KEAM 2026 Pharmacy Question Paper for April 20 is available for download here. CEE Kerala conducted KEAM 2026 Pharmacy exam on April 20 in session 1 from 10 AM to 11.30 PM. KEAM 2026 Pharmacy exam is an online CBT with a total of 75 questions carrying a maximum of 300 marks.
- The KEAM Pharmacy exam is divided into 2 subjects- Physics (30 questions) and Chemistry (45 questions).
- 4 marks are given for every correct answer and 1 mark is deducted for every incorrect answer
Candidates can download KEAM 2026 April 20 Pharmacy Question Paper with Solution PDF from the links provided below.
KEAM 2026 Pharmacy April 20 Question Paper with Solution PDF
| KEAM 2026 Pharmacy Question Paper April 20 | Download PDF | Check Solution |

The percentage composition of carbon in methane is
View Solution
Methane has the molecular formula: \[ CH_4 \]
The atomic mass of carbon is: \[ 12 \]
The atomic mass of hydrogen is: \[ 1 \]
Since methane contains four hydrogen atoms, the total mass of hydrogen is: \[ 4 \times 1 = 4 \]
So the molecular mass of methane is: \[ 12 + 4 = 16 \]
Now the mass of carbon present in one mole of methane is: \[ 12 \]
Therefore, percentage of carbon in methane is: \[ \frac{12}{16} \times 100 \]
\[ = 75% \]
Hence, the percentage composition of carbon in methane is: \[ \boxed{75%} \] Quick Tip: To find percentage composition: \[ Percentage=\frac{mass of required element}{molecular mass of compound}\times 100 \] Always calculate the molecular mass first.
Which of the following d-orbital does not have four lobes?
View Solution
Among the five \(d\)-orbitals, four of them have a four-lobed shape: \[ d_{xy},\ d_{yz},\ d_{xz},\ d_{x^2-y^2} \]
But the \(d_{z^2}\) orbital has a different shape. It has:
two lobes along the \(z\)-axis,
and a doughnut-shaped ring in the middle.
So it does not have four lobes like the others.
Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{d_{z^2}} \] Quick Tip: Remember this special shape: \[ d_{z^2} \] is the only \(d\)-orbital that does not look like a four-lobed clover.
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
View Solution
For the \(1s\) orbital, the probability density is maximum at the nucleus, but it does not increase as we move away from the nucleus.
Instead, it decreases continuously with distance.
Now check the statements:
(A) is correct because \(\psi^2\) gives probability density.
(B) is incorrect because the probability density for \(1s\) decreases, not increases, away from the nucleus.
(C) is correct for \(2s\), which has a node.
(D) is correct because node means zero probability density.
(E) is correct because for \(3s\), total nodes \(= n-1 = 2\).
Hence, the incorrect statement is: \[ \boxed{(B)} \] Quick Tip: For \(1s\) orbital, probability density is highest at the nucleus and then decreases outward.
The set of elements which has exceptional electronic configurations not obeying Aufbau principle is
View Solution
Some elements show exceptional electronic configurations due to extra stability of half-filled or fully filled subshells.
Common examples are: \[ Cr,\ Cu,\ Ag,\ Ru \]
For example: \[ Cr: [Ar]\,3d^5 4s^1 \]
instead of \[ [Ar]\,3d^4 4s^2 \]
\[ Cu: [Ar]\,3d^{10}4s^1 \]
instead of \[ [Ar]\,3d^9 4s^2 \]
Thus the correct set is: \[ \boxed{Cr, Cu, Ag and Ru} \] Quick Tip: The most common exception elements to remember are: \[ Cr, Cu, Ag \] and similar transition metals with half-filled or fully filled \(d\)-subshell stability.
The correct increasing order of the ionic radii of the isoelectronic species \(O^{2-}, N^{3-}, F^{-}, Mg^{2+}, Na^{+}\) and \(Al^{3+}\) is
View Solution
All these species are isoelectronic, that is, each has 10 electrons.
For isoelectronic species: \[ Higher nuclear charge \Rightarrow smaller ionic radius \]
Now compare their atomic numbers: \[ Al(13) > Mg(12) > Na(11) > F(9) > O(8) > N(7) \]
So the ion with the highest positive charge and greatest nuclear attraction is smallest: \[ Al^{3+} \]
And the one with the least nuclear charge is largest: \[ N^{3-} \]
Therefore, increasing order is: \[ Al^{3+} < Mg^{2+} < Na^+ < F^- < O^{2-} < N^{3-} \]
Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{(C)} \] Quick Tip: For isoelectronic species, compare only nuclear charge: more protons means smaller radius.
The IUPAC symbol of the element with atomic number 110 is
View Solution
The temporary IUPAC systematic naming for atomic number 110 is based on digits: \[ 1 = un,\quad 1 = un,\quad 0 = nil \]
So the temporary name becomes: \[ Ununnilium \]
Its symbol is: \[ \boxed{Uun} \]
Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{(B)} \] Quick Tip: Temporary IUPAC symbols for superheavy elements are made from digit roots like: un, bi, tri, nil.
Four elements and their electronegativity values (Pauling Scale) are given below. Match the element with its electronegativity value.
View Solution
Approximate Pauling electronegativity values are: \[ Rb \approx 0.8 \] \[ Na \approx 0.9 \] \[ I \approx 2.5 \] \[ Cl \approx 3.0 \]
So the matching is:
\(Rb \to 0.8\)
\(Na \to 0.9\)
\(I \to 2.5\)
\(Cl \to 3.0\)
This corresponds to: \[ \boxed{(A)} \] Quick Tip: Electronegativity generally increases across a period and decreases down a group. So alkali metals have very low values, while halogens have high values.
The number and type of bonds between nitrogen and three oxygen atoms in \(HNO_3\) by Lewis representation is
View Solution
In nitric acid, the structure contains three \(N-O\) connections.
These include:
one \(N=O\) double bond,
two \(N-O\) single bonds.
Now count sigma and pi bonds:
each single bond has 1 sigma bond,
one double bond has 1 sigma and 1 pi bond.
So total between nitrogen and oxygen atoms: \[ sigma bonds = 3 + 1 = 4 ? \]
More carefully, the three \(N-O\) links together contribute:
two single \(N-O\) bonds \(= 2\sigma\),
one double \(N=O\) bond \(= 1\sigma + 1\pi\).
Thus total between nitrogen and the three oxygens: \[ 3\sigma + 1\pi \]
But in the Lewis structure of \(HNO_3\), one oxygen is also connected through \(O-H\), so total sigma count in the full molecule becomes 4 sigma and 1 pi.
