GPAT 2025 Question Paper Shift-1 (Available): Download Solutions with Answer Key

Match the following:

(P) Schedule H
(Q) Schedule G
(R) Schedule P
(S) Schedule F2

Descriptions:
(I) Life period of drugs
(II) Drugs used under RMP
(III) List of Prescription Drugs
(IV) Standards for surgical dressing

• (A) \( P-I, Q-II, R-IV, S-III \)
• (B) \( P-III, Q-IV, R-I, S-II \)
• (C) \( P-III, Q-II, R-I, S-IV \)
• (D) \( P-IV, Q-III, R-II, S-I \)

Match the following:

(1) Schedule FF
(2) Schedule F3
(3) Schedule V
(4) Schedule Y

Descriptions:
(P) Standards of patent and proprietary medicines
(Q) Requirements and guidelines for clinical trials
(R) Standards for sterilized umbilical tapes
(S) Standards for Ophthalmic preparations

• (A) \( 1-[P], 2-[Q], 3-[S], 4-[R] \)
• (B) \( 1-[Q], 2-[R], 3-[P], 4-[S] \)
• (C) \( 1-[S], 2-[R], 3-[P], 4-[Q] \)
• (D) \( 1-[R], 2-[P], 3-[Q], 4-[S] \)

If the label or the container bears the name of an individual or company purporting to be the manufacturer of the drug, which individual or company is fictitious or does not exist, it is:

• (A) \( Misbranded Drug \)
• (B) \( Adulterated Drug \)
• (C) \( Spurious Drug \)
• (D) \( Not of Standard Quality \)

ISO for quality assurance of Design, Development, Processing, Installation, and Servicing is:

• (A) \( ISO 9000 \)
• (B) \( ISO 9001 \)
• (C) \( ISO 9002 \)
• (D) \( ISO 9003 \)

According to the ICH guidelines for stability studies, Climatic Zone II temperature and relative humidity are respectively:

• (A) \( 25^\circ C \) and RH \( 60% \)
• (B) \( 30^\circ C \) and RH \( 65% \)
• (C) \( 40^\circ C \) and RH \( 75% \)
• (D) \( 25^\circ C \) and RH \( 75% \)

How much volume of Raw spirit can an excise officer withdraw as sample?

• (A) \( One sample of 200 ml \)
• (B) \( Two samples of 150 ml each \)
• (C) \( Three samples of same batch, each not more than 100 ml \)
• (D) \( One sample of 500 ml \)

Minimum manufacturing space for 'Habb-Unani medicine' as per Schedule of D and C Act?

• (A) \( 50 Sq. Ft. \)
• (B) \( 75 Sq. Ft. \)
• (C) \( 100 Sq. Ft. \)
• (D) \( 150 Sq. Ft. \)

Manufacturing Specification for tooling has been standardized by?

• (A) \( USFDA \)
• (B) \( CDSCO \)
• (C) \( Indian Pharmacopoeial Commission \)
• (D) \( WHO \)

Match the pair of drugs and their family:

Column A (Drugs):
1. Snake root
2. Artemisia
3. Bitter almond
4. Myrrh

Column B (Family):
(P) Compositae
(Q) Rosaceae
(R) Apocynaceae
(S) Burseraceae

• (A) \( 1-[R], 2-[P], 3-[Q], 4-[S] \)
• (B) \( 1-[Q], 2-[R], 3-[P], 4-[S] \)
• (C) \( 1-[P], 2-[Q], 3-[S], 4-[R] \)
• (D) \( 1-[S], 2-[P], 3-[R], 4-[Q] \)

Which of the following alkaloids are found as salts of meconic acid?

