VITEEE 2018 Question Paper is available for download here. VITEEE 2018 Question Paper includes 40 questions from Mathematics/Biology, 35 questions from Physics, 35 questions from Chemistry, 5 questions from English, 10 questions from Aptitude to be attempted in 150 minutes. Candidates can download the VITEEE 2018 Question Paper with Solution PDF using the link below.

VITEEE 2018 Question Paper with Solution PDF

VITEEE 2018 Question Paper with Solution PDF Download PDF Check Solution

Question 1:

The resistance of a wire is 'R' ohm. If it is melted and stretched to 'n' times its original length, its new resistance will be:

  • (1) \(\dfrac{R}{n}\)
  • (2) \(n^2 R\)
  • (3) \(\dfrac{R}{n^2}\)
  • (4) \(nR\)

Question 2:

A coil of 40 henry inductance is connected in series with a resistance of 8 ohm and the combination is joined to the terminals of a 2 volt battery. The time constant of the circuit is:

  • (1) 20 seconds
  • (2) 5 seconds
  • (3) 1/5 seconds
  • (4) 40 seconds

Question 3:

Which of the following is the correct lens formula?

  • (1) \( \dfrac{1}{v} - \dfrac{1}{u} = \dfrac{1}{f} \)
  • (2) \( \dfrac{1}{v} + \dfrac{1}{u} = \dfrac{1}{f} \)
  • (3) \( v - u = f \)
  • (4) \( v + u = f \)

Question 4:

The magnetic field at a point due to a current carrying conductor is directly proportional to:

  • (1) resistance of the conductor
  • (2) thickness of the conductor
  • (3) current flowing through the conductor
  • (4) distance from the conductor

Question 5:

A metallic sphere is placed in a uniform electric field. The line of force follow the path (s) shown in the figure as:

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 4

Question 6:

Electron in hydrogen atom first jumps from third excited state to second excited state and then from second excited to the first excited state. The ratio of the wavelength \( \lambda_1 : \lambda_2 \) emitted in the two cases is:

  • (1) 7/5
  • (2) 27/20
  • (3) 27/5
  • (4) 20/7

Question 7:

In a common emitter transistor amplifier \( \beta = 60 \), \( R_o = 5000 \, \Omega \) and internal resistance of a transistor is 500 \( \Omega \). The voltage amplification of amplifier will be:

  • (1) 500
  • (2) 460
  • (3) 600
  • (4) 560

Question 8:

A machine gun has a mass 5 kg. It fires 50 gram bullets at the rate of 30 bullets per minute at a speed of 400 m/s. What force is required to keep the gun in position?

  • (1) 10 N
  • (2) 5 N
  • (3) 15 N
  • (4) 30 N

Question 9:

The activity of a radioactive sample is measured as 9750 counts per minute at \( t = 0 \) and as 975 counts per minute at \( t = 5 \) minutes. The decay constant is approximately:

  • (1) 0.922 per minute
  • (2) 0.691 per minute
  • (3) 0.461 per minute
  • (4) 0.230 per minute

Question 10:

The equivalent capacitance between a and b for the combination of capacitors shown in figure where all capacitances are in microfarad is:

  • (1) 6.0 \( \mu \)F
  • (2) 4.0 \( \mu \)F
  • (3) 2.0 \( \mu \)F
  • (4) 3.0 \( \mu \)F

Question 11:

Two coils have a mutual inductance 0.005 H. The current changes in the first coil according to equation \( I = I_0 \sin \omega t \), where \( I_0 = 10A \) and \( \omega = 100\pi \, radian/sec \). The maximum value of e.m.f. in the second coil is:

  • (1) \( 2\pi \)
  • (2) \( 5\pi \)
  • (3) \( \pi \)
  • (4) \( 4\pi \)

Question 12:

In Young's double slit experiment, intensity at a point is \( \dfrac{1}{4} \) of the maximum intensity. Angular position of this point is (separation between slits is \( d \)):

  • (1) \( \sin^{-1} \left( \dfrac{\lambda}{d} \right) \)
  • (2) \( \sin^{-1} \left( \dfrac{\lambda}{2d} \right) \)
  • (3) \( \sin^{-1} \left( \dfrac{\lambda}{3d} \right) \)
  • (4) \( \sin^{-1} \left( \dfrac{\lambda}{4d} \right) \)

Question 13:

Two batteries of emf 4 V and 8 V with internal resistance 1 \( \Omega \) and 2 \( \Omega \) are connected in a circuit with a resistance of 9 \( \Omega \) as shown in the figure. The current and potential difference between the points P and Q are:

  • (1) \( \dfrac{4}{3} \) A and 3 V
  • (2) \( \dfrac{1}{6} \) A and 4 V
  • (3) \( \dfrac{1}{9} \) A and 9 V
  • (4) \( \dfrac{1}{12} \) A and 12 V

Question 14:

The horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field is \( 3.6 \times 10^{-5} \) tesla where the dip angle is 60°. The magnitude of the earth’s magnetic field is:

  • (1) \( 2.8 \times 10^{-4} \) tesla
  • (2) \( 2.1 \times 10^{-5} \) tesla
  • (3) \( 7.2 \times 10^{-5} \) tesla
  • (4) \( 3.6 \times 10^{-5} \) tesla

Question 15:

The velocity of water in a river is 18 km/hr near the surface. If the river is 5 m deep, find the shearing stress between the horizontal layers of water. The coefficient of viscosity of water is \( 10^{-2} \) poise:

  • (1) \( 10^{-1} \) poise
  • (2) \( 10^{-2} \) N/m\(^2\)
  • (3) \( 10^{-3} \) N/m\(^2\)
  • (4) \( 10^{-4} \) N/m\(^2\)

