VITEEE 2021 Question Paper is available for download here. VITEEE 2021 Question Paper includes 40 questions from Mathematics/Biology, 35 questions from Physics, 35 questions from Chemistry, 5 questions from English, 10 questions from Aptitude to be attempted in 150 minutes. Candidates can download the VITEEE 2021 Question Paper with Solution PDF using the link below.

VITEEE 2021 Question Paper with Solution PDF

VITEEE 2021 Question Paper with Solution PDF Download PDF Check Solution

Question 1:

The distance of the centres of moon and earth is \( D \). The mass of earth is 81 times the mass of the moon. At what distance from the centre of the earth, the gravitational force will be zero?

  • (1) \( \frac{D}{2} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{2D}{3} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{4D}{3} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{9D}{10} \)

Question 2:

Two wires A and B are of the same material. Their lengths are in the ratio \( 1:2 \) and the diameter is in the ratio \( 2:1 \). If they are pulled by the same force, then increase in length will be in the ratio of

  • (1) \( 2:1 \)
  • (2) \( 1:4 \)
  • (3) \( 1:8 \)
  • (4) \( 1:2 \)

Question 3:

If \( x = at + bt^2 \), where \( x \) is the distance travelled by the body in kilometers while \( t \) is the time in seconds, then the unit of \( b \) is

  • (1) km/s
  • (2) km/s\(^2\)
  • (3) km\(^2\)/s
  • (4) km\(^2\)/s\(^2\)

Question 4:

A soap bubble of radius \( r_1 \) is placed on another soap bubble of radius \( r_2 \) (\( r_1 < r_2 \)). The radius \( R \) of the soapy film separating the two bubbles is

  • (1) \( r_2 + r_1 \)
  • (2) \( \frac{r_2 - r_1}{2} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{r_1}{2} \)
  • (4) \( \sqrt{r_1^2 + r_2^2} \)

Question 5:

A charge \( q \) is moving with a velocity \( v \) parallel to a magnetic field \( B \). Force on the charge due to magnetic field is

  • (1) \( qvB \)
  • (2) \( \frac{qB}{v} \)
  • (3) zero
  • (4) \( Bv/q \)

Question 6:

Two spheres A and B of masses \( m \) and \( 2m \) and radii \( R \) and \( 2R \) respectively are placed in contact as shown. The COM of the system lies

  • (1) inside A
  • (2) inside B
  • (3) at the point of contact
  • (4) None of these

Question 7:

Identify the correct statement.

  • (1) Static friction depends on the area of contact
  • (2) Kinetic friction depends on the area of contact
  • (3) Coefficient of static friction is more than the coefficient of kinetic friction
  • (4) Coefficient of kinetic friction is less than the coefficient of static friction

Question 8:

The distance travelled by a particle starting from rest and moving with an acceleration \(3 \, m/s^2\) in the third second is:

  • (1) 10 m
  • (2) 20 m
  • (3) 30 m
  • (4) 40 m

Question 9:

Photocathode work function is \( 1 \, eV \). Light of wavelength \( \lambda = 3000 \, Å \) falls on it. The photoelectron comes out with a maximum velocity of \( 1 \times 10^6 \, m/s \). What is the energy of the photon?

  • (1) 1.0 eV
  • (2) 1.5 eV
  • (3) 2.0 eV
  • (4) 3.0 eV

Question 10:

A steam engine operating between \( 100^\circ C \) and \( 40^\circ C \) has an efficiency of \( 25% \). The heat absorbed by the engine is:

  • (1) \( 1.0 \times 10^6 \, J \)
  • (2) \( 2.0 \times 10^6 \, J \)
  • (3) \( 4.0 \times 10^6 \, J \)
  • (4) \( 3.0 \times 10^6 \, J \)

Question 11:

Two point charges \( +q \) and \( -q \) are placed at a distance \( d \) apart. The electric potential at the midpoint will be

  • (1) \( 0 \)
  • (2) \( \frac{q}{4\pi \epsilon_0 d} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{q}{2 \pi \epsilon_0 d} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{q}{8 \pi \epsilon_0 d} \)

Question 12:

Two bodies of the same mass are projected with the same velocity at an angle \( 30^\circ \) and \( 60^\circ \) respectively. The ratio of their horizontal ranges will be:

  • (1) 1:1
  • (2) 1:2
  • (3) 1:3
  • (4) \( 2 : \sqrt{3} \)

Question 13:

Two point charges \( +3 \, \mu C \) and \( +8 \, \mu C \) repel each other with a force of 40 N. If a charge of \( -5 \, \mu C \) is added to each of them, then the force between them will become:

  • (1) \( -10 \, N \)
  • (2) \( +10 \, N \)
  • (3) \( +20 \, N \)
  • (4) \( -20 \, N \)

Question 14:

A sphere rolls down an inclined plane of inclination \( \theta \). What is the acceleration as the sphere reaches the bottom?