• (A) \( Rauwolfia Alkaloid \)
• (B) \( Tropane Alkaloid \)
• (C) \( Ergot Alkaloid \)
• (D) \( Opium Alkaloid \)

Choose the correct statement from the following:

(P) Anthraquinone derivatives are generally detected by Borntrager’s test
(Q) Anthrone is yellow colored and soluble in alkali
(R) Anthranol is insoluble in alkali and shows strong red fluorescence
(S) Borntrager’s test gives negative result with Anthranol (Reduced form)

• (A) \( P and S Only \)
• (B) \( R Only \)
• (C) \( Q and R Only \)
• (D) \( P Only \)

Choose the correct statement from the following:
(A) Tannin solution precipitate alkaloid
(B) Hydrolysable tannin produce gallic and ellagic acid by enzymatic and acid hydrolysis
(C) Condensed tannin converted into red color substance known as phlobaphene on acid and enzymatic hydrolysis
(D) Tannin are insoluble in water

• (A) \( A and C Only \)
• (B) \( B Only D Only \)
• (C) \( C Only \)
• (D) \( A, B and C are correct \)

Trikatu in Ayurveda is a combination of:

• (A) \( Black mustard, Long pepper, Ginger \)
• (B) \( Black pepper, Long pepper, Betal \)
• (C) \( Black pepper, Long pepper, Ginger \)
• (D) \( Black pepper, Small pepper, Ginger \)

Glycogenic amino acids enter TCA cycle except:

• (A) \( Alanine \)
• (B) \( Glycine \)
• (C) \( Glutamate \)
• (D) \( Aspartate \)

Match the following:

(P) Tuberculosis
(Q) Diphtheria
(R) Yellow fever
(S) Malaria

Descriptions:
(1) Bacterial
(2) Viral
(3) Toxoids
(4) Protozoal

• (A) \( P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4 \)
• (B) \( P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2 \)
• (C) \( P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4 \)
• (D) \( P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3 \)

Which of the following is used to evaluate disinfectant?

• (A) \( Widal test \)
• (B) \( VRDL test \)
• (C) \( Chick Martin test \)
• (D) \( None of these \)

Oral vaccine such as Dukoral® and Shanchol™ is used for prevention of:

• (A) \( Pneumonia \)
• (B) \( Ebola virus \)
• (C) \( Cholera \)
• (D) \( Polio \)

Which parasitic worm is responsible for causing lymphatic filariasis?

• (A) \( Wuchereria bancrofti \)
• (B) \( Brugia malayi \)
• (C) \( Onchocerca volvulus \)
• (D) \( Ancylostoma duodenale \)

Which statistical test is used to compare mean of two identical group?

• (A) ANOVA
• (B) Sample t test
• (C) Paired t test
• (D) Pooled t test

Which enzyme is responsible for albinism?

• (a) Beta-hydroxylase
• (b) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
• (c) Hydroxylase
• (d) Tyrosinase

Which anemia is caused due to Microcytic, hypochromic red blood cells?

• (a) Pernicious anemia
• (b) Aplastic anemia
• (c) Iron deficiency anemia
• (d) Hemolytic anemia

Which of the following is the differential test i.e. it does not require the need to make assumption of population following normal or differential distributed?

• (a) ANOVA
• (b) Student T test
• (c) Fisher LSD test
• (d) Kruskal-Wallis test

Which of the following is correct stability order of alkenes?

• (a) Trans-2-butene \(>\) Cis-2-Butene \(>\) Isobutene \(>\) but-1-ene
• (b) Cis-2-Butene \(>\) Trans-2-butene \(>\) Isobutene \(>\) but-1-ene
• (c) Isobutene \(>\) but-1-ene \(>\) Cis-2-Butene \(>\) Trans-2-butene
• (d) Isobutene \(>\) Trans-2-butene \(>\) Cis-2-Butene \(>\) but-1-ene

Cis-trans (E/Z) Isomers, EXCEPT

• (a) 1-butene
• (b) 2-butene-1-ol
• (c) 2-chloro-3-hexene
• (d) 4-chloro-2-pentene

Number of stereoisomers of 3-bromo-2-butanol:

• (A) \(2\)
• (B) \(4\)
• (C) \(6\)
• (D) \(8\)

In Friedel-Crafts reaction, benzene reacts with isopropyl bromide in the presence of aluminium trichloride to give:

• (A) \( Benzophenone \)
• (B) \( Acetophenone \)
• (C) \( Isopropyl benzene \)
• (D) \( n-Propyl benzene \)

Number of conformational isomers of \emph{n}-butane:

• (A) One-anti \& one-gauche
• (B) One-anti \& two-gauche
• (C) Two-anti \& one-gauche
• (D) Two-anti \& two-gauche

Debye is a unit of:

• (A) Dipole moment
• (B) Field effect
• (C) Dissociation constant
• (D) Bond energy

Which is considered an exception to Markovnikov's rule \emph{EXCEPT}:

• (A) Addition of HI in an alkene
• (B) Addition of HCl in an alkene
• (C) Addition of HBr in the presence of peroxide in an alkene
• (D) Addition of H\(_2\)O in the presence of acid

In Baeyer strain theory, which cycloalkane is more stable?

• (A) Cyclopropane
• (B) Cyclobutane
• (C) Cyclopentane
• (D) Cyclooctane

Walden inversion includes:

• (A) SN1
• (B) SN2
• (C) Both SN1 and SN2
• (D) Elimination

Diels-Alder reaction is:

• (A) Cyclo addition
• (B) Elimination
• (C) Nucleophilic addition
• (D) Electrophilic substitution

Alkyl halide is converted to alkane:

• (A) Wurtz Reaction
• (B) Birch reaction
• (C) Sabatier-Senderens reaction
• (D) Grignard reaction

Aryl diazonium reacts with fluoroborate to give aryl fluoride:

• (A) Balz-Schiemann reaction
• (B) Stephen reaction
• (C) Gattermann reaction
• (D) Gomberg reaction

Pyridine is a base with \(K_b\) value:

• (A) \(1.7 \times 10^{-9}\)
• (B) \(2.3 \times 10^{-12}\)
• (C) \(3.2 \times 10^{-6}\)
• (D) \(3.8 \times 10^{-7}\)

Naturally occurring pilocarpine is:

• (A) 2R,4R (+) Pilocarpine
• (B) 3S,5R (−) Pilocarpine
• (C) 2S,4R (−) Pilocarpine
• (D) 3R,4S (+) Pilocarpine

In a drug discovery process:

1. Lead optimization

2. Target selection

3. Lead findings

• (A) 3-2-1
• (B) 1-2-3
• (C) 2-3-1
• (D) 3-1-2

Methotrexate, used as an antimetabolite, is a product of N-methylation of para-aminobenzoic acid and pyridine hydroxyl. The isosteric group is

• (A) SH
• (B) CH_3
• (C) NH_2
• (D) CF_3

A/B Trans steroidal hydrogen in the 5th position

• (A) Beta configuration
• (B) Eclipsed conformation
• (C) Alpha configuration
• (D) Gauche conformation

Total Number of Carbon atoms in pregnane is

• (A) 18
• (B) 19
• (C) 21
• (D) 27

Hypnotics and sedative barbiturate pK\(_a\) value

• (A) 4–6
• (B) 5–8
• (C) 9–11
• (D) 7–9

Structure of hybrid in methadone and meperidine

• (A) Pentazocine
• (B) Tramadol
• (C) Methotrexate
• (D) Labetalol

Steroidal cholestane ring fused with

• (A) 5, 6, 7, 9, 10, 13
• (B) 5, 6, 8, 9, 10, 11
• (C) 5, 6, 8, 9, 10, 13
• (D) 5, 6, 8, 9, 10, 14

UV absorbance value of Morphine

• (A) 266 nm
• (B) 276 nm
• (C) 256 nm
• (D) 286 nm

Complexometric titration indicators Except

• (A) Mordant black - II
• (B) Ferroin
• (C) Catechol violet
• (D) Xylene orange

In complexometric titration, the masking agent used to mask Iron (II) ion

• (A) KCN
• (B) Thio glycerol
• (C) Tri ethanol amine
• (D) Ammonium Fluoride

Which is used as Fajan's method indicator

• (A) Dichlorofluorescein
• (B) Methyl red
• (C) Phenolphthalein
• (D) Xylene orange