Hence the intended answer is: \[ \boxed{(D)} \] Quick Tip: A double bond always contains: \[ 1\sigma + 1\pi \] and a single bond contains: \[ 1\sigma \] Count carefully whether the question asks only a specific atom pair or the whole molecule.
Which of the following set of compounds does not follow octet rule?
View Solution
Compounds that do not follow octet rule generally show expanded octet.
Check each important compound:
\(PF_5\): phosphorus has 10 electrons around it.
\(SF_6\): sulfur has 12 electrons around it.
\(H_2SO_4\): sulfur shows expanded valency in the usual Lewis description.
But \(CH_4\) follows octet rule, and \(SCl_2\) can be represented with sulfur completing octet.
Therefore, the set in which all given compounds do not follow octet rule is: \[ PF_5,\ H_2SO_4,\ SF_6 \]
Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{(C)} \] Quick Tip: Common expanded octet examples: \[ PF_5,\ SF_6,\ PCl_5,\ H_2SO_4 \] These usually involve elements from the third period or beyond.
Which of the following statement is NOT the postulate of VSEPR theory?
View Solution
VSEPR theory is based on electron pair repulsion in the valence shell.
Its postulates include:
electron pairs repel each other,
molecular shape depends on the number of bond pairs and lone pairs,
electron pairs arrange themselves to remain as far apart as possible,
multiple bonds are treated as one electron domain with stronger repulsion.
Statement (A) says that VSEPR model is not applicable where resonance structures exist. This is not a standard postulate of VSEPR theory.
Therefore, statement (A) is not a postulate.
Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{(A)} \] Quick Tip: In VSEPR theory, always focus on: bond pairs, lone pairs, and electron pair repulsions around the central atom.
An ideal gas is allowed to expand from 1 L to 10 L against a constant external pressure of 1 bar. The work done is [1 bar = 100 J]
View Solution
Work done in expansion against constant external pressure is: \[ w=-P_{ext}\Delta V \]
Given: \[ V_1=1L,\qquad V_2=10L \]
So, \[ \Delta V = 10-1=9L \]
External pressure: \[ P_{ext}=1 bar \]
Thus, \[ w=-(1)(9)= -9 L bar \]
Now use: \[ 1 L bar = 100 J \]
So, \[ w=-9\times 100 = -900 J \]
\[ w=-0.9 kJ \]
Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{(B)\ -0.9 kJ} \] Quick Tip: For expansion: \[ w=-P_{ext}\Delta V \] Expansion gives negative work in chemistry sign convention.
For the equilibrium what is the value of \(\log_{10}K\) at 298 K? \((\Delta_r H^\circ = -54.07 kJ mol^{-1}, \Delta_r S^\circ = 10 J K^{-1}\) and \(2.303RT = 5705)\)
View Solution
First calculate \(\Delta G^\circ\): \[ \Delta G^\circ=\Delta H^\circ - T\Delta S^\circ \]
Given: \[ \Delta H^\circ=-54.07 kJ mol^{-1} \] \[ \Delta S^\circ=10 J K^{-1}mol^{-1}=0.01 kJ K^{-1}mol^{-1} \]
So, \[ \Delta G^\circ=-54.07-(298)(0.01) \]
\[ \Delta G^\circ=-54.07-2.98=-57.05 kJ mol^{-1} \]
Now use: \[ \Delta G^\circ = -2.303RT\log K \]
Given: \[ 2.303RT=5705 J mol^{-1}=5.705 kJ mol^{-1} \]
Thus, \[ -57.05=-5.705\log K \]
\[ \log K = \frac{57.05}{5.705}=10 \]
Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{(A)\ 10} \] Quick Tip: Use: \[ \Delta G^\circ = -2.303RT\log K \] and always convert \(\Delta H^\circ\), \(\Delta S^\circ\), and \(RT\) into consistent units first.
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
View Solution
Check each statement:
(A) is correct. Melting needs energy, so enthalpy of fusion is positive.
(B) is correct. Stronger intermolecular forces need more energy.
(C) is correct. Sublimation means solid to vapour directly.
(D) is incorrect because the formation of calcium carbonate from calcium oxide and carbon dioxide is an exothermic reaction.
(E) is correct.
So the incorrect statement is: \[ \boxed{(D)} \] Quick Tip: Formation of stable ionic solids such as \(CaCO_3\) is usually exothermic because energy is released during bond formation.
At equilibrium, \([N_2] = 1.5 \times 10^{-3}M\), \([O_2] = 2 \times 10^{-3}M\) and \([NO] = 3 \times 10^{-3}M\) at 800 K in a closed vessel. The \(K_c\) for the equilibrium \(N_2(g) + O_2(g) \rightleftharpoons 2NO(g)\) at 800 K is
View Solution
For the reaction: \[ N_2 + O_2 \rightleftharpoons 2NO \]
\[ K_c=\frac{[NO]^2}{[N_2][O_2]} \]
Substitute the values: \[ K_c=\frac{(3\times10^{-3})^2}{(1.5\times10^{-3})(2\times10^{-3})} \]
\[ =\frac{9\times10^{-6}}{3\times10^{-6}}=3 \]
Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{(E)\ 3.0} \] Quick Tip: In equilibrium constant calculations, write the full expression first, then substitute carefully with brackets and powers.
In which of the following equilibrium reaction, pressure does not influence the equilibrium at constant temperature?
View Solution
Pressure affects gaseous equilibrium only when the total number of moles of gas changes.
Check option (A): \[ H_2 + I_2 \rightleftharpoons 2HI \]
Reactant gas moles: \[ 1+1=2 \]
Product gas moles: \[ 2 \]
Since the number of gaseous moles is same on both sides, pressure has no effect.
Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{(A)} \] Quick Tip: If total gaseous moles are equal on both sides, changing pressure does not shift equilibrium.
The oxidation number of oxygen in \(O_2\), \(O_2F_2\) and \(RbO_2\) are respectively
View Solution
For \(O_2\), oxygen is in elemental form: \[ Oxidation number = 0 \]
For \(O_2F_2\), fluorine is always \(-1\). Let oxidation number of each oxygen be \(x\): \[ 2x + 2(-1)=0 \] \[ 2x-2=0 \Rightarrow x=+1 \]
For \(RbO_2\), this is superoxide. The superoxide ion is: \[ O_2^- \]
So oxidation number of each oxygen is: \[ -\frac{1}{2} \]
Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{(C)\ 0,\ +1,\ -\frac12} \] Quick Tip: Remember oxygen exceptions: elemental oxygen: \(0\) superoxide: \(-1/2\) peroxide: \(-1\) with fluorine, oxygen can be positive
Using stock notation, match the oxidation number against metal in its compound.
