CMAT 2024 May 15 Shift 2 Question Paper with Solutions PDF

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Shivam Yadav

Updated on - Dec 22, 2025

CMAT 2024 shift 2 question paper with solutions pdf is available for download here. NTA conducted CMAT 2024 exam on May 15 in Shift 2 from 3 PM to 6 PM. CMAT 2024 question paper consists of 100 multiple-choice questions to be attempted in 180 minutes. CMAT 2024 question paper PDF is divided into 5 sections carrying 20 questions each. Candidates can download the memory-based CMAT 2024 question paper with solutions pdf for May 15 shift 2 exam using the links given below.

CMAT 2024 Shift 2 Question Paper with Solutions PDF

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CMAT Shift 2 Question Paper 2024 Solution


Question 1:

What is the difference between the average number of linen kurtis sold by stores D and E together and the average number of cotton kurtis sold by the same stores?

  • (1) 2920
  • (2) 2880
  • (3) 2940
  • (4) 3060

Question 2:

What is the respective ratio between the number of kurtis (linen and cotton) sold by store C and the number of linen kurtis sold by store F?

  • (1) 30:41
  • (2) 40:49
  • (3) 22:31
  • (4) 20:29

Question 3:

Number of kurtis (linen and cotton) sold by store D is what percent more than the number of linen kurtis sold by store B?

  • (1) 16%
  • (2) 20%
  • (3) 24%
  • (4) 18%

Question 4:

There are two numbers which are greater than 21 and their LCM and HCF are 3003 and 21 respectively. What is the sum of these numbers?

  • (1) 504
  • (2) 508
  • (3) 514
  • (4) 528

Question 5:

Mr. Seth inherits 2505 gold coins and divides them among his three sons: Brij, Purab, and Mohan in a certain ratio. Out of the total coins received by each of them, Brij sells 30 coins, Purab donates his 30 coins, and Mohan loses 25 coins. Now, the ratio of gold coins with them is 46:41:34 respectively. How many coins did Purab receive from his father?

  • (1) 705
  • (2) 950
  • (3) 800
  • (4) 850

Question 6:

Given below are two statements:


Statement I: The perimeter of a triangle is greater than the sum of its three medians.


Statement II: In any triangle ABC, if D is any point on BC, then \( AB + BC + CA > 2AD \).

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Question 7:

If \( a% \) of \( a + b% \) of \( b = 2% \) of ab, then what percent of a is b?

  • (1) 25%
  • (2) 50%
  • (3) 75%
  • (4) 100%

Question 8:

Arrange the following surds in increasing order:


(A) \( \sqrt{2} \)

(B) \( \sqrt{3} \)

(C) \( \sqrt{5} \)

(D) \( \sqrt{7} \)

  • (1) \( A < B < C < D \)
  • (2) \( D < A < C < B \)
  • (3) \( B < C < A < D \)
  • (4) \( A < D < C < B \)

Question 9:

Given below are two statements:


Statement I: If two chords XY and ZT of a circle intersect internally at point P, then \( PX - PY = PZ - PT \).


Statement II: If two chords XY and ZT of a circle intersect internally at point P, then \( \triangle PXZ \) and \( \triangle PTY \) are similar triangles.

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Question 10:

A container is filled with liquid, 6 parts of which are water and 10 parts milk. How much of the mixture must be drawn off and replaced with water, so that the mixture may be half water and half milk?

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{3} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{1}{7} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{5} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{1}{8} \)

Question 11:

Which two figures will have the same area?


(A) Circle with diameter of 14 cm.

(B) Rectangle with length 12 cm and breadth 10 cm.

(C) Rectangle with length 14 cm and breadth 11 cm.

(D) Square with side 12 cm.

  • (1) A and B only
  • (2) B and D only
  • (3) A and C only
  • (4) A and D only

Question 12:

In terms of percentage profit, arrange the following transactions in decreasing order.


(A) Cost price: Rs 36, Profit: Rs 17

(B) Cost price: Rs 50, Profit: Rs 24

(C) Cost price: Rs 40, Profit: Rs 19

(D) Cost price: Rs 60, Profit: Rs 29

  • (1) D > C > B > A
  • (2) D > B > C > A
  • (3) B > D > C > A
  • (4) B > C > A > D

Question 13:

A player can take a maximum of 4 chances to hit a bottle with a flying disc. The probability of hitting the bottle at the first, second, third, and fourth shots are 0.1, 0.2, 0.35, and 0.45 respectively. What is the probability that the player hits the bottle with the flying disc?

