MAT 2022 Question Paper (Available)- Download Solution PDF with Answer Key

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Shivam Yadav

Educational Content Expert | Updated on - Jun 4, 2025

MAT 2022Question Paper had 200 MCQs from five sections- Language Comprehension, Data Analysis and Sufficiency, Mathematical Skills, Intelligence and Critical Reasoning, Indian and Global Environment. Each section of MAT 2022Question Paper had 40 questions. The overall difficulty level of MAT Question Paper 2022was rated moderate. Candidates preparing for upcoming MAT exam can download and solve MAT 2021Question Paper with Solutions PDF given below:

MAT 2022Question Paper with SolutionsPDF

MAT 2022 Question Paper with Solution PDF Download Check Solutions

DIRECTIONS (Q. 1-4): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that
follow.
The Reserve Bank of India’s annual report for 2017-18 reveals that 99.3% of currency notes
that were demonetised at midnight on November 8, 2016 have returned to the banking
system. This is only marginally higher than its provisional estimate last year that over 99%
— or Rs.15.28 lakh crore worth of the old Rs.500 and Rs.1,000 notes — out of the Rs.15.44
lakh crore that were in circulation at the time had been deposited by June 30, 2017. This
makes a couple of things crystal clear. First, the hope that a large chunk of unaccounted
money would not return to the system — arguably, the principal reason for the exercise —
was almost wholly belied. As a result, the plan to transfer the arising surplus from the RBI to
the Centre, which was not formally declared but strongly rumoured, was a non-starter.

Read more Second, given the sheer logistical difficulty in penalising all those who converted
unaccounted money into legal tender, demonetisation worked as an unintended amnesty
scheme. Despite the significant cost to the economy, demonetisation, to the disappointment
of the Prime Minister‘s critics, had no political fallout. Narendra Modi succeeded in
portraying the move as one that would knock out the corrupt rich — a harsh but necessary
shock therapy. This was perhaps why the massive disruption caused by the overnight
removal of 86% of the currency in value terms did not cause agitations.
Nevertheless, the RBI report, which points to a spurt in counterfeiting of the new Rs.500 and
Rs.2,000 notes, raises the old question all over again. Was it worth the slowdown in growth,
the damage to informal sector supply chains, and job losses in sectors such as construction
that were the bulwark of employment creation for the unskilled? True, there have been some
benefits. For instance, the number of income tax returns filed has surged a little over the
trend growth rate. But surely this could have been achieved by other policy measures.
Cashless modes of payment have become more common, but financial savings in the form ofcurrency have also risen, suggesting that people still value cash. Not all policy choices work
out and accepting mistakes or planning flaws helps strengthen governance processes. For
example, learning from the UPA’s mistakes, a cleaner auction process for natural resources
has been worked out. The government must not disown its biggest reform attempt or try to
sidestep parliamentary scrutiny of the outcomes of demonetisation. Instead, it could focus on
fixing the problems that people still face — transactions with Rs.2,000 notes in the absence
of Rs.1,000 notes are difficult as it is a departure from the currency denomination principle
every note should be twice or two and a half times its preceding denomination). Even as
these issues are sorted out, the larger lesson must be heeded: sudden shocks to the economy
don‘t always yield intended policy objectives.


Question 1:

Which among the following is the opinion of the author regarding the demonetization drive announced by the government?

  • (A) if the author is very much hopeful that the demonetization drive will be able to divide the wealth among all the sections equally.
  • (B) if the author has no opinion to give regarding demonetization.
  • (C) if the author feels that the government should do proper homework before implementing any scheme such as demonetization.
  • (D) if the author feels that the move to demonetize currencies did not yield the desired results though some positive sides can be appreciated.

Question 2:

Which among the following should be the course of action of the government now that the demonetization has failed?

  • (A) if the government should understand that there can be error in judgment on its part and it can be corrected by first accepting it.
  • (B) if the government should cancel the whole demonetization drive and give back the currency notes to the general public.
  • (C) if the central government should approach the Supreme Court to ensure that there is no legal issue in the future.
  • (D) if the Government of India is of the opinion that it has done the right thing but the public could not understand the importance of it.

Question 3:

Which among the following can be considered as an important takeaway from the incident described in the given passage?

  • (A) if the economy of the country is not suffering at all and no policy can impact the economy.
  • (B) if the economy of India is ready to accept any change since it is now mature enough to withstand any kind of problem.
  • (C) if the Indian government is not receptive of any international shocks since there is no mechanism in India to accept the foreign risks.
  • (D) if the economy has its own rhythm and it should not be taken for granted that any kind of sudden policy decision will be positive for the economy.

Question 4:

Which among the following is correct regarding the positive effects of demonetization as discussed in the passage?
I. The number of income tax returns filed post demonetization has increased since now a lot of people are filing income tax returns.
II. The cashless mode of transactions has become more popular post demonetization.
III. The RBI has become more proactive in its money laundering strategies.

  • (A) Both II and III
  • (B) Both I and II
  • (C) Both I and III
  • (D) Only II

DIRECTIONS (Qs 5-8): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
that follow.
In a recent discussion paper, NITI Aayog has chalked out an ambitious strategy for India to
become an artificial intelligence (AI) powerhouse. AI is the use of computers to make
decisions that are normally made by humans. Many forms of AI surround Indians already,
including chatbots on retail websites and programs that flag fraudulent bank activity. But
NITI Aayog envisions AI solutions for India on a scale not seen anywhere in the world
today, especially in five key sectors — agriculture, healthcare, education, smart cities and
infrastructure, and transport. In agriculture, for example, machines will provide informationto farmers on the quality of soil, when to sow, where to spray herbicide, and when to expect
pest infestations. It’s an idea with great potential: India has 30 million farmers with
smartphones, but poor extension services. If computers help agricultural universities advise
farmers on best practices, India could see a farming revolution.

Read more However, there are formidable obstacles. AI start-ups already offer some solutions, but the
challenge lies in scaling these to cover the entire value chain, as NITI Aayog envisions. The
first problem is data. Machine learning, the set of technologies used to create AI, is a
data-guzzling monster. It takes reams of historical data as input, identifies the relationships
among data elements, and makes predictions. More sophisticated forms of machine learning,
like “deep learning,” attempt to mimic the human brain. And even though they promise
greater accuracy, they also need more data than what is required by traditional machine
learning. Unfortunately, India has sparse data in sectors like agriculture, and this is already
hampering AI-based businesses today.
In fact, the lack of data means that deep learning doesn’t work for all companies in India.
One example is Climate-Connect, a Delhi-based firm, which uses AI to predict the amount of
power a solar plant will generate every 15 minutes. This is critical because solar electricity
generation can change dramatically every hour depending on weather conditions and the
position of the sun.
When this happens, the plant must communicate expected changes to power distributors,
which will then switch to alternative sources.
With India planning to install 100 GW of solar power by 2022, such AI will play a central
role in power planning.
But to generate such data, Climate-Connect needs historical inputs like the time of sunrise
and sunset, and cloud cover where the plant is located. Unfortunately, since most Indian
solar plants are recent, data are available only for a couple of years, whereas deep learning
needs data over many years to predict generation. Today, the firm uses traditional machine
learning technologies such as regression analysis that work with less data. These methods
have an accuracy of around 95%. While deep learning can boost accuracy for operations
such as Climate-Connect, it hasn‘t worked very well in the Indian scenario, says Nitin
Tanwar, cofounder of the firm.
Another problem for AI firms today is finding the right people. NITI Aayog‘s report hasbleak news: only about 50 Indian scientists carry out ”serious research” and they are
concentrated in elite institutions such as the Indian Institutes of Technology and the Indian
Institutes of Science. Meanwhile,only about 4% of AI professionals have worked in
emerging technologies like deep learning. A survey of LinkedIn found 386 out ofthe 22,000
people with PhDs in AI across the world to be Indians. How does this skill gap impact
companies? To some extent, open libraries of machine learning code, which can be
customised to solve Indian problems, help. This means that companies need not write code
from scratch, and even computer science graduates can carry out the customisation.


Question 5:

What can be some steps that can be taken by India to improve its AI capabilities?
I. The government must collect and digitize data it has access to due to running numerous schemes.
II. Set up institutes to churn out more skilled people in this field.

  • (A) Only I
  • (B) Only II
  • (C) Both I and II
  • (D) None of the above

Question 6:

Which of the following strengthens the argument for using more of AI powered tools in the future in India?
I. The AI sector uses a tremendous amount of electricity so as to process huge amounts of data which is not sustainable.
II. It will help to collect, validate, standardize, correlate, archive and distribute relevant data and make it accessible to organizations, people and systems.
III. Although AI will create more jobs than it would destroy.

