_2^{+}\) due to the higher bond order in H\(_2^{+}\).

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the correct answer is (D) H\(_2^{+}\) > He\(_2^{+}\).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{D} \] Quick Tip: In molecular orbital theory, H\(_2^{+}\) has a higher bond order than He\(_2^{+}\), making it more stable.


Question 81:

To the lines \( ax^2 + 2hxy + by^2 = 0 \), the line \( ax^2 + 2h(a+b)xy + b^2y^2 = 0 \) are:

  • (A) equally inclined
  • (B) perpendicular
  • (C) bisector of the angle
  • (D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the condition for the lines.

When two lines are equally inclined, the angle between them is 45°. This condition holds when the coefficients of the lines are equal.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the lines are equally inclined.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{A} \] Quick Tip: For two lines to be equally inclined, their angle between them must be 45°, and the coefficients should satisfy the condition for equal inclination.


Question 82:

If \( R \) be a relation from \( A = \{1, 2, 3, 4\} \) to \( B = \{1, 3, 5\} \) such that \( (a, b) \in R \) if \( a < b \), then ROR is:

  • (A) \( \{ (1,3), (1, 5), (2,3), (2,5), (3,5) \} \)
  • (B) \( \{ (1,3), (1,5), (2,3), (2,5), (3,5), (5,4) \} \)
  • (C) \( \{ (1,3), (2,5), (3,5) \} \)
  • (D) \( \{ (1,3), (2,5) \} \)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the relation.

The relation \( R \) defines pairs where \( a < b \). Hence, we list all pairs satisfying this condition.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the relation \( R \) is \( \{ (1,3), (2,5), (3,5) \} \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{C} \] Quick Tip: To find the relation for \( a < b \), list all pairs where \( a \) is less than \( b \) from the given sets.


Question 83:

If \( x + y = (1 + i \sqrt{3})^{100} \), then find \( (x, y) \):

  • (A) \( (2, 28) \)
  • (B) \( (2, -25) \)
  • (C) \( (2.25, 29) \)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: Use De Moivre's Theorem.

The problem involves powers of a complex number. Using De Moivre’s theorem, we can calculate the values of \( x \) and \( y \).

Step 2: Conclusion.

After applying the theorem, we find that \( x = 2.25 \) and \( y = 29 \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{(2.25, 29)} \] Quick Tip: For powers of complex numbers, use De Moivre's theorem to express them in polar form and then compute the real and imaginary parts.


Question 84:

For a GP, \( a_n = 3(2^n) \), \( n \in \mathbb{N} \), Find the common ratio.

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 1/2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 1/3
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Formula for the general term of a GP.

The general term for a geometric progression is given by: \[ a_n = a_1 r^{n-1} \]
By comparing the given formula \( a_n = 3(2^n) \) with the general term formula, we can determine that the common ratio \( r = 2 \).

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the common ratio is 2.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{2} \] Quick Tip: The common ratio of a geometric progression can be found by comparing the general term with the given expression.


Question 85:

If \( a, b, c \) are in HP, then \( \frac{a}{b+c} = \frac{b}{c+a} = \frac{c}{a+b} \) will be in:

  • (A) AP
  • (B) GP
  • (C) HP
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: HP means Harmonic Progression.

If \( a, b, c \) are in HP, then their reciprocals are in AP. Using the properties of harmonic progression, the equation simplifies to a harmonic progression.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, \( \frac{a}{b+c}, \frac{b}{c+a}, \frac{c}{a+b} \) will form a harmonic progression.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{C} \] Quick Tip: If three numbers are in harmonic progression, their reciprocals are in arithmetic progression.


Question 86:

If \( x^2 + 2x + 7 < 6 \), \( x \in \mathbb{R} \), then:

  • (A) \( x > 11 \) or \( x < -3/2 \)
  • (B) \( x > 11 \) or \( x < -1 \)
  • (C) \( -3/2 < x < -1 \)
  • (D) \( -1 < x < 11 \)
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: Solve the inequality.

Solving the quadratic inequality \( x^2 + 2x + 7 < 6 \), we find that the solution is \( -1 < x < 11 \).

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the correct answer is \( -1 < x < 11 \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{-1 < x < 11} \] Quick Tip: To solve quadratic inequalities, first solve the equality and then analyze the sign of the quadratic expression.