Cyanide used in nepheloturbidometry as a salt of

• (A) Ag
• (B) Au
• (C) Na
• (D) K

How to prepare 200 mL of a 0.15 M sodium hydroxide solution?

• (A) 1.0 g
• (B) 1.2 g
• (C) 1.5 g
• (D) 1.8 g

Stationary phase for steroidal chromatography is:

• (A) Acylated paper
• (B) Carboxy Paper
• (C) Kieselguhr paper
• (D) Silica Paper

Choose the correct statement in a potentiometric titration: Salt bridge is used as


(i) Prevent contamination of reference electrode to test solution

(ii) No use of design reference electrode of salt bridge

(iii) No effect in test solution

(iv) Solidified with 3% agar

• (a) Only I
• (b) I and III
• (c) I and IV
• (d) III and IV

Which of the following is not a Karl Fischer reagent

• (a) Iodine
• (b) Pyridine
• (c) Pyrimidine
• (d) Sulphur dioxide

In Ilkovic equation, m\textprime{} determines

• (a) Determine mass of analyte
• (b) Determine mass of electron transfer
• (c) Determine mass of mercury flow transfer
• (d) Determine drop time

Enzyme activation energy (E\textsubscript{a}) for thermal decomposition of glucose in a first-order reaction is calculated by

• (a) The x-axis intercept of the Arrhenius plot
• (b) The y-axis intercept of the Arrhenius plot
• (c) Slope of the Arrhenius plot
• (d) Rate constant at room temperature

In conductometric titration of acetic acid with 0.1 N sodium hydroxide, complete neutralization occurs. Further addition of titrant results in

• (a) Increase the conductance
• (b) Decrease the conductance
• (c) No change in the conductance
• (d) Colour change (orange to red)

Vincristine in ultraviolet spectrophotometry \(\lambda_{max}\) value

• (a) 217 nm
• (b) 245 nm
• (c) 290 nm
• (d) 360 nm

Which of the following liquids has the highest surface tension at 20°C?

• (a) Carbon tetrachloride
• (b) Mercury
• (c) Oleic acid
• (d) Octane

Which diluent is incompatible with primary amines?

• (a) Lactose
• (b) Mannitol
• (c) Microcrystalline cellulose
• (d) Dextrose

Maximum limit of iron used in gelatin for manufacturing Soft Gelatin capsule shell should not exceed

• (a) 15 PPM
• (b) 20 PPM
• (c) 25 PPM
• (d) 50 PPM

If the log of microorganisms is plotted against time, an initially straight line results. The inverse slope of this line is called

• (a) Thermal death line
• (b) D value
• (c) Z value
• (d) Half-life

Sedimentation volume is measured by

• (a) Ultimate volume of sediment / initial volume of total suspension
• (b) Flocculation of sedimentation
• (c) Initial volume of total suspension / ultimate volume of sediment
• (d) Volume of flocculated suspension

According to USP, the range of sparingly solubility required to dissolve 1 part of solute should be

• (a) 1 - 10
• (b) 10 - 30
• (c) 30 - 100
• (d) 100 - 1000

Rheogram of which type of flow does not start from the origin

• (a) Plastic Flow
• (b) Dilatant Flow
• (c) Pseudoplastic Flow
• (d) Newtonian

A powder has a Carr's compressibility index in the range of 12-16. The flowability of the powder will be

• (a) Fair
• (b) Excellent
• (c) Good
• (d) Very poor

As per USP, the maximum concentration of benzalkonium chloride used as a preservative in parenteral formulations is

• (a) 0.01%
• (b) 0.001%
• (c) 0.05%
• (d) 0.005%

Which of the following is commonly used as a broad-spectrum preservative in pharmaceutical formulations?