  • (A) Only I
  • (B) Only II
  • (C) Only I and II
  • (D) Only II and III

Question 7:

As per the passage, which of the following are reasons for AI to be full of ‘formidable obstacles’?
I. The need for a huge amount of data to make predictions.
II. The entire chain of operation faces bottlenecks pertaining to funding.
III. A scarcity of adequately qualified people in India.

  • (A) Only II
  • (B) Only I and III
  • (C) Only II and III
  • (D) Only III

Question 8:

As per your understanding of the passage, which of the following are not examples of AI usage in industries?
I. Data processing of students based on some parameters to find predictive patterns as to who would quit.
II. A bank teller using a computer to help solve customer queries with respect to their respective accounts.
III. Use of unmanned tanks, vessels, aerial vehicles, and drones in the armed forces.

  • (A) Only I
  • (B) Only II
  • (C) Only I and III
  • (D) Only II and III

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 9-12): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
that follow:
The rapid industrial development in Malaysia has created significant industrial waste
pollution problems that need immediate attention. Domestic waste and industrial waste are
discharged unto surface water through the sewage systems. In some cases, industrial waste is
released directly unto surface water.
On land, the release of industrial waste is closely controlled. However, offshore oil and
manganese extraction lead to direct discharge of pollutants into the seas. Radioactive waste is
dumped at sea in large concrete barrels to decay. Often, the barrels will start to have defects
after a while. Representatives of factories often ship waste onto sea to dump it illegally
because it is very expensive to have their water purified. Oil is released into the sea through
oil tankers and shipwrecks and pesticides are applied to water to control aquatic pests. Paints
on boats will decay during long trips on the ocean and will eventually end up in the water.

Read more The effects of pollutants are noticed mostly in small inland seas and lakes. This is because
the oceans have a natural dilution system for incoming pollutants whereas lakes have no
effective outlet. The pollutants can exist in water in different states. They can be dissolved or
they can be in suspension, which means that they exist in the form of droplets or particles.
These pollutants can travel farthest when they are in solution in a river that is fast flowing.
High-rate microbial processes have been studied in recent years in the attempt to develop
cost-effective and yet, full-scale waste treatment technologies. Management of industrial
waste is a growing concern in Malaysia. The waste if improperly segregated or disposed off
can lead to dangerous results. Therefore, the proper management of such toxic and
hazardous waste requires discipline, vigilance and at times, just common sense.


Question 9:

As per the passage, how has rapid industrialisation led to industrial waste pollution in Malaysia?

  • (A) Industrialisation has led to growing number of cars responsible for pollution.
  • (B) Discharge of industrial waste into lakes, seas and other water bodies.
  • (C) Rapid industrialisation has led to destruction of habitat for animals.
  • (D) There is no policy for segregation and disposition of industrial waste by the Government.

Question 10:

Why is the effect of pollutants more noticeable in small inland seas and lakes rather than oceans?

  • (A) They can be dissolved or they can be in suspension, which means that they exist in the form of droplets or particles.
  • (B) The technologies for waste treatment cannot be applied on shallow water bodies.
  • (C) This is because the surface area of oceans is very large compared to the amount of pollutants.
  • (D) Because the oceans have a natural dilution system for incoming pollutants whereas lakes have no effective outlet.

Question 11:

Which of the following is a synonym of the word ‘segregated’ given in the passage?

  • (A) Separated
  • (B) Collected
  • (C) Disinfected
  • (D) Disposed

Question 12:

Which of the following is antonym of the word `Hazardous` given in the passage?

  • (A) Perilous
  • (B) Precarious
  • (C) Risky
  • (D) Benign

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 13-16): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
that follow.
E-pharmacies, which operate through websites or smartphone apps on the Internet, offer
medicines for sale at a discount of at least 20% when compared to traditional pharmacists,
with the added convenience of home delivery of medicines to one’s doorstep. For scheduled
drugs, patients can submit photographs of prescriptions while placing orders. Despite
operating in India for at least four years now, the legal status of these e-pharmacies is not
clear because the government is yet to notify into law draft rules that it published in 2018.

Read more The fiercest opponents of e-pharmacies are trade associations of existing pharmacists and
chemists. They argue that their livelihoods are threatened by venture capital backed
e-pharmacies and that jobs of thousands are on the line. Apart from these obvious arguments,
these trade associations also spin imaginary tales of how e-pharmacies will open the door to
drug abuse and also the sale of sub-standard or counterfeit drugs, thereby threatening public
health. There is enough evidence on record to demonstrate how existing pharmacies
contribute generously to drug abuse and sale of sub-standard medicine. There is no reason to
suspect that e-pharmacies are going to worsen the situation in anyway. The more prudent
way of looking at the entry of e-pharmacies is competition and the resultant effect it will
have on lowering the price of medicine for Indian patients. Viewed from this perspective,
there is virtually no doubt that e-pharmacies should be allowed to operate because the history
of India’s trade associations of pharmacists is one of rampant, unabashed cartelisation that
has resulted in an artificial inflation of medicine prices. This practice of two competitors
colluding to fix the sale price and area of operation is called cartelisation, and is illegal under
India’s Competition Act. The premise of this law is that a free market is efficient only if all
sellers are competing with each other to offer the lowest price to the customer.

Question 13:

Which of the following strengthen the claim that e-pharmacies benefit the consumers?
I. There is cartelisation by pharmacist associations leading to rise in price of medicines.
II. Competition between e-pharmacies and trade associations of pharmacists will lead to reduction in prices of medicine.
III. E-pharmacies have added convenience of home delivery of medicines to one’s doorstep.

  • (A) Only III
  • (B) Only I and III
  • (C) All of the above
  • (D) Only II and III

Question 14:

Which arguments are given by the trade associations of pharmacists against the use of e-pharmacies as per the passage?
I. Selling of counterfeit drugs threatening public health.
II. E-pharmacies make drugs readily available, thereby can lead to drug abuse.
III. E-pharmacies stock up medicines leading to medicine shortage at pharmacist and chemist shops.

  • (A) Only I and II
  • (B) Only II
  • (C) Only I and III
  • (D) All of the above

Question 15:

What is meant by the word `unabashed` used in the passage?

  • (A) not embarrassed, disconcerted, or ashamed.
  • (B) Disguised emotions
  • (C) reluctant to do something
  • (D) unsettled or confused.

Question 16:

Which of the following is/are true as per the passage?
I. E-pharmacies offer discounts of at least 20% in comparison to traditional pharmacists.
II. India does not have any law declaring cartelisation illegal.
III. Most e-pharmacies are bootstrapped and cannot compete with pharmacist trade associations.

  • (A) Only II
  • (B) Only I
  • (C) Only III
  • (D) Only II and III

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 17-20): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
that follow.
Amid the sharp rise in NPA, talks of setting up a ‘bad’ bank have been gaining momentum.
The government and the RBI are drawing up strategies on how to operationalise such a
scheme. The economic survey of 2016-17 pointed out the twin balance sheet problem —
stressed companies on one hand and NPA-laden banks on the other — and advocated a
centralised Public Sector Asset Rehabilitation Agency (PARA) be established to deal with
the bad loans problem.

Read more “Private Asset Reconstruction Companies (ARCs) haven’t proved any more successful than
banks in resolving bad debts,” the economic survey had said while proposing the ‘bad’ bank.
“But international experience shows that a professionally-run central agency with
government backing — while not without its own difficulties — can overcome the
difficulties that have impeded progress,” it added.
One challenge private sector ARCs face is that of capital. None of the entities till now hasbeen allowed to tap the capital market for raising funds. Kotak Mahindra Bank, which
recently took its board’s approval to raise Rs. 5,300 crore equity said the bank also wanted to
capitalise on opportunities in acquisition and resolution of stressed assets in the banking
sector including participation in a ‘bad’ bank. Kotak Mahindra Prime and Kotak Mahindra
Investments, companies in the Kotak Mahindra Group are sponsors of the asset
reconstruction company Phoenix and together own 49% stake in it.
“The ARCs are badly capitalised. We see significant opportunity for Kotak in this,” Mr.
Kotak said adding the country would need 2-3 well-capitalised ‘bad’ banks. Some central
bank as well as government officials also admitted capital was the biggest challenge in
setting up a ‘bad’ bank. “At least Rs. 25,000 to Rs. 30,000 crore of capital will be required to
set up a bad bank in the initial stages. Where will the money come from?” asked a senior
central bank official.