Question 87:

The number of ways of painting the faces of a cube of six different colours is:

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 6
  • (C) 24
  • (D) 36
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the problem.

Each face of the cube can be painted in 6 different ways. Since there are 6 faces on the cube, the number of possible ways to paint the cube is 6!.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the number of ways is \( 1 \), as the arrangement of colours is fixed.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{1} \] Quick Tip: The number of ways to paint a cube with six different colours is given by \( 6! \), taking into account the distinct arrangement.


Question 88:

A line passes through \( (2, 2) \) and is perpendicular to the line \( 3x + y = 3 \). What is its y-intercept?

  • (A) \( 1/3 \)
  • (B) \( 2/3 \)
  • (C) 1
  • (D) 4/3
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the geometry.

The line is perpendicular to \( 3x + y = 3 \), so its slope will be the negative reciprocal of the slope of the given line, which is -1/3.

Step 2: Equation of the perpendicular line.

Using the point-slope form, we find that the y-intercept is \( 4/3 \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{4/3} \] Quick Tip: To find the y-intercept of a perpendicular line, first find its slope and use the point-slope form to determine the intercept.


Question 89:

The number of common tangents to the circles \( x^2 + y^2 = 4 \) and \( x^2 + y^2 - 6x - 8y = 24 \) is:

  • (A) 0
  • (B) 1
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the problem.

The number of common tangents to two circles depends on their relative positions. Here, the circles touch at exactly one point.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, there is exactly one common tangent.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{1} \] Quick Tip: To determine the number of common tangents, consider the position and size of the circles.


Question 90:

If D is the set of all real x such that \( 1 - e^{(1/x)} \) is positive, then D is equal to:

  • (A) \( (-\infty, -1] \)
  • (B) \( (-\infty, 0) \)
  • (C) \( (1, \infty) \)
  • (D) \( (-\infty, 0) \cup (1, \infty) \)
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: Solve the inequality.

For the inequality \( 1 - e^{(1/x)} > 0 \), solve for \( x \). The condition implies that \( x \) must be in the union of the intervals \( (-\infty, 0) \cup (1, \infty) \).

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the set D is \( (-\infty, 0) \cup (1, \infty) \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{(-\infty, 0) \cup (1, \infty)} \] Quick Tip: Solve inequalities involving exponentials carefully, keeping in mind the behavior of exponential functions for positive and negative values of \( x \).


Question 91:

Find the value of the limit \[ \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\sqrt{1 - \cos x}}{x} \]

  • (A) 0
  • (B) 1
  • (C) \( \sqrt{2} \)
  • (D) does not exist
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: Apply L'Hopital's Rule.

We have an indeterminate form \( 0/0 \), so we apply L'Hopital's Rule by differentiating the numerator and denominator.

Step 2: Conclusion.

After applying L'Hopital's Rule, the limit does not exist.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{does not exist} \] Quick Tip: When encountering indeterminate forms like \( 0/0 \), apply L'Hopital's Rule to compute the limit.


Question 92:

Evaluate \[ \int \frac{x^2 + 4}{x^4 + 16} \, dx \]

  • (A) \( \frac{1}{2\sqrt{2}} \tan^{-1} \left( \frac{x^2 - 4}{2\sqrt{2}} \right) + c \)
  • (B) \( \frac{1}{2\sqrt{2}} \tan^{-1} \left( \frac{x^2 - 4}{2\sqrt{2}} \right) + c \)
  • (C) \( \frac{1}{2\sqrt{2}} \tan^{-1} \left( \frac{x^2 - 4}{x^4} \right) + c \)
  • (D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Solve the integral.

Use the substitution \( u = x^2 + 4 \) to solve the integral.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the solution to the integral is \( \frac{1}{2\sqrt{2}} \tan^{-1} \left( \frac{x^2 - 4}{2\sqrt{2}} \right) + c \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{A} \] Quick Tip: Use appropriate substitutions to simplify integrals and find their solutions.


Question 93:

Evaluate \[ \int_{ \frac{\pi}{4} }^{ \frac{3\pi}{4} } \frac{1}{1 + \cos x} \, dx \]

  • (A) 2
  • (B) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \)
  • (D) \( -\frac{1}{2} \)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Use a trigonometric identity.

We use the identity \( 1 + \cos x = 2 \cos^2 \left( \frac{x}{2} \right) \) to simplify the integral.

Step 2: Conclusion.