Question 16:

The magnetic field in a travelling electromagnetic wave has a peak value of 20 nT. The peak value of electric field strength is:

  • (1) 3 V/m
  • (2) 6 V/m
  • (3) 9 V/m
  • (4) 12 V/m

Question 17:

The I-V characteristic of a diode is shown in the figure. The ratio of forward to reverse bias resistance is:

  • (1) 10
  • (2) \( 10^{-6} \)
  • (3) \( 10^6 \)
  • (4) 100

Question 18:

The principle of conservation of linear momentum can be strictly applied during a collision between two particles provided the time of impact:

  • (1) is extremely small
  • (2) is moderately small
  • (3) is extremely large
  • (4) depends on particular case

Question 19:

The current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer depends on:

  • (1) the number of turns in the coil
  • (2) moment of inertia of the coil
  • (3) current sent through galvanometer
  • (4) eddy current in Al frame

Question 20:

The length of elastic string, obeying Hooke’s law, is \( \ell_1 \) metres when the tension 4N and \( \ell_2 \) metres when the tension is 5N. The length in metres when the tension is 9N is:

  • (1) \( 5\ell_1 - 4\ell_2 \)
  • (2) \( 5\ell_2 - 4\ell_1 \)
  • (3) \( 9\ell_1 - 8\ell_2 \)
  • (4) \( 9\ell_2 - 8\ell_1 \)

Question 21:

A square loop, carrying a steady current \( I \), is placed in a horizontal plane near a long straight conductor carrying a steady current \( I \), at a distance \( d \) from the conductor as shown in figure. The loop will experience:

  • (1) a net repulsive force away from the conductor
  • (2) a net torque acting upward perpendicular to the horizontal plane
  • (3) a net torque acting downward normal to the horizontal plane
  • (4) a net attractive force towards the conductor

Question 22:

The temperature of equal masses of three different liquids A, B, and C are 12°C, 19°C, and 28°C respectively. The temperature when A and B are mixed is 16°C and when B and C are mixed is 23°C. The temperature when A and C are mixed is:

  • (1) 18.2°C
  • (2) 22°C
  • (3) 20.2°C
  • (4) 25.2°C

Question 23:

An alternating voltage of 220 V, 50 Hz frequency is applied across a capacitor of capacitance 2 μF. The impedance of the circuit is:

  • (1) \( \dfrac{\pi}{5000} \)
  • (2) \( 1000 \pi \)
  • (3) \( 500 \pi \)
  • (4) \( \dfrac{500}{\pi} \)

Question 24:

The molar specific heats of an ideal gas at constant pressure and volume are denoted by \( C_p \) and \( C_v \), respectively. If \( \gamma = \dfrac{C_p}{C_v} \) and \( R \) is the universal gas constant, then \( C_v \) is equal to:

  • (1) \( \dfrac{R}{(\gamma - 1)} \)
  • (2) \( \dfrac{(\gamma - 1)}{R} \)
  • (3) \( \gamma R \)
  • (4) \( \dfrac{1 + \gamma}{1 - \gamma} \)

Question 25:

The ratio of radii of the first three Bohr orbits is:

  • (1) \( 1 : 1 : 1 \)
  • (2) \( 1 : 2 : 3 \)
  • (3) \( 1 : 4 : 9 \)
  • (4) \( 1 : 8 : 27 \)

Question 26:

The given electrical network is equivalent to:

  • (1) AND gate
  • (2) OR gate
  • (3) NOR gate
  • (4) AND gate

Question 27:

A large number of liquid drops each of radius \( r \) coalesce to form a single drop of radius \( R \). The energy released in the process is converted into kinetic energy of the big drop \( M \) is given by (given, surface tension of liquid \( \sigma \)):

  • (1) \( \dfrac{T}{\rho} \left( 1 - \dfrac{1}{R} \right) \)
  • (2) \( \dfrac{2T}{\rho} \left( 1 - \dfrac{1}{R} \right) \)
  • (3) \( 2T \left( 1 - \dfrac{1}{R} \right) \)
  • (4) \( \dfrac{T}{\rho} \left( 1 - \dfrac{1}{R^2} \right) \)

Question 28:

Find the magnetic field at \( P \) due to the arrangement shown:

  • (1) \( \dfrac{H_0}{2 \sqrt{2}} \left( 1 + \dfrac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \right) \)
  • (2) \( \dfrac{H_0}{2 \sqrt{2}} \left( 1 - \dfrac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \right) \)
  • (3) \( \dfrac{H_0}{2 \sqrt{2}} \)
  • (4) \( \dfrac{H_0}{2 \sqrt{2}} \left( 1 + \dfrac{1}{\sqrt{3}} \right) \)

Question 29:

The Binding energy per nucleon of \( \dfrac{3}{2} Li \) and \( \dfrac{4}{2} He \) nuclei is 5.60 MeV and 7.06 MeV, respectively.