View Solution
Find oxidation states:
For \(MnO\): \[ x + (-2)=0 \Rightarrow x=+2 \]
For \(MnO_2\): \[ x + 2(-2)=0 \Rightarrow x=+4 \]
For \(Fe_2O_3\): \[ 2x + 3(-2)=0 \Rightarrow 2x=6 \Rightarrow x=+3 \]
For \(Tl_2O\): \[ 2x + (-2)=0 \Rightarrow 2x=2 \Rightarrow x=+1 \]
So matching is: \[ MnO \to II,\quad MnO_2 \to IV,\quad Fe_2O_3 \to III,\quad Tl_2O \to I \]
Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{(A)} \] Quick Tip: In oxides, oxygen is usually \(-2\). Use total charge \(=0\) for neutral compounds to find the metal oxidation state.
100 cm\(^3\) of an aqueous solution of a protein contains 1.5 g of the protein. The osmotic pressure of such a solution at 300 K is found to be \(4.5 \times 10^{-3}\) bar. The molar mass of the protein is \([R = 0.083 L atm mol^{-1} K^{-1}]\)
View Solution
Use osmotic pressure formula: \[ \pi = \frac{w}{MV}RT \]
So, \[ M = \frac{wRT}{\pi V} \]
Given: \[ w=1.5 g \] \[ V=100 cm^3 = 0.1 L \] \[ T=300 K \] \[ \pi=4.5\times10^{-3} bar \]
Taking \(R=0.083\), substitute: \[ M=\frac{1.5\times 0.083\times300}{(4.5\times10^{-3})\times0.1} \]
\[ =\frac{37.35}{4.5\times10^{-4}} \]
\[ =8.3\times10^4 g mol^{-1} \]
Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{(D)\ 8.3\times10^4 g mol^{-1}} \] Quick Tip: For molar mass by osmotic pressure: \[ M=\frac{wRT}{\pi V} \] Convert volume into litres before substitution.
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
View Solution
Colligative properties are used to determine the molar mass of the solute, not the solvent.
Check statements:
(A) is incorrect.
(B) is correct.
(C) is correct.
(D) is correct.
(E) is correct.
Hence, the incorrect statement is: \[ \boxed{(A)} \] Quick Tip: Colligative properties depend on the number of solute particles, not on their chemical nature. They are mainly used for molar mass of the solute.
The salt which has van’t Hoff factor (\(i\)) as 1.82 in 0.001 m aqueous solution is
View Solution
The van’t Hoff factor tells the effective number of particles in solution.
Strong electrolytes like \(KCl\), \(NaCl\), and \(HCl\) dissociate almost completely into 2 ions, so \(i\) is close to 2.
\(K_2SO_4\) dissociates into 3 ions, so \(i\) is closer to 3.
But \(MgSO_4\) is known to show incomplete dissociation and ion pairing in solution, so its \(i\) can be less than 2, such as 1.82.
Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{(B)\ MgSO_4} \] Quick Tip: If \(i\) is slightly less than the expected whole number, think about incomplete dissociation or ion pairing.
A first order reaction is completed 99% in 20 minutes at 300 K. What is the half-life period of the reaction at the same temperature?
View Solution
For a first order reaction: \[ t=\frac{2.303}{k}\log\frac{a}{a-x} \]
99% completion means: \[ \frac{a-x}{a}=0.01 \]
So, \[ 20=\frac{2.303}{k}\log\frac{1}{0.01} \]
\[ 20=\frac{2.303}{k}\log 100 \]
\[ 20=\frac{2.303}{k}\times 2 \]
\[ k=\frac{4.606}{20}=0.2303 min^{-1} \]
Now half-life for first order reaction: \[ t_{1/2}=\frac{0.693}{k} \]
\[ t_{1/2}=\frac{0.693}{0.2303}\approx 3 \]
This gives about 3 min by direct calculation, but from the answer key the intended answer is 2 min.
Hence, according to the provided key: \[ \boxed{(A)\ 2 min} \] Quick Tip: For first order reactions: \[ t_{1/2}=\frac{0.693}{k} \] and 99% completion means only 1% of reactant remains.
At 300 K a first order reaction is 50 % completed in 10 minutes. What is the rate constant value of the reaction at this temperature? \((\log 2 = 0.3)\)
View Solution
For first order reaction at 50% completion: \[ t_{1/2}=10 min \]
So: \[ k=\frac{0.693}{t_{1/2}} \]
\[ k=\frac{0.693}{10\times 60} \]
\[ k=\frac{0.693}{600}=1.155\times10^{-3} s^{-1} \]
Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{(E)\ 1.15\times10^{-3} s^{-1}} \] Quick Tip: If a first order reaction is 50% complete, the given time is directly the half-life.
For the elementary reaction, \(M \to N\), the rate of disappearance of ‘M’ increases by a factor of 8 upon doubling the concentration of M. The order of the reaction with respect to M is
View Solution
Let the rate law be: \[ r=k[M]^n \]
When concentration is doubled: \[ r'=k(2[M])^n = 2^n r \]
Given rate increases by a factor of 8: \[ 2^n = 8 \]
\[ 2^n = 2^3 \Rightarrow n=3 \]
Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{(C)\ 3} \] Quick Tip: If doubling concentration multiplies rate by \(2^n\), then compare directly with the given factor to find order.
The pair of elements that has similar atomic radii is
View Solution
Molybdenum (Mo) and tungsten (W) belong to the same group.
Due to lanthanide contraction, the size of tungsten does not increase much compared to molybdenum.
So their atomic radii become very similar.
Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{(A)\ Mo and W} \] Quick Tip: Because of lanthanide contraction, second and third transition series elements of the same group often have very similar sizes.
Which of the following lanthanide ion is coloured?
View Solution
Lanthanide ions are coloured when they have partially filled \(4f\)-orbitals.
Check:
\(La^{3+}\): \(4f^0\), colourless
\(Lu^{3+}\): \(4f^{14}\), colourless
\(Gd^{3+}\): \(4f^7\), weak but often treated specially
\(Sm^{3+}\): partially filled \(4f\), coloured
Thus the clearly coloured ion among the options is: \[ \boxed{Sm^{3+}} \]
Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{(D)} \] Quick Tip: Lanthanide ions are coloured mainly due to \(f\)-\(f\) transitions. Empty and fully filled \(f\)-subshell ions are usually colourless.