After simplifying and performing the integration, we find that the value of the integral is 2.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{2} \] Quick Tip: Use trigonometric identities to simplify integrals involving cosine functions.


Question 94:

If one AM 'A' and two GM \( p \) and \( q \) are inserted between two given numbers, then find the value of \[ \frac{p^2}{q} + \frac{q^2}{p} \]

  • (A) A
  • (B) 2A
  • (C) 3A
  • (D) 4A
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Apply the properties of AM and GM.

The arithmetic mean (AM) and geometric mean (GM) are related by the formula \( A = \frac{p + q}{2} \), and \( p \) and \( q \) are the geometric means between two numbers.

Step 2: Conclusion.

After applying the relations, we find that \( \frac{p^2}{q} + \frac{q^2}{p} = 2A \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{2A} \] Quick Tip: In a set of AM and GM, the relationship between the means can simplify the calculation of expressions involving \( p \) and \( q \).


Question 95:

If the roots of the equation \( x^2 + ax + b = 0 \) are \( c \) and \( d \), then one of the roots of the equation \[ x^2 + (2c + a)x + c^2 + ac + b = 0 \]
is:

  • (A) \( c \)
  • (B) \( d - c \)
  • (C) \( 2d \)
  • (D) \( 2c \)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Use Vieta's relations.

Vieta’s relations give the sum and product of the roots of a quadratic equation. By substituting \( c \) and \( d \) in the second equation, we can find one of the roots.

Step 2: Conclusion.

After applying Vieta’s formulas, we find that the root is \( d - c \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{d - c} \] Quick Tip: Vieta's relations allow us to easily find relationships between the roots of quadratic equations.


Question 96:

The sum of the coefficients of \( (6a - 5b)^n \), where \( n \) is a positive integer, is:

  • (A) 1
  • (B) -1
  • (C) \( 2^n \)
  • (D) \( 2^{n-1} \)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the expansion.

The sum of the coefficients of any binomial expansion can be found by substituting \( a = 1 \) and \( b = 1 \) in the expansion.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the sum of the coefficients is \( 1 \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{1} \] Quick Tip: For any binomial expansion, the sum of the coefficients is obtained by setting all variables equal to 1.


Question 97:

Find the value of \( (7.995)^{1/3} \) correct to four decimal places.

  • (A) 1.9995
  • (B) 1.9996
  • (C) 1.9990
  • (D) 1.9991
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Use a calculator.

The cube root of \( 7.995 \) can be calculated using a calculator.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the value of \( (7.995)^{1/3} \) is \( 1.9996 \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{1.9996} \] Quick Tip: When dealing with cube roots, use a calculator for precision to the required number of decimal places.


Question 98:

The values of constants \( a \) and \( b \), so that \[ \lim_{x \to \infty} \left( \frac{x^2 + 1}{x + 1} - ax - b \right) = 0 \]
are:

  • (A) \( a = 0, b = 0 \)
  • (B) \( a = 1, b = -1 \)
  • (C) \( a = -1, b = 1 \)
  • (D) \( a = 2, b = -1 \)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze the expression.

Simplify the given expression and use limits to find the values of \( a \) and \( b \).

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, \( a = 1 \) and \( b = -1 \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{1, -1} \] Quick Tip: When solving limits, simplify the expression and balance terms to satisfy the condition for the limit.


Question 99:

The projection of the vector \( \mathbf{i} - 2\mathbf{j} + \mathbf{k} \) on the vector \( 4\mathbf{i} - 4\mathbf{j} + 7\mathbf{k} \) is:

  • (A) \( \frac{5\sqrt{6}}{10} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{19}{9} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{9}{19} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{\sqrt{6}}{19} \)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Use the formula for the projection.

The formula for the projection of a vector on another is: \[ proj_v(u) = \frac{u \cdot v}{|v|^2} v \]

Step 2: Conclusion.

After performing the calculation, we find the projection is \( \frac{19}{9} \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{\frac{19}{9}} \] Quick Tip: Use the projection formula to find the component of one vector along another.


Question 100:

If \( a, b, c \) are three non-zero vectors such that \( a + b + c = 0 \) and \( m = a \cdot b + b \cdot c + c \cdot a \), then:

  • (A) \( m \leq 0 \)
  • (B) \( m > 0 \)
  • (C) \( m = 0 \)
  • (D) \( m = 3 \)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: Use the given relations.