  • (1) \( \dfrac{1}{3} Li \)
  • (2) \( \dfrac{3}{4} He \)
  • (3) \( 5.60 MeV \)
  • (4) \( 7.06 MeV \)

Question 30:

A ray PQ incident on the refracting face BC is refracted in the prism BA as shown in the figure and emerges from the other refracting face AC as RS such that \( \angle AQ = \angle RS \). If the angle of prism \( A = 60^\circ \) and the refractive index of the material of prism is \( \sqrt{3} \), then the angle of deviation of the ray is:

  • (1) \( 60^\circ \)
  • (2) \( 45^\circ \)
  • (3) \( 30^\circ \)
  • (4) None of these

Question 31:

In a photoelectric effect measurement, the stopping potential for a given metal is found to be \( V_0 \) volt when radiation of wavelength \( \lambda_0 \) is used. If radiation of wavelength \( 2\lambda_0 \) is used with the same metal then the stopping potential (in volt) will be:

  • (1) \( \dfrac{V_0}{2} \)
  • (2) \( 2V_0 \)
  • (3) \( V_0 + \dfrac{hc}{2e\lambda_0} \)
  • (4) \( V_0 - \dfrac{hc}{2e\lambda_0} \)

Question 32:

In the circuit shown the cells A and B have negligible resistances. For \( V_A = 12 \, V \), \( R_1 = 500 \, \Omega \) and \( R = 1000 \, \Omega \), the galvanometer \( G \) shows no deflection. The value of \( V_B \) is:
 

  • (1) 4 V
  • (2) 2 V
  • (3) 12 V
  • (4) 6 V

Question 33:

A steel wire of length \( \ell \) has a magnetic moment \( M \). It is then bent into a semicircular arc. The new magnetic moment is:

  • (1) \( \dfrac{M}{\pi} \)
  • (2) \( \dfrac{2M}{\pi} \)
  • (3) \( \dfrac{3M}{\pi} \)
  • (4) \( \dfrac{4M}{\pi} \)

Question 34:

A running man has half the kinetic energy of that of a boy of half his mass. The man speeds up by 1m/s so as to have same K.E. as that of the boy. The original speed of the man will be:

  • (1) \( \sqrt{2} \, m/s \)
  • (2) \( \dfrac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \, m/s \)
  • (3) \( \sqrt{5} \, m/s \)
  • (4) \( \dfrac{1}{\sqrt{5}} \, m/s \)

Question 35:

In Young's double slit experiment the two slits are illuminated by light of wavelength 5890Å and the distance between the fringes obtained on the screen is 0.2 cm. If the whole apparatus is immersed in water then the angular fringe width will be \( \dfrac{4}{3} \). The refractive index of water is:

  • (1) 0.30°
  • (2) 0.15°
  • (3) 15°
  • (4) 30°

Question 36:

Four point charges \( -Q, -2Q, 2q \) and \( 4q \) are placed, one at each corner of the square. The relation between \( Q \) and \( q \) for which the potential at the centre of the square is zero is:

  • (1) \( Q = -q \)
  • (2) \( Q = \dfrac{1}{q} \)
  • (3) \( Q = q \)
  • (4) \( Q = -2q \)

Question 37:

In the given circuit the reading of voltmeter \( V_1 \) and \( V_2 \) are 300 volt each. The reading of the voltmeter \( V_3 \) and ammeter \( A \) are respectively:

  • (1) 150 V and 2.2 A
  • (2) 220 V and 2.4 A
  • (3) 100 V and 2.4 A
  • (4) 220 V and 2.2 A

Question 38:

A body cools from 50.0°C to 49.9°C in 5s. How long will it take to cool from 40.0°C to 39.9°C? Assume the temperature of surroundings to be 30.0°C and Newton’s law of cooling to be valid:

  • (1) 2.5 s
  • (2) 10 s
  • (3) 20 s
  • (4) 5 s

Question 39:

Consider the junction diode is ideal. The value of current flowing through AB is:

  • (1) \( 0 \, A \)
  • (2) \( 10^{-1} \, A \)
  • (3) \( 10^{-2} \, A \)
  • (4) \( 10^{-3} \, A \)

Question 40:

A metal disc of radius 100 cm is rotated at a constant angular speed of 60 rad/s in a plane at right angles to an external field of magnetic induction 0.5 Wb/m\(^2\). The emf induced between the centre and a point on the rim will be:

  • (1) 1.5 V
  • (2) 6 V
  • (3) 9 V
  • (4) 10 V

Question 41:

Ionisation energy of \( He^+ \) is \( 19.6 \times 10^{-18} \, J \, atom^{-1} \). The energy of the first stationary state (n = 1) of \( Li^{2+} \) is:

  • (1) \( 4.41 \times 10^{-16} \, J \, atom^{-1} \)
  • (2) \( -4.41 \times 10^{-17} \, J \, atom^{-1} \)
  • (3) \( -2.2 \times 10^{-15} \, J \, atom^{-1} \)
  • (4) \( 8.82 \times 10^{-17} \, J \, atom^{-1} \)

Question 42:

The chirality of the compound:
 

  • (1) \( R \)
  • (2) \( S \)
  • (3) \( E \)
  • (4) \( Z \)

Question 43:

Which of the following compounds is formed when a mixture of \( K_2Cr_2O_7 \) and NaCl is heated with conc. \( H_2SO_4 \)?

  • (1) \( Cr_2O_3 \, Cl_2 \)
  • (2) \( CrCl_3 \)
  • (3) \( Cr_2(SO_4)_3 \)
  • (4) \( Na_2Cr_2O_4 \)

Question 44:

For the process \( H_2O(g) \, (1 \, bar, 373 \, K) \rightarrow H_2O(g) \, (1 \, bar, 373 \, K) \), the correct set of thermodynamic parameters is:

  • (1) \( \Delta G = 0 \), \( \Delta S = +ve \)
  • (2) \( \Delta G = 0 \), \( \Delta S = -ve \)
  • (3) \( \Delta G = +ve \), \( \Delta S = 0 \)
  • (4) \( \Delta G = -ve \), \( \Delta S = +ve \)

Question 45:

Compound ‘A’ of molecular formula \( C_6H_10O \) on treatment with Lucas reagent at room temperature gives compound ‘B’. When compound ‘B’ is heated with alcoholic KOH, it gives isobutene. Compound ‘A’ and ‘B’ are respectively:

  • (1) 2-methyl-2-propanol and 2-methyl-2-chloropropane
  • (2) 2-methyl-1-propanol and 1-chloro-2-methylpropane
  • (3) 2-methyl-1-propanol and 2-methyl-2-chloropropane
  • (4) butan-2-ol and 2-chlorobutane

