VITEEE 2017 Question Paper is available for download here. VITEEE 2017 Question Paper includes 40 questions from Mathematics/Biology, 35 questions from Physics, 35 questions from Chemistry, 5 questions from English, 10 questions from Aptitude to be attempted in 150 minutes. Candidates can download the VITEEE 2017 Question Paper with Solution PDF using the link below.

VITEEE 2017 Question Paper with Solution PDF

VITEEE 2017 Question Paper with Solution PDF Download PDF Check Solution

Question 1:

A 5000 kg rocket is set for vertical firing. The exhaust speed is 800 m/s. To give an initial upward acceleration of 20 m/s\(^2\), the amount of gas ejected per second to supply the needed thrust will be (Take \(g = 10 \, m/s^2\))

  • (1) 127.5 kg/s
  • (2) 137.5 kg/s
  • (3) 155.5 kg/s
  • (4) 187.5 kg/s

Question 2:

The power dissipated in the circuit shown in the figure is 30 Watts. The value of \( R \) is


  • (1) 20 \(\Omega\)
  • (2) 15 \(\Omega\)
  • (3) 10 \(\Omega\)
  • (4) 30 \(\Omega\)

Question 3:

If the kinetic energy of a moving particle is \( E \), then the de-Broglie wavelength is

  • (1) \( \lambda = h \sqrt{2mE} \)
  • (2) \( \lambda = \frac{h}{\sqrt{2mE}} \)
  • (3) \( \lambda = \frac{h}{\sqrt{2E}} \)
  • (4) \( \lambda = \frac{hE}{\sqrt{2mE}} \)

Question 4:

Two bodies A and B having masses in the ratio of 3 : 1 possess the same kinetic energy. The ratio of linear momentum of B to A is

  • (1) 1 : 3
  • (2) 1 : \( \sqrt{3} \)
  • (3) 1 : \( \sqrt{5} \)
  • (4) \( \sqrt{3} \) : 1

Question 5:

In which sequence the radioactive radiations are emitted in the following nuclear reaction? \[ Z^{X}A \rightarrow Z+1Y^{A} \rightarrow Z-1K^{A-4} \]

  • (1) \( \gamma, \alpha, \beta \)
  • (2) \( \alpha, \beta, \gamma \)
  • (3) \( \beta, \gamma, \alpha \)
  • (4) \( \gamma, \beta, \alpha \)

Question 6:

Which of the following does not support the wave nature of light?

  • (1) Interference
  • (2) Diffraction
  • (3) Polarisation
  • (4) Photoelectric effect

Question 7:

Six identical conducting rods are joined as shown in the figure. Points A and D are maintained at 200\(^\circ C\) and 20\(^\circ C\) respectively. The temperature of junction B will be

  • (1) 120\(^\circ C\)
  • (2) 100\(^\circ C\)
  • (3) 140\(^\circ C\)
  • (4) 80\(^\circ C\)

Question 8:

A hydrogen atom is in ground state. Then to get six lines in emission spectrum, wavelength of incident radiation should be

  • (1) 800 \(\mathring{A}\)
  • (2) 825 \(\mathring{A}\)
  • (3) 975 \(\mathring{A}\)
  • (4) 1025 \(\mathring{A}\)

Question 9:

A conducting circular loop of radius \( r \) carries a constant current \( i \). It is placed in a uniform magnetic field \( \vec{B} \) such that \( \vec{B} \) is perpendicular to the plane of the loop. The magnetic force acting on the loop is

  • (1) \( irB_0 \)
  • (2) \( 2\pi irB_0 \)
  • (3) zero
  • (4) \( irB_0 \)

Question 10:

A vessel of depth 2d cm is half-filled with a liquid of refractive index \( \mu_1 \) and the upper half with a liquid of refractive index \( \mu_2 \). The apparent depth of the vessel seen perpendicularly is

  • (1) \( \frac{\mu_1 + \mu_2}{\mu_1 + \mu_2} \, d \)
  • (2) \( \frac{1}{\mu_1 + \mu_2} \, d \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{\mu_1 + \mu_2} \, 2d \)
  • (4) \( \frac{1}{\mu_1 + \mu_2} \, d \)

Question 11:

A smooth sphere of mass \( M \) moving with velocity \( u \) directly collides elastically with another sphere of mass \( m \) at rest. After collision, their final velocities are \( V \) and \( v \) respectively. The value of \( v \) is

