The INI CET 2026 question paper with solutions is now available for free download. INI CET (May 2026 session) was conducted by AIIMS New Delhi on May 16, 2026 as a 200-question computer-based test of 180 minutes, and this page provides 144 questions with detailed step-by-step answers.
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INI CET 2026 Questions with Solutions
Among the following neurodegenerative disorders, which one has a distinct (potentially curable) treatment?
Which cardiac abnormality is most characteristically associated with systemic sclerosis (scleroderma)?
Which of the following intercellular junctions seals the paracellular space and is classified as a tight (occluding) junction?
A 2-day-old neonate presents with blistering/erosive skin lesions over the face and abdomen. There is no fever and no mucosal involvement. The mother has a history of an autoimmune blistering disorder. What is the most likely diagnosis?
In poisoning with which of the following is central respiratory depression not a feature?
On defecography, a rectocele is considered significant when the anterior bulging of the rectal wall into the posterior vaginal wall exceeds:
In laparoscopic (TAPP/TEP) inguinal hernia repair, what is the minimum distance of dissection below the inguinal ligament required to adequately expose the entire myopectineal orifice of Fruchaud?
The accompanying histology slide of esophageal mucosa shows the lower esophageal lining replaced by columnar (intestinal-type) epithelium with goblet cells in place of the normal stratified squamous epithelium. Which condition does this represent?
Which clinical feature best differentiates mechanical small intestinal obstruction from paralytic ileus?
Based on the clinical photographs shown, identify the facial anomaly depicted (bilateral defect of the upper lip with associated nasal deformity).
Total Mesorectal Excision (TME), the standard operation for rectal cancer, is best described as:
In the modern trauma resuscitation protocol used for a patient with exsanguinating external hemorrhage, what is the correct order of priorities?
A prostate biopsy reports a Gleason score of 4+4. Which ISUP/WHO Grade Group does this correspond to?
All of the following are sphincter-preserving surgical techniques for anal fistula EXCEPT:
A 20-month-old child says only one word and is otherwise developmentally normal in motor and social domains. What is the most appropriate next step?
Which pedigree pattern best characterises a trait showing INCOMPLETE PENETRANCE?
A 6-week-old infant presents with bacterial meningitis. Which organism is the most likely cause?
Which of the following correctly matches a gynaecological cause of amenorrhoea with its mechanism?
Which of the following is NOT a complication of a monochorionic diamniotic (MCDA) twin pregnancy?
A woman develops a painful, tense, fluctuant swelling in the vulvovaginal region following a forceps delivery, along with difficulty in passing urine. The most likely diagnosis is:
Which of the following is a probable sign of pregnancy?
Which of the following is a respiratory effect of progesterone during pregnancy?
In a woman at high risk because of a past history of pre-eclampsia, which is the best method to prevent pre-eclampsia in the current pregnancy?
A propagated (progressive) epidemic showing multiple peaks separated by the incubation period is characteristically seen in which of the following diseases?
Under the RMNCAH+ (Reproductive, Maternal, Newborn, Child and Adolescent Health) framework, districts are colour-coded for performance. Which of the following indicators, when meeting the stated criterion, would be marked as a RED card (poor performance)?
The "lethal triad" (deadly triad) associated with massive blood transfusion classically comprises hypothermia, coagulopathy and acidosis. Which of the following is NOT a component of this classic lethal triad?
Lamotrigine is a broad-spectrum antiepileptic. For which of the following seizure types is lamotrigine particularly useful and a recognised first/adjunctive choice?
Cilnidipine is unique among dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers in not causing reflex tachycardia. This is because, in addition to L-type channels, it also blocks which type of voltage-gated calcium channel located on sympathetic nerve endings?
All of the following are ligand-gated ion channel (ionotropic) receptors EXCEPT:
Which of the following is a classic example of a MEDIUM-vessel vasculitis?