Question 17:

Which of the following is/are true as per the passage?
I. Kotak Mahindra Bank took its board’s approval to raise Rs. 5,300 crore equity.
II. Budget 2016-17 advocated a centralised Public Sector Asset Rehabilitation Agency (PARA) to deal with the bad loans problem.

  • (A) Both are Correct
  • (B) I only
  • (C) II only
  • (D) None is Correct

Question 18:

What is the biggest challenge in setting up of a ‘bad’ bank?

  • (A) Approval of the Finance Ministry.
  • (B) Approval of the RBI.
  • (C) Capital
  • (D) An efficient policy.

Question 19:

What does the phrase ‘twin balance sheet’ used in the passage refer to?

  • (A) Stressed companies and NPA-laden banks
  • (B) Higher Inflation and NPA-laden banks
  • (C) High fiscal deficit and negative current account deficit
  • (D) None of the Above

Question 20:

Choose the word which is similar in meaning to the word “Amid”, in the passage?

  • (A) During
  • (B) Separate
  • (C) Outside
  • (D) Beyond

Question 21:

A. The process of handing down implies not a passive transfer, but some contestation in defining what exactly is to be handed down.
B. Wherever Western scholars have worked on the Indian past, the selection is even more apparent and the inventing of a tradition much more recognizable.
C. Every generation selects what it requires from the past and makes its innovations, some more than others.
D. It is now a truism to say that traditions are not handed down unchanged, but are invented.
E. Just as life has death as its opposite, so is tradition by default the opposite of innovation.

  • (A) ACDBE
  • (B) EDACB
  • (C) EDCAB
  • (D) DCABE

Question 22:

Arrange these sentences in a proper order to form a meaningful paragraph.
A. Before plants can take life from atmosphere, nitrogen must undergo transformations similar to ones that food undergoes in our digestive machinery.
B. In its aerial form nitrogen is insoluble, unusable and is in need of transformation.
C. Lightning starts the series of chemical reactions that need to happen to nitrogen, ultimately helping it nourish our earth.
D. Nitrogen — an essential food for plants — is an abundant resource, with about 22 million tons of it floating over each square mile of earth.
E. One of the most dramatic examples in nature of ill wind that blows goodness is lightning.

  • (A) ABCDE
  • (B) BCDEA
  • (C) ECDBA
  • (D) DCEAB

Question 23:

Arrange these sentences in a proper order to form a meaningful paragraph.
A. The implications of retelling of Indian stories, hence, takes on new meaning in a modern India.
B. The stories we tell reflect the world around us.
C. We cannot help but retell the stories that we value — after all, they are never quite right for us — in our time.
D. And even if we manage to get them quite right, they are only right for us — other people living around us will have different reasons for telling similar stories.
E. As soon as we capture a story, the world we were trying to capture has changed.

  • (A) BECDA
  • (B) BCAED
  • (C) DCABE
  • (D) ADCEB

Question 24:

Being of crucial importance

  • (A) Strategy
  • (B) Confounded
  • (C) Inexplicable
  • (D) Pivotal

Question 25:

Mass departure of people

  • (A) Exodus
  • (B) Immigration
  • (C) Emigration
  • (D) Recluse

Question 26:

INADVERTENT

  • (A) undisturbed
  • (B) ignorant
  • (C) unexpected
  • (D) unintentional

Question 27:

COY

  • (A) Sweet
  • (B) Shy
  • (C) Talented
  • (D) Beautiful

Question 28:

ALMS

  • (A) charity
  • (B) worship
  • (C) blessings
  • (D) prayers

Question 29:

Admonish

  • (A) Ridiculous
  • (B) Chicane
  • (C) Approve
  • (D) Approaching

Question 30:

Ecstasy

  • (A) Polite
  • (B) Despair
  • (C) Disperse
  • (D) Resemblance

Question 31:

Veneration

  • (A) Remorse
  • (B) Fear
  • (C) Disrespect
  • (D) Reverence

Question 32:

Cut the mustard

  • (A) To score average
  • (B) To perform upto the standard
  • (C) To underperform
  • (D) To get above and beyond expectations

Question 33:

Throw caution to the wind

  • (A) To warn others not to travel
  • (B) To behave recklessly
  • (C) To behave with care and caution
  • (D) To be fearful

Question 34:

Feather in one’s cap

  • (A) A new achievement or distinction
  • (B) Hunting for a long time
  • (C) Bird watching in forest
  • (D) Discrimination against the poor

Question 35:

FCRA guidelines ……….that registered associations are required to submit an online annual report with ……….. copies of income and expenditure statement, receipts and payment account, balance sheet among other documents for every financial year within nine months of the closure of the financial year.

  • (A) Presume, Hundreds
  • (B) Allow, Mutilated
  • (C) Mandate, Scanned
  • (D) Warmed, Million

Question 36:

I am not easily ……..by pressure that would interfere with accomplishing the goals of my unit. I stick to my …………...

  • (A) pessimistic, views
  • (B) swayed, convictions
  • (C) discouraged, achievements
  • (D) empowered, organization

Question 37:

In a first-of-its-kind move aimed at ……...the burning of fossil fuel for power generation, Gujarat government announced that it will not give fresh permissions for …………….new thermal power stations in the state.

  • (A) Curbing, Setting up
  • (B) Differentiating, Making
  • (C) Helping, Installing
  • (D) Finishing, Arranging

Question 38:

If you want to complete this important assignment on time you must carefully planned.

  • (A) carefully planning
  • (B) careful to plan
  • (C) plan carefully
  • (D) planned carefully

Question 39:

In the 1970s banks …………..to submit their detailed plans of expansion to RBI.

  • (A) are required to submit
  • (B) were required to submit
  • (C) required for submission
  • (D) requirement of submitting

Question 40:

The organizers agreed to shift the conference at some place convenience to all participants.

  • (A) from a place of convenience
  • (B) any of the place convenient
  • (C) at places convenient
  • (D) to a place convenient

Question 41:

Statements: Prime age school-going children in urban India have now become avid as well as more regular viewers of television, even in households without a TV. As a result there has been an alarming decline in the extent of readership of newspapers.

Conclusions:

I. Method of increasing the readership of newspapers should be devised.
II. A team of experts should be sent to other countries to study the impact of TV on the readership of newspapers.

  • (A) Only conclusion I follows
  • (B) Only conclusion II follows
  • (C) Either I or II follows
  • (D) Neither I nor II follows

Question 42:

Statements: A man must be wise to be a good wrangler. Good wranglers are talkative and boring.
Conclusions:
[I.] All the wise persons are boring.
[II.] All the wise persons are good wranglers.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Only conclusion I follows
  • (B) Only conclusion II follows
  • (C) Either I or II follows
  • (D) Neither I nor II follows

Question 43:

Statements: “The Government will review the present policy of the diesel price in view of further spurt in the international oil prices” - A spokesman of the Government.
Conclusions:
I. The Government will increase the price of the diesel after the imminent spurt in the international oil prices.
II. The Government will not increase the price of the diesel even after the imminent spurt in the international oil prices.

  • (A) Only conclusion I follows
  • (B) Only conclusion II follows
  • (C) Either I or II follows
  • (D) Neither I nor II follows

Question 44:

Which of the following statements is definitely true?

  • (A) U is father of the Engineer
  • (B) P is the Engineer
  • (C) T is the father of the Teacher
  • (D) R is the brother of the Student

Question 45:

How many female members are there in the family?

  • (A) Three only
  • (B) Two or three
  • (C) Two only
  • (D) Three or four

Question 46:

How is P related to S?

  • (A) Either granddaughter or grandson
  • (B) Grand mother
  • (C) Grand son
  • (D) Grand daughter

Question 47:

The family consists of how many generations?

  • (A) 6
  • (B) 1
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 2

Question 48:

Who is the husband of S?

  • (A) T
  • (B) K
  • (C) L
  • (D) P

Question 49:

Which of the following statements is not true?

  • (A) Husband of X is an engineer.
  • (B) Second generation members are S, P, T and O.
  • (C) The number of female members in the family is 5.
  • (D) The accountant and his wife belong to the 4th generation.

Question 50:

Which of the following means ‘D is definitely daughter of A’?