  • (1) \( \frac{2uM}{m} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{2uM}{M} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{2u}{1 + m/M} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{2u}{1 + M/m} \)

Question 12:

Two capacitors \( C_1 \) and \( C_2 \) in a circuit are joined as shown in the figure. The potentials of points A and B are \( V_1 \) and \( V_2 \), respectively. Then the potential of point D will be

  • (1) \( \frac{V_1 + V_2}{2} \)
  • (2) \( C_1 V_1 + C_2 V_2 \)
  • (3) \( \frac{C_1 V_1 + C_2 V_2}{C_1 + C_2} \)
  • (4) \( C_2 V_1 + C_1 V_2 \)

Question 13:

Light of wavelength 500 nm is incident on a metal with work function \( 2.28 \, eV \). The de Broglie wavelength of the emitted electron is:

  • (1) \( < 2.8 \times 10^{-9} \, m \)
  • (2) \( > 2.8 \times 10^{-10} \, m \)
  • (3) \( < 5.2 \times 10^{-12} \, m \)
  • (4) \( < 2.8 \times 10^{-10} \, m \)

Question 14:

Kerosene oil rises up in a wick of a lantern because of

  • (1) diffusion of the oil through the wick
  • (2) capillary action
  • (3) buoyant force of air
  • (4) the gravitational pull of the wick

Question 15:

The current in a coil of \( L = 40 \, mH \) is to be increased uniformly from 1 A to 11 A in 4 milli sec. The induced e.m.f. will be

  • (1) 100 V
  • (2) 4 V
  • (3) 40 V
  • (4) 440 V

Question 16:

An alternating voltage of 220 V, 50 Hz frequency is applied across a capacitor of capacitance 2 μF. The impedance of the circuit is

  • (1) \( \frac{\pi}{5000} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{1000}{5000 \pi} \)
  • (3) \( 500 \pi \)
  • (4) \( 500 \pi \)

Question 17:

The combination of gates shown below yields

  • (1) OR gate
  • (2) XOR gate
  • (3) AND gate
  • (4) NOT gate

Question 18:

A hollow insulated conduction sphere is given a positive charge of 10 μC. What will be the electric field at the centre of the sphere if its radius is 2 meters?

  • (1) Zero
  • (2) 5 μCm\(^{-2}\)
  • (3) \( 8 \, \mu C/m^2 \)
  • (4) 5 \( \mu C/m^2 \)

Question 19:

Two mercury drops (each of radius \( r \)) merge to form a bigger drop. The surface energy of the bigger drop is, if \( T \) is the surface tension, is

  • (1) \( 2\pi r^2 T \)
  • (2) \( 4\pi r^2 T \)
  • (3) \( 2^2 \pi r^2 T \)
  • (4) \( 2T^2 \)

Question 20:

Resistances 1 \( \Omega \), 2 \( \Omega \), and 3 \( \Omega \) are connected to form a triangle. If a 1.5 V cell of negligible internal resistance is connected across the 3 \( \Omega \) resistor, the current flowing through this resistor will be

  • (1) 0.25 A
  • (2) 0.5 A
  • (3) 1.0 A
  • (4) 1.5 A

Question 21:

A current carrying coil is subjected to a uniform magnetic field. The coil will orient so that its plane becomes

  • (1) inclined at 45\(^\circ\) to the magnetic field
  • (2) inclined at any arbitrary angle to the magnetic field
  • (3) parallel to the magnetic field
  • (4) perpendicular to the magnetic field

Question 22:

The value of \( \tan(90^\circ - \theta) \) in the graph gives

  • (1) Young's modulus of elasticity
  • (2) compressibility
  • (3) shear strain
  • (4) tensile strength

Question 23:

An electron makes a transition from an excited state to the ground state of a hydrogen-like atom. Then

  • (1) kinetic energy decreases, potential energy increases but total energy remains the same
  • (2) kinetic energy and total energy decrease but potential energy increases
  • (3) its kinetic energy increases but potential energy and total energy decrease
  • (4) kinetic energy, potential energy and total energy decrease

Question 24:

An A.C. source is connected to a resistive circuit. Which of the following is true?