Which special stain is used to demonstrate fibrosis (collagen deposition) in a liver biopsy?
Which of the following is the least likely direct cause of falls in the elderly?
Frailty in the elderly is most directly characterised/affected by which of the following?
Regarding nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), which of the following statements is correct?
Which of the following receptors is coupled to the stimulatory G protein (Gs)?
Match each targeted anticancer drug with its molecular target. Which of the following pairings is entirely correct?
Regarding the pathophysiology of beta-thalassemia major, which of the following correctly describes the disease mechanism?
Regarding anti-ageing/longevity drugs and their molecular targets, which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?
A child with Dravet syndrome is started on fenfluramine for seizure control. Which of the following must be specifically monitored during therapy?
Renin secretion from the juxtaglomerular apparatus is stimulated in response to:
A patient has Hb 9 g/dL, MCV 68 fL and a low serum ferritin. The most likely type of anemia is:
A patient has symptomatic hypercalcemia due to malignancy. Which of the following is the most appropriate first step in acute management?
Hyperpolarization of the receptor cell on stimulation is characteristically seen with which of the following sensory modalities?
In refeeding syndrome, which electrolyte abnormality is the most important and characteristic?
Regarding Extended-Spectrum Beta-Lactamase (ESBL)-producing organisms, which of the following statements are TRUE?
In which region of the adult human brain can neurons regenerate and increase in number (adult neurogenesis)?
Lesion at which site is associated with impaired emotional prosody (loss of emotional tone/melody of speech)?
High serum triglycerides are seen in all of the following conditions EXCEPT:
Ultraviolet (UV) radiation causes DNA damage primarily by which of the following mechanisms?
Which vitamin-derived coenzyme is required for a transamination reaction?
Which technique is best suited for identifying a specific protein in a formalin-fixed paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissue section?
Which bacterium possesses two circular chromosomes?
A middle-aged woman from Assam presents with chronic cough, fever, weight loss and cavitary lung lesions. Lung biopsy shows granulomatous inflammation with caseous necrosis and histiocyte-rich infiltrates. Which of the following should be strongly considered in the differential diagnosis?
Which of the following antifungal agents is NOT effective for the treatment of mucormycosis?
The trabecular meshwork of the eye is composed of which of the following components? (Select all that apply)
On entering a dark room (dark adaptation), which of the following physiological changes occur in the eye? (Select all that apply)
A young adult sustains chest trauma with haemodynamic instability and bilateral femur and tibia fractures. Once the patient has been resuscitated and is haemodynamically stabilized, what is the most appropriate definitive management of the fractures?
(Figure: X-ray of the limb showing the long-bone fracture.)
A young adult presents with chest trauma, haemodynamic instability and fractures of bilateral femur and tibia. After the patient has been resuscitated and rendered haemodynamically stable, what is the most appropriate definitive management of the long-bone fractures?
What is the most likely cause of unilateral genu varum (bow-leg deformity of one leg) in a patient with a history of a previous injury to that limb?
(Figure: AP X-ray of both lower limbs showing bowing of one leg.)
An athlete presents with sudden pain in the back of the ankle after a push-off, with weakness of plantarflexion. Imaging suggests Achilles tendon rupture. Which of the following is the relevant clinical finding/sign for this condition?
(Figure: Sagittal fat-saturated ankle MRI showing discontinuity of the Achilles tendon.)
A patient with HIV and a CD4 count <40 cells/mm³ presents with a ring-enhancing lesion in the brain on contrast imaging. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A patient presents with right iliac fossa (RIF) pain of 48 hours' duration. The ultrasound (colour-Doppler) image is shown. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
According to ACR guidelines, a Group II gadolinium-based contrast agent (lowest risk of nephrogenic systemic fibrosis) can be safely administered in which of the following?
A 12-year-old child presents with an uncomplicated upper respiratory tract infection (URTI). What is the most appropriate next radiological investigation?