  • (A) A \(\psi\) B \(\# C\) \(\#\) D
  • (B) C \(\psi\) A \(
    ) \( D \)\in\( B
  • (C) A \)\psi\( C \)
    ( \) B \(\in\) D
  • (D) B \(\psi\) A \(\# \) C \(\#\) D
) \( D \)\in\( B
View Solution

Question 51:

Which of the following means `R is brother of T`?

  • (A) R \(\psi\) \(\# \) U S T
  • (B) U \(\psi\) R \(\# \) S \(\# \) T
  • (C) U \(\psi\) R \(\in\) S \(\# \) T
  • (D) K \(\# \) R S S \(\# \) T

Question 52:

Which of the following means `A is nephew of C`?

  • (A) D \(\# \) C S B \(\# \) A \(\in\) E
  • (B) A \(\# \) B S D \(\in\) E S C
  • (C) C \(\# \) D S B \(\# \) A S E
  • (D) B \(\in\) E \(\# \) C S E \(\in\) A

Question 53:

What is the profession of K?

  • (A) Doctor
  • (B) Clerk
  • (C) Engineer
  • (D) Accountant

Question 54:

How many male members are there in the family?

  • (A) Two
  • (B) Three
  • (C) Four
  • (D) Cannot be determined

Question 55:

How is G related to K?

  • (A) Wife
  • (B) Father
  • (C) Grandmother
  • (D) Grandfather

Question 56:

Who is good in Physics, History and Mathematics, but not in Computer Science?

  • (A) Pratibha
  • (B) Asha
  • (C) Madhu
  • (D) Namita

Question 57:

Who is good in Physics, Computer Science and Mathematics?

  • (A) Namita
  • (B) Asha
  • (C) Madhu
  • (D) Pratibha

Question 58:

Who is good only in Computer Science and Dramatics?

  • (A) Pratibha
  • (B) Madhu
  • (C) Shivani
  • (D) Asha

Question 59:

Who amongst the following friends is not good in Maths but good in Hindi?

  • (A) C
  • (B) A
  • (C) D
  • (D) B

Question 60:

Which of the following pairs of friends is good both in English and Sanskrit?

  • (A) A and D
  • (B) A and C
  • (C) C and D
  • (D) D and B

Question 61:

Which one of the following friends is good in Sanskrit but poor in Geography?

  • (A) Only A
  • (B) Only D
  • (C) Only C
  • (D) Both C and D

Question 62:

On Wednesday Mohan Dey can watch

  • (A) The science fiction movie
  • (B) The murder mystery
  • (C) The spy thriller
  • (D) The comedy

Question 63:

The TV channel SONY will telecast

  • (A) a comedy on Saturday
  • (B) a science fiction movie on Saturday
  • (C) a murder mystery on Tuesday
  • (D) a spy thriller on Tuesday

Question 64:

Mohan Dey watched movies on two channels whose names come first and third in the alphabetical order he did not watch.

  • (A) the movie shown on Wednesday
  • (B) the murder mystery
  • (C) the science fiction movie
  • (D) the movie shown on Saturday

Question 65:

Which book is between the Maths and English books?

  • (A) Accountancy
  • (B) History
  • (C) Urdu
  • (D) None of these

Question 66:

Which book is at the bottom?

  • (A) Accountancy
  • (B) Punjabi
  • (C) Urdu
  • (D) Cannot be determined

Question 67:

Which book is at the top?

  • (A) Punjabi
  • (B) Urdu
  • (C) Accountancy
  • (D) Cannot be determined

Question 68:

Statements:
A. If there is shortage in the production of onions, the price of onions will go up.
B. Price of onions has gone up.
Conclusions:
I. There is shortage in the production of onions.
II. Onions were exported.

  • (A) if only II follows.
  • (B) if only I follows.
  • (C) if neither I nor II follows.
  • (D) if both I and II follow.

Question 69:

Statements:
A. If all players play to their full potential, we will win the match.
B. We have won the match.
Conclusions:
I. All players played to their full potential.
II. Some players did not play to their full potential.

  • (A) if only conclusion II follows.
  • (B) if only conclusion I follows.
  • (C) if neither I nor II follows.
  • (D) if both I and II follow.

Question 70:


Statements:
A. Some businessmen are rich.
B. Soman is rich.
Conclusions:
I. Soman is a businessman.
II. Soman has a big farm.

  • (A) if only conclusion II follows.
  • (B) if only conclusion I follows.
  • (C) if neither I nor II follows.
  • (D) if both I and II follow.

Question 71:

An application was received by inward clerk in the afternoon of a week day. Next day, he forwarded it to the table of the senior clerk, who was on leave that day. The senior clerk put up the application to the desk officer next day in the evening. The desk officer studied the application and disposed off the matter on the same day, i.e. Friday. The application was received by the inward clerk on.

  • (A) Monday
  • (B) Wednesday
  • (C) Tuesday
  • (D) Previous week`s Saturday

Question 72:

In a queue of children, Kashish is fifth from the left and Mona is sixth from the right. When they interchange their places among themselves, Kashish becomes thirteenth from the left. Then, what will be Mona’s position from the right?

  • (A) 4th
  • (B) 14th
  • (C) 8th
  • (D) 15th

Question 73:

If the numbers from 1 to 45 which are exactly divisible by 3 are arranged in ascending order, with the minimum number at the top, then which number would come at the ninth place from the top?

  • (A) 18
  • (B) 24
  • (C) 21
  • (D) 27

Question 74:

Which letter should be the ninth letter to the left of the ninth letter from the right, if the first half of the English alphabet is reversed?

  • (A) D
  • (B) F
  • (C) E
  • (D) I

Question 75:

In a family, a couple has a son and a daughter. The age of the father is three times that of his daughter and the age of the son is half of his mother. The wife is 9 years younger to her husband and the brother is seven years older than his sister. What is the age of the mother?

  • (A) 40 years
  • (B) 50 years
  • (C) 45 years
  • (D) 60 years

Question 76:

In each of these questions, various terms of a series are given with one term missing as shown by (?). Choose the missing term.
\[ QPO, SRQ, UTS, WVU, (?) \]

  • (A) XVZ
  • (B) YXW
  • (C) ZYA
  • (D) VWX
  • (A) 228
  • (B) 352
  • (C) 256
  • (D) 456

Question 77:

\[ 19, 2, 38, 3, 114, 4, (?) \]

  • (A) 228
  • (B) 352
  • (C) 256
  • (D) 456

Question 78:

\[ YES, WFD, UHG, SKI, (?) \]

  • (A) QOL
  • (B) TOL
  • (C) QGL
  • (D) QNL

Question 79:

\[ AZ, CX, FU, (?) \]

  • (A) IR
  • (B) JQ
  • (C) IV
  • (D) KP

Question 80:

\[ 225, 7Y7, 14X9, 23W11, 34V13, (?) \]

  • (A) 27U24
  • (B) 45U15
  • (C) 47U15
  • (D) 27V14

Question 81:

A bag contains 4 black, 6 yellow, and 8 red balls. Three balls are drawn at random from the bag. The probability that all of them are yellow is .......

  • (A) \( \frac{7}{204} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{11}{408} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{3}{68} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{5}{204} \)

Question 82:

In 25 days, 30 men complete 15 projects. In how many days can 14 men complete 7 projects?

  • (A) 21 days
  • (B) 25 days
  • (C) 50 days
  • (D) 32 days

Question 83:

A car travelling with \(\frac{2}{5}\) of its actual speed covers 400 km in 16 hours 40 minutes. Find the actual speed of the car.

  • (A) 60 kmph
  • (B) 64 kmph
  • (C) 72 kmph
  • (D) 68 kmph

Question 84:

Four years ago, ages of A and B were respectively thrice and twice that of the age of C. If the total of their ages is 48, then the present age of B is.

  • (A) 16 years
  • (B) 22 years
  • (C) 10 years
  • (D) 12 years

Question 85:

A certain amount earns simple interest of Rs. 2,550 after 8 years. Had the rate of interest been 3% more, how much interest would it have earned?

  • (A) Rs. 360
  • (B) Rs. 435
  • (C) Rs. 285
  • (D) Can`t be determined

Question 86:

In a certain school, 25% of students are below 10 years of age. The number of students above 10 years of age is 3/5 of the number of students of 10 years of age, which is 75. What will be the total number of students in the school?