  • (1) Current leads ahead of voltage in phase
  • (2) Current lags behind voltage in phase
  • (3) Current and voltage are in same phase
  • (4) Any of the above may be true depending upon the value of resistance

Question 25:

A milli voltmeter of 25 milli volt range is to be converted into an ammeter of 25 ampere range. The value (in ohms) of necessary shunt will be

  • (1) 0.001
  • (2) 0.005
  • (3) 0.1
  • (4) 0.5

Question 26:

In Young's double-slit experiment, the intensity of light at a point on the screen where the path difference is \( \frac{\lambda}{4} \), will be

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{4} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
  • (3) zero
  • (4) one

Question 27:

Which of the following is a self-adjusting force?

  • (1) Static friction
  • (2) Limiting friction
  • (3) Dynamic friction
  • (4) Sliding friction

Question 28:

Which of the following are not electromagnetic waves?

  • (1) Cosmic rays
  • (2) Gamma rays
  • (3) \( \beta \)-rays
  • (4) X-rays

Question 29:

Graph of specific heat at constant volume for a monatomic gas is


Question 30:

A charge \( +q \) is at a distance \( L/2 \) above a square of side \( L \). Then what is the flux linked with the surface?

  • (1) \( \frac{q}{4 \epsilon_0} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{2q}{3 \epsilon_0} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{q}{3 \epsilon_0} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{6q}{\epsilon_0} \)

Question 31:

The potential energy of a system increases if work is done

  • (1) upon the system by a non-conservative force
  • (2) by the system against a conservative force
  • (3) by the system against a non-conservative force
  • (4) upon the system by a conservative force

Question 32:

Two capacitors when connected in series have a capacitance of 3 μF, and when connected in parallel have a capacitance of 16 μF. Their individual capacities are

  • (1) 12 μF, 2 μF
  • (2) 6 μF, 2 μF
  • (3) 4 μF, 12 μF
  • (4) 3 μF, 2 μF

Question 33:

Resonance frequency of LCR series a.c. circuit is \( f_0 \). Now the capacitance is made 4 times, then the new resonance frequency will become

  • (1) \( \frac{f_0}{4} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{f_0}{2} \)
  • (3) \( 2f_0 \)
  • (4) \( f_0 / 2 \)

Question 34:

If the light is polarised by reflection, then the angle between reflected and refracted light is

  • (1) 180\(^\circ\)
  • (2) 90\(^\circ\)
  • (3) 45\(^\circ\)
  • (4) 36\(^\circ\)

Question 35:

The velocity of efflux of a liquid through an orifice in the bottom of the tank does not depend upon

  • (1) size of orifice
  • (2) height of liquid
  • (3) acceleration due to gravity
  • (4) density of liquid

Question 36:

On a smooth plane surface (figure) two block A and B are accelerated by up by applying a force 15 N. If mass of B is twice that of A, the force on B is

  • (1) 30 N
  • (2) 15 N
  • (3) 10 N
  • (4) 5 N

Question 37:

A potentiometer wire, 10 m long, has a resistance of 400 \( \Omega \). It is connected in series with a resistance box and a 2 V storage cell. If the potential gradient along the wire 0.1 m is V/cm, the resistance unplugged in the box is

  • (1) 260 \( \Omega \)
  • (2) 760 \( \Omega \)
  • (3) 960 \( \Omega \)
  • (4) 1060 \( \Omega \)

Question 38:

A prism has a refracting angle of 60°. When placed in the position of minimum deviation, it produces a deviation of 30°. The angle of incidence is

  • (1) 30°
  • (2) 45°
  • (3) 60°
  • (4) 15°

Question 39:

Transfer characteristics (output voltage \( V_o \) vs input voltage \( V_i \)) for a base biased transistor in CE configuration is as shown in the figure. For using the transistor as a switch, it is used

  • (1) in region (III)
  • (2) both in region (I) and (III)
  • (3) in region (II)
  • (4) in region (I)

Question 40:

A bar magnet of magnetic moment \( M \), is placed in a magnetic field of induction \( B \). The torque exerted on it is

  • (1) \( M \times B \)
  • (2) \( - M \times B \)
  • (3) \( \vec{M} \times \vec{B} \)
  • (4) \( - \vec{M} \times \vec{B} \)

Question 41:

Schottky defect in crystals is observed when

  • (1) unequal number of cations and anions are missing from the lattice
  • (2) equal number of cations and anions are missing from the lattice
  • (3) an ion leaves its normal site and occupies an interstitial site
  • (4) density of the crystal is increased

Question 42:

The cyclobutyl methylene with nitrous acid gives


Question 43:

The exothermic formation of \( ClF_3 \) is represented by the equation: \[ Cl_2(g) + 3F_2(g) \rightarrow 2ClF_3(g); \Delta H = -329 \, kJ \]
Which of the following will increase the quantity of \( ClF_3 \) in an equilibrium mixture of \( Cl_2 \), \( F_2 \), and \( ClF_3 \)?