  • (1) \( \frac{5g}{7} \sin \theta \)
  • (2) \( \frac{3g}{5} \sin \theta \)
  • (3) \( \frac{7g}{5} \sin \theta \)
  • (4) \( \frac{5g}{3} \sin \theta \)

Question 15:

A given ray of light suffers minimum deviation in an equilateral prism P. Additional prisms Q and R of identical shape and same material such that P, Q, and R are now combined as shown in figure. The ray will now suffer

  • (1) greater deviation
  • (2) same deviation as before
  • (3) total internal reflection
  • (4) no deviation

Question 16:

The current in the 120 \( \Omega \) resistor shown in the circuit is

  • (1) 2 A
  • (2) 3 A
  • (3) 6 A
  • (4) 2.5 A

Question 17:

The root mean square velocity of hydrogen molecules at 300 K is 1930 meters/second. The velocity of oxygen molecules at 1200 K will be:

  • (1) 582 m/s
  • (2) 656 m/s
  • (3) 586 m/s
  • (4) 366 m/s

Question 18:

A magnetic field of 5 T is applied perpendicular to a coil with 5 turns. The induced emf in the coil is 10 V. The rate of change of magnetic flux is:

  • (1) \( 50 \, Wb/s \)
  • (2) \( 5 \, Wb/s \)
  • (3) \( 1 \, Wb/s \)
  • (4) \( 0.5 \, Wb/s \)

Question 19:

A parallel plate capacitor with air between the plates has a capacitance of 3 μF. Calculate the capacitance if the distance between the plates is reduced by half and the space between them is filled with a substance of dielectric constant \( k \).

  • (1) \( 72 \, \mu F \)
  • (2) \( 81 \, \mu F \)
  • (3) \( 36 \, \mu F \)
  • (4) \( 6 \, \mu F \)

Question 20:

A body executing SHM has displacement \( y = A \cos \omega t \). Identify the graph which represents the variation of potential energy (PE) as a function of time \( t \) and displacement.

  • (1) I
  • (2) II
  • (3) III
  • (4) IV

Question 21:

A radioactive sample contains 5 × 10\(^7\) kg of each of two isotopes A and B with half-lives of 5 days and 8 days respectively. The fraction of A that decays in 3 days after a period of 3 days is:

  • (1) 0.2
  • (2) 0.4
  • (3) 0.3
  • (4) 0.6

Question 22:

A string of length 3 m and mass 0.035 kg is stretched with a tension of 50 N. The speed of the wave on the string is:

  • (1) 18.6 m/s
  • (2) 15.4 m/s
  • (3) 16.2 m/s
  • (4) 14.4 m/s

Question 23:

The following circuit represents

  • (1) OR gate
  • (2) AND gate
  • (3) NAND gate
  • (4) None of these

Question 24:

A particle of mass 10 kg is moving with a velocity of 5 m/s. The kinetic energy of the particle is:

  • (1) 125 J
  • (2) 250 J
  • (3) 500 J
  • (4) 1000 J

Question 25:

A source producing sound of frequency 170 Hz is approaching a stationary observer with a velocity of 17 m/s. The apparent change in the wavelength of sound heard by the observer is (speed of sound in air = 340 m/s):

  • (1) 0.1 m
  • (2) 0.2 m
  • (3) 0.4 m
  • (4) 0.5 m

Question 26:

Consider the following reactions: \[ NaCl + K_2Cr_2O_7 + H_2SO_4 (Conc.) \rightarrow (A) + Side products \] \[ (B) + H_2SO_4 (dilute) + H_2O_2 \rightarrow (C) + Side products \]
The sum of the total number of atoms in one molecule each of (A), (B) and (C) is __________.