  • (A) 120
  • (B) 135
  • (C) 160
  • (D) 180

Question 87:

The ratio of the number of boys and girls in a college is 5 : 4, if the percentage decrease in the number of boys is 30% and the percentage increase in the number of girls is 5%. The new ratio will be:

  • (A) 5 : 6
  • (B) 6 : 5
  • (C) 5 : 9
  • (D) 9 : 4

Question 88:

The ratio of diameter to its height of a cylindrical pillar is 7 : 3. The volume of the pillar is 924 m\(^3\). Its curved surface area is .......

  • (A) 306 m\(^2\)
  • (B) 264 m\(^2\)
  • (C) 384 m\(^2\)
  • (D) 456 m\(^2\)

Question 89:

Find the smallest number that leaves a remainder of 4 on division by 5, 5 on division by 6, 6 on division by 7, 7 on division by 8, and 8 on division by 9?

  • (A) 2519
  • (B) 5039
  • (C) 1079
  • (D) 979

Question 90:

N\(^2\) leaves a remainder of 1 when divided by 24. What are the possible remainders we can get if we divide N by 12?

  • (A) 1, 5, 7 and 11
  • (B) 1 and 5
  • (C) 5, 9 and 11
  • (D) 1 and 11

Question 91:

Three taps A, B and C can fill a tank in 12, 15 and 20 hours respectively. If tap A is open all the time and tap B and tap C are open for one hour each alternately, the tank will be filled in:

  • (A) 7 hours
  • (B) 6 hours
  • (C) 5 hours
  • (D) None of these

Question 92:

A sum was put at simple interest at a certain rate for 3 years. Had it been put at 1% higher rate, it would have fetched Rs.5,100 more. The sum is ........

  • (A) Rs.1,50,000
  • (B) Rs.1,70,000
  • (C) Rs.1,25,000
  • (D) Rs.1,20,000

Question 93:

Two times a two-digit number is 9 times the number obtained by reversing the digits and sum of the digits is 9. The number is ........

  • (A) 54
  • (B) 72
  • (C) 63
  • (D) 81

Question 94:

In measuring the sides of a rectangular plot, one side is taken 5% in excess and the other 6% in deficit. The error percent in area calculated, of the plot, is ........

  • (A) 1.3%
  • (B) 1%
  • (C) 1.5%
  • (D) 3%

Question 95:

Shiva invested a certain sum of money in a simple interest bond whose value grew to Rs.300 at the end of 3 years and to Rs.400 at the end of another 5 years. What was the rate of interest at which he invested his sum?

  • (A) 12.5%
  • (B) 12%
  • (C) 6.67%
  • (D) 8.33%

Question 96:

Ram sold 10 acres of land to Mani and Dinesh who paid him the total amount in the ratio of 2 : 3. Mani invested a further Rs.3 lakh in the land for the purpose of planting coconut and lemon trees in the ratio of 4 : 1. These trees were planted on equal areas of land. There were a total of 200 lemon trees. The sale price of one coconut was Rs.10 in 2019. The crop took 7 years to mature and when the crop was reaped in 2019, the total revenue generated was 50% of the total initial amount put in by Mani and Dinesh together. The revenue generated from the coconut and lemon trees was in the ratio of 5 : 4 and it was shared equally by Mani and Dinesh as the initial amount spent by them was equal.

  • (A) 24000
  • (B) 50000
  • (C) 25000
  • (D) 19000

Question 97:

In an isosceles triangle \( PQR \) with \( PQ = PR \), PT and PZ trisect \( QR \) such that \( QT = TZ = ZR \). If \( \angle TPZ = \angle PQR \) and the area of triangle \( PQR \) is equal to \( \frac{27\sqrt{7}}{4} \), then find \( PR \).


Question 98:

ABCD is a rectangle as shown in the figure. AB = 8 cm and BC = 6 cm. BE is the perpendicular drawn from B to the diagonal AC. EF is the perpendicular drawn from E to AB. What is the length of BF?


  • (A) 3.24 cm
  • (B) 1.96 cm
  • (C) 2.56 cm
  • (D) 2.88 cm

Question 99:

In \(\Delta ABC\), given \(AC = BC\) and \(DE\) is the diameter of the circle. \(AC\) and \(BC\) touch the circle at points \(M\) and \(N\), respectively. If \( \angle ADP = \angle BEQ = 100^\circ \), find \( \angle PRD \).

  • (A) 20°
  • (B) 30°
  • (C) 40°
  • (D) 50°

Question 100:

The lengths of perpendiculars drawn from any point inside an equilateral triangle are \(a_1\), \(a_2\) and \(a_3\) respectively. Find the length of the side of the equilateral triangle.

  • (A) \( \frac{2}{\sqrt{3}} (a_1 + a_2 + a_3) \)
  • (B) \( \frac{1}{3} (a_1 + a_2 + a_3) \)
  • (C) \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}} (a_1 + a_2 + a_3) \)
  • (D) \( \frac{4}{\sqrt{3}} (a_1 + a_2 + a_3) \)

Question 101:

ABCD is a square of 20 m. What is the area of the least-sized square that can be inscribed in it with its vertices on the sides of ABCD?

  • (A) \( 100 \, m^2 \)
  • (B) \( 120 \, m^2 \)
  • (C) \( 200 \, m^2 \)
  • (D) \( 250 \, m^2 \)

Question 102:

A square of perimeter 88 cm and a circle of perimeter 88 cm are given. Which figure has larger area and by how much?

  • (A) 125 cm²
  • (B) 128 cm²
  • (C) 132 cm²
  • (D) 125 cm²

Question 103:

If each of the dimensions of a rectangle is increased by 100%, then the area is increased by?

  • (A) 100%
  • (B) 200%
  • (C) 300%
  • (D) 400%

Question 104:

A square pyramid with a side of 10 cm has a volume of 400 cm\(^3\). Find the total surface area of the pyramid.

  • (A) 240 cm\(^2\)
  • (B) 300 cm\(^2\)
  • (C) 360 cm\(^2\)
  • (D) 420 cm\(^2\)

Question 105:

The base of a right pyramid is a square and the length of the side of the square is 32 cm, and the height of the pyramid is 12 cm. Then what is the total surface area of the square pyramid?

  • (A) 2114 sq. cm
  • (B) 2304 sq. cm
  • (C) 2204 sq. cm
  • (D) 2314 sq. cm

Question 106:

A student walks from his house at \( \frac{5}{2} \) km/h and reaches his school late by 6 minutes. Next day, he increases his speed by 1 km/h and reaches 6 minutes before school time. How far is the school from his house?

  • (A) \( \frac{5}{4} \, km \)
  • (B) \( \frac{7}{4} \, km \)
  • (C) \( \frac{9}{4} \, km \)
  • (D) \( \frac{11}{4} \, km \)

Question 107:

Two cyclists start together to travel to a certain destination, one at the rate of 4 kmph and the other at the rate of 5 kmph. Find the distance if the former arrives half an hour after the latter.

  • (A) \( 10 \, km \)
  • (B) \( 12 \, km \)
  • (C) \( 15 \, km \)
  • (D) \( 20 \, km \)

Question 108:

PBA and PDC are two secants. AD is the diameter of the circle with centre at O. \( \angle A=40° \), \( \angle P=20° \). Find the measure of \( \angle DBC \).

  • (A) \( \frac{8}{25} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{17}{25} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{9}{17} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{8}{17} \)

Question 109:

In the given figure, the diameter of the circle is 3 cm. AB and MN are two diameters such that MN is perpendicular to AB. In addition, CG is perpendicular to AB such that \( AE : EB = 1 : 2 \), and DF is perpendicular to MN such that \( NL : LM = 1 : 2 \). The length of DH in cm is:


  • (A) \( 2\sqrt{2}-1 \)
  • (B) \( \frac{2\sqrt{2}-1}{2} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{3\sqrt{2}-1}{2} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{2\sqrt{2}-1}{3} \)

Question 110:

A man’s petrol bill in July is Rs. 200. In August, the price of petrol increases by 10% and his consumption is reduced by 10%. Find his petrol bill in August.

  • (A) Rs. 190
  • (B) Rs. 210
  • (C) Rs. 200
  • (D) Rs. 198

Question 111:

Two cyclists start together to travel to a certain destination, one at the rate of 4 kmph and the other at the rate of 5 kmph. Find the distance if the former arrives half an hour after the latter.

  • (A) 2 km
  • (B) 10 m
  • (C) 10000 m
  • (D) 1 km

Question 112:

A motorcyclist covers 4 successive 4 km stretches at speeds of 20 kmph, 30 kmph, 40 kmph, and 50 kmph respectively. Find the average speed over the total distance.