  • (1) Adding \( F_2 \)
  • (2) Increasing the volume of the container
  • (3) Removing \( Cl_2 \)
  • (4) Increasing the temperature

Question 44:

For the reaction \[ 2NO_2(g) \rightarrow 2NO(g) + O_2(g); K_c = 1.8 \times 10^{-4} at 184^\circ C \]
When \( K_p \) and \( K_c \) are compared at 184°C, it is found that

  • (1) Whether \( K_p \) is greater than, less than or equal to \( K_c \) depends upon the total gas pressure
  • (2) \( K_p = K_c \)
  • (3) \( K_p \) is less than \( K_c \)
  • (4) \( K_p \) is greater than \( K_c \)

Question 45:

What is X in the following reaction?


Question 46:

A compound \( M X \) has cubic close packing (ccp) arrangement of \( X \). Its unit cell structure is shown below. The empirical formula of the compound is

  • (1) \( M X \)
  • (2) \( M_2 X \)
  • (3) \( M X_2 \)
  • (4) \( M_3 X_4 \)

Question 47:

What is Z in the following sequence of reactions? \[ Phenol \xrightarrow{Zn dust} CH_6 \xrightarrow{Alkaline KMnO_4} Z \]

  • (1) Benzene
  • (2) Toluene
  • (3) Benzaldehyde
  • (4) Benzoic acid

Question 48:

Which of the following oxy-acids has the maximum number of hydrogens directly attached to phosphorus?

  • (1) \( H_3 PO_3 \)
  • (2) \( H_2 PO_3 \)
  • (3) \( H_3 PO_4 \)
  • (4) \( H_2 PO_4 \)

Question 49:

The number of geometrical isomers of \( CH_3 CH = CH - CH - CH_2 \) is

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 6
  • (4) 8

Question 50:

If \( a \) stands for the edge length of the cubic systems: simple cubic, body centered cubic and face centered cubic, then the ratio of radii of the spheres in these systems will be respectively

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{2} \sqrt{3} \, a \)
  • (2) \( \frac{\sqrt{3}}{4} \, a \)
  • (3) \( \frac{\sqrt{2}}{4} \, a \)
  • (4) \( \frac{a}{\sqrt{2}} \)

Question 51:

For a first order reaction \( A \rightarrow P \), the temperature \( (T) \) dependent rate constant \( k \) was found to follow the equation \[ \log k = -\frac{2000}{T} + 6.0 \]
The pre-exponential factor \( A \) and the activation energy \( E_a \) respectively, are

  • (1) \( 1.0 \times 10^5 \, s^{-1} \) and 9.2 kJ mol\(^{-1}\)
  • (2) \( 6.0 \times 10^5 \, s^{-1} \) and 16.6 kJ mol\(^{-1}\)
  • (3) \( 1.0 \times 10^6 \, s^{-1} \) and 16.6 kJ mol\(^{-1}\)
  • (4) \( 1.0 \times 10^6 \, s^{-1} \) and 38.3 kJ mol\(^{-1}\)

Question 52:

1-Propanol and 2-propanol can be distinguished by

  • (1) oxidation with alkaline KMnO\(_4\) followed by reaction with Fehling solution
  • (2) oxidation with acidic dichromate followed by reaction with Fehling solution
  • (3) oxidation by heating with copper followed by reaction with Fehling solution
  • (4) oxidation with concentrated H\(_2\)SO\(_4\) followed by reaction with Fehling solution

Question 53:

Which group contains coloured ions out of

  • (1) Cu\(^{2+} \)
  • (2) Co\(^{2+} \)
  • (3) Fe\(^{2+} \)
  • (4) Ti\(^{4+} \)

Question 54:

The half life period of a first order chemical reaction is 6.93 minutes. The time required for the completion of 99% of the chemical reaction will be

  • (1) 23.03 minutes
  • (2) 46.06 minutes
  • (3) 460.6 minutes
  • (4) 230.03 minutes

Question 55:

A mixture of benzaldehyde and formaldehyde on heating with aqueous NaOH solution gives

  • (1) sodium benzoate and sodium formate
  • (2) sodium benzoate and methyl alcohol
  • (3) benzyl alcohol and methyl alcohol
  • (4) benzyl alcohol and sodium formate

Question 56:

In the following reaction sequence, the correct structures of F, F, and G are


Question 57:

Standard entropies of \( X_2 \), \( Y_2 \), and \( X Y_3 \) are 60, 30, and 30 J mol\(^{-1}\) K\(^{-1}\) respectively. For the reaction \[ \frac{1}{2} X_2 + Y_2 \rightarrow X Y_3, \, \Delta H = -30 \, kJ \]
at equilibrium, the temperature should be

  • (1) 750 K
  • (2) 1000 K
  • (3) 1250 K
  • (4) 500 K

Question 58:

An organic compound (A) on reduction gives compound (B). (B) on treatment with CHCl\(_3\) and alcoholic KOH gives N-methyl aniline. The compound A is

  • (1) Methylamine
  • (2) Aniline
  • (3) Nitromethane
  • (4) Nitrobenzene

Question 59:

The standard reduction potential for \( Cu^{2+} / Cu \) is +0.34 V. Calculate the reduction potential at pH = 14 for the above couple. \[ K_{sp} (Cu(OH)_2) = 1 \times 10^{-19} \]

  • (1) -0.22 V
  • (2) +0.22 V
  • (3) -0.44 V
  • (4) +0.44 V

Question 60:

A substance C\(_4\)H\(_8\)O yields on oxidation a compound, C\(_4\)H\(_8\)O\(\) which gives an oxime and a positive iodoform test. The original substance on treatment with conc. H\(_2\)SO\(_4\) gives C\(_4\)H\(_8\). The structure of the compound is

  • (1) CH\(_3\)COCH\(_2\)OH
  • (2) CH\(_3\)COOH
  • (3) CH\(_3\)COCH\(_2\)CH\(_3\)
  • (4) CH\(_3\)CH\(_2\)OH

Question 61:

The emf of a particular voltaic cell with the cell reaction \[ Hg_2^{2+} + H_2 \rightleftharpoons 2 Hg + 2 H^+ \]
is 0.65 V. The maximum electrical work of this cell when 0.5 g of \( H_2 \) is consumed is

  • (1) \( -3.12 \times 10^4 \, J \)
  • (2) \( -1.25 \times 10^6 \, J \)
  • (3) \( 25.0 \times 10^6 \, J \)
  • (4) None

Question 62:

The number of aldol reaction(s) that occurs in the given transformation is:
\[ CH_3CHO + 4CH_3CHO \]

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 4

Question 63:

Which of the following is not intermediate in the acid catalysed reaction of benzaldehyde with 2 equivalent of methanol to give acetal?


Question 64:

Iron crystallizes in several modifications. At about 911°C, the bcc ‘a’ form undergoes a transition to the ‘\(\gamma\)’ form. If the distance between the two nearest neighbors is the same in the two forms at the transition temperature, the ratio of the density of iron in \( ferrite (\rho_1) \) to that of iron in \( austenite (\rho_2) \) at the transition temperature is

  • (1) \( \frac{\rho_1}{\rho_2} = 0.918 \)
  • (2) \( \frac{\rho_1}{\rho_2} = 0.718 \)
  • (3) \( \frac{\rho_1}{\rho_2} = 0.518 \)
  • (4) \( \frac{\rho_1}{\rho_2} = 0.318 \)

Question 65:

The half-life of the first order reaction \[ CH_3CHO (g) \rightarrow CH_4 (g) + CO (g) \]
If initial pressure of \( CH_3CHO \) is 80 mm Hg and the total pressure at the end of 20 minutes is 120 mm Hg

  • (1) 80 minutes
  • (2) 120 minutes
  • (3) 40 minutes
  • (4) 60 minutes

Question 66:

A compound is soluble in conc. H\(_2\)SO\(_4\). It does not decolourise bromine in carbon tetrachloride but is oxidised by chromic anhydride in aqueous sulphuric acid within two seconds, turning orange solution to blue, green and then opaque. The original compound is

  • (1) a primary alcohol
  • (2) a tertiary alcohol
  • (3) an alkane
  • (4) an alkene

Question 67:

The values of Planck's constant is 6.63 × 10\(^{-34}\) J·s. The velocity of light is 3 × 10\(^{8}\) m/s. Which value is closest to the wavelength in nanometers of a quantum of light with frequency of \( 8 \times 10^{15} \, s^{-1} \)?