• (a) Benzoic acid
• (b) Benzalkonium chloride
• (c) Ascorbic acid
• (d) Vitamin C

Statement of deflocculated suspension

• (a) Sedimentation for rapidly
• (b) Sedimentation for slowly
• (c) Easy to redisperse
• (d) Unpleasant in appearance

Common name of convective transport

• (a) Pore transport
• (b) Active transport
• (c) Passive transport
• (d) Endocytosis transport

Particle size range of optical microscopy

• (a) 500–1000 \mu
• (b) 0.001–0.1 \mu
• (c) 200–500 \mu
• (d) 0.5–1.50 \mu

Select the statement of Smectic liquid crystal

• (a) Mobility in two directions or no rotation
• (b) Three directions or no rotation
• (c) Mobility in two directions or rotation in one axis
• (d) Mobility in three directions or rotation in one axis

The flow of viscosity increases when the substance is sheared. This is known as

• (a) Dilatant
• (b) Plastic
• (c) Pseudoplastic
• (d) Newtonian

Equipment used in structured breakdown of thixotropy

• (a) Viscometer
• (b) Planimeters
• (c) Rotameters
• (d) Orifice meter

Thixotropic behavior is associated with

• (a) Increase in viscosity
• (b) Decrease in viscosity
• (c) Solid \& Liquid behavior
• (d) Sol-gel transformation

Match the following:


I. True density \hfill (P) Reciprocal of bulk density

II. Granule density \hfill (Q) Graduated cylinder method

III. Bulk density \hfill (R) Helium Pycnometer

IV. Bulkiness \hfill (S) Mercury displacement method

• (a) (I)-(S), (II)-(P), (III)-(Q), (IV)-(R)
• (b) (I)-(Q), (II)-(S), (III)-(P), (IV)-(R)
• (c) (I)-(R), (II)-(S), (III)-(Q), (IV)-(P)
• (d) (I)-(S), (II)-(R), (III)-(Q), (IV)-(P)

Kozeny-Carman equation is related to

• (a) Pressure drop in turbulent flow
• (b) Sedimentation velocity
• (c) Heat transfer
• (d) Permeability to particle size \& bed porosity

Theory of filtration is related to

• (a) Dalton's method
• (b) Darcy equation
• (c) BET equation
• (d) Stokes' equation

The equation \[ \log \left( \frac{P_1}{P_2} \right) = \frac{2.303 \cdot \Delta H_v \cdot (T_2 - T_1)}{R \cdot T_1 \cdot T_2} \]
is related to:

• (a) Clausius-Mossotti equation
• (b) BET equation
• (c) Boltzmann-Planck equation
• (d) Clausius-Clapeyron equation

Nitrodisc is an example of which type of Drug Delivery System?

• (a) Ocular
• (b) Transdermal
• (c) Mucosal
• (d) Nasal

CLASS-II method for tonicity adjustment is:

• (a) Cryoscopic
• (b) NaCl Equivalent
• (c) White Vincent
• (d) Mole fraction

If the granule density of potassium bicarbonate is 2.350 g/cc and the true density is 3.560 g/cc, determine the interparticle porosity of the powder.

• (a) 0.56
• (b) 0.44
• (c) 0.66
• (d) 0.34

Triple point of water occurs at which temperature and pressure?

• (a) 0.098°C and 4.58 mmHg
• (b) 0.0098°F and 4.58 mmHg
• (c) 0.098°F and 4.58 mmHg
• (d) 0.0098°C and 4.58 mmHg

In supercritical fluid extraction, what will be the critical temperature (CT) and critical pressure (CP)?