  • (1) 0.6573
  • (2) 0.2574
  • (3) 0.7426
  • (4) 0.3427

Question 14:

A Glass jar contains 1 Red, 3 Green, 2 Blue, and 4 Yellow marbles. If a single marble is chosen, then match List I with List II:


List I List II


(A) Probability of yellow marble (1) \( \frac{3}{10} \)

(B) Probability of green marble (2) \( \frac{7}{10} \)

(C) Probability of either green or yellow marble (3) \( \frac{1}{2} \)

(D) Probability of either red or yellow (4) \( \frac{4}{10} \)

  • (1) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
  • (2) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
  • (3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
  • (4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)

Question 15:

The graphs of \( ax + by = c \) and \( dx + ey = f \) will be:


(A) Parallel if the system has no solution.

(B) Coincident if the system has finite number of solutions.

(C) Intersecting if the system has two solutions.

(D) Intersecting if the system has only one solution.

  • (1) A and B only
  • (2) B and C only
  • (3) A and D only
  • (4) B and D only

Question 16:

Ice-cream, completely filled in a cylinder of diameter 35 cm and height 32 cm, is to be served by completely filling identical disposable cones of diameter 4 cm and height 7 cm. The maximum number of cones that can be used in this way is:

  • (1) 950
  • (2) 1000
  • (3) 1050
  • (4) 1100

Question 17:

A vessel of 160 L is filled with milk and water. 70% of milk and 30% of water is taken out of the vessel. It is found that the vessel is vacated by 55%, then the quantity of milk and water in the original mixture is

  • (1) Milk = 100 L; Water = 60 L
  • (2) Milk = 60 L; Water = 100 L
  • (3) Milk = 90 L; Water = 70 L
  • (4) Milk = 70 L; Water = 90 L

Question 18:

3 men and 18 women together take 2 days to complete a piece of work. How many days will 9 women alone take to complete the piece of work if 6 men alone can complete the piece of work in 3 days?

  • (1) 5
  • (2) 6
  • (3) 7
  • (4) 9

Question 19:

Match List I with List II:


List I (Regular Price and Sale Price) List II (Discount)


(A) Regular price: 65, Sale price: 55 (I) 13.33%

(B) Regular price: 60, Sale price: 50 (II) 15.38%

(C) Regular price: 70, Sale price: 50 (III) 16.66%

(D) Regular price: 75, Sale price: 65 (IV) 14.29%

  • (1) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
  • (2) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
  • (3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
  • (4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)

Question 20:

There are 10 stations on a railway line. The number of different journey tickets required by the authorities is:

  • (1) 92
  • (2) 90
  • (3) 91
  • (4) 93

Question 21:

In the following number series, only one number is wrong, find out the wrong number:


888, 454, 237, 128.5, 76.25, 47.125

  • (1) 7625
  • (2) 454
  • (3) 1285
  • (4) 237

Question 22:

If 8th February, 2005 was a Tuesday, then what was the day on 8th February, 2004?

  • (1) Tuesday
  • (2) Monday
  • (3) Sunday
  • (4) Wednesday

Question 23:

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).


Assertion (A): Tides indicate the regular rise and fall in the sea level.

Reason (R): Tides are caused by the gravitational pull of the moon and sea level.

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  • (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
  • (4) (A) is false but (R) is true

Question 24:

How many squares does the figure have?


  • (1) 8
  • (2) 9
  • (3) 11
  • (4) 12

Question 25:

The sheet of paper shown in the figure below is folded to form a box. Choose the correct alternative which will represent the position of numbers in the above diagram.




Question 26:

At sunrise, Ajay and Vijay are having a conversation standing in front of each other. The shadow of Vijay is formed towards the right hand of Ajay. What direction is Vijay facing?

  • (1) North-East
  • (2) South
  • (3) East
  • (4) North

Question 27:

A clock is set right at 10 am. The clock gains 10 minutes in a day. What will be the true time when the watch indicates 3 pm the next day?

  • (1) 12 minutes past 2 pm
  • (2) 45 minutes past 2 pm
  • (3) 32 minutes past 2 pm
  • (4) 48 minutes past 2 pm

Question 28:

Find the next term in the series:

XRF, UTI, RVM, ?