  • (1) \( 5 \times 10^{-18} \)
  • (2) \( 4 \times 10^{-10} \)
  • (3) \( 3 \times 10^{7} \)
  • (4) \( 2 \times 10^{-15} \)

Question 68:

The number of stereoisomers possible for a compound of the molecular formula \( CH_3 CH = CH - CH - CH_2 \) is:

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 6
  • (4) 8

Question 69:

The optically active tartaric acid is named as D - (+) tartaric acid because it has a positive

  • (1) optical rotation and is derived from D - glucose
  • (2) optical rotation and is derived from D - glyceraldehyde
  • (3) optical rotation and is derived from substituted optical rotation
  • (4) optical rotation when substituted by deuterium

Question 70:

Consider the reaction: \[ N_2 (g) + 3 H_2 (g) \rightarrow 2 NH_3 (g) \]
carried out at constant temperature and pressure. If \( \Delta H \) and \( \Delta U \) are the enthalpy and internal energy changes for the reaction, which of the following expressions is true?

  • (1) \( \Delta H = \Delta U \)
  • (2) \( \Delta H > \Delta U \)
  • (3) \( \Delta H < \Delta U \)
  • (4) \( \Delta H = 0 \)

Question 71:

What is D in the following sequence of reactions?


Question 72:

Knowing that the chemistry of lanthanoids (Ln) is dominated by its +3 oxidation state, which of the following statements is incorrect?

  • (1) The ionic size of \( Ln^{3+} \) decreases in general with increasing atomic number
  • (2) \( Ln (III) \) compounds are generally colourless.
  • (3) \( Ln (III) \) hydroxides are mainly basic in character.
  • (4) Because of the large size of the \( Ln (III) \) ions, the bonding in its compounds is predominantly ionic in character.

Question 73:

What is the R and S configuration for each stereogenic center in this sugar from top to bottom?


  • (1) R, R, S
  • (2) R, S, R
  • (3) S, S, R
  • (4) S, R, R

Question 74:

Saponification of coconut oil yields glycerol and palmitic acid.

  • (1) sodium palmitate
  • (2) citric acid
  • (3) oleic acid
  • (4) stearic acid

Question 75:

A certain reaction is non spontaneous at 298 K. The entropy change during the reaction is 121 J K\(^{-1}\). Is the reaction endothermic or exothermic? The minimum value of \( \Delta H \) for the reaction is

  • (1) endothermic, \( \Delta H = 36.06 \, kJ \)
  • (2) exothermic, \( \Delta H = -36.06 \, kJ \)
  • (3) endothermic, \( \Delta H = 60.12 \, kJ \)
  • (4) exothermic, \( \Delta H = -60.12 \, kJ \)

Question 76:

\( p \)-cresol reacts with chloroform in alkaline medium to give the compound A which adds hydrogen cyanide to form the compound B. The latter on acidic hydrolysis gives chiral carboxylic acid. The structure of the carboxylic acid is


Question 77:

Which of the following has maximum number of lone pairs associated with Xe?

  • (1) XeF\(_4\)
  • (2) XeF\(_6\)
  • (3) XeF\(_2\)
  • (4) XeO\(_3\)

Question 78:

Which of the following statements is not true regarding \( (+) \) Lactose?

  • (1) On hydrolysis \( (+) \) Lactose gives equal amount of D\( ^+ \)glucose and D\( ^+ \)galactose
  • (2) \( (+) \) Lactose is a \( \beta \)-glycoside formed by the union of one molecule of D\( ^+ \)glucose and a molecule of D\( ^+ \)galactose.
  • (3) \( (+) \) Lactose is a reducing sugar and does not exhibit mutarotation.
  • (4) \( (+) \) Lactose, \( C_{12}H_{22}O_{11} \) contains 8-OH groups.