A Group II gadolinium-based contrast agent (per ACR/RCR guidance, lowest risk of nephrogenic systemic fibrosis) can be safely administered in which of the following patients?
A 12-year-old child presents with an uncomplicated upper respiratory tract infection (URTI). What should be the next step regarding radiological imaging?
A 70-year-old man with a past history of pulmonary tuberculosis, currently on anti-tubercular therapy (ATT), presents with back pain. An MRI of the spine is performed and shows a vertebral lesion. What is the next investigation of choice to reach a definitive diagnosis?
Match the clinical sign with the correct dermatological condition and select the correctly matched pair(s):
(i) Positive Nikolsky sign - Pemphigus vulgaris
(ii) Negative/absent Nikolsky sign - Bullous pemphigoid
(iii) Pseudo-Nikolsky sign - Stevens-Johnson syndrome / Toxic epidermal necrolysis
(iv) Cerebriform tongue - Pemphigus vegetans
A patient presents with a black pigmented lesion on the heel/sole (as shown). Which is the investigation of choice to establish the diagnosis?
A patient presents with painful grouped vesicles over the penile/genital region associated with fever and malaise. What is the most likely causative organism?
The lesion shown is consistent with tinea capitis. What is the treatment of choice?
Which of the following are advantages/benefits of non-treponemal tests (e.g., VDRL, RPR) in the diagnosis and follow-up of syphilis? (Select all that apply)
A divorced, alcoholic man with major depression presents stating, "What is the point in living?" What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Which of the following statements best describes classical conditioning?
The clinical photograph shows a scalp lesion consistent with tinea capitis. What is the treatment of choice?
Match the poison with its characteristic feature. Which of the following is correctly matched?
Which of the following is a type of blunt-force mechanical injury produced without a break in the continuity of the skin?
A 16-year-old girl raped by a neighbour presents at 16 weeks of gestation. Which of the following is NOT a part of her management?
In organophosphate (OP) poisoning, which drug reverses the inhibited activity of acetylcholinesterase (AChE)?
When should a prophylactic antibiotic be administered before elective entry into the GI tract (e.g., elective cholecystectomy)?
A neonate presents with prolonged jaundice and an umbilical hernia. The most likely diagnosis is:
Differential cyanosis (pink upper limbs with cyanosed lower limbs) is characteristically seen in:
In the management of shoulder dystocia, after calling for help the first/next manoeuvre to be performed is:
The Pearl Index, used to express contraceptive failure rate, is defined as:
If X percent of stroke in a population is attributable to hypertension, and removing hypertension from the population would prevent this proportion of strokes, this scenario is an example of:
In a meta-analysis, assessing heterogeneity (e.g. using the \(I^2\) statistic or Cochran's Q test):
Which of the following statements about ticagrelor is TRUE?
From the quantal dose-response curves shown, the median toxic dose \(TD_{50}\) is 400 mg and the median effective dose \(ED_{50}\) is 100 mg. Calculate the therapeutic index.
(Refer to the figure.)
The graph shows the relative filterability of molecules across the glomerular capillary wall plotted against effective molecular radius, for three curves A, B and C carrying different charges. Based on charge, which molecule is filtered most readily?
(Refer to the figure; for a given molecular radius, filterability order A > B > C, with C marked as anions.)
Which intestinal membrane transporter is exploited in the therapeutic management (oral rehydration) of secretory diarrhea?
Which of the following enzymes is active in its dephosphorylated state?
Which of the following bacterial toxins acts by inhibiting elongation factor 2 (EF-2)?
A patient presents with septic arthritis. Culture grows a Gram-positive coccus that is catalase positive and cefoxitin sensitive. What is the drug of choice?
A poorly controlled diabetic patient presents with facial pain and a black eschar over the nasal/palatal region. Which organism is most likely responsible?
What is the approximate amplitude (power) of accommodation in a 7-year-old child?