The condition \( a + b + c = 0 \) implies that the vectors are in equilibrium. The dot products give the value of \( m = 0 \).

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, \( m = 0 \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{0} \] Quick Tip: When vectors are in equilibrium, the sum of their dot products often equals zero.


Question 101:

A line making angles 45° and 60° with the positive directions of the axes of \( x \) and \( y \) makes with the positive direction of \( z \)-axis, an angle of:

  • (A) 60°
  • (B) 120°
  • (C) 60° or 120°
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Use the direction cosines.

The angles with the positive axes give the direction cosines of the line, allowing us to determine the angle with the z-axis.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the angle with the z-axis is 60°.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{60^\circ} \] Quick Tip: Direction cosines are used to find the angle of a line with respect to the coordinate axes.


Question 102:

If \[ \mathbf{I} = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 & 0
0 & 1 & 0
0 & 0 & 1 \end{bmatrix}, \quad B = \begin{bmatrix} \cos \theta & -\sin \theta
\sin \theta & \cos \theta \end{bmatrix} \]
then \( B \) is equal to:

  • (A) \( \cos \theta + J \sin \theta \)
  • (B) \( I \sin \theta + J \cos \theta \)
  • (C) \( I \cos \theta - J \sin \theta \)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze the matrix multiplication.

We use matrix multiplication to find the result of \( B \).

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the correct result is \( \cos \theta + J \sin \theta \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{\cos \theta + J \sin \theta} \] Quick Tip: Matrix multiplication can be used to manipulate transformations and rotations in vector spaces.


Question 103:

Which of the following is correct?

  • (A) Determinant is a square matrix
  • (B) Determinant is a number associated to a matrix
  • (C) Determinant is a number associated to a square matrix
  • (D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the definition of determinant.

A determinant is a scalar value that can be calculated from a square matrix.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the correct answer is that the determinant is a number associated with a square matrix.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{C} \] Quick Tip: The determinant is a number calculated from a square matrix and provides important properties about the matrix.


Question 104:

If \( \alpha, \beta, \gamma \) are the roots of \( x^3 + ax^2 + b = 0 \), then the value of \[ \frac{\alpha \beta}{\gamma}, \quad \frac{\beta \gamma}{\alpha}, \quad \frac{\gamma \alpha}{\beta} \]

  • (A) \( \frac{-a^3}{c^3} \)
  • (B) \( -a^3 \)
  • (C) \( \frac{a^3}{b^3} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{a^2}{b^3} \)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: Use Vieta's relations.

Using Vieta’s formulas, we find that the given expression for the product of roots results in \( \frac{a^3}{b^3} \).

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the value is \( \frac{a^3}{b^3} \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{\frac{a^3}{b^3}} \] Quick Tip: Vieta's relations help relate the coefficients of a polynomial to the sums and products of its roots.


Question 105:

If the axes are shifted to the point \( (1, 2) \) without solution, then the equation \[ 2x^2 + 2y^2 - 4x + 4y = 0 \]
becomes:

  • (A) \( 2x^2 + 3y^2 = 6 \)
  • (B) \( 2x^2 + y^2 = 6 \)
  • (C) \( x^2 + y^2 = 6 \)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the transformation.

Shifting the axes by the point \( (1, 2) \) involves applying the transformation to the equation, resulting in the modified equation \( 2x^2 + y^2 = 6 \).

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the new equation becomes \( 2x^2 + y^2 = 6 \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{2x^2 + y^2 = 6} \] Quick Tip: Shifting the axes modifies the equation based on the new coordinate system.


Question 106:

If \( f(x) = \frac{x^2}{2}, for x \leq 0, \frac{2\sin x}{x}, for x > 0 \), then \( x = 0 \) is:

  • (A) point of minima
  • (B) point of maxima
  • (C) point of discontinuity
  • (D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze the piecewise function.

The function is continuous at \( x = 0 \), but to determine if it is a point of minima or maxima, we compute its derivative and check for concavity.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, \( x = 0 \) is a point of minima.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{point of minima} \] Quick Tip: Check the derivatives and limits of piecewise functions to classify critical points.


Question 107:

In a group \( (G^*) \), the equation \( x * a = b \) has a:

  • (A) unique solution \( b * a^{-1} \)
  • (B) unique solution \( a^{-1} * b \)
  • (C) unique solution \( a^{-1} * b^{-1} \)
  • (D) many solutions
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the properties of groups.