  • (1) OWP
  • (2) OXR
  • (3) QXR
  • (4) OXP

Question 29:

If RAIN is written as 66, then CLOUD is written as

  • (1) 55
  • (2) 72
  • (3) 94
  • (4) 80

Question 30:

Find the odd one among the following:

(1) Death : Disease

(2) Grape : Wine

(3) Milk : Butter

(4) Water : Oxygen

  • (1) Death : Disease
  • (2) Grape : Wine
  • (3) Milk : Butter
  • (4) Water : Oxygen

Question 31:

Find the missing number from the given alternatives:


  • (1) 31
  • (2) 35
  • (3) 55
  • (4) 18

Question 32:

A B, C, D, E, F, G, H, and J are sitting around a circle facing the centre. C is third to the left of A. E is fourth to the right of A. D is fourth to the left of J, who is second to the right of A. F is third to the right of B. G is not an immediate neighbour of A. What is H’s position with respect to E?

  • (1) Third to the left
  • (2) Fourth to the left
  • (3) Fifth to the right
  • (4) Fifth to the left

Question 33:

A and B are twins. B’s sister is C. D is the husband of C. A’s mother is E. E is wife of F. How is F related to D?

  • (1) Uncle
  • (2) Brother in law
  • (3) Father in law
  • (4) Son in law

Question 34:

Seeta and Geeta start moving towards each other from two places 200 m apart. After walking 40 m, Geeta turns left and goes 15 m, then she turns right and goes 25 m. She then turns right again and comes back to the road on which she had started walking. If Seeta and Geeta walk with the same speed, what is the distance between them now?

  • (1) 40 m
  • (2) 35 m
  • (3) 55 m
  • (4) 65 m

Question 35:

In a row of girl students facing north, Radhika is 10 to the left of Purnima, who is 21 from the right end. If Monika, who is 17 from the left end, is 4 to the right of Radhika, how many students are there in the row?

  • (1) 37
  • (2) 72
  • (3) 43
  • (4) Data is insufficient

Question 36:

‘Fire’ is related to ‘Ashes’ in the same way as ‘Explosion’ is related to:

  • (1) Sound
  • (2) Debris
  • (3) Explosive
  • (4) Flames

Question 37:

The following question consists of a statement and argument I and II. Choose the best option.

Statement: Should the judiciary be independent of the executive?

Arguments:

I. Yes, this would help curb the unlawful activities of the executive.

II. No, the executive would not be able to take bold measures.

  • (1) Only argument I is strong
  • (2) Neither argument I nor argument II is strong
  • (3) Both arguments I and II are strong
  • (4) Both arguments I and II are weak

Question 38:

Consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.

Statement: The entire north India, including Delhi, remained ‘powerless’ the whole day of 19th December as the northern grid supplying electricity to seven states collapsed yet again.

Assumptions:

I. The northern grid had collapsed earlier.

II. The grid system of providing electricity to a group of states is an ineffective type of power supply system.

  • (1) Only assumption I is implicit
  • (2) Only assumption II is implicit
  • (3) Neither assumption I nor II is implicit
  • (4) Both assumptions I and II are implicit

Question 39:

All needles are threads. All threads are boxes. All trees are boxes.

  • (1) No needle is a tree.
  • (2) Some trees are threads.
  • (3) Some boxes are needles.
  • (4) Some trees are needles.

Question 40:

A set of figures carrying certain characters is given below. Assuming that the characters in each set follow the same pattern, find the missing character.


  • (1) 127
  • (2) 142
  • (3) 146
  • (4) 182

Question 41:

Pick the word opposite in meaning to the word "DOLEFUL":

  • (1) Cheerful
  • (2) Deceitful
  • (3) Beautiful
  • (4) Mournful

Question 42:

Identify the usages of the word "PUZZLE" in the following sentence:

"The students got puzzled solving the puzzle."

  • (1) as an adjective and as a noun
  • (2) as a verb and as an adjective
  • (3) as a verb and as a verb
  • (4) as a verb and as a noun

Question 43:

Pick the correct option given below to replace the underlined words/phrase in the following sentence to make it grammatically correct:

"Do you know that dressing properly for an interview can earns you those brownie points which will help you get that dream job?"