  • (1) 18
  • (2) 15
  • (3) 21
  • (4) 20

Question 27:

Xenon hexafluoride on partial hydrolysis produces compounds 'X' and 'Y'. Compounds 'X', 'Y' and the oxidation state of Xe are respectively:

  • (1) XeOF\(_4\) (+6) and XeO\(_3\) (+6)
  • (2) XeO\(_2\) (+4) and XeO\(_3\) (+6)
  • (3) XeOF\(_4\) (+6) and XeO\(_2\)F\(_2\) (+6)
  • (4) XeO\(_2\)F\(_2\) (+6) and XeO\(_2\) (+4)

Question 28:

The edge length of unit cell of a metal having molecular weight 75 g/mol is 5 Å which crystallizes in cubic lattice. If the density is 2 g/cc, then find the radius of the metal atom. (\( N_A = 6 \times 10^{23} \)) Give the answer in pm.

  • (1) 217 pm
  • (2) 210 pm
  • (3) 220 pm
  • (4) 205 pm

Question 29:

Consider the following statements:
I. Increase in concentration of reactant increases the rate of a zero order reaction.
II. Rate constant \( k \) is equal to collision frequency if \( E_a = 0 \).
III. Rate constant \( k \) is equal to collision frequency if \( E_a = \infty \).
IV. \( \ln k \) vs \( T \) is a straight line.
V. \( 1/T \) vs \( \ln k \) is a straight line.

Correct statements are:

  • (1) I and IV
  • (2) II and V
  • (3) III and IV
  • (4) II and III

Question 30:

To deposit 0.634 g of copper by electrolysis of aqueous cupric sulphate solution, the amount of electricity required (in coulombs) is:

  • (1) 1930
  • (2) 3960
  • (3) 4825
  • (4) 9650

Question 31:

In the following skew conformation of ethane, the \( H' - C - C - H'' \) dihedral angle is:

  • (1) 58°
  • (2) 149°
  • (3) 151°
  • (4) 120°

Question 32:

What is the product of the following reaction?

Hex-3-ynal + (i) NaBH\(_4\), (ii) Pb\(_3\), (iii) Mg/ether, (iv) CO\(_2\)/H\(_2\)O → ?


Question 33:

In the following sequence of reactions, \[ CH_3CH_2OH \xrightarrow{P_1,2} A \xrightarrow{Mg/ether} B \xrightarrow{HCHO} C \xrightarrow{H_2O} D \]
The compound D is:

  • (1) propanal
  • (2) butanal
  • (3) n-butyl alcohol
  • (4) n-propyl alcohol

Question 34:

Which of the following reactions can produce aniline as the main product?

  • (1) \( C_6H_5NO_2 + Zn/KOH \)
  • (2) \( C_6H_5NO_2 + Zn/NHCl \)
  • (3) \( C_6H_5NO_2 + LiAlH_4 \)
  • (4) \( C_6H_5NO_2 + ZnHCl \)

Question 35:

Secondary structure of protein refers to:

  • (1) mainly denatured proteins and structure of prosthetic groups
  • (2) three-dimensional structure, especially the bond between amino acid residues that are distinct from each other in the polypeptide chain
  • (3) linear sequence of amino acid residues in the polypeptide chain
  • (4) regular folding patterns of continuous portions of the polypeptide chain

Question 36:

The increasing order for the values of e/m (charge/mass) is:

  • (1) e, p, n, \( \alpha \)
  • (2) n, p, e, \( \alpha \)
  • (3) n, p, \( \alpha \), e
  • (4) n, \( \alpha \), p, e

Question 37:

In which of the following pairs both the ions are coloured in aqueous solutions?

  • (1) \( Sc^{3+}, Ti^{3+} \)
  • (2) \( Ni^{2+}, Cu^{2+} \)
  • (3) \( Sc^{3+}, Co^{2+} \)
  • (4) \( Ni^{2+}, Ti^{3+} \)

Question 38:

The total number of possible isomers for square-planar \( [Pt(Cl)(NO_2)(NO_3)(SCN)]^{2-} \) is:

  • (1) 16
  • (2) 12
  • (3) 8
  • (4) 24

Question 39:

For the reaction, \[ 2SO_2(g) + O_2(g) \rightleftharpoons 2SO_3(g), \] \[ \Delta H = -57.2 \, kJ/mol \quad and \quad K_c = 1.7 \times 10^{16} \]
Which of the following statement is INCORRECT?