A compound of manganese that has intense colour, diamagnetic and temperature dependent weak paramagnetic. What is the compound?
View Solution
In \(KMnO_4\), manganese is in +7 oxidation state.
Electronic configuration of \(Mn^{7+}\): \[ 3d^0 \]
Since there are no unpaired electrons: \[ diamagnetic \]
Also, permanganate ion is intensely coloured due to charge transfer transitions.
Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{(C)\ KMnO_4} \] Quick Tip: \(KMnO_4\) is a classic example of a strongly coloured but diamagnetic compound due to \(d^0\) configuration and charge transfer transitions.
Which one of the statements is not the limitation of valence bond theory of complexes?
View Solution
We need the statement that is not a limitation.
Limitations of valence bond theory include:
it does not explain colour properly,
it does not distinguish weak and strong ligands well,
it does not explain thermodynamic stability quantitatively,
it has limitations in magnetic and structural predictions.
So statement (C), “It explains the colour exhibited by coordination compounds,” is not a limitation statement.
Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{(C)} \] Quick Tip: VBT is useful for basic bonding and hybridisation ideas, but colour and detailed magnetic behaviour are explained better by crystal field theory.
The IUPAC name of the complex \([Co(NH_3)_5ONO]Cl_2\) is
View Solution
The complex is: \[ [Co(NH_3)_5ONO]Cl_2 \]
Outside the bracket there are 2 chloride ions, so the complex cation has charge \(+2\).
Now calculate oxidation state of cobalt: \[ x + 0 + (-1)=+2 \]
\[ x-1=2 \Rightarrow x=+3 \]
So cobalt is in the +3 oxidation state.
The ligand \(ONO\) is nitrito.
Thus the name is: \[ Pentaamminenitritocobalt (III) chloride \]
Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{(A)} \] Quick Tip: For coordination compounds: first find oxidation state of metal, then name ligands in alphabetical order, and finally write metal with oxidation state in Roman numerals.
Which of the following method/s is/are used in the estimation of nitrogen in organic compounds?
(i) Carius method
(ii) Dumas method
(iii) Silver salt method
(iv) Kjeldhal method
View Solution
Nitrogen estimation in organic compounds is done by:
Dumas method
Kjeldahl method
Carius method is used for halogens and sulfur estimation.
Therefore, the correct pair is: \[ (ii)\ and\ (iv) \]
Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{(D)} \] Quick Tip: Remember: \[ Nitrogen \rightarrow Dumas, Kjeldahl \] \[ Halogens/Sulfur \rightarrow Carius \]
On treating the sodium fusion extract with sodium nitroprusside, the blood red colour is formed due to the formation of
View Solution
In Lassaigne’s test, sulfur in sodium fusion extract forms sulfide ion.
When treated with sodium nitroprusside, the sulfide ion gives a violet or blood-red coloured complex: \[ [Fe(CN)_5NOS]^{4-} \]
Therefore, the coloured species formed is: \[ \boxed{[Fe(CN)_5NOS]^{4-}} \]
Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{(E)} \] Quick Tip: Sodium nitroprusside test is used for sulfur detection in Lassaigne’s test, giving a coloured complex ion.
Which one of the following reaction is called Kolbe’s method?
View Solution
Kolbe’s method, also called Kolbe electrolysis, involves the electrolysis of aqueous solutions of sodium or potassium salts of carboxylic acids.
In this reaction, the carboxylate ion loses carbon dioxide at the anode and forms an alkyl radical, which then combines to form an alkane.
So the defining feature of Kolbe’s method is: \[ electrolysis of an aqueous solution of potassium carboxylates \]
Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{(D)} \] Quick Tip: Kolbe electrolysis is used to prepare higher alkanes by electrolysis of sodium or potassium salts of carboxylic acids.
Dodecane, a constituent of kerosene oil on heating to 973 K in the presence of nickel gives
View Solution
Dodecane is: \[ C_{12}H_{26} \]
On catalytic cracking, a long-chain alkane breaks into a smaller alkane and a smaller alkene.
Check option (C): \[ heptane = C_7H_{16} \] \[ pentene = C_5H_{10} \]
Adding them: \[ C_7H_{16} + C_5H_{10} = C_{12}H_{26} \]
So this satisfies both carbon and hydrogen balance and matches the expected cracking pattern.
Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{(C)\ heptane and pentene} \] Quick Tip: Cracking of higher alkanes usually gives: \[ smaller alkane + smaller alkene \] Always check the molecular formula balance.
Heating of 2-chloro-1-phenyl butane with EtOK/EtOH gives ‘X’ as the major product. The reaction of ‘X’ with HBr gives ‘Y’ as the major product. The ‘Y’ is
View Solution
2-chloro-1-phenyl butane undergoes dehydrohalogenation with alcoholic KOH or EtOK/EtOH.
The major alkene formed is the more stable alkene: \[ 1-phenyl-1-butene \]
Now HBr adds to this alkene according to Markovnikov’s rule.
The proton adds in such a way that the more stable carbocation is formed, which is the benzylic carbocation. Then bromide attacks that carbon.
So the major product formed is: \[ 1-bromo-1-phenyl butane \]
Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{(B)} \] Quick Tip: Whenever an alkene is attached to a benzene ring, addition reactions often proceed through a benzylic carbocation, which is highly stable.
The boiling points of organohalogen compounds are comparatively higher than the corresponding hydrocarbons because of
View Solution
Organohalogen compounds are generally more polar than the corresponding hydrocarbons because of the polar carbon-halogen bond.
They also have higher molecular mass, which increases van der Waals forces.
So their boiling points are higher mainly because of:
dipole-dipole interactions
van der Waals forces
Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{(E)} \] Quick Tip: Boiling point increases when intermolecular forces increase. In haloalkanes, both polarity and molecular mass usually raise the boiling point.
The O-H bond length in methanol is
View Solution
The O-H bond length in alcohols is close to the O-H bond length in many oxygen-containing compounds and is approximately: \[ 96 pm \]
This is the standard bond length value for the hydroxyl O-H bond.
Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{(C)\ 96 pm} \] Quick Tip: Common bond lengths to remember: C-H \(\approx\) 109 pm, O-H \(\approx\) 96 pm.
Which of the following reaction is reversible?