Neuropraxia (the mildest grade of nerve injury) is best described as:
Neurapraxia is best described as:
An infant presents with intensely itchy erythematous papules and vesicles distributed over the palms, soles and umbilical region, with similar lesions in family members. The most likely diagnosis is:
A patient has an irregular black pigmented lesion on the heel/sole suspicious for acral melanoma. The most appropriate confirmatory investigation is:
An Afghan national arriving at the airport is found to have swallowed multiple well-sealed, professionally prepared condoms/packets filled with narcotic drugs for the purpose of international trafficking. This practice is termed:
An infant girl shows normal early development followed by regression of acquired milestones at around 6-18 months, with deceleration of head growth and loss of purposeful hand use replaced by stereotyped hand-wringing movements. The most likely diagnosis is:
Which adverse effect is most characteristically associated with the antiepileptic drug lamotrigine?
In Bacillus anthracis, the poly-D-glutamic acid (poly-\(\gamma\)-D-glutamate) capsule is encoded by which plasmid?
Which of the following is a novel (newer) antidepressant that acts as a serotonin partial agonist and reuptake inhibitor (SPARI)?
A phenotypic female presents with primary amenorrhoea, an absent uterus, normally developed breasts and sparse/absent pubic and axillary hair. What is the most likely diagnosis?
The clinical photograph and slit-lamp image show iris hamartomas (Lisch nodules) with skin findings in a child with neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1). Which cutaneous lesion is the earliest and most characteristic feature of NF1?
The photograph shows a permanent tattoo on the skin. In which layer of the skin is the tattoo pigment chiefly deposited and retained?
What is the specific antidote used in acute opioid (e.g. heroin, morphine) poisoning?
According to the AAST (American Association for the Surgery of Trauma) Colon Injury Scale, a laceration involving more than 50% of the bowel circumference (without transection) corresponds to which grade?
A trauma patient opens his eyes only to painful stimulus, makes incomprehensible sounds, and localises to pain. What is his total Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score?
An elderly man with a history of atrial fibrillation presents with sudden severe abdominal pain that is out of proportion to physical findings. Which laboratory finding most strongly supports the diagnosis of acute mesenteric ischemia?
Which of the following is NOT a feature of Kawasaki disease?
A term neonate has a blood glucose of 36 mg/dL. The infant is feeding well and has no clinical signs. Which characteristic of this neonate favours continued breastfeeding (with monitoring) rather than immediate intravenous dextrose infusion?
Regarding the HPV vaccine, which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A researcher plots the average per-capita alcohol intake of 10 different countries against the cirrhosis mortality rate of each of those countries, using one data point per country, to look for an association. Which type of epidemiological study design does this represent?
In a case-control study, among the cases there are 60 exposed and 20 unexposed individuals, while among the controls there are 40 exposed and 80 unexposed individuals. What is the odds ratio of exposure?
A new screening test is applied. It yields 90 true positives and 50 false positives. What is the positive predictive value (PPV) of the test?
An influenza vaccine shows 90% efficacy in a randomized controlled trial but only 85% performance when used in the routine community programme. Which value represents the effectiveness of the vaccine?
An influenza vaccine is evaluated in a well-conducted randomized controlled trial and again during routine community use. The trial value is 90% and the field value is 85%. Which value represents the efficacy of the vaccine?
Regarding the pattern of coronary blood flow, how does flow in the right coronary artery (RCA) differ from that in the left coronary artery (LCA) during the cardiac cycle?
An ECG shows ST-segment elevation in leads II, III and aVF in a patient presenting with acute chest pain. Which coronary artery is most likely occluded?
A patient with long-standing rheumatoid arthritis develops nephrotic-range proteinuria. Renal biopsy with Congo red stain shows apple-green birefringence under polarised light. Which type of amyloid protein is most likely deposited?