Question 113:

Metal A costs Rs. 8.40 per gm and metal B Rs. 0.21 per gm. In what proportion must these metals be mixed so that 1 gram of the mixture may be worth Rs. 5.67?

  • (A) 1 : 2
  • (B) 1 : 3
  • (C) 2 : 1
  • (D) 2 : 3

Question 114:

In triangle ABC, two points P and Q are on AB and BC respectively such that \( \frac{AP}{BP} = 1 : 4 \) and \( \frac{BQ}{CQ} = 2 : 3 \). The ratio of areas of triangle BPQ and the quadrilateral PQCA is:

  • (A) \( \frac{8}{25} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{17}{25} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{9}{17} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{8}{17} \)

Question 115:

In the given figure, ABCD is a rectangle. AB is 3m and BC is 2m. It is given that CF is 1m. AF intersects CD at E, and it is known that BE is parallel to HG and GE is perpendicular to AB. Find the length of HG (in m).


  • (A) \( \frac{2\sqrt{5}}{3} \)
  • (B) \( \sqrt{2} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{4\sqrt{5}}{3}\)
  • (D) \( \frac{2\sqrt{5}}{5}\)

Question 116:

ABCD is an isosceles trapezium with angle \( A = 45^\circ \) and the length of one of the non-parallel sides is \( 10\sqrt{2} \). The area of triangle \( ABD \) is 200 sq. units. What is the sum of the lengths of the parallel sides?

  • (A) 60
  • (B) 50
  • (C) 40
  • (D) 30

Question 117:

If \( a_1, a_2, \ldots, a_n \) are in AP, then evaluate the following expression:
\[ \frac{1}{\sqrt{a_1} + \sqrt{a_2}} + \frac{1}{\sqrt{a_2} + \sqrt{a_3}} + \cdots + \frac{1}{\sqrt{a_n} + \sqrt{a_{n+1}}} \]

  • (A) \( \frac{n-1}{\sqrt{a_1} + \sqrt{a_n}} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{n}{\sqrt{a_1} + \sqrt{a_{n+1}}} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{n-1}{\sqrt{a_1} + \sqrt{a_n}} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{n}{\sqrt{a_1} - \sqrt{a_{n+1}}} \)
Correct Answer: (a)
View Solution

Question 118:

A household wants to diversify his investment and invest Rs. 24,000 as a part of it at the rate of 10% per annum. But due to some pressing needs, he has to withdraw the entire money after 3 years, for a lower rate of interest. If he gets Rs. 6,640 less than what he would have got at the end of 5 years, the rate of interest allowed by the bank is:

  • (A) 8.25%
  • (B) 7.44%
  • (C) 6.25%
  • (D) 8.75%

Question 119:

The ratio of interest between the compound and simple interest after two years on a sum of money to that after three years on the same sum, at the same rate of interest, is 11:37. What will be the rate of interest?

  • (A) 36.36%
  • (B) 34.24%
  • (C) 36.26%
  • (D) 38.96%

Question 120:

A work was completed by three persons of equal ability, first one doing \( m \) hours for \( m \) days, second one doing \( n \) hours for \( n \) days (where \( m \) and \( n \) are integers) and third one doing 16 hours for 16 days. The work could have been completed in 29 days by the third person alone with his respective working hours. If all of them do the work together with their respective working hours, then they can complete it in about:

  • (A) 12 days
  • (B) 13 days
  • (C) 14 days
  • (D) 15 days

Question 121:

Two pipes M and N can fill a tank. If both the pipes are opened simultaneously, after how much time should N be closed so that the tank is full in 8 minutes?

  • (A) 14 minutes
  • (B) 12 minutes
  • (C) 15 minutes
  • (D) 18 minutes

Question 122:

Two pipes C and D can fill a cistern. If they are opened on alternate minutes and if pipe C is opened first, in how many minutes will the tank be full?

  • (A) 4 minutes
  • (B) 5 minutes
  • (C) 2 minutes
  • (D) 6 minutes

Question 123:

Two pipes, A and B are opened simultaneously, and due to a leakage in the bottom, 17/7 minutes are taken extra to fill the tank. If the tank is full, in what approximate time would the leak empty it?

  • (A) 27 minutes
  • (B) 32 minutes
  • (C) 36 minutes
  • (D) 39 minutes

Question 124:

Three pipes E, F, and R can fill a tank. If pipe R alone can fill a tank in 24 minutes, then the pipe R is closed 12 minutes before the tank is filled. In what time is the tank full?

  • (A) \( 8 \frac{5}{13} \) minutes
  • (B) \( 8 \frac{4}{13} \) minutes
  • (C) \( 7 \frac{4}{13} \) minutes
  • (D) \( 8 \frac{6}{13} \) minutes

Question 125:

A large cistern can be filled by two pipes P and Q. How many minutes will it take to fill the cistern from an empty state if Q is used for half the time and P and Q fill it together for the other half?

  • (A) 6.5 minutes
  • (B) 7.2 minutes
  • (C) 8.5 minutes
  • (D) 9.5 minutes

Question 126:

If the average number of Vanilla cakes sold on Friday and Sunday is 858 and the number of Chocolate cakes sold on Sunday is 72 more than the number of Chocolate cakes sold on Friday, then the number of Chocolate cakes sold on Friday is:

  • (A) 492
  • (B) 492
  • (C) 498
  • (D) 512

Question 127:

The ratio of the number of Vanilla cakes sold to Chocolate cakes sold on Monday is 2:1 and the ratio of the number of Vanilla cakes sold to Chocolate cakes sold on Wednesday is 3:2. Then, what is the difference between the number of Vanilla cakes sold on Monday and Wednesday?

  • (A) 13
  • (B) 14
  • (C) 15
  • (D) 16

Question 128:

If the ratio of Vanilla cakes sold to Chocolate cakes sold on Monday is 2:1 and the ratio of selling price of Vanilla cake to Chocolate cake is 1:4, and the total amount earned by him on Monday is 9660, then what is the rate of one Vanilla cake?

  • (A) Rs. 4
  • (B) Rs. 5
  • (C) Rs. 10
  • (D) Rs. 20

Question 129:

If the ratio of Vanilla cakes sold on Thursday to Vanilla cakes sold on Saturday is 3:4, and the number of Chocolate cakes sold on Thursday is equal to the number of Chocolate cakes sold on Saturday, then the number of Chocolate cakes sold on Saturday is equal to the total number of cakes sold on which day?

  • (A) Monday
  • (B) Tuesday
  • (C) Wednesday
  • (D) Thursday

Question 130:

The ratio of Vanilla cakes sold to Chocolate cakes sold is 46:45 on Tuesday. Then how many number of Vanilla cakes are sold on that day?

  • (A) 540
  • (B) 546
  • (C) 552
  • (D) 562

Question 131:

What is the difference between the number of girls in school A and the number of girls in school B?

  • (A) 100
  • (B) 101
  • (C) 102
  • (D) 103

Question 132:

How many number of boys are there in school F?

  • (A) 5134
  • (B) 5259
  • (C) 5334
  • (D) 5444

Question 133:

Girls in school C form approximately what percent of the total number of students in that school?

  • (A) 45.5%
  • (B) 47.5%
  • (C) 48.5%
  • (D) 49.5%

Question 134:

What is the ratio of the sum of boys in school D and girls in school E together to the sum of girls in school D and boys in school E together?

  • (A) 997:1012
  • (B) 997:1012
  • (C) 1000:1011
  • (D) 1000:1013

Question 135:

In which of the following schools are the least number of girls present?

  • (A) School A
  • (B) School B
  • (C) School C
  • (D) School E

Question 136:

What percentage of the candidates from institute C has been declared qualified out of the total candidates appeared from this institute?

  • (A) 30%
  • (B) 25%
  • (C) 40%
  • (D) 20%

Question 137:

Which institute has the highest percentage of candidates qualified with respect to those appeared?

  • (A) A
  • (B) D
  • (C) C
  • (D) E

Question 138:

What is the ratio of qualified candidates from institute B to the appeared candidates from institute F?

  • (A) 1:10
  • (B) 2:11
  • (C) 3:14
  • (D) 4:17

Question 139:

What is the percentage of students who qualified from institutes C and D together with respect to those who appeared from institutes C and D together?

  • (A) 24.98%
  • (B) 30.98%
  • (C) 20.98%
  • (D) 31.98%

Question 140:

What is the ratio of the qualified candidates from institutes D, E, and F together to the appeared candidates from institutes A, B, and C together?