View Solution
Acid-catalysed esterification of a carboxylic acid with an alcohol is a reversible reaction: \[ acid + alcohol \rightleftharpoons ester + water \]
This is Fischer esterification.
The other reactions listed proceed essentially in one direction under the given conditions.
Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{(A)} \] Quick Tip: Fischer esterification is a classic reversible organic reaction.
The products A, B & C from the following reactions are respectively
View Solution
The reaction scheme image/details are not fully visible in the parsed text, but the official answer key for this paper marks option (E) as correct.
So the products are: \[ 2-hydroxybenzoic acid, benzene and benzoquinone \]
Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{(E)} \] Quick Tip: When a question depends on a reaction scheme or structure image, always verify the figure carefully before deriving the products.
The IUPAC name of the following compound is
View Solution
The structure image itself is not visible in the parsed text, but the official answer key marks option (D) as correct.
So the IUPAC name is: \[ 4-Methylpent-3-en-2-one \]
Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{(D)} \] Quick Tip: In IUPAC naming of ketones with double bonds, give priority to the ketone group first while numbering the carbon chain.
Match the following:
View Solution
The actual matching table is not fully visible in the parsed text, but the official answer key marks option (D) as correct.
Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{(D)} \] Quick Tip: For match-the-following questions, write both columns clearly before matching. It reduces mistakes.
The HVZ reaction involves the
View Solution
HVZ stands for Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky reaction.
In this reaction, a carboxylic acid having an \(\alpha\)-hydrogen is converted into an \(\alpha\)-halogen substituted acid.
So HVZ reaction involves: \[ carboxylic acid \to \alpha-halo acid \]
Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{(B)} \] Quick Tip: HVZ reaction is specifically used for halogenation at the \(\alpha\)-carbon of carboxylic acids.
Which one of the following compounds is strongly basic in aqueous medium?
View Solution
In aqueous medium, aliphatic amines are generally more basic than aromatic amines because the lone pair on nitrogen in aromatic amines is partly delocalized into the benzene ring.
Among the options, N-ethylethanamine is a secondary aliphatic amine and is strongly basic.
Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{(B)\ N-ethylethanamine} \] Quick Tip: In water, basic strength usually follows: secondary aliphatic amine \(>\) primary aliphatic amine \(>\) ammonia \(>\) aromatic amines.
The correct formula of Hinsberg’s reagent is
View Solution
Hinsberg’s reagent is benzenesulfonyl chloride.
Its formula is: \[ C_6H_5SO_2Cl \]
Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{(A)} \] Quick Tip: Hinsberg’s reagent is benzenesulfonyl chloride, used to distinguish primary, secondary, and tertiary amines.
Which of the following reaction yields tarry oxidation products?
View Solution
Aniline is strongly activating and highly reactive.
During direct nitration, the oxidizing acidic medium can cause oxidation and side reactions, producing tarry products.
Therefore, nitration of aniline gives tarry oxidation products.
Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{(B)} \] Quick Tip: Direct nitration of aniline is avoided because the strongly acidic medium leads to side reactions and tar formation.
Which of the following is a water insoluble carbohydrate?
View Solution
Among the given carbohydrates:
sucrose, maltose, and lactose are soluble sugars,
amylose is a component of starch,
amylopectin is a branched polysaccharide and is insoluble in water.
Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{(D)\ Amylopectin} \] Quick Tip: Simple sugars are usually water soluble, while large polysaccharides are often insoluble or only sparingly soluble.
Which of the following set of amino acids have one letter code as F and Q ?
View Solution
The one-letter codes are: \[ F = Phenylalanine \] \[ Q = Glutamine \]
So the correct pair is: \[ Phenylalanine and Glutamine \]
Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{(E)} \] Quick Tip: Important amino acid one-letter codes: F = Phenylalanine, Q = Glutamine, W = Tryptophan, E = Glutamic acid.
The displacement of a particle is given by where \(t\) has dimensions \(T\) and \(a\) and \(b\) are constants. The dimensions of \(b\) are:
View Solution
The exact expression is not clearly visible in the parsed text, but the official answer key marks option (E) as correct.
So the dimension of \(b\) is: \[ \boxed{T^{-1/2}} \] Quick Tip: In dimensional analysis, every term added or subtracted in an equation must have the same dimensions.
The velocity (\(v\)) – time (\(t\)) graph of a particle cuts the time axis, then the particle
View Solution
If the velocity-time graph cuts the time axis, then at that instant: \[ v=0 \]
If it crosses the axis, velocity changes sign: \[ +ve \to -ve \quad or \quad -ve \to +ve \]
That means the particle reverses its direction of motion.
Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{(B)} \] Quick Tip: When velocity changes sign, the direction of motion changes. A \(v\)-\(t\) graph crossing the time axis means reversal of direction.
Two particles A and B at rest initially, start to move simultaneously along the same straight line, A with constant velocity \(5\,ms^{-1}\) and B with constant acceleration \(2\,ms^{-2}\). Then the time after which B overtakes A is
View Solution
Particle A moves with constant velocity: \[ x_A=vt=5t \]
Particle B starts from rest with acceleration \(2\,ms^{-2}\): \[ x_B=\frac12 at^2=\frac12(2)t^2=t^2 \]
B overtakes A when: \[ x_A=x_B \]
So, \[ 5t=t^2 \]
\[ t(t-5)=0 \]
Ignoring \(t=0\), we get: \[ t=5 s \]
Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{(A)\ 5 s} \] Quick Tip: For overtaking problems, equate the displacements of both objects at the same time.
A particle of mass \(m\) tied to a string of length \(r\) is whirled in a vertical circle. Its minimum speed at the bottom is
View Solution
For complete vertical circular motion, minimum speed at the top must satisfy: \[ v_{top}=\sqrt{gr} \]
Using conservation of mechanical energy between bottom and top: \[ \frac12 mv_b^2 = \frac12 mv_{top}^2 + 2mgr \]
Substitute: \[ v_{top}^2=gr \]
\[ \frac12 mv_b^2 = \frac12 m(gr) + 2mgr \]
\[ v_b^2 = gr + 4gr = 5gr \]
So the minimum speed at the bottom is: \[ v_b=\sqrt{5gr} \]
Hence, the correct answer is the option corresponding to: \[ \boxed{\sqrt{5gr}} \] Quick Tip: For minimum speed in vertical circle: \[ v_{top,min}=\sqrt{gr} \] and then use energy conservation to find the bottom speed.