  • (1) The equilibrium constant is large, suggestive of reaction going to completion and so no catalyst is required.
  • (2) The equilibrium will shift in forward direction as the pressure increases.
  • (3) The equilibrium constant decreases as the temperature increases.
  • (4) The addition of inert gas at constant volume will not affect the equilibrium constant.

Question 40:

The half-life of a reaction is inversely proportional to the square of the initial concentration of the reactant. Then the order of the reaction is:

  • (1) 0
  • (2) 1
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 3

Question 41:

A galvanic cell is set up from electrodes A and B
Electrode A: \( Cr_2O_7^{2-} / Cr^{3+}, \, E^\circ_{red} = +1.33 \, V \)
Electrode B: \( Fe^{3+} / Fe^{2+}, \, E^\circ_{red} = +0.77 \, V \)
Which of the following statements is false?

  • (1) Standard e.m.f of the cell is 0.56 V
  • (2) Current will flow from electrode A to B in the external circuit
  • (3) A will act as cathode and have positive polarity
  • (4) None of these

Question 42:

Keto-enol tautomerism is observed in:


Question 43:

In a set of reactions, ethylbenzene yields a product D. \[ CH_3C_6H_5 \xrightarrow{KMnO_4} Br_2 \xrightarrow{FeCl_3} C_6H_5COOH \xrightarrow{H_2O} D \]
Identify D:


Question 44:

What will be the final product in the following reaction sequence: \[ CH_3CH_2CN \xrightarrow{H^+ / H_2O} A \xrightarrow{NH_3} B \xrightarrow{NaOBR} C \]

  • (1) \( CH_3CH_2CONH_2 \)
  • (2) \( CH_3CH_2COBR \)
  • (3) \( CH_3CH_2NH_2 \)
  • (4) \( CH_3CH_2NH_2 \)

Question 45:

In a set of reactions, acetic acid yields a product D: \[ CH_3COOH \xrightarrow{SOCl_2} Benzene \xrightarrow{AlCl_3} (B) \] \[ HCN \xrightarrow{(C)} HOH \xrightarrow{H_2O} (D) \]
The structure of \( D \) would be:


Question 46:

In fructose, the possible optical isomers are:

  • (1) 12
  • (2) 16
  • (3) 8
  • (4) 4

Question 47:

The position of both, an electron and a helium atom is known within 1.0 nm. Further the momentum of the electron is known within \( 5.0 \times 10^{-26} \, kg \, ms^{-1} \). The minimum uncertainty in the measurement of the momentum of the helium atom is:

  • (1) \( 50 \, kg \, ms^{-1} \)
  • (2) \( 80 \, kg \, ms^{-1} \)
  • (3) \( 8.0 \times 10^{-26} \, kg \, ms^{-1} \)
  • (4) \( 5.0 \times 10^{-26} \, kg \, ms^{-1} \)

Question 48:

The value of \( \log_{10} K \) for a reaction \( A \rightleftharpoons B \) is
(Given: \( \Delta H^\circ_{298K} = -54.07 \, kJ mol^{-1} \), \( \Delta S^\circ_{298K} = 10 \, JK^{-1} \, mol^{-1} \) and \( R = 8.314 \, JK^{-1} \, mol^{-1} \)) \[ 2.303 \times 8.314 \times 298 = 5705 \] \[ (a) 5 \quad (b) 10 \quad (c) 95 \quad (d) 100 \]


Question 49:

If \( C(s) + O_2(g) \rightleftharpoons CO_2(g) \), \( \Delta H = R \) and \[ CO(g) + \frac{1}{2} O_2(g) \rightleftharpoons CO_2(g), \quad \Delta H = S \]
then heat of formation of CO is:

  • (1) R + S
  • (2) R - S
  • (3) R x S
  • (4) S - R

Question 50:

Which of the following compounds does not follow Markovnikov's law?