Question 46:

The reagent(s) which can be used to distinguish acetophenone from benzophenone is (are):

  • (1) 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazine
  • (2) aqueous solution of NaHSO₃
  • (3) Benedict reagent
  • (4) I and Na₂CO₃

Question 47:

In the extraction of Cu, the metal is formed in the Bessemer converter due to the reaction: \[ Cu_2S + O_2 \rightarrow 2Cu + SO_2 \]
The correct equation is:

  • (1) \( Cu_2S + 2O_2 \rightarrow 2Cu + SO_2 \)
  • (2) \( Cu_2S + 2Cu + S \)
  • (3) \( Fe + Cu_2O \rightarrow 2Cu + FeO \)
  • (4) \( 2Cu_2O \rightarrow 4Cu + O_2 \)

Question 48:

For which of the following systems at equilibrium, at constant temperature, will the doubling of the volume cause a shift to the right?

  • (1) \( H_2(g) + Cl_2(g) \rightleftharpoons 2HCl(g) \)
  • (2) \( 2CO(g) + O_2(g) \rightleftharpoons 2CO_2(g) \)
  • (3) \( N_2(g) + 3H_2(g) \rightleftharpoons 2NH_3(g) \)
  • (4) \( 2CuO(s) \rightleftharpoons 2Cu + O_2(g) \)

Question 49:

The molecular formula of diphenyl methane, \( C_{13}H_{12} \), is \( C_{13}H_{12} \). How many structural isomers are possible when one of the hydrogens is replaced by a chlorine atom?

  • (1) 6
  • (2) 8
  • (3) 4
  • (4) 7

Question 50:

Calculate the enthalpy change for the change \( S_8(g) \rightarrow S_g(g) \), given that: \[ H_2S_2(g) \rightarrow 2H(g) + 2S(g), \quad \Delta H = 239.0 \, kcal/mol \] \[ H_2S(g) \rightarrow 2H(g) + S(g), \quad \Delta H = 175.0 \, kcal/mol \]

  • (1) \( +512.0 \, kcal \)
  • (2) \( -512.0 \, kcal \)
  • (3) \( 508.0 \, kcal \)
  • (4) \( -508.0 \, kcal \)

Question 51:

Which of the following is best method for reducing 3-bromopropanal to 1-bromopropane?

  • (1) Wolf-Kishner reduction
  • (2) Clemmenson reduction
  • (3) Either (a) or (b)
  • (4) Stephen's reduction

Question 52:

Which one of the following has an optical isomer?

  • (1) \( [Zn(en)(NH_3)_2]^{2+} \)
  • (2) \( [Co(en)_3]^{3+} \)
  • (3) \( [Co(H_2O)_6](en)_3^{3+} \)
  • (4) \( [Zn(en)_2]^{2+} \)

Question 53:

An element occurring in the bcc structure has \( 12.08 \times 10^{23} \) unit cells. The total number of atoms of the element in these cells will be:

  • (1) \( 24.16 \times 10^{23} \)
  • (2) \( 36.18 \times 10^{23} \)
  • (3) \( 6.04 \times 10^{23} \)
  • (4) \( 12.08 \times 10^{23} \)

Question 54:

The major product of the following reaction is:

  • (1) a hemiacetal
  • (2) an acetal
  • (3) an ether
  • (4) an ester

Question 55:

Standard cell voltage for the cell \[ Pb | Pb^{2+} | Sn^{2+} | Sn \]
is \( -0.01 \, V \). If the cell is to exhibit \( E_{cell} = 0 \), the value of \( [Sn^{2+}] / [Pb^{2+}] \) should be:

  • (1) \( 10^{-1} \)
  • (2) \( 10^2 \)
  • (3) \( 10^3 \)
  • (4) \( 10^4 \)

Question 56:

HBr reacts with \( CH_2 = CH - OCH_3 \) under anhydrous conditions at room temperature to give:

  • (1) \( BrCH_2 - CH - OCH_3 \)
  • (2) \( H_2C - CH - OCH_3 \)
  • (3) \( CH_3 CHO \) and \( CH_3 Br \)
  • (4) \( BrCH_2C H_2 Br \)

Question 57:

Acetic anhydride reacts with diethyl ether in the presence of anhydrous AlCl₃ to give:

  • (1) \( CH_3COOCH_2C_2H_5 \)
  • (2) \( CH_3COOCH_2C_2H_5 \) and \( CH_3COOH \)
  • (3) \( CH_3COOCH_3 \)
  • (4) \( CH_3COOCH_3 \) and \( CH_3COOH \)

Question 58:

The resistance of a 0.01 N solution of an electrolyte was found to be 220 ohm at 298 K using a conductivity cell with a cell constant of 0.88 cm\(^{-1}\). The value of equivalent conductance of solution is:

  • (1) 400 mho cm² g\(^{-1}\)
  • (2) 295 mho cm² g\(^{-1}\)
  • (3) 419 mho cm² g\(^{-1}\)
  • (4) 425 mho cm² g\(^{-1}\)

Question 59:

\( p \)-cresol reacts with chloroform in alkaline medium to give the compound A which adds hydrogen cyanide to form the compound B. The latter on acidic hydrolysis gives chiral carboxylic acid. The structure of the carboxylic acid is:


Question 60:

The radius of \( La^{3+} \) (Atomic number of La = 57) is 1.06 Å. Which one of the following given values will be closest to the radius of \( Lu^{3+} \) (Atomic number of Lu = 71)?