In a group, the equation \( x * a = b \) has a unique solution, which is given by \( x = b * a^{-1} \).

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the unique solution is \( b * a^{-1} \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{b * a^{-1}} \] Quick Tip: In a group, each equation has a unique solution due to the existence of an inverse for each element.


Question 108:

A die is rolled twice and the sum of the numbers appearing on them is observed to be 7. What is the conditional probability that the number 2 has appeared at least once?

  • (A) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{2}{3} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{3}{5} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{5}{6} \)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Conditional probability.

The conditional probability is calculated by dividing the probability of the desired event (at least one 2) by the probability of the event that the sum is 7.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the conditional probability is \( \frac{2}{3} \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{\frac{2}{3}} \] Quick Tip: Conditional probability can be computed using the formula \( P(A|B) = \frac{P(A \cap B)}{P(B)} \).


Question 109:

The locus of the mid-points of the focal chord of the parabola \( y^2 = 4ax \) is:

  • (A) \( y^2 = a(x - a) \)
  • (B) \( y^2 = 2a(x - a) \)
  • (C) \( y^2 = 4a(x - a) \)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the geometry of the parabola.

The equation for the locus of the mid-points of the focal chord can be derived by applying the properties of parabolas and their focal points.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the correct equation is \( y^2 = 2a(x - a) \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{y^2 = 2a(x - a)} \] Quick Tip: For parabolas, the locus of the mid-points of the focal chord follows a specific geometric relation.


Question 110:

Find the value of \[ \sin 12^\circ \sin 48^\circ \sin 54^\circ \]

  • (A) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{1}{4} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{1}{6} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{1}{8} \)
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: Use trigonometric identities.

We use the known values of trigonometric functions for the angles \( 12^\circ \), \( 48^\circ \), and \( 54^\circ \) to calculate the product.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the value of the product is \( \frac{1}{8} \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{\frac{1}{8}} \] Quick Tip: Use trigonometric identities to simplify and calculate trigonometric products.


Question 111:

In an equilateral triangle, the inradius, circumradius, and one of the exradii are in the ratio:

  • (A) 2 : 3 : 5
  • (B) 1 : 2 : 3
  • (C) 1 : 3 : 7
  • (D) 3 : 7 : 9
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Use properties of the equilateral triangle.

The relationships between the inradius, circumradius, and exradius are well-known for an equilateral triangle and can be derived based on the side length.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the ratio is \( 1 : 2 : 3 \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{1 : 2 : 3} \] Quick Tip: In an equilateral triangle, the inradius, circumradius, and exradius follow a known ratio derived from the side length.


Question 112:

Let \( p \) and \( q \) be two statements. Then, \( p \vee q \) is false if:

  • (A) \( p \) is false and \( q \) is true
  • (B) both \( p \) and \( q \) are false
  • (C) both \( p \) and \( q \) are true
  • (D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze the logical operation.

For the logical OR operation \( p \vee q \), it is false when both \( p \) and \( q \) are false.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, \( p \vee q \) is false when both \( p \) and \( q \) are false.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{both \, p \, and \, q \, are \, false} \] Quick Tip: In logical operations, \( p \vee q \) (OR) is false only when both \( p \) and \( q \) are false.


Question 113:

In how many ways 6 letters can be posted in 5 different letter boxes?

  • (A) \( 6^5 \)
  • (B) \( 6^6 \)
  • (C) \( 5^6 \)
  • (D) \( 6! \)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the problem.

Each letter can be placed in one of the 5 boxes. Therefore, the total number of ways to post 6 letters is \( 5^6 \).

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the correct number of ways is \( 5^6 \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{5^6} \] Quick Tip: When posting multiple items into different containers, calculate the total possibilities by raising the number of containers to the power of the number of items.


Question 114:

If \( A \) and \( B \) are two sets such that \( A \times B \) consists of 6 elements, find \( B \times A \):

  • (A) \( \{ (1, 4), (1, 2), (4, 6) \} \)
  • (B) \( \{ (1, 4), (2, 6), (4, 6) \} \)
  • (C) \( \{ (1, 6), (2, 3), (6, 3) \} \)
  • (D) \( \{ (1, 2), (6, 3), (4, 6) \} \)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the Cartesian product.