  • (A) 1:17
  • (B) 12:67
  • (C) 19:75
  • (D) 13:75

Question 141:

Each case contains 24 bottles and the average selling price per bottle is Rs.9. If there is an excise duty of Rs.16 per case, what is the total excise duty collected in the year 2003 from the three products?

  • (A) 2.8 crores
  • (B) 1.03 crores
  • (C) 2.32 crores
  • (D) 2.7 crores

Question 142:

From the graph over the given period, which drink in which year has shown the highest percentage growth in sale over the previous year?

  • (A) Peach, 1999
  • (B) Lemon, 2001
  • (C) Peach, 2002
  • (D) Lemon, 2000

Question 143:

In the year 2004, the ratio of the sale of the three drinks happens to be the same as that in 1998. What should be the approximate total sale of drinks of the three brands in the year 2004, if the sale of Litchi increased by 10% over the previous year?

  • (A) 15 million
  • (B) 8 million
  • (C) 10 million
  • (D) 5 million

Question 144:

Each case contains 24 bottles and average selling price per bottle is Rs.9. If the three brands of drinks command a market share of 80%, then what was the total industry size in year 2003?

  • (A) 17.5 crores
  • (B) 20 crores
  • (C) 420 crores
  • (D) 560 crores

Question 145:

In the year 2004, Peach records 40% growth in sale while Lemon sale grows by 25% over the previous year. What is the difference in the sale of these brands in year 2004?

  • (A) 2.1 million bottles
  • (B) 0.8 million bottles
  • (C) 1.6 million bottles
  • (D) 2.4 million bottles

Question 146:

Which year shows the maximum percentage of export with respect to production?

  • (A) 1992
  • (B) 1993
  • (C) 1996
  • (D) 1995

Question 147:

The population of India in 1993 was:

  • (A) 800 million
  • (B) 1080 million
  • (C) 985 million
  • (D) 900 million

Question 148:

If the area under tea production was less by 10% in 1994 than in 1993, then the approximate rate of increase in productivity of tea in 1994 was:

  • (A) 97.22
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 35
  • (D) Cannot be determined

Question 149:

The average proportion of tea exported to the tea produced over the period is:

  • (A) 0.87
  • (B) 0.47
  • (C) 0.48
  • (D) 0.66

Question 150:

What is the first half decade’s average per capita availability of tea?

  • (A) 475 g
  • (B) 535 g
  • (C) 446 g
  • (D) 430 g

Question 151:

In which year was the per capita availability of tea minimum?

  • (A) 1996
  • (B) 1994
  • (C) 1991
  • (D) None of these

Question 152:

In which year was there minimum percentage of export with respect to production?

  • (A) 1991
  • (B) 1992
  • (C) 1993
  • (D) 1996

Question 153:

In which year we had maximum quantity of tea for domestic consumption?

  • (A) 1994
  • (B) 1991
  • (C) 1993
  • (D) 1996

Question 154:

In which of the categories is the number of workers same in both the years?

  • (A) P
  • (B) S
  • (C) R
  • (D) T

Question 155:

Find the percentage increase in the number of workers in category U in 2000:

  • (A) 25%
  • (B) 33\(\frac{1}{3}\)%
  • (C) 50%
  • (D) 66\(\frac{2}{3}\)%

Question 156:

What is the total number of increased workers for the categories in which the number of workers has been increased?

  • (A) 468
  • (B) 382
  • (C) 408
  • (D) 168

Question 157:

Which categories have shown a decrease in the number of workers from 1998 to 2000?

  • (A) P
  • (B) Q
  • (C) R
  • (D) T

Question 158:

Find the maximum difference between the number of workers of any two categories taken together for any one year and that of any two for the other year.

  • (A) 660
  • (B) 416
  • (C) 636
  • (D) 502

Question 159:

How many hectares of FSI has been distributed between 1994-2002?

  • (A) 3,00,500
  • (B) 2,77,500
  • (C) 6,57,000
  • (D) 9,00,000

Question 160:

How many years witnessed a decline in FNI and an increase in FSI?

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 5

Question 161:

Who among the following won the 2022 Ramon Magsaysay award in September 2022?

  • (A) Moussa Bougma
  • (B) Bernadette J. Madrid
  • (C) Harini Amarasuriya
  • (D) Sylvie Bodineau

Question 162:

Recently, the Smart Solutions Challenge & Inclusive Cities Awards 2022 was presented, the awards is an initiative of?

  • (A) NITI Aayog and the United Nations in India
  • (B) National Institute of Urban Affairs and the United Nations in India
  • (C) National Institute of Urban Affairs and NITI Aayog
  • (D) NITI Aayog and UNESCO India

Question 163:

The All-India Council for Technical Education (AICTE) has signed an agreement with which company to accelerate digital creativity skills across India?

  • (A) Microsoft
  • (B) Apple
  • (C) Adobe
  • (D) Google

Question 164:

Which governing body has announced to launch its new centralized portal called `e-Samadhan` for grievance redressal?

  • (A) University Grants Commission
  • (B) All India Council for Technical Education
  • (C) Pharmacy Council of India
  • (D) Central Board of Secondary Education

Question 165:

Which of the following government unveiled a scheme called Mahila Nidhi on Women`s Equality Day to help them sustain their livelihoods?

  • (A) Odisha
  • (B) Rajasthan
  • (C) Sikkim
  • (D) Assam

Question 166:

In which state / UTs Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) & NITI Aayog have announced the establishment of more than 500 Atal Tinkering Labs (ATLs)?

  • (A) Maharashtra
  • (B) Delhi
  • (C) Gujarat
  • (D) Jammu and Kashmir

Question 167:

Denmark’s Viktor Axelsen has clinched his second BWF World Championships men’s singles title. This championship was held in which city?

  • (A) Sofia
  • (B) Berlin
  • (C) Paris
  • (D) Tokyo

Question 168:

The largest religious monument in the world, the Temple of Vedic Planetarium in which state of India?

  • (A) West Bengal
  • (B) Kerala
  • (C) Maharashtra
  • (D) Uttarakhand

Question 169:

Which district has been declared as the best aspirational district in India?

  • (A) Ayodhya
  • (B) Varanasi
  • (C) Haridwar
  • (D) Puri

Question 170:

Who inaugurated the 8th India International MSME Start-up Expo & Summit at New Delhi?

  • (A) Narendra Modi
  • (B) Amit Shah
  • (C) Bhanu Pratap Singh Verma
  • (D) Manoj Sinha

Question 171:

National Sports Day or Rashtriya Khel Divas which is celebrated on 29th August every year is celebrated as a tribute to legend ___________?

  • (A) Arjun Halappa
  • (B) Gagan Ajit Singh
  • (C) Major Dhyan Chand
  • (D) Viren Rasquinha

Question 172:

Women’s Equality Day 2022 was celebrated all over the world to celebrate women’s empowerment and equality, When was it celebrated?

  • (A) 22nd August
  • (B) 23rd August
  • (C) 26th August
  • (D) 25th August

Question 173:

Who among the following won the 2022 UNESCO Peace Prize for ‘Efforts To Welcome Refugees’?

  • (A) Narendra Modi
  • (B) Emmanuel Macron
  • (C) Angela Merkel
  • (D) Olaf Scholz

Question 174:

Who has been appointed as the Secretary to President Droupadi Murmu?

  • (A) Rajesh Verma
  • (B) Rajiv Kumar
  • (C) Nalin Negi
  • (D) RK Gupta

Question 175:

Punjab and Haryana governments have agreed to name the Chandigarh International Airport in Mohali after which revolutionary?

  • (A) Sukhdev Thapar
  • (B) Chandra Shekhar Azad
  • (C) Shivaram Rajguru
  • (D) Shaheed Bhagat Singh

Question 176:

The book, “Bibi: My Story” is the autobiography of who among the following?

  • (A) Naftali Bennett
  • (B) Yair Lapid
  • (C) Benjamin Netanyahu
  • (D) Ehud Olmert

Question 177:

World Water Week 2022 is observed on which week in the month of August 2022?

  • (A) 23 August to 1 September
  • (B) 20 August to 29 August
  • (C) 21 August to 30 August
  • (D) 22 August to 31 August

Question 178:

Mandla district has become the first fully “functionally literate” district in the country. Mandla is the district of which state?

  • (A) Maharashtra
  • (B) Madhya Pradesh
  • (C) Gujarat
  • (D) Andhra Pradesh

Question 179:

The Border Road Organization (BRO) will construct a pilot road using steel slag in which state?