The plasma drug-concentration versus time curve shown declines such that the half-life remains constant regardless of the starting concentration, and a constant fraction of drug is eliminated per unit time. This pattern best represents which type of elimination kinetics?
In the Ann Arbor staging of Hodgkin lymphoma, a mediastinal mass is designated “bulky” (the X modifier) when its maximum width exceeds what proportion of the intrathoracic diameter on chest radiograph?
A child develops cola-coloured urine, periorbital oedema and hypertension two weeks after a sore throat. Urine microscopy shows red blood cell casts. On electron microscopy of the renal biopsy, which finding is characteristic of this condition?
Transplacental transfer of maternal anti-Ro (SS-A) and anti-La (SS-B) antibodies is most characteristically associated with which neonatal condition?
A histology slide of myocardium is taken from a patient who died 1-3 days after an acute myocardial infarction. Which of the following cellular changes is MOST characteristic of this time interval?
Hand-eye coordination, integration of visual and somatosensory information, and spatial awareness are mainly functions of which lobe of the cerebral cortex?
The inguinal ligament (Poupart’s ligament), forming the floor of the inguinal canal, is a modification of the lower border of the aponeurosis of which muscle?
An inhaled foreign body more commonly lodges in the right main bronchus than the left. Which set of features of the right main bronchus BEST explains this tendency?
Which of the following carbohydrates is a NON-reducing sugar and therefore gives a NEGATIVE Benedict’s (and Fehling’s) test?
Pretomanid, a nitroimidazole used in the BPaL/BPaLM regimen for drug-resistant tuberculosis, acts mainly by which mechanism?
What is the mode of infection (route of entry into the human host) of Necator americanus (New World hookworm)?
A post-splenectomy patient is at greatest risk of overwhelming sepsis from which organism?
Which class of antibiotics characteristically shows concentration-dependent killing?
The posterior cricoarytenoid (PCA) muscle of the larynx is the only muscle that performs which action on the vocal cords?
Sudden sensorineural hearing loss (SSNHL) is defined as ≥ 30 dB of SNHL over at least three contiguous frequencies developing within 3 days. What is the mainstay of treatment?
Which is the most characteristic cardiovascular effect of the inhalational anaesthetic halothane?
A chronic alcoholic with thiamine deficiency develops a memory disturbance in which he is unable to form new memories, though older memories are relatively preserved. This Korsakoff syndrome is characterised by which type of memory deficit?
A firearm wound shows an entry with an abraded collar and a grease (dirt) collar, but there is NO tattooing (no gunpowder stippling), no soot blackening, and no burning around the wound. What is the range of fire?
A victim of a bomb blast sustains burns to the chest and face caused by the fireball and the heat of the explosion (not by the blast wave, flying fragments, or being thrown against a structure). This burn injury is best classified as which category of blast injury?
An entry firearm wound demonstrates an abrasion collar and a grease collar but completely lacks gunpowder tattooing (stippling), soot, and singeing of hair. The most appropriate interpretation of the firing distance is:
A characteristic pattern of multiple radiating, brush-like abrasions resembling a bird’s foot (“sparrow-foot” or crow-foot marks) is found on the skin of a deceased. This injury pattern is most characteristic of:
A patient is brought to the emergency department with pin-point pupils, depressed respiration, and a reduced level of consciousness following suspected opioid (e.g., morphine/heroin) overdose. Which drug is the specific antidote?
What the INI CET 2026 Question Paper Covers
- 144 questions solved with full step-by-step explanations from the 200-MCQ paper
- Heavy on Biochemistry, Physiology, and clinical Medicine - the subjects students flagged as dominating this session
- Around 15-20% image-based questions in the live paper (histopathology, CT/MRI, ECG, dermatology), so several solved items carry figures
- For the official paper and scorecard, use the AIIMS site (aiimsexams.ac.in)
INI CET 2026 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme Explained
As per the AIIMS information bulletin on the official website (aiimsexams.ac.in), INI CET is a computer-based test split into 4 timed parts you clear in order.