  • (1) 1.40 Å
  • (2) 1.06 Å
  • (3) 0.85 Å
  • (4) 1.60 Å

Question 61:

In a compound, atoms of element Y form ccp lattice and those of element X occupy \( \frac{2}{3} \)rd of tetrahedral voids. The formula of the compound will be:

  • (1) \( X_4Y_3 \)
  • (2) \( X_3Y_3 \)
  • (3) \( X_4Y_7 \)
  • (4) \( X_3Y_4 \)

Question 62:

An organic compound \( C_6H_9N \) (A), when treated with nitrous acid, gave an alcohol and \( N_2 \) gas was evolved. (A) on warming with \( CHCl_3 \) and caustic potash gave (C), which on reduction gave isopropylmethylamine. Predict the structure of (A):

  • (1) \( CH_3CH_2NH_2 \)
  • (2) \( CH_3CH_2NH_2 \)
  • (3) \( CH_3CH_2NCH_3 \)
  • (4) \( CH_3CH_2NH_2 \)

Question 63:

For the reaction \( 2N_2O_5 \rightarrow 4NO_2 + O_2 \), rate and rate constant are \( 1.02 \times 10^{-4} \, mol \, lit^{-1} \, s^{-1} \) and \( 3.4 \times 10^{-5} \, s^{-1} \), respectively when the concentration of \( N_2O_5 \) at that time will be:

  • (1) \( 1.732 \, M \)
  • (2) 3M
  • (3) \( 3.4 \times 10^{-5} \, M \)
  • (4) \( 1.02 \times 10^{-6} \, M \)

Question 64:

The complex showing a spin-only magnetic moment of 2.82 B.M. is:

  • (1) \( Ni(CO)_4 \)
  • (2) \( [NiCl_2]^{2-} \)
  • (3) \( Ni(PPh_3)_4 \)
  • (4) \( [Ni(CO)_3]^{2-} \)

Question 65:

What is order with respect to A, B, C, respectively?

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{2}, 1, 3/2 \)
  • (2) \( 1, 1/2, 1/2 \)
  • (3) \( 1, 3/2, 1 \)
  • (4) \( 1, 1/2, 1 \)

Question 66:

In the silver plating of copper, \( K[Ag(CN)_2] \) is used instead of \( AgNO_3 \). The reason is:

  • (1) a thin layer of Ag is formed on Cu
  • (2) more voltage is required
  • (3) \( Ag^+ \) ions are completely removed from solution
  • (4) less availability of \( Ag^+ \) ions, as Cu cannot displace Ag from \( [Ag(CN)_2]^- \) ion

Question 67:

Nitrosamines \( (R_2N - N = O) \) are soluble in water. On heating them with concentrated \( H_2SO_4 \), they give secondary amines. This reaction is called:

  • (1) Perkin reaction
  • (2) Sandmeyer’s reaction
  • (3) Fitting reaction
  • (4) Liebermann nitroso reaction

Question 68:

The energies \( E_1 \) and \( E_2 \) of two radiations are 25 eV and 50 eV, respectively. The relation between their wavelengths i.e., \( \lambda_1 \) and \( \lambda_2 \), will be:

  • (1) \( \lambda_1 = \lambda_2 \)
  • (2) \( \lambda_1 = 2\lambda_2 \)
  • (3) \( \lambda_1 = 4\lambda_2 \)
  • (4) \( \lambda_1 = \frac{1}{2} \lambda_2 \)

Question 69:

In the reaction:

  • (1) \( SiC \)
  • (2) \( H_2SO_4 \)
  • (3) \( Fe_2O_3 \)
  • (4) \( Na_2CO_3 \)

Question 70:

The nucleotide in DNA are linked by:

  • (1) \( H_2O \)
  • (2) \( C_2H_5 \)
  • (3) \( OH \)
  • (4) \( C \quad \)

Question 71:

The correct order of the thermal stability of hydrogen halides (H-X) is:

  • (1) \( HI > HCl > HF > HBr \)
  • (2) \( HCl < HF > HBr > HI \)
  • (3) \( HF > HCl > HBr > HI \)
  • (4) \( HI < HBr > HCl < HF \)

Question 72:

The values of \( \Delta H \) and \( \Delta S \) for the reaction, \[ C(graphite) + CO_2(g) \rightarrow 2CO(g), \]
are 170 kJ and 170 J/K, respectively. This reaction will be spontaneous at:

  • (1) 910 K
  • (2) 1110 K
  • (3) 510 K
  • (4) 710 K

Question 73:

The following carbohydrate is:

  • (1) a ketohexose
  • (2) an aldopentose
  • (3) an \( \alpha \)-furanose
  • (4) an \( \alpha \)-pyranose

Question 74:

Given that the equilibrium constant for the reaction \( 2SO_3(g) + O_2(g) \rightleftharpoons 2SO_2(g) \) has a value of \( 2.78 \times 10^{3} \) at a particular temperature. What is the value of the equilibrium constant for the following reaction at the same temperature? \[ SO_3(g) \rightleftharpoons SO_2(g) + \frac{1}{2}O_2(g) \]

  • (1) \( 1.8 \times 10^{-3} \)
  • (2) \( 3.6 \times 10^{-3} \)
  • (3) \( 6.0 \times 10^{-2} \)
  • (4) \( 1.3 \times 10^{-5} \)

Question 75:

Which one of the following statements is correct?