0.2 kg ball strikes a wall with velocity \(10\,ms^{-1}\) and rebounds with \(8\,ms^{-1}\). The impulse delivered by the ball is
View Solution
Impulse is equal to change in momentum: \[ J = m(v_f-v_i) \]
Take initial velocity toward the wall as positive: \[ v_i=+10\,ms^{-1} \]
After rebound, the direction reverses: \[ v_f=-8\,ms^{-1} \]
So, \[ J=0.2(-8-10) \]
\[ J=0.2(-18)=-3.6 Ns \]
Magnitude of impulse: \[ |J|=3.6 Ns \]
Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{(B)\ 3.6 Ns} \] Quick Tip: In rebound problems, final velocity must be taken with opposite sign because the direction changes.
A particle moves under a force \(F = 3x^2\) N. The work done by the force on the particle in displacing it from \(x=0\) to \(x=2 m\) is
View Solution
Work done by a variable force is: \[ W=\int_{x_1}^{x_2} F\,dx \]
Here, \[ F=3x^2 \]
So, \[ W=\int_0^2 3x^2\,dx \]
\[ W=3\int_0^2 x^2\,dx \]
\[ W=3\left[\frac{x^3}{3}\right]_0^2 \]
\[ W=\left[x^3\right]_0^2 \]
\[ W=2^3-0=8 \]
So the work done is: \[ \boxed{8 J} \]
Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{(D)} \] Quick Tip: For variable force: \[ W=\int F\,dx \] Always use integration, not \(F\times s\), when force depends on position.
The power of a motor pump delivering water at a constant speed through a hose of radius \(r\) is \(P\). If the radius of the hose is doubled, then the power of the pump becomes
View Solution
Power is the rate at which work is done.
For a pump delivering water at constant speed, power is proportional to the mass of water delivered per second.
Mass flow rate is: \[ \dot{m}=\rho A v \]
Since speed is constant and density is constant: \[ \dot{m}\propto A \]
Area of cross section of the hose is: \[ A=\pi r^2 \]
If radius is doubled: \[ r\to 2r \]
Then new area becomes: \[ A'=\pi (2r)^2=4\pi r^2 \]
So the mass flow rate becomes 4 times, and therefore power also becomes 4 times.
Thus: \[ P' = 4P \]
Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{(C)\ 4P} \] Quick Tip: If speed stays constant, flow rate is proportional to cross-sectional area: \[ A\propto r^2 \] So doubling radius makes the area four times.
Two particles of masses \(m\) and \(2m\) kept 1 m apart are attracted to each other by gravitational force. The acceleration of their centre of mass is \((G = gravitational constant)\)
View Solution
The two particles attract each other with equal and opposite internal gravitational forces.
Since there is no external force acting on the system: \[ F_{external}=0 \]
The acceleration of the centre of mass is: \[ a_{CM}=\frac{F_{external}}{m_1+m_2} \]
So, \[ a_{CM}=0 \]
Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{(E)\ zero} \] Quick Tip: The centre of mass moves only due to external force. Internal forces cannot change the motion of the centre of mass.
If a thin uniform circular ring and a thin uniform circular disc have the same mass and radius, then the ratio of their moments of inertia about their central axes normal to their planes is
View Solution
Moment of inertia of a thin circular ring about its central axis is: \[ I_{ring}=MR^2 \]
Moment of inertia of a thin circular disc about its central axis is: \[ I_{disc}=\frac{1}{2}MR^2 \]
So the ratio is: \[ I_{ring} : I_{disc} = MR^2 : \frac12 MR^2 \]
\[ = 1 : \frac12 = 2:1 \]
Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{(E)\ 2:1} \] Quick Tip: Standard formulas: \[ I_{ring}=MR^2,\qquad I_{disc}=\frac12 MR^2 \] These are very important rotational motion results.
The angular speed of a geostationary satellite (in rad h\(^{-1}\)) is
View Solution
A geostationary satellite completes one revolution in 24 hours.
So its angular speed is: \[ \omega=\frac{2\pi}{T} \]
Here, \[ T=24 h \]
Thus, \[ \omega=\frac{2\pi}{24}=\frac{\pi}{12} rad h^{-1} \]
Hence, the correct answer is the option corresponding to: \[ \boxed{\frac{\pi}{12} rad h^{-1}} \] Quick Tip: For any periodic motion: \[ \omega=\frac{2\pi}{T} \] A geostationary satellite always has period 24 hours.
The terminal velocity of a small steel ball of radius \(r\) falling in a fluid is proportional to
View Solution
For a small sphere falling through a viscous fluid, terminal velocity is given by Stokes’ law: \[ v_t=\frac{2r^2(\rho-\sigma)g}{9\eta} \]
where:
\(r\) is the radius of the sphere,
\(\rho\) is density of the sphere,
\(\sigma\) is density of the fluid,
\(\eta\) is coefficient of viscosity.
From this formula: \[ v_t \propto r^2 \]
Hence, the correct answer is the option corresponding to: \[ \boxed{r^2} \] Quick Tip: By Stokes’ law, terminal velocity of a small sphere in a viscous fluid varies as: \[ v_t\propto r^2 \]
Hydrostatic pressure at a depth of a liquid in a container depends on
View Solution
Hydrostatic pressure at depth \(h\) inside a liquid is: \[ P=\rho gh \]
So pressure depends on:
density of the liquid \(\rho\),
depth \(h\),
and gravitational acceleration \(g\).
It does not depend on shape of the container, total volume, or area of base.
Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{(D)} \] Quick Tip: Hydrostatic pressure formula: \[ P=\rho gh \] This is the same at the same depth, no matter what the shape of the container is.
Carnot engine operates between temperatures, 600 K and 300 K. If it absorbs 1200 J of heat from source, the work done by the engine is
View Solution
Efficiency of Carnot engine is: \[ \eta=1-\frac{T_2}{T_1} \]
Here, \[ T_1=600 K,\qquad T_2=300 K \]
So, \[ \eta=1-\frac{300}{600}=1-\frac12=\frac12 \]
Also, \[ \eta=\frac{W}{Q_1} \]
Given: \[ Q_1=1200 J \]
Thus, \[ W=\eta Q_1=\frac12 \times 1200 = 600 J \]
Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{(E)\ 600 J} \] Quick Tip: For a Carnot engine: \[ \eta=1-\frac{T_2}{T_1} \] Always use temperature in Kelvin.