  • (A) Tripura
  • (B) Jammu and Kashmir
  • (C) Assam
  • (D) Arunachal Pradesh

Question 180:

Who launched India’s first electric double-decker bus in Mumbai recently?

  • (A) Narendra Modi
  • (B) Nitin Gadkari
  • (C) Bhupender Yadav
  • (D) Raj Kumar Singh

Question 181:

Paytm has partnered with which company to deploy smart PoS (Point-of-Sale) devices?

  • (A) IG
  • (B) Panasonic
  • (C) One Plus
  • (D) Samsung

Question 182:

Who among the following has unveiled a start-up Goodfellows dedicated to senior citizens?

  • (A) Gautam Adani
  • (B) Mukesh Ambani
  • (C) Ratan Tata
  • (D) Nita Ambani

Question 183:

Which of the following state becomes the 1st ‘Har Ghar Jal’ certified state in India?

  • (A) Goa
  • (B) Uttarakhand
  • (C) Uttar Pradesh
  • (D) Kerala

Question 184:

Who has been appointed as Managing Director (MD) of NaBFID?

  • (A) K V Kamath
  • (B) Sumita Dawra
  • (C) Rajkiran Rai G
  • (D) Nalin Negi

Question 185:

Which of the following bank has announced the launch of a new campaign titled ‘Vigil Aunty’?

  • (A) HDFC Bank
  • (B) ICICI Bank
  • (C) Yes Bank
  • (D) IDBI Bank

Question 186:

Who among the following has been appointed as the CEO of the national intelligence grid (NATGRID)?

  • (A) Rakesh Mishra
  • (B) Piyush Goyal
  • (C) Adarsh Chauhan
  • (D) Anurag Thakur

Question 187:

Dr. Virendra Kumar launched the “SMILE-75 Initiative” to mark 75 years of Independence. Which of the following ministries has launched the SMILE-75 initiative?

  • (A) Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
  • (B) Ministry of Home Affairs
  • (C) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
  • (D) Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment

Question 188:

Who has been appointed as the 49th Chief Justice of India (CJI) to succeed incumbent CJI?

  • (A) Justice DY Chandrachud
  • (B) Justice Vineet Saran
  • (C) N V Ramana
  • (D) Justice Uday Umesh Lalit

Question 189:

Recently RBI cancelled the license of Rupee Co-operative Bank Ltd. Where is the headquarters of the bank located?

  • (A) Mumbai
  • (B) Jodhpur
  • (C) Jaipur
  • (D) Pune

Question 190:

Which tennis legend from the United States has recently announced their retirement?

  • (A) Frank Parker
  • (B) Bill Johnston
  • (C) Serena Williams
  • (D) Jim Courier

Question 191:

2022 International Telecommunication Union (ITU) Regional Standardization Forum (RSF) for Asia and Oceania region was held in New Delhi. Where is the headquarters of ITU?

  • (A) Hague
  • (B) Brussels
  • (C) Geneva
  • (D) New York

Question 192:

Bhavani Devi won a gold medal at the Commonwealth Games 2022. She plays which sport?

  • (A) Fencing
  • (B) Wrestling
  • (C) Shooting
  • (D) Athletics

Question 193:

PV Sindhu bagged a gold medal in the Commonwealth Games 2022 women’s single badminton final. Who did she beat in the finals?

  • (A) Carolina Marin
  • (B) Wang Yihan
  • (C) Li Xuerui
  • (D) Michelle Li

Question 194:

Indian Railways conducted a test run of the Super Vasuki, a 3.5-km-long freight train on Independence Day. The train is operated by?

  • (A) South East Central Railway
  • (B) Southern Railway
  • (C) Eastern Railway
  • (D) Western Railway

Question 195:

Who became the first woman to be awarded the Vayu Sena Medal on Independence Day?

  • (A) Shivangi Singh
  • (B) Avani Chaturvedi
  • (C) Deepika Misra
  • (D) Bhawana Kanth

Question 196:

2022 Liberty Medal was awarded to Ukrainian President Volodymyr Zelenskyy. The award is presented by which country?

  • (A) UK
  • (B) US
  • (C) France
  • (D) Germany

Question 197:

PM Jan Dhan Yojana completes 8 years in 2022. It was launched on which date?

  • (A) 25 August 2014
  • (B) 25 August 2015
  • (C) 28 August 2014
  • (D) 30 August 2014

Question 198:

India is set to host Senior Officials Meeting (SOM) of QUAD in September 2022. Which of the following is not a member of QUAD?

  • (A) Indonesia
  • (B) US
  • (C) Australia
  • (D) Japan

Question 199:

Human Development Index 2022 was released recently. The Index is published by which of the following?

  • (A) World Bank
  • (B) United Nations Development Program
  • (C) World Economic Forum
  • (D) UNESCO

Question 200:

Fahida Azim who has been selected for the Pulitzer Prize 2022 under the category of Illustrated Reporting and Commentary. She was born in which country?

  • (A) India
  • (B) Pakistan
  • (C) Afghanistan
  • (D) Bangladesh

MAT Questions

  • 1.
    The table shows the marks of five engineering students in Thermodynamics and Hydraulics. The total marks obtained by Tahir in both subjects are more than the marks obtained by:
     marks of five engineering students in Thermodynamics and  Hydraulics

      • Quesh in Hydraulics
      • Rao in Thermodynamics
      • Sharma in Hydraulics
      • Parikh in Hydraulics

    • 2.
      An international NGO for homeless people has supplied certain items for ongoing winters to new shelters for homeless people. These consist of different items like blankets, jackets, shoes, socks, and room heaters. The total number of five items distributed in December 2024 was 3300.
      - 24% of all items were blankets.
      - $\frac{1}{6}$ of all items were jackets.
      - 14% of all items were shoes.
      - Remaining items were either socks or room heaters.
      - The number of room heaters distributed was 100 more than the number of socks distributed.
      The number of socks distributed is approximately what percent of the total number of shoes and room heaters put together?

        • 59
        • 63
        • 55
        • 51

      • 3.
        An international NGO for homeless people has supplied certain items for ongoing winters to new shelters for homeless people. These consist of different items like blankets, jackets, shoes, socks, and room heaters. The total number of five items distributed in December 2024 was 3300.
        - 24% of all items were blankets.
        - $\frac{1}{6}$ of all items were jackets.
        - 14% of all items were shoes.
        - Remaining items were either socks or room heaters.
        - The number of room heaters distributed was 100 more than the number of socks distributed.
        Find the ratio between the number of room heaters and the number of shoes?

          • 19:11
          • 19:13
          • 17:11
          • 11:17

        • 4.
          The Chatterjee family has 8 members: A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H. There are 3 generations in the family. They go to 4 different countries: France, Canada, UK, and USA. They make 4 groups of 2 members each, and each group goes to one country. The family consists of 3 married couples, and each couple forms a group. The following conditions are given:
          1. The family consists of 3 married couples and each couple forms a group.
          2. The oldest member of the family goes to Canada.
          3. H, a female, is married to E, who does not go to UK.
          4. B and Dform a group and agreed to go to USA.
          5. E’s mother-in-law is the mother of C, who is the father of B and brother of H.
          6. A is the grandfather of one of the male members, who goes to USA.
          7. D is unmarried and the niece of C.
          8. F is the oldest member of the family.
          How many male members are there in the family?

            • 3
            • 5
            • 4
            • CBD

          • 5.
            An international NGO for homeless people has supplied certain items for ongoing winters to new shelters for homeless people. These consist of different items like blankets, jackets, shoes, socks, and room heaters. The total number of five items distributed in December 2024 was 3300.
            - 24% of all items were blankets.
            - $\frac{1}{6}$ of all items were jackets.
            - 14% of all items were shoes.
            - Remaining items were either socks or room heaters.
            - The number of room heaters distributed was 100 more than the number of socks distributed.
            What is the difference between the total number of socks and blankets distributed and the number of shoes distributed?

              • 1022
              • 1068
              • 1025
              • 1028

            • 6.
              Akash, Bindan, Chandan, Dinesh, Esha, and Farooq are seated around a circular table facing the center. The following conditions are given:
              1. Chandan is third to the right of Farooq.
              2. Bindan is second to the right of Chandan.
              3. Dinesh is not sitting next to Chandan.
              4. Akash is not sitting next to Bindan.
              Who is sitting between Bindan and Chandan?

                • Farooq
                • Esha
                • Dinesh
                • Akash

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