• (a) 34°C and 50 atm
• (b) 31.1°C and 73.8 atm
• (c) 54°C and 78 atm
• (d) 40°C and 60 atm

Examples of continuous shelf moving dryer are

• (a) Vacuum dryer
• (b) Tray dryer
• (c) Spray dryer
• (d) Turbo tray dryer

An antibiotic dissolves completely in 250 mL of aqueous solution at pH range 1–6.8 and 37°C, and after dissolution, it shows 85% absorption in the body. Based on the Biopharmaceutics Classification System (BCS), in which class does this drug belong?

• (a) Class I
• (b) Class II
• (c) Class III
• (d) Class IV

Manucol is also known as

• (a) Sodium alginate
• (b) Alginic acid
• (c) Carbopol
• (d) Guargum

Which of the following anticancer drugs produces hand-foot syndrome?

• (a) Methotrexate
• (b) Capecitabine
• (c) Vincristine
• (d) Doxorubicin

Which of the following is a P2Y₁₂ enzyme inhibitor?

• (a) Clopidogrel
• (b) Aspirin
• (c) Dipyridamole
• (d) Tirofiban

Vigabatrin is an inhibitor of

• (a) GABA synthase
• (b) GABA transaminase
• (c) Voltage-gated Na channel
• (d) Chloride channel

PDE 4 inhibitor used in COPD

• (a) Montelukast
• (b) Roflumilast
• (c) Cromoglicate
• (d) Omalizumab

Which of the following is an antidote for organophosphorus poisoning?

• (a) Pralidoxime
• (b) Naloxone
• (c) Physostigmine
• (d) Sodium thiosulfate

Which of the following is a Proliferator-Activated Receptor-Alpha (PPAR-α) agonist?

• (a) Sulfonylurea
• (b) Metformin
• (c) Acarbose
• (d) Pioglitazone

Bambuterol is a prodrug of

• (a) Salmeterol
• (b) Terbutaline
• (c) Albuterol
• (d) Theophylline

Anticonvulsant drug used as a selective molecular target

• (a) Vigabatrin
• (b) Gabapentin
• (c) Lamotrigine
• (d) Tiagabine

Common name of convective transport

• (a) Endocytosis
• (b) Active transport
• (c) Passive transport
• (d) Pore transport

After which phase of clinical trials do pharmaceutical companies submit a New Drug Application (NDA) to the regulatory authority?

• (a) Phase I
• (b) Phase II
• (c) Phase III
• (d) Phase IV

Match the following:


I. Alpha (α) cells \hfill [P] Glucagon

II. Beta (β) cells \hfill [Q] Somatostatin

III. Delta (δ) cells \hfill [R] Gastrin

IV. G cells \hfill [S] Proinsulin

• (a) (I)-(P), (II)-(S), (III)-(Q), (IV)-(R)
• (b) (I)-(Q), (II)-(S), (III)-(P), (IV)-(R)
• (c) (I)-(R), (II)-(S), (III)-(Q), (IV)-(P)
• (d) (I)-(S), (II)-(R), (III)-(Q), (IV)-(P)

Which of the following drugs, when given with warfarin, induces hepatic CYP450 enzyme?

• (a) Ciprofloxacin
• (b) Metronidazole
• (c) Carbamazepine
• (d) Diltiazem

Blood concentration ratio of the combination of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole after being given in a 1:5 ratio is

• (a) 1:1
• (b) 1:5
• (c) 1:10
• (d) 1:20

Furosemide mechanism of action

• (a) Inhibit Na⁺-K⁺-2Cl⁻ cotransporter in the ascending limb of Henle
• (b) Inhibit Na⁺-K⁺ cotransporter in the collecting duct
• (c) Inhibit Na⁺-2Cl⁻ cotransporter in the distal loop of Henle
• (d) Aldosterone antagonist

Match the following drugs and their Mechanism of Action (MOA):