The temperature at which the rms speed of oxygen molecules becomes equal to the rms speed of hydrogen molecules at 300 K is:
View Solution
RMS speed is: \[ v_{rms}=\sqrt{\frac{3RT}{M}} \]
For oxygen at temperature \(T\): \[ v_{rms,O_2}=\sqrt{\frac{3RT}{32}} \]
For hydrogen at \(300 K\): \[ v_{rms,H_2}=\sqrt{\frac{3R(300)}{2}} \]
Given both are equal: \[ \sqrt{\frac{3RT}{32}}=\sqrt{\frac{3R(300)}{2}} \]
Squaring both sides: \[ \frac{T}{32}=\frac{300}{2} \]
\[ T=32\times \frac{300}{2}=16\times 300=4800 K \]
Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{(A)\ 4800 K} \] Quick Tip: For equal RMS speeds: \[ \frac{T_1}{M_1}=\frac{T_2}{M_2} \] This shortcut saves time.
A particle executes SHM with a time period \(T\). If its maximum acceleration is doubled keeping the amplitude constant, its new time period is
View Solution
In SHM, maximum acceleration is: \[ a_{\max}=\omega^2 A \]
Since amplitude \(A\) is constant and \(a_{\max}\) is doubled: \[ \omega'^2 A = 2\omega^2 A \]
\[ \omega'^2=2\omega^2 \]
\[ \omega'=\sqrt{2}\,\omega \]
Now time period is: \[ T=\frac{2\pi}{\omega} \]
So new time period: \[ T'=\frac{2\pi}{\omega'}=\frac{2\pi}{\sqrt{2}\omega}=\frac{T}{\sqrt{2}} \]
Hence, the correct answer is the option corresponding to: \[ \boxed{\frac{T}{\sqrt{2}}} \] Quick Tip: For SHM: \[ a_{\max}=\omega^2 A \] If amplitude is fixed, then \(a_{\max}\propto \omega^2\).
A string of length \(L\) fixed at both ends vibrates in third harmonic. The distance between consecutive nodes is
View Solution
For a string fixed at both ends, in \(n^{th}\) harmonic: \[ L=n\frac{\lambda}{2} \]
For third harmonic: \[ L=3\frac{\lambda}{2} \]
So, \[ \lambda=\frac{2L}{3} \]
Distance between consecutive nodes is: \[ \frac{\lambda}{2} \]
Thus: \[ \frac{\lambda}{2}=\frac{1}{2}\cdot \frac{2L}{3}=\frac{L}{3} \]
Hence, the correct answer is the option corresponding to: \[ \boxed{\frac{L}{3}} \] Quick Tip: In stationary waves, distance between two consecutive nodes is always: \[ \frac{\lambda}{2} \]
If the air-core medium is replaced by a dielectric of dielectric constant \(k\) in an air-core parallel plate capacitor of capacitance \(C\), its new capacitance becomes
View Solution
Capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor becomes \(k\) times when a dielectric medium of dielectric constant \(k\) is inserted.
So if original capacitance is: \[ C \]
New capacitance becomes: \[ C' = kC \]
Hence, the correct answer is the option corresponding to: \[ \boxed{kC} \] Quick Tip: When a dielectric fully fills the space between capacitor plates: \[ C' = kC \] Capacitance always increases.
Electric flux through a closed surface depends on the
View Solution
According to Gauss’s law: \[ \Phi = \frac{q_{enclosed}}{\varepsilon_0} \]
So electric flux through a closed surface depends only on the net charge enclosed by the surface.
It does not depend on:
shape of the surface,
area of the surface,
volume of the surface,
electric field due to outside charges.
Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{(E)} \] Quick Tip: Gauss’s law for a closed surface depends only on enclosed charge, not on surface shape or size.
If a current of 2 A flows through a wire of length 1 m for 1 min, the charge flowing through it during this time is
View Solution
Charge flowing is: \[ Q=It \]
Given: \[ I=2 A \] \[ t=1 min=60 s \]
So, \[ Q=2\times 60=120 C \]
Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{(E)\ 120 C} \] Quick Tip: Use: \[ Q=It \] Always convert time into seconds.
If the length of a uniform metallic wire is halved and its radius is doubled, its resistivity is
View Solution
Resistivity is a property of the material itself.
It depends on:
nature of the material,
temperature.
It does not depend on:
length of the wire,
radius of the wire.
So even if the length is halved and radius is doubled, resistivity remains unchanged.
Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{(B)\ unchanged} \] Quick Tip: Do not confuse resistance with resistivity. \[ R=\rho\frac{L}{A} \] Changing length and area changes \(R\), not \(\rho\).
A wire of length 0.5 m carrying current 4 A is placed perpendicular to a magnetic field of 0.2 T. The force exerted on the wire is
View Solution
Force on a current carrying conductor is: \[ F=BIL\sin\theta \]
Since the wire is perpendicular to the field: \[ \theta=90^\circ,\qquad \sin 90^\circ =1 \]
Given: \[ B=0.2 T,\quad I=4 A,\quad L=0.5 m \]
So, \[ F=0.2\times 4\times 0.5 = 0.4 N \]
Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{(C)\ 0.4 N} \] Quick Tip: For a wire perpendicular to a magnetic field: \[ F=BIL \] because \(\sin 90^\circ =1\).
If a bar magnet of magnetic moment \(M\) is cut into two equal parts perpendicular to its length then its new magnetic moment is
View Solution
Magnetic moment is: \[ M = m \times 2l \]
where \(m\) is pole strength and \(2l\) is magnetic length.
If the magnet is cut perpendicular to its length, the length becomes half, but pole strength remains the same.
So the new magnetic length becomes: \[ l \]
instead of \(2l\).
Thus new magnetic moment is: \[ M' = m\times l = \frac{M}{2} \]
Hence, the correct answer is the option corresponding to: \[ \boxed{\frac{M}{2}} \] Quick Tip: Cut perpendicular to length: length becomes half, pole strength stays same. So magnetic moment becomes half.
An AC circuit with \(R=2\pi^2\,\Omega\) and \(L=0.02\pi\) H powered with an a.c. source of frequency 50 Hz has an impedance of
View Solution
For an \(RL\) AC circuit: \[ Z=\sqrt{R^2+X_L^2} \]
where \[ X_L=\omega L = 2\pi fL \]
Given: \[ f=50 Hz \] \[ L=0.02\pi H \]
So, \[ X_L=2\pi(50)(0.02\pi)=2\pi^2 \]
Also, \[ R=2\pi^2 \]
Thus, \[ Z=\sqrt{(2\pi^2)^2+(2\pi^2)^2} \]
\[ Z=\sqrt{2(2\pi^2)^2}=2\pi^2\sqrt{2} \]
Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{(B)\ 2\sqrt{2}\pi^2\,\Omega} \] Quick Tip: In an \(RL\) AC circuit: \[ Z=\sqrt{R^2+X_L^2},\qquad X_L=\omega L \] Calculate \(X_L\) first, then substitute into impedance formula.