  • (1) can earn
  • (2) will earning
  • (3) will earns
  • (4) earned

Question 44:

Pick the odd one out from the following options:

  • (1) Go about
  • (2) Go after
  • (3) Go fast
  • (4) Go through

Question 45:

Pick the correct option to complete the following sentence:

"The teacher never ___ in the class."

  • (1) sleeps
  • (2) sleep
  • (3) is sleeping
  • (4) has sleep

Question 46:

“An office without pay” is termed as:

  • (1) Salaried
  • (2) Bonded
  • (3) Ex gratia
  • (4) Honorary

Question 47:

Pick the correct passive form of the following sentence:

"He urged the council to reduce the rates."

  • (1) He urged that the rates should be reduced.
  • (2) The council urged to reduce the rates.
  • (3) The council urges that the rates should be reduced.
  • (4) The council was urged to reduce the rates.

Question 48:

Pick the appropriate replacement for (I):

Options:
(1) does

(2) do

(3) has

(4) have


Question 49:

Pick the appropriate replacement for (II):

  • (1) assumes
  • (2) assume
  • (3) assumed
  • (4) assuming

Question 50:

Pick the appropriate replacement for (III):

  • (1) pursue
  • (2) pursues
  • (3) pursuit
  • (4) pursuing

Question 51:

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

'I wish it were possible.'

Assertion (A): Despite the fact that the above sentence lacks subject-verb concord, as per English Grammar, it is a syntactically correct sentence.

Reason (R): It is a syntactically correct sentence because in the subjunctive mood (of verb) even singular subject is followed by a plural verb.

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
  • (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
  • (4) (A) is false but (R) is true

Question 52:

Rearrange the following components to get a meaningful sentence:

(A) The Buddha

(B) of his time and

(C) dissented against the orthodoxy

(D) the eightfold path stood revealed

  • (1) ABCD
  • (2) ACBD
  • (3) DACB
  • (4) ABDC

Question 53:

Rearrange the following sentences to get a meaningful paragraph:

(A) However, Indian girls have not matched this rate of access to education.

(B) Still the Indian girl child has been deprived of the gift, as largely girls are not considered worthy of literacy.

(C) The power of education in transforming communities is a gift that has changed India in the last few decades.

(D) India has seen a substantial increase in primary school enrolment due to the Right to Education (RTE) Act 2009

  • (1) ABCD
  • (2) ACBD
  • (3) CBDA
  • (4) DCBA

Question 54:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: "VERY" is used with adjectives, past participles used as adjectives, and adverbs.

Statement II: But "VERY" is not used with past participles that carry a passive meaning.

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Question 55:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: "HARDLY" can be used to say that something is just true or possible.

Statement II: "HARDLY" is a negative word and should not be used with "not" or other negatives.

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Question 56:

Which of the following are synonyms of the word “DELINEATE”?

(A) Depict

(B) Deceptiate

(C) Describe

(D) Deprecate

  • (1) A and B only
  • (2) A and C only
  • (3) B and C only
  • (4) C and D only

Question 57:

Match List I with List II:

  • (1) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
  • (2) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
  • (3) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
  • (4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

Question 58:

Match List I with List II:

  • (1) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
  • (2) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
  • (3) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
  • (4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

Question 59:

Which of the following terms is closer to the central idea of the given passage?

Options:
(1) Nationalism

(2) Materialism

(3) Humanism

(4) Altruism


Question 60:

What does the passage suggest overall?

Options:
(1) It suggests humanism as a religious practice.

(2) It holds nationalism as the most cherished sentiment in society.

(3) It holds altruism as a universal value.

(4) It holds humanism as the most important thing in human life.


Question 61:

22 Commonwealth Games 2022 were held in which city of the world?

  • (1) Birmingham
  • (2) Brisbane
  • (3) Cardiff
  • (4) Delhi

Question 62:

Who is the present Vice President of India?

  • (1) Dharmendra Pradhan
  • (2) Anurag Singh Thakur
  • (3) Jagdeep Dhankhar
  • (4) Bhupendra Yadav

Question 63:

The first National Education Policy of independent India was commenced in the year

  • (1) 1968
  • (2) 1986
  • (3) 1992
  • (4) 2020

Question 64:

In the Indian Constitution, Directive Principles of State Policy are taken from

  • (1) Constitution of Australia
  • (2) Constitution of France
  • (3) Constitution of Canada
  • (4) Constitution of Ireland

Question 65:

The famous instrumentalist Bismillah Khan was associated with which of the following instrument?