  • (1) \( CH_3CH_2CH_3 \)
  • (2) \( CH_3CHCl_2 \)
  • (3) \( CH_3CH_2C = CH_2 \)
  • (4) None

Question 51:

The value of \( c \) in Rolle’s Theorem for the function \( f(x) = e^x \sin x, x \in [0, \pi] \) is:

  • (1) \( \frac{\pi}{6} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{\pi}{4} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{\pi}{2} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{3\pi}{4} \)

Question 52:

The equations \( 2x + 3y + 4 = 0 \), \( 3x + 4y + 6 = 0 \), and \( 4x + 5y + 8 = 0 \) are:

  • (1) consistent with unique solution
  • (2) inconsistent
  • (3) consistent with infinitely many solutions
  • (4) None of the above

Question 53:

The shortest distance between the lines \( x = y + 2 \), \( z = 6x - 6 \) and \( x + 1 = 2y = -12z \) is:

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
  • (2) \( 2 \)
  • (3) \( \frac{3}{2} \)
  • (4) \( 3 \)

Question 54:

If the tangent at \( P(1, 1) \) on \( y^2 = x(2 - x) \) meets the curve again at \( Q \), then \( Q \) is:

  • (1) (2, 2)
  • (2) (−1, −2)
  • (3) \( \left( \frac{9}{4}, \frac{3}{8} \right) \)
  • (4) None of these

Question 55:

If \( f(x) = \frac{x}{1 + x^2} + \frac{x}{(1 + x^2)^2} + \cdots \) to infinity, then at \( x = 0, f(x) \)

  • (1) has no limit
  • (2) is discontinuous
  • (3) is continuous but not differentiable
  • (4) is differentiable

Question 56:

Radius of the circle \( (x + 5)^2 + (y - 3)^2 = 36 \) is:

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 6
  • (4) 5

Question 57:

If \( \mathbf{a} = 2i - 2j + k \) and \( \mathbf{c} = -i + 2k \), then \( \mathbf{a} \times \mathbf{c} \) is equal to:

  • (1) \( 2\sqrt{5} \mathbf{i} + 5 \mathbf{j} + \sqrt{5} \mathbf{k} \)
  • (2) \( 2\mathbf{i} - 2\mathbf{j} + \sqrt{5} \mathbf{k} \)
  • (3) \( 5 \mathbf{i} + \sqrt{5} \mathbf{j} + 2\mathbf{k} \)
  • (4) \( \sqrt{5} \mathbf{i} + 2 \mathbf{j} + \mathbf{k} \)

Question 58:

If \( (-4, 5) \) is one vertex and \( 7x - y + 8 = 0 \) is one diagonal of a square, then the equation of second diagonal is:

  • (1) \( x + 3y = 21 \)
  • (2) \( 2x - 3y = 7 \)
  • (3) \( x + 7y = 31 \)
  • (4) \( 2x + 3y = 21 \)

Question 59:

\( P = Q \) can also be written as:

  • (1) \( p \sim q \)
  • (2) \( q \sim p \)
  • (3) \( \sim q \sim p \)
  • (4) None of these

Question 60:

Let \[ \int \frac{x^{1/2}}{\sqrt{1 - x^3}} \, dx = \frac{3}{3} \, g(x) + C \]
then

  • (1) \( f(x) = \sqrt{x} \)
  • (2) \( f(x) = x^3 \)
  • (3) \( g(x) = \sin^{-1} x \)
  • (4) None of these

Question 61:

Which of the following is an infinite set?

  • (1) The set of human beings on the earth
  • (2) The set of water drops in a glass of water
  • (3) The set of trees in a forest
  • (4) The set of all primes

Question 62:

The domain of the function \[ \sqrt{2x - 5x^2 + 6} + \sqrt{2x + 8 - x^2} \]
is:

  • (1) \( [2, 3] \)
  • (2) \( [-2, 1] \cup [3, 4] \)
  • (3) \( [-2, 1] \)
  • (4) None of these

Question 63:

Area bounded by the curve \( y = \log x \) and the coordinate axes is:

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 1
  • (3) 5
  • (4) \( 2\sqrt{2} \)

Question 64:

The angle of intersection of the curve \( y = x^2 \), \( dy = 7 - x^2 \) at \( (1, 1) \) is:

  • (1) \( \frac{\pi}{2} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{\pi}{4} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{\pi}{3} \)
  • (4) \( \pi \)

Question 65:

The angle formed by the positive Y-axis and the tangent to \( y = x^2 + 4x - 17 \) at \( (2, -3) \) is:

  • (1) \( \tan^{-1} 9 \)
  • (2) \( \frac{\pi}{2} - \tan^{-1} 9 \)
  • (3) \( \frac{\pi}{3} \)
  • (4) \( \tan^{-1} 9 \)

Question 66:

The value of \( (1 + i)^4 \) is:

  • (1) 12
  • (2) 8
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 16

Question 67:

The relation \( R \) defined on the set \( A = \{1, 2, 3, 4, 5\} \) by \( R = \{(x, y) : |x^2 - y^2| < 16 \} \) is given by:

  • (1) \( \{(1, 1), (2, 1), (3, 1), (4, 1), (2, 3)\} \)
  • (2) \( \{(2, 1), (3, 2), (4, 2), (5, 4)\} \)
  • (3) \( \{(3, 3), (4, 5)\} \)
  • (4) None of these

Question 68:

\[ \int \frac{2dx}{(e^x + e^{-x})^2} = ? \]

  • (1) \( -e^{-x} \)
  • (2) \( e^x \)
  • (3) \( e^x + C \)
  • (4) None of these

Question 69:

The value of \( \tan^{-1} (1) + \tan^{-1} (0) + \tan^{-1} (2) + \tan^{-1} (3) \) is equal to:

  • (1) \( \pi \)
  • (2) \( \frac{5\pi}{4} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{\pi}{2} \)
  • (4) None of these

Question 70:

In a culture, the bacteria count is 1,00,000. The number is increased by 10% in 2 hours. In how many hours will the count reach 2,00,000 if the rate of growth of bacteria is proportional to the number present?

  • (1) \( \frac{2 \log 2}{\log 11} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{\log 2}{\log 11} \)
  • (3) \( \log 2 \)
  • (4) \( \frac{2 \log 2}{\log 11} \)

Question 71:

What is the angle between the two straight lines \[ y = (2 - \sqrt{3})x + 5 \quad and \quad y = (2 + \sqrt{3})x - 7? \]

  • (1) 60°
  • (2) 30°
  • (3) 45°
  • (4) 15°

Question 72:

If the angle \( \theta \) between the line \[ \frac{x + 1}{2} = \frac{z - 2}{2} = \frac{y + 4}{\sqrt{n}} \]
and the plane \( 2x - y + z + 4 = 0 \) is such that \( \sin \theta = \frac{1}{3} \), then the value of \( n \) is:

  • (1) \( \frac{5}{3} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{3}{5} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{3}{4} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{-5}{4} \)

Question 73:

The distance of the point \( (-5, -5, -10) \) from the point of intersection of the line \[ r = -2i - j + 2k + \lambda(3i + 4j + 2k) \]
and the plane \( r \cdot (i - j + k) = 5 \) is:

  • (1) 13
  • (2) 12
  • (3) 10
  • (4) 15

Question 74:

\[ \int_{\log \sqrt{n}}^{\log \sqrt{r}} 2x \sec^2\left( \frac{1}{3} \cdot 2x \right) \, dx \]
is equal to:

  • (1) \( \sqrt{3} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{3\sqrt{3}}{2} \)
  • (4) None of these

Question 75:

If \( |x + 3| + x > 1 \), then \( x \in \):

  • (1) \( (-5, -2) \)
  • (2) \( (-1, \infty) \)
  • (3) \( (-5, -2) \cup (-1, \infty) \)
  • (4) None of these

Question 76:

Potential F.A.S.T. members can attend less than half of F.A.S.T. drills if they:

  • (1) complete technician-level training requirements
  • (2) indicate prior real emergency experience.
  • (3) receive permission from their fire chief.
  • (4) enroll in three weekly training sessions.

Question 77:

Which of the following is the main subject of the passage?

  • (1) preparing for hazmat certification
  • (2) the main goal of F.A.S.T.
  • (3) completing F.A.S.T. membership requirements
  • (4) learning about your department's F.A.S.T. membership

Question 78:

Applicants must be available for training:

  • (1) three days each month.
  • (2) three days each week.
  • (3) every third month.
  • (4) for 50% of classes.

Question 79:

Jatin starting from a fixed point, goes 15 m towards North and then after turning to his right, he goes 15 m. Then, he goes 10 m, 15 m and 15 m after turning to his left each time. How far is he from his starting point?

  • (1) 15 m
  • (2) 5 m
  • (3) 10 m
  • (4) 20 m

Question 80:

Examine the following statements:
1. All members of Mohan’s family are honest.
2. Some members of Mohan’s family are not employed.
3. Some employed persons are not honest.
4. Some honest persons are not employed.

Which one of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements?

  • (1) All members of Mohan’s family are honest
  • (2) The employed members of Mohan’s family are honest
  • (3) The honest members of Mohan’s family are not employed
  • (4) The employed member of Mohan’s family are not honest