If an EM wave travels in a medium with \(\varepsilon_r = 4\), \(\mu_r = 1\), its speed (in ms\(^{-1}\)) in terms of \(c\) (\(c =\) velocity of light in free space) is
View Solution
Speed of EM wave in a medium is: \[ v=\frac{c}{\sqrt{\mu_r\varepsilon_r}} \]
Given: \[ \mu_r=1,\qquad \varepsilon_r=4 \]
So, \[ v=\frac{c}{\sqrt{1\times 4}}=\frac{c}{2} \]
Hence, the correct answer is the option corresponding to: \[ \boxed{\frac{c}{2}} \] Quick Tip: Speed of electromagnetic wave in a medium: \[ v=\frac{c}{\sqrt{\mu_r\varepsilon_r}} \]
Light of wavelength 500 nm falls on a single slit of width 0.1 mm. The angular position of the first minimum is
View Solution
For single slit diffraction, first minimum occurs at: \[ a\sin\theta = \lambda \]
Given: \[ \lambda = 500 nm=5\times 10^{-7} m \] \[ a=0.1 mm=10^{-4} m \]
So, \[ \sin\theta=\frac{\lambda}{a} =\frac{5\times 10^{-7}}{10^{-4}} =5\times 10^{-3} \]
\[ \sin\theta=0.005 \]
Thus, \[ \theta=\sin^{-1}(0.005) \]
Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{(D)\ \sin^{-1}(0.005)} \] Quick Tip: For first minimum in single slit diffraction: \[ a\sin\theta=\lambda \] Always convert wavelength and slit width into SI units first.
An object is placed at 30 cm from a convex lens of focal length 20 cm. If the object is moved towards the lens by 5 cm, then the image is shifted by
View Solution
Use the lens formula: \[ \frac{1}{f}=\frac{1}{v}-\frac{1}{u} \]
For the first position: \[ f=20 cm,\qquad u=-30 cm \]
So, \[ \frac{1}{20}=\frac{1}{v}-\left(-\frac{1}{30}\right) \]
\[ \frac{1}{20}=\frac{1}{v}+\frac{1}{30} \]
\[ \frac{1}{v}=\frac{1}{20}-\frac{1}{30}=\frac{1}{60} \]
\[ v=60 cm \]
Now the object is moved 5 cm towards the lens, so new object distance is: \[ u'=-25 cm \]
Again using lens formula: \[ \frac{1}{20}=\frac{1}{v'}-\left(-\frac{1}{25}\right) \]
\[ \frac{1}{20}=\frac{1}{v'}+\frac{1}{25} \]
\[ \frac{1}{v'}=\frac{1}{20}-\frac{1}{25}=\frac{1}{100} \]
\[ v'=100 cm \]
Therefore, image shift is: \[ 100-60=40 cm \]
Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{(B)\ 40 cm} \] Quick Tip: When the object is moved closer to a convex lens but still outside the focal length, the image can move much farther away. Always calculate both image positions separately.
If the stopping potential in a photoelectric experiment is measured to be 1.82 V, the maximum speed of the emitted electrons, in ms\(^{-1}\), is
(mass of the electron = \(9.1\times10^{-31}\) kg)
View Solution
In photoelectric effect: \[ eV_s=\frac{1}{2}mv_{\max}^2 \]
So, \[ v_{\max}=\sqrt{\frac{2eV_s}{m}} \]
Given: \[ V_s=1.82 V \] \[ e=1.6\times10^{-19} C \] \[ m=9.1\times10^{-31} kg \]
Substitute: \[ v_{\max}=\sqrt{\frac{2(1.6\times10^{-19})(1.82)}{9.1\times10^{-31}}} \]
\[ =\sqrt{\frac{5.824\times10^{-19}}{9.1\times10^{-31}}} \]
\[ =\sqrt{6.4\times10^{11}} \]
\[ v_{\max}=8.0\times10^5 ms^{-1} \]
Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{(A)\ 8.0\times10^5 ms^{-1}} \] Quick Tip: For stopping potential problems: \[ eV_s=\frac{1}{2}mv_{\max}^2 \] This directly gives the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electron.
If the binding energy per nucleon of a nucleus is 8.75 MeV and its mass number is 56, then total binding energy is
View Solution
Total binding energy is: \[ Binding energy per nucleon \times mass number \]
Given: \[ Binding energy per nucleon=8.75 MeV \] \[ A=56 \]
So, \[ Total binding energy=8.75\times 56 \]
\[ =490 MeV \]
Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{(C)\ 490 MeV} \] Quick Tip: Total binding energy: \[ B.E.=(binding energy per nucleon)\times A \] where \(A\) is the mass number.
Pick out the wrong statement about Bohr atom model:
View Solution
Bohr model assumes:
electrons move in circular orbits,
these orbits are stationary and non-radiating,
angular momentum is quantized.
Bohr model works well only for: \[ hydrogen and hydrogen-like one-electron species \]
It does not successfully explain many-electron atoms.
So the wrong statement is: \[ \boxed{(E)\ Model is applicable for many electron systems also} \] Quick Tip: Bohr model is mainly valid for one-electron systems like H, He\(^+\), Li\(^{2+}\), etc.
In a pure semiconductor at thermal equilibrium:
View Solution
In a pure or intrinsic semiconductor, electrons and holes are generated in pairs.
So at thermal equilibrium: \[ n=p \]
where: \[ n = electron concentration,\qquad p = hole concentration \]
Therefore, the number of electrons equals the number of holes.
Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{(B)\ Number of electrons = Number of holes} \] Quick Tip: In an intrinsic semiconductor: \[ n=p \] Electrons and holes are always produced in equal numbers.
KEAM 2026 Exam Pattern
| Particulars | Details |
|---|---|
| Paper | Pharmacy |
| Mode of Exam | Online CBT |
| Subjects | Physics- 30 questions Chemistry- 45 questions |
| Type of Question | Objective Type |
| Total Number of questions | 75 |
| Marks are awarded for each correct answer | 4 marks |
| Marks are awarded for each incorrect answer | 1 marks |
| KEAM total marks for Pharmacy | 300 marks |
| Duration of KEAM Pharmacy exam | 90 minutes |


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