  • (1) Flute
  • (2) Tabla
  • (3) Dholak
  • (4) Shehnai

Question 66:

The first country of the world to legalize Euthanasia was

  • (1) Switzerland
  • (2) Netherlands
  • (3) Poland
  • (4) Holland

Question 67:

Arrange the following Indian Defence organizations in terms of their foundation year

  • (1) ABEDC
  • (2) BAECD
  • (3) BCAED
  • (4) BCAED

Question 68:

Which of the following statements are correct?

(A) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre took place in the year 1919.
(B) People were agitated over the arrest of Dr. Kitchlu and Dr. Satyapal and assembled there.
(C) General O’Dyer fired at people who assembled in Jallianwala Bagh.
(D) Gandhiji returned his knighthood in protest.
(E) Sardar Hardayal killed General O’Dyer in London.
  • (1) A, B, and C only
  • (2) B, C, and D only
  • (3) C, D, and E only
  • (4) D, E, and A only

Question 69:

Which of the following statements are correct?

(A) Jainism came into existence around 600 B.C. in India.
(B) There were 24th Tirthankaras in Jainism.
(C) The first Tirthankar was Swami Mahavira.
(D) The last and 24th Tirthankara was Rishabhadeva.
(E) Jainism accepts the idea of the existence of God and believes in the caste system.
  • (1) A and B only
  • (2) B, C, and D only
  • (3) A and B only
  • (4) C, D, and E only

Question 70:

Match List I with List II:

  • (1) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  • (2) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
  • (3) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
  • (4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

Question 71:

Match List I with List II:

List I List II

(A) Warren Hastings (I) Father of civil services in India

(B) Lord Cornwallis (II) Introduction of subsidiary Alliance

(C) Lord Wellesley (III) Establishment of Ryotwari system

(D) Lord Hastings (IV) Abolition of Dual Government

  • (1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
  • (2) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
  • (3) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
  • (4) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)

Question 72:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Vitamin-A, Vitamin-B and Vitamin-C are all fat-soluble vitamins.
Statement II: Vitamin-D, Vitamin-K and Vitamin-E are all water-soluble vitamins.

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Question 73:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The Abbreviation of ASCII is Army Standard Code for Information Interchange.
Statement II: The abbreviation of COBOL is Computer Business Oriented Language.

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Question 74:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: King Ashoka was the son of Chandragupta.
Statement II: The war of Kalinga changed Ashoka, and he became a follower of Jainism.

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Question 75:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In Indus Valley Civilization, houses were made of bricks.
Statement II: Indus Valley Civilization was not familiar with cotton.

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Question 76:

The youngest Prime Minister in the history of India was

  • (1) Indira Gandhi
  • (2) Jawaharlal Nehru
  • (3) Rajiv Gandhi
  • (4) Choudhary Charan Singh

Question 77:

Which of the following is not a scalar quantity?

  • (1) Speed
  • (2) Work
  • (3) Force
  • (4) Volume

Question 78:

The first Bharat Ratna Awards were not given to

  • (1) Pandit Govind Ballabh Pant
  • (2) Shri Chakravarti Rajagopalachari
  • (3) Dr. C. V. Raman
  • (4) Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan

Question 79:

Rudyard Kipling is the famous writer of which of the following books?

  • (1) The Brief History of Time
  • (2) The Pie
  • (3) Jungle Book
  • (4) The Republic

Question 80:

The word 'Blue Revolution' is associated with

  • (1) Honey Production
  • (2) Fish Production
  • (3) Milk Production
  • (4) Grain Production

Question 81:

‘Entrepreneur’ means:

  • (1) to struggle
  • (2) to undertake
  • (3) to invent
  • (4) to motivate

Question 82:

Becoming an entrepreneur is more about:

  • (1) Money
  • (2) Commitment
  • (3) Support available
  • (4) Mindset

Question 83:

Diffusion of Innovation theory is associated with:

  • (1) Schumpeter
  • (2) Peter Drucker
  • (3) Frederick Taylor
  • (4) E.M. Rogers

Question 84:

Given below are two statements:


Statement I: Changing competition in the marketplace is the primary reason for government involvement in business globally.