- Total questions: 200 objective MCQs, split into 4 parts of 50 questions each
- Duration: 180 minutes total, with 45 minutes locked per part
- Total marks: 200 (1 mark per correct answer)
- Marking scheme: +1 for a correct answer, -1/3 for a wrong one, 0 for unattempted
- Question types: mostly single-best-answer MCQs, plus a few multiple-correct-answer questions and 15-20% image-based items
High-Weightage Subjects in INI CET 2026 to Focus On First
The May 2026 session leaned heavily on pre-clinical and clinical Medicine, with biochemistry and physiology unusually prominent this cycle.
- Biochemistry: flagged by most candidates as the single highest-weightage subject this session - prioritise it over textbook order
- Physiology: the other pre-clinical heavyweight, with frequent integrated questions
- Medicine: long clinical scenarios that tested reasoning over rote memorisation
- Microbiology: notably PYQ-driven this year - most micro questions echoed previous INI CET papers
- Anatomy, Surgery, and Dermatology: the next tier, with Dermatology contributing to the image-based block
INI CET 2026 Question Paper Discussion Video
Source: CoreBTR by Dr. Zainab Vora
How to Use the INI CET 2026 Question Paper for Practice
Treat this paper as a diagnostic, not a final mock - use it to find your weak subjects fast.
- Solve it as a timed block first (about 65 minutes for 144 questions matches the live pace), then review with the solution PDF
- Tag every miss by subject - if Biochemistry and Physiology pile up, that is where this paper punishes you
- Redo the image-based questions separately; 15-20% of the live paper was image-driven
- Cross-check the heavy Microbiology questions against older INI CET PYQs, since most repeated
INI CET 2026 Good Attempts and Qualifying Percentile Benchmark
- The qualifying line was the 50th percentile for the general category and the 45th percentile for reserved categories
- The paper was scored well enough that 98 percentile mapped to roughly rank 1858 - percentiles ran high because scores bunched up
- Use these as weekly targets: aim to clear the set with high accuracy before chasing speed
INI CET 2026 Question Paper FAQs
Ques. Does the INI CET 2026 question paper PDF include solutions?
Ans. Yes. This page provides the INI CET 2026 question paper with detailed step-by-step solutions for 144 questions from the May 16, 2026 session. Download the question paper and the solutions PDF from the table at the top of this page. For your scorecard and result, use the official site aiimsexams.ac.in.
Ques. How difficult was INI CET May 2026?
Ans. Most students rated it moderate to difficult - tricky options, lengthy clinical scenarios, and a heavily PYQ-driven pattern. Clinical subjects felt tougher than pre-clinical, and the paper rewarded reasoning over straight factual memorisation.
Ques. Which subjects had the highest weightage in INI CET 2026?
Ans. Biochemistry and Physiology topped the weightage this session, followed by Medicine, Microbiology, Anatomy, and Dermatology. Microbiology in particular was almost entirely PYQ-based, so older INI CET papers were the best prep for it.
Ques. Were INI CET 2026 questions repeated from previous years?
Ans. Partly. Around 100-120 of the 200 questions were PYQ-influenced and roughly 40 were fresh, but exact verbatim repeats were limited - most candidates reported only 2-5 direct repeats. The pattern was concept-driven and integrated rather than copy-paste.
Ques. What is the INI CET 2026 marking scheme and qualifying percentile?
Ans. You get +1 for a correct answer and -1/3 for a wrong one, with no penalty for unattempted questions, across 200 marks. The qualifying cutoff was the 50th percentile for general category and 45th for reserved categories.
Ques. Where can I download the INI CET 2026 question paper with solutions PDF for free?
Ans. Use the download table at the top of this page on Collegedunia for the 144-question paper with detailed solutions. For the official result and counselling details, go to the AIIMS site, aiimsexams.ac.in.
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