  • (1) All amino acids except lysine are optically active
  • (2) All amino acids are optically active
  • (3) All amino acids except glycine are optically active
  • (4) All amino acids except glutamic acids are optically active

Question 76:

In case of nitrogen, \( NCl_3 \) is possible but not \( NCl_5 \), while in case of phosphorus, \( PCl_3 \) as well as \( PCl_5 \) is possible. It is due to:

  • (1) availability of vacant \( d \)-orbitals in P but not in N
  • (2) lower electronegativity of P than N
  • (3) lower tendency of H-bond formation in P than N
  • (4) occurrence of \( P \) in solid while \( N \) in gaseous state at room temperature

Question 77:

For the reaction: \[ BaO (s) + O_2(g) \rightarrow BaO_2(s) \] \( \Delta H = +ve \), In equilibrium condition, pressure of \( O_2 \) is dependent on:

  • (1) mass of \( BaO_2 \)
  • (2) mass of \( BaO \)
  • (3) temperature of equilibrium
  • (4) mass of \( BaO_2 \) and \( BaO \) both

Question 78:

In the series of reaction \[ C_6H_5NH_2 \xrightarrow{NaNO_2/HCl} X \quad and \quad X \xrightarrow{HNO_3, H_2O} Y + N_2 + HCl, \]
X and Y are respectively:

  • (1) \( C_6H_5N = N - C_6H_5 \)
  • (2) \( C_6H_5N_2C_6H_5 \)
  • (3) \( C_6H_5N_2C_6H_4 \)
  • (4) \( C_6H_5NO_2C_6H_6 \)

Question 79:

In \( XeF_2 \), \( XeF_4 \), \( XeF_6 \), the number of lone pairs on Xe are respectively:

  • (1) 2, 3, 4
  • (2) 3, 1, 2
  • (3) 1, 2, 3
  • (4) 4, 3, 2

Question 80:

In Williamson synthesis if tertiary alkyl halide is used than:

  • (1) ether is obtained in good yield
  • (2) ether is obtained in poor yield
  • (3) alkene is the only reaction product
  • (4) a mixture of alkene as a major product and ether as a minor product forms

Question 81:

If \( 12 \cot^2 \theta - 31 \csc \theta + 32 = 0 \), then the value of \( \sin \theta \) is:

  • (1) \( \frac{3}{5} \) or 1
  • (2) \( \frac{2}{3} \) or \( -\frac{2}{3} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{4}{5} \) or \( \frac{3}{4} \)
  • (4) \( \pm \frac{1}{2} \)

Question 82:

Amplitude of \( \frac{1 + \sqrt{3}i}{\sqrt{3} + 1} \) is:

  • (1) \( \frac{\pi}{6} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{\pi}{4} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{\pi}{3} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{\pi}{2} \)

Question 83:

The value of \[ \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{x^3 \cot x}{1 - \cos x} \]
is:

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 2
  • (3) -2
  • (4) 0

Question 84:

The connective in the statement: \[ "2 + 7 > 9 \, or \, 2 + 7 < 9" \]
is:

  • (1) and
  • (2) or
  • (3) and
  • (4) none of these

Question 85:

The number of ways in which 3 prizes can be distributed to 4 children, so that no child gets all the three prizes, are:

  • (1) 64
  • (2) 62
  • (3) 60
  • (4) None of these

Question 86:

If \( A \) and \( B \) are events such that \( P(A) = 0.42 \), \( P(B) = 0.48 \), and \( P(A \cap B) = 0.16 \), then:
I. \( P(not A) = 0.58 \)

II. \( P(not B) = 0.52 \)

III. \( P(A \cup B) = 0.47 \)

  • (1) Only I and III are correct
  • (2) Only I and II are correct
  • (3) Only I and III are true
  • (4) All three statements are correct

Question 87:

The focus of the curve \( y^2 + 4x - 6y + 13 = 0 \) is:

  • (1) \( (2, 3) \)
  • (2) \( (-2, 3) \)
  • (3) \( (2, -3) \)
  • (4) \( (-2, -3) \)

Question 88:

If the parabola \( y^2 = 4ax \) passes through the point \( (1, -2) \), then the tangent at this point is:

  • (1) \( x + y - 1 = 0 \)
  • (2) \( x + y + 1 = 0 \)
  • (3) \( x + y + 11 = 0 \)
  • (4) \( x + y - 11 = 0 \)

Question 89:

The number of points of discontinuity of the function \( f(x) = x - [x] \) in the interval \( (0, 7) \) are:

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 6
  • (4) 4

Question 90:

A football is inflated by pumping air in it. When it acquires spherical shape its radius increases at the rate of \( 0.02 \, cm/s \). The rate of increase of its volume when the radius is \( 10 \, cm \) is:

  • (1) \( \pi \, cm^3/s \)
  • (2) \( 4 \pi \, cm^3/s \)
  • (3) \( 6 \pi \, cm^3/s \)
  • (4) \( 8 \pi \, cm^3/s \)

Question 91:

The interval in which the function \( f(x) = \frac{4x^2 + 1}{x} \) is decreasing is:

  • (1) \( \left( -\frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{2} \right) \)
  • (2) \( \left[ -\frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{2} \right] \)
  • (3) \( (-1, 1) \)
  • (4) \( [-1, 1] \)

Question 92:

The eccentricity of the ellipse whose major axis is three times the minor axis is:

  • (1) \( \frac{\sqrt{2}}{3} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{2\sqrt{2}}{3} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{2}{\sqrt{3}} \)

Question 93:

The equation of the hyperbola with vertices \( (3, 0), (-3, 0) \) and semi-latus ***** 4 is given by:

  • (1) \( 4x^2 - 3y^2 + 36 = 0 \)
  • (2) \( 4x^2 - 3y^2 + 12 = 0 \)
  • (3) \( 4x^2 - 3y^2 - 36 = 0 \)
  • (4) \( 4x^2 - 3y^2 - 25 = 0 \)

Question 94:

\( f(x) = \left\{ \begin{array}{ll} \sin \frac{1}{x} , & for \, x \neq 0
0, & for \, x = 0 \end{array} \right. \) is:

  • (1) continuous as well as differentiable
  • (2) differentiable but not continuous
  • (3) continuous but not differentiable
  • (4) neither continuous nor differentiable

Question 95:

If \[ \int \frac{3x + 1}{(x-3)(x-5)} \, dx = \int \frac{-5}{(x-3)} \, dx + \int \frac{B}{(x-5)} \, dx, \]
then the value of \( B \) is:

  • (1) 3
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 6
  • (4) 8

Question 96:

The vector equation of the symmetrical form of equation of straight line \( \mathbf{r} = (3\hat{i} + 7\hat{j} + 2\hat{k}) + \lambda (5\hat{i} + 4\hat{j} - 6\hat{k}) \) is:

  • (1) \( \mathbf{r} = (5\hat{i} + 4\hat{j} - 6\hat{k}) + \mu (3\hat{i} + 7\hat{j} + 2\hat{k}) \)
  • (2) \( \mathbf{r} = (5\hat{i} - 4\hat{j} + 6\hat{k}) + \mu (3\hat{i} + 7\hat{j} + 2\hat{k}) \)
  • (3) \( \mathbf{r} = (3\hat{i} + 4\hat{j} - 6\hat{k}) + \mu (5\hat{i} + 7\hat{j} + 2\hat{k}) \)
  • (4) \( \mathbf{r} = (3\hat{i} + 4\hat{j} + 6\hat{k}) + \mu (5\hat{i} - 7\hat{j} + 2\hat{k}) \)

Question 97:

Let the line \( \frac{x^2}{2} - \frac{y^2}{1} = 1 \) lie in the plane \( x + 3y - oz + \beta = 0 \). Then \( \beta \) equals:

  • (1) \( (6, 7) \)
  • (2) \( (6, 7) \)
  • (3) \( (-6, 7) \)
  • (4) \( (6, 15) \)

Question 98:

The principal value of \( \sin^{-1} \left( \sin \frac{5\pi}{3} \right) \) is:

  • (1) \( -\frac{5\pi}{3} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{5\pi}{3} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{\pi}{3} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{4\pi}{3} \)

Question 99:

If \( \left[ 1 \quad x \quad 1 \right] \) is equal to \( \left[ 1 \quad 3 \quad 2 \right] \), then \( x \) is:

  • (1) \( -\frac{1}{2} \)
  • (2) 1
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
  • (4) 1

Question 100:

If \( A = \begin{pmatrix} -7 & -4
7 & 4 \end{pmatrix} \) and \( B = \begin{pmatrix} 4 & 1
2 & 7 \end{pmatrix} \), then which statement is true?

  • (1) \( A^T A = I \)
  • (2) \( B^T = I \)
  • (3) \( AB = BA \)
  • (4) \( (AB)^T = I \)

Question 101:

The value of \( c \) in Rolle's Theorem for the function \[ f(x) = e^x \sin x, \, x \in [0, \pi] \]
is:

  • (1) \( \frac{\pi}{6} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{\pi}{4} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{\pi}{2} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{3\pi}{4} \)

Question 102:

The area of the region bounded by the curve \( x = 2y + 3 \) and lines \( y = 1 \) and \( y = -1 \) is:

  • (1) 4 sq. units
  • (2) \( \frac{3}{2} \) sq. units
  • (3) 6 sq. units
  • (4) 8 sq. units

Question 103:

A signal which can be green or red with probability \( \frac{4}{5} \) and \( \frac{1}{5} \) respectively, is received by station A and then transmitted to station B. The probability of each station receiving the signal correctly is \( \frac{3}{4} \). If the signal received at station B is given, then the probability that the original signal is green is:

  • (1) \( \frac{3}{5} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{6}{7} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{20}{23} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{9}{20} \)

Question 104:

The value of the determinant \( \Delta = \begin{vmatrix} 1 & 4 & 3
0 & 12 & 9
1 & 2 & 2 \end{vmatrix} \) is:

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 6
  • (4) 8

Question 105:

If the equations \( x + ay = 0 \), \( 2x + y + az = 0 \), \( ax + y + 2z = 0 \) have non-trivial solutions, then \( a = \):

  • (1) 2
  • (2) -2
  • (3) \( \sqrt{3} \)
  • (4) \( -\sqrt{3} \)

Question 106:

If the I.F. of the differential equation \[ \frac{dy}{dx} + 5y = \cos x \sin x e^{Adx}, then A = \]

  • (1) 0
  • (2) 1
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 5

Question 107:

What is the length of the projection of \( 3\hat{i} + 4\hat{j} + 5\hat{k} \) on the xy-plane?

  • (1) 3
  • (2) 5
  • (3) 7
  • (4) 9

Question 108:

The radius of the sphere \[ x^2 + y^2 + z^2 = 49, \quad 2x + 3y - z - 5\sqrt{14} = 0 \]
is:

  • (1) \( \sqrt{6} \)
  • (2) \( \sqrt{2} \)
  • (3) \( \sqrt{4/6} \)
  • (4) \( \sqrt{6} \)

Question 109:

One of the values of \[ \left( \frac{1 + i}{\sqrt{2}} \right)^{2/3} \]
is:

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{2} \left( \sqrt{3} + i \right) \)
  • (2) \( -i \)
  • (3) \( i \)
  • (4) \( -\sqrt{3} + i \)

Question 110:

The value of \( \lambda \) does the line \( y = x + \lambda \) touches the ellipse \( 9x^2 + 16y^2 = 144 \) is:

  • (1) \( \pm 2\sqrt{2} \)
  • (2) \( \pm \sqrt{5} \)
  • (3) 5
  • (4) \( \pm 5 \)

Question 111:

The combined equation of the asymptotes of the hyperbola \[ 2x^2 + 5xy + 2y^2 + 4x + 5y = 0 \]
is:

  • (1) \( 2x^2 + 5xy + 2y^2 + 4x + 5y + 2 = 0 \)
  • (2) \( 2x^2 + 5xy + 2y^2 + 4x + 5y - 2 = 0 \)
  • (3) \( 2x^2 + 5xy + 2y^2 = 0 \)
  • (4) None of these

Question 112:

The two curves \( x^3 - 3x^2 + 2 = 0 \) and \( 3x y - y^3 - 2 = 0 \) intersect at an angle of:

  • (1) \( \frac{\pi}{4} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{\pi}{3} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{\pi}{2} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{\pi}{6} \)

Question 113:

If at \( x = 1 \), the function \( x^4 - 62x^2 + ax + 9 \) attains its maximum value on the interval \( [0, 2] \), then the value of \( a \) is:

  • (1) 110
  • (2) 10
  • (3) 55
  • (4) None of these

Question 114:

The value of \[ \int_{-1}^{1} (x - \lfloor x \rfloor) dx \quad (where \, \lfloor \cdot \rfloor \, denotes the greatest integer function) \]
is:

  • (1) 0
  • (2) 1
  • (3) 2
  • (4) None of these

Question 115:

The correct evaluation of \[ \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \sin^4 x \, dx \]
is:

  • (1) \( \frac{8\pi}{3} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{2\pi}{3} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{4\pi}{3} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{3\pi}{8} \)

Question 116:

The order and degree of the differential equation
whose solution is \( y = cx + c^2 - 3c^3y^2 + 2 \), where \( c \) is a parameter, is:

  • (1) order = 4, degree = 4
  • (2) order = 4, degree = 1
  • (3) order = 1, degree = 4
  • (4) None of these

Question 117:

The solution of \[ \frac{dv}{dt} + \frac{k}{m} v = -g \]
is:

  • (1) \( v = c e^{-\frac{k}{m} t} + \frac{mg}{k} \)
  • (2) \( v = c e^{\frac{k}{m} t} - \frac{mg}{k} \)
  • (3) \( v = c e^{\frac{k}{m} t} + \frac{mg}{k} \)
  • (4) \( v = c e^{-\frac{k}{m} t} - \frac{mg}{k} \)

Question 118:

A unit vector perpendicular to the plane formed by the points \( (1, 0, 1) \), \( (0, 2, 2) \), and \( (3, 3, 0) \) is:

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{5}} (5\hat{i} - \hat{j} - 7\hat{k}) \)
  • (2) \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}} (5\hat{i} + 7\hat{k}) \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}} (5\hat{i} + 7\hat{j} + 7\hat{k}) \)
  • (4) None of these

Question 119:

If \( \mathbf{a} = ( \hat{i} + \hat{j} + \hat{k} ) \), \( \mathbf{a} \times \mathbf{b} = \hat{i} - \hat{j} \), then \( \mathbf{b} \) is:

  • (1) \( \hat{i} + 2\hat{k} \)
  • (2) \( 2\hat{i} + 2\hat{k} \)
  • (3) \( 2\hat{i} - 2\hat{k} \)
  • (4) \( 2\hat{i} + 2\hat{j} \)

Question 120:

The mean and variance of a random variable \( X \) having binomial distribution are 4 and 2 respectively, then \( P(X = 1) \) is:

  • (1) \( \frac{3}{5} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{8} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{5}{12} \)

Directions (Qs. 121-123): Study the paragraph and answer the questions that follow:

Judiciary has become the centre of controversy, in the recent past, on account of the sudden 'Me' in the level of judicial intervention. The area of judicial intervention has been steadily expanding through the device of public interest litigation. The judiciary has shed its pro-status-quo approach and taken upon itself the duty to enforce the basic rights of the poor and vulnerable sections of society, by progressive interpretation and positive action. The Supreme Court has developed new methods of dispensing justice to the masses through the public interest litigation. Former Chief Justice PN. Bhagwat, under whose leadership public interest litigation attained a new dimension comments that "the Supreme Court has developed several new commitments. It has carried forward participative justice".

Question 121:

The steady expansion of judicial intervention is the result of:

  • (1) excessive laws
  • (2) public interest litigation
  • (3) Supreme Court's new methods of dispensing justice
  • (4) new commitments of Supreme Court

Question 122:

According to the author, judiciary has become the center of controversy because of:

  • (1) problems arising in dispensing justice in the recent past
  • (2) public interest litigation
  • (3) sudden 'Me' in the level of judicial intervention
  • (4) Supreme Court's supremacy

Question 123:

According to Justice PN. Bhagwat, Supreme Court has developed:

  • (1) judicial intervention
  • (2) various new commitments
  • (3) participative judicial approach to dispense justice
  • (4) public interest litigation

Directions (Q.124): In the questions below, a sentence is given, a part of which is printed in bold and underlined. This part may contain a grammatical error. Each sentence is followed by phrases a, b, c and d. Find out which phrase should replace the phrase given in bold/underline to correct the error, if there is any, to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct.

Question
124:

Recent incidents of tigers straying have brought to focus the lack of proper regulatory mechanism and powers with the forest department to take action against the resorts mushroom in forest fringes.

  • (1) and powers with the forest department to taking action against the resorts mushroom in forest fringes
  • (2) and powers with the forest departments to take action against the resorts mushroom in forest fringes
  • (3) and powers with the forest department to take action against the resorts mushrooming in forest fringes
  • (4) and powers with the forest department to take action against the resorts mushroom in forest fringes

Question 125:

Choose the best pronunciation of the word 'Mischievous' from the following options:

  • (1) Mis-chi-vus
  • (2) Mis-chi-vies
  • (3) Mis-chi-vus
  • (4) Mis-chi-vies