\

• (a) (1)-(R), (2)-(S), (3)-(P), (4)-(Q)
• (b) (1)-(Q), (2)-(S), (3)-(P), (4)-(R)
• (c) (1)-(R), (2)-(Q), (3)-(P), (4)-(S)
• (d) (1)-(Q), (2)-(R), (3)-(S), (4)-(P)

Match the following Class and their Antiarrhythmic Drug:

• (a) (1)-(P), (2)-(Q), (3)-(R), (4)-(S)
• (b) (1)-(Q), (2)-(R), (3)-(S), (4)-(P)
• (c) (1)-(R), (2)-(Q), (3)-(P), (4)-(S)
• (d) (1)-(Q), (2)-(R), (3)-(P), (4)-(S)

Which effect is associated with amphotericin B?

• (a) Hyponatremia
• (b) Hypokalemia
• (c) Hypermagnesemia
• (d) Hypercalcemia

Which of the following drugs used to treat influenza targets an enzyme?

• (a) DNA polymerase
• (b) Reverse transcriptase
• (c) Neuraminidase
• (d) Protease

Choose the correct match of laxative and its Mechanism of Action (MOA):

• (a) (1)-(Q), (2)-(P), (3)-(R), (4)-(S)
• (b) (1)-(Q), (2)-(R), (3)-(S), (4)-(P)
• (c) (1)-(R), (2)-(Q), (3)-(P), (4)-(S)
• (d) (1)-(Q), (2)-(R), (3)-(P), (4)-(S)

BPALM combination drug names include moxifloxacin

• (a) Bedaquiline, pyrazinamide, linezolid, moxifloxacin
• (b) Bedaquiline, Pretomanid, linezolid, montelukast
• (c) Bedaquiline, Pretomanid, linezolid, moxifloxacin
• (d) Bedaquiline, pyrazinamide, levofloxacin, moxifloxacin

Mirabegron is used in the management of overactive bladder

• (a) Beta 2 agonist
• (b) Beta 3 agonist
• (c) M3 antagonist
• (d) Beta 1 agonist

Which PDE 4 inhibitor is used in COPD?

• (a) Montelukast
• (b) Theophylline
• (c) Cromoglicate
• (d) Omalizumab

5-HT\textsubscript{2A}/2C antagonist used in migraine

• (a) Methysergide
• (b) Ketanserin
• (c) Sumatriptan
• (d) Rizatriptan

If 50% of women who are diagnosed with venous thrombosis are found to be taking oral contraceptives compared to those without thrombosis, which type of study is this?

• (a) Cohort
• (b) Case Study
• (c) Cross-Sectional
• (d) ANOVA

pH of Jejunum

• (a) 6.8±4
• (b) 1±4
• (c) 3±8
• (d) 5±1

GnRH agonist EXCEPT

• (a) Goserelin
• (b) Gani
• (c) triptorelin
• (d) buserlin

Which of the following are responsible for a rightward shift in the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve?

• (a) Lower PO\textsubscript{2}
• (b) Higher H\textsuperscript{+}
• (c) Higher pCO\textsubscript{2}
• (d) Both (b) and (c)

Match the following Class and their Drug:


(1) Alkylating

(2) Platinum analog

(3) Antimetabolite

(4) EGF receptor inhibitor


(P) 5-fluorouracil

(Q) Cisplatin

(R) Cetuximab

(S) Chlorambucil

• (a) (1)-(P), (2)-(S), (3)-(Q), (4)-(R)
• (b) (1)-(Q), (2)-(R), (3)-(S), (4)-(P)
• (c) (1)-(S), (2)-(Q), (3)-(P), (4)-(R)
• (d) (1)-(Q), (2)-(R), (3)-(P), (4)-(S)

Which of the following nasal decongestants is an \(\alpha_2\) agonist?

• (a) Oxymetazoline
• (b) Terbutaline
• (c) Salbutamol
• (d) Methotrexate