Question 79:

If one strand of DNA has the sequence \[ ATGCCTGA, the sequence in the complimentary strand would be \]

  • (1) TAGGAACCT
  • (2) TCCGAACT
  • (3) TACGGAACG
  • (4) TAGCTGAT

Question 80:

The starting reagents needed to make the azo compound shown below


Question 81:

\( \sin\left( \sin 5 \right) = x^2 - 4x \) holds if

  • (1) \( x = -2 \pm \sqrt{9 - 2\pi} \)
  • (2) \( x = 2 \pm \sqrt{9 - 2\pi} \)
  • (3) \( x > 2 + \sqrt{9 - 2\pi} \)
  • (4) \( x < 2 + \sqrt{9 - 2\pi} \)

Question 82:

A value of \( c \) for which conclusion of Mean Value Theorem holds for the function \( f(x) = \log x \) on the interval [1, 3] is

  • (1) \( \log 3 \)
  • (2) \( \log 2 \)
  • (3) \( \log 3 \)
  • (4) \( \frac{1}{\log 3} \)

Question 83:

Negation of the proposition: If we control population growth, we prosper is

  • (1) If we do not control population growth, we prosper
  • (2) If we control population growth, we do not prosper
  • (3) We control population but we do not prosper
  • (4) We do not control population, but we prosper

Question 84:

The equation \( z^2 + (2 - 3i)z + (2 + 3i) = 4 = 0 \) represents a circle of radius

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 4
  • (4) 6

Question 85:

The function \( f(x) = \sin x - kx - c \), where \( k \) and \( c \) are constants, decreases always when

  • (1) \( k > 1 \)
  • (2) \( k \le 1 \)
  • (3) \( k < 1 \)
  • (4) \( k \le 0 \)

Question 86:

Equation \( \frac{1}{8} \sin^3 x = \cos 6x \) represents

  • (1) A rectangular hyperbola
  • (2) A hyperbola
  • (3) An ellipse
  • (4) A parabola

Question 87:

The acceleration of a sphere falling through a liquid is \( (30 - 3y) \, cm/s^2 \) where \( y \) is speed in cm/s. The maximum possible velocity of the sphere and the time when it is achieved are

  • (1) 10 cm/s after 10 second
  • (2) 10 cm/s instantly
  • (3) 10 cm/s, will never be achieved
  • (4) 30 cm/s, after 30 second

Question 88:

A straight line parallel to the line \( 2x + y - 5 = 0 \) is also a tangent to the curve \( y^2 = 4x + 5 \). Then the point of contact is

  • (1) (2, 1)
  • (2) (-1, 1)
  • (3) (-1, -1)
  • (4) (3, 4)

Question 89:

Value of \[ \int_0^{\pi/2} \frac{\sqrt{\sin x}}{\sin x + \cos x} \, dx \]

  • (1) \( \frac{\pi}{2} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{\pi}{4} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{\pi}{6} \)
  • (4) None of these

Question 90:

The range of the function \[ f(x) = \frac{1}{2 - \cos 3x} \]
is

  • (1) (-2, ∞)
  • (2) [-3, 3]
  • (3) [1, 2]
  • (4) [1, ∞)

Question 91:

The area bounded by \( y = |x| \), \( y = 0 \) and \( |x| = \frac{1}{2} \) will be:

  • (1) \( \frac{3}{4} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{5}{4} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{5}{4} \)
  • (4) None of these

Question 92:

The value of \( x \) obtained from the equation
\[ \frac{x + \alpha}{\gamma} = \frac{x + \beta}{\alpha} = \frac{x + \gamma}{\beta} \]

will be

  • (1) \( x = \alpha + \beta + \gamma \)
  • (2) \( x = \alpha + \beta + \gamma \)
  • (3) \( x = \frac{1}{\alpha + \beta + \gamma} \)
  • (4) None of these

Question 93:

The solution of the differential equation \[ \log x \frac{dy}{dx} + x = \sin 2x \]

is

  • (1) \( \log |x| = C - \cos x \)
  • (2) \( \log |x| = C - \frac{1}{2} \cos 2x \)
  • (3) \( \log |x| = C - \cos 2x \)
  • (4) \( \log |x| = C - \frac{1}{2} \cos 2x \)

Question 94:

\[ \lim_{x \to \infty} \frac{x^2}{3x - 3} = ? \]

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 5

Question 95:

If \( \vec{a} \times \vec{b} \) and \( \vec{c} \times \vec{d} \) are perpendicular, then which of the following is always true?