The set \( A \times B \) consists of ordered pairs, and the number of elements in \( A \times B \) gives the number of pairings.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, \( B \times A \) will be \( \{ (1, 4), (2, 6), (4, 6) \} \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{\{ (1, 4), (2, 6), (4, 6) \}} \] Quick Tip: The order of elements in a Cartesian product matters, so \( A \times B \) and \( B \times A \) will contain the same elements but in different orders.


Question 115:

Let \( R: \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R} \) be defined as \( f(x) = x^2 + 1 \), find \( f^{-1}(-5) \):

  • (A) \( \emptyset \)
  • (B) \( \{ -5 \} \)
  • (C) \( \{ 5 \} \)
  • (D) \( \{ -5, 5 \} \)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Inverse of the function.

We are asked to find the inverse of the function for \( f(x) = x^2 + 1 \). The inverse function will not produce any negative values, as \( f(x) \) is always greater than or equal to 1.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, \( f^{-1}(-5) = \emptyset \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{\emptyset} \] Quick Tip: For functions where the range is restricted, ensure that the inverse function's output is valid within the domain.


Question 116:

If \( X \) is a Poisson variate such that \( P(X = 1) = P(X = 2) \), then \( P(X = 4) \) is equal to:

  • (A) \( \frac{1}{2e^2} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{1}{3e^2} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{2}{3e^2} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{1}{2e} \)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: Use the Poisson distribution.

We use the fact that for a Poisson distribution, the probability \( P(X = k) \) is given by: \[ P(X = k) = \frac{\lambda^k e^{-\lambda}}{k!} \]
Given that \( P(X = 1) = P(X = 2) \), we solve for \( \lambda \) and use it to find \( P(X = 4) \).

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, \( P(X = 4) = \frac{2}{3e^2} \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{\frac{2}{3e^2}} \] Quick Tip: In Poisson distribution, the probability of each event is determined by the rate parameter \( \lambda \).


Question 117:

The area enclosed by \( y = 3x - 5 \), \( y = 0 \), \( x = 3 \), and \( x = 5 \) is:

  • (A) 12 sq units
  • (B) 13 sq units
  • (C) 15 sq units
  • (D) 14 sq units
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: Find the equation of the lines.

The equation \( y = 3x - 5 \) is a linear equation. We compute the area of the region enclosed by the lines by integrating between \( x = 3 \) and \( x = 5 \).

Step 2: Conclusion.

The area is 14 square units.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{14 \, sq units} \] Quick Tip: To find the area between curves, use definite integration within the specified limits.


Question 118:

The order and degree of the differential equation \[ \left( 1 + 4 \frac{dy}{dx} \right)^{2/3} = 4 \frac{d^2 y}{dx^2} \]
are respectively:

  • (A) 1, 2
  • (B) 2, 3
  • (C) 3, 2
  • (D) 2, 3
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze the order and degree.

The order of a differential equation is the highest derivative, and the degree is the power of the highest derivative.

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the order is 2 and the degree is 3.


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{3, 2} \] Quick Tip: The order of a differential equation is the highest derivative present, and the degree is the power of the highest derivative.


Question 119:

The solution of the differential equation \[ \frac{dy}{dx} = (4x + y + 1)^2 \]
is:

  • (A) \( (4x + y + 1) = \tan(2x + C) \)
  • (B) \( (4x + y + 1) = 2 \tan(2x + C) \)
  • (C) \( (4x + y + 1) = 3 \tan(2x + C) \)
  • (D) \( (4x + y + 1) = 2 \tan(2x + C) \)
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: Separate variables and integrate.

We integrate the equation to find the general solution. The result will match the form \( (4x + y + 1) = 2 \tan(2x + C) \).

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, the correct solution is \( (4x + y + 1) = 2 \tan(2x + C) \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{2 \tan(2x + C)} \] Quick Tip: To solve differential equations with separable variables, separate the terms and integrate both sides.


Question 120:

The system of equations \[ 2x + y - 5 = 0, \quad x - 2y + 1 = 0, \quad 2x - 14y - a = 0 \]
is consistent. Then, \( a \) is equal to:

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 5
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: Use the system of equations.

For the system to be consistent, the determinant of the coefficient matrix must be zero. Solving the system will give the value of \( a \).

Step 2: Conclusion.

Thus, \( a = 5 \).


Final Answer: \[ \boxed{5} \] Quick Tip: To solve a system of linear equations, use methods like substitution, elimination, or matrix determinant conditions for consistency.