Statement II: Increase in the cost of production is the primary reason for government involvement in business globally.

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Question 85:

Which of the following statements are correct?


(A) SMILE loans are aimed to pursue growth opportunities.

(B) SMILE loans are aimed to pay for the earlier loan.

(C) SMILE loans are available to both manufacturing and services organizations.

(D) SMILE loans are aimed at setting up state-of-the-art manufacturing infrastructure for MSME.

  • (1) A, B, C only
  • (2) A, C, D only
  • (3) A, B, C, E only
  • (4) C, B, E only

Question 86:

The legal term for brand is:

  • (1) Patent
  • (2) License
  • (3) Copyright
  • (4) Trademark

Question 87:

Match List I with List II:


List I List II

(A) Manager (1) Value addition

(B) Retailer (2) Gets the work done

(C) Entrepreneur (3) Works on existing business model

(D) Businessman (4) Calculate risk taking

  • (1) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
  • (2) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
  • (3) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
  • (4) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)

Question 88:

Design thinking has the following important stages. Arrange them in a sequence:


(A) Define

(B) Empathize

(C) Prototype

(D) Test

(E) Ideate

  • (1) BAECD
  • (2) BEADC
  • (3) ABCDE
  • (4) A, B, C, E, D

Question 89:

Following are the reasons for the success of entrepreneurial ventures:


(A) Effective Market Research

(B) Good Financial Control

(C) Good Management

(D) Caste of Entrepreneur

(E) Good Idea

  • (1) A, B, C only
  • (2) A, C, D only
  • (3) A, B, C, E only
  • (4) B, C, E only

Question 90:

Which of the following factors are not relevant for judging the adequacy of the market?

  • (1) Labour Market
  • (2) Domestic Market Demand
  • (3) Export Market Demand
  • (4) Competitors and their market shares

Question 91:

To maintain consistent business throughout the year, an entrepreneur may:

  • (1) Do multiple businesses at a time
  • (2) Have more than one customer segment
  • (3) Do guerrilla marketing and sales promotion
  • (4) Do business plan

Question 92:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Dividing the market into small niches is known as targeting.

Statement II: Segmentation and targeting are essential components of understanding the market and tapping it effectively.

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Question 93:

Match List I with List II:


List I List II

(A) Plant and Machinery Records (I) Design thinking

(B) Profit Statements (II) Technical feasibility

(C) Creativity and Innovation (III) Financial feasibility

(D) Empathize (IV) Business ideation

  • (1) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
  • (2) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
  • (3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
  • (4) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)

Question 94:

Along with goal setting, major concerns for a growing enterprise are:

  • (1) Time management
  • (2) Finding, retaining, and motivating able human resources
  • (3) Finding new financiers
  • (4) Diversification and export potential
  • (5) Performance measurement and incentives

Question 95:

Shruti wants to launch a small floral shop in Nagarbhavi, Bengaluru. As part of her business plan, she prepared an engaging MS PowerPoint presentation to garner interest among potential investors and trigger discussion. This format of business plan is known as:

  • (1) Business plan
  • (2) Pitch deck
  • (3) Presentation
  • (4) Business talk

Question 96:

Hands-on learning can be best taught through:

  • (1) Case study analysis
  • (2) Entrepreneurial Audit
  • (3) Entrepreneurial profiling
  • (4) Class discussion

Question 97:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Business ideation is an important aspect of venture creation.

Statement II: Conversation that happens in an elevator is known as an elevator pitch.

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Question 98:

Bottom line measures of social performance for an entrepreneur include the following:

  • (1) Unemployment rate
  • (2) Relative poverty
  • (3) GDP growth
  • (4) Average commute time
  • (5) Literacy rate

Question 99:

Critical evaluation points of Entrepreneurship Development Programmes (EDPs) are:

  • (1) Organizational Policies
  • (2) Suitable selection procedure of trainees and Faculty
  • (3) Quality of Technical and Vocational Education and Training
  • (4) Organization associated in the EDP

Question 100:

Shaadi.com, an online matchmaking service, is an example of the following startup model:

  • (1) Subscription-based business service model
  • (2) Transaction-based business service model
  • (3) Multilevel marketing premium model
  • (4) Relationship-based selling


CMAT Previous Year Question Paper with Solution PDF

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Fees Structure

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