  • (1) \( \vec{a}, \vec{b}, \vec{c}, \vec{d} \) are necessarily coplanar
  • (2) Either \( \vec{a} \cdot \vec{d} \) must lie in the plane of \( \vec{b} \) and \( \vec{c} \)
  • (3) Either \( \vec{a} \cdot \vec{b} \) must lie in the plane of \( \vec{c} \) and \( \vec{d} \)
  • (4) Either \( \vec{a} \cdot \vec{b} \) must lie in the plane of \( \vec{c} \) and \( \vec{d} \)

Question 96:

Let A be the centre of the circle \( x^2 + y^2 - 2x - 4y - 20 = 0 \), and B(1, 7) and D(4, -2) are points on the circle then, if tangents are drawn at B and D, which meet at C, then area of quadrilateral ABCD is

  • (1) 150
  • (2) 75
  • (3) 25
  • (4) None of these

Question 97:

\[ \int \left[ f'(x) \left( g(x) \right)^2 \right] dx \]

is equal to:

  • (1) \( \left[ f(x) \right]^2 \)
  • (2) \( f(x)g(x) \)
  • (3) \( f(x)g(x) \)
  • (4) None of these

Question 98:

If \( x = -\frac{7}{3} \), then \( x^4 \) is

  • (1) \( 27 \)
  • (2) \( 27 \)
  • (3) \( 21 \)
  • (4) \( 27^4 \)

Question 99:

The difference between greatest and least value of \[ f(x) = 2 \sin x + \sin 2x, \, x \in \left[ 0, \frac{3\pi}{2} \right] \]
is

  • (1) \( \frac{3}{5} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{3}{2} \)
  • (3) \( \sqrt{5} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{3}{2} \)

Question 100:

A and B are two independent witnesses (i.e., there is no collision between them) in a case. The probability that A will speak the truth is \( x \) and the probability that B will speak the truth is \( y \). A and B agree in a certain statement. The probability that the statement is true is

  • (1) \( x - y \)
  • (2) \( x + y \)
  • (3) \( 1 - x + y \)
  • (4) \( 1 - x + 2xy \)

Question 101:

A and B are events such that \( P(A \cup B) = 3/4 \), \( P(A) = 1/4 \), and \( P(A \cap B) = 2/3 \). Then the probability that \( P(A \cap B) \) is

  • (1) \( 5/12 \)
  • (2) \( 5/8 \)
  • (3) \( 3/8 \)
  • (4) \( 1/4 \)

Question 102:

The line which passes through the origin and intersects the two lines \[ \frac{x - 1}{2} = \frac{y - 3}{4} = \frac{z - 14}{4} \]
is

  • (1) \( \frac{x}{3} = \frac{y}{5} = \frac{z}{5} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{x}{3} = \frac{y}{5} = \frac{z}{7} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{x}{3} = \frac{y}{2} = \frac{z}{5} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{x}{5} = \frac{y}{7} = \frac{z}{5} \)

Question 103:

If \( u_n = \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{4}} \tan \theta d\theta \), then \( u_{n+2} \) is:

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{n-1} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{1}{n+1} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{2n-1} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{1}{2n+1} \)

Question 104:

Ten different letters of an alphabet are given, words with five letters are formed from these given letters. Then the number of words which have at least one letter repeated is

  • (1) \( 69760 \)
  • (2) \( 30240 \)
  • (3) \( 99784 \)
  • (4) None of these

Question 105:

The area bounded by \( f(x) = x^2, 0 \leq x \leq 1 \), and \( g(x) = x + 2, 1 \leq x \leq 2 \) and x-axis is

  • (1) \( \frac{3}{2} \)
  • (2) \( 2 \)
  • (3) \( 8 \)
  • (4) None of these

Question 106:

The condition that the line \( \frac{x}{p} + \frac{y}{q} = 1 \) be normal to the parabola \( y^2 = 4ax \) is

  • (1) \( p^3 = 2a p^2 + a^3 \)
  • (2) \( p^3 = 2a p^2 + 2a^2 p \)
  • (3) \( p^3 = 2a^2 + a^3 \)
  • (4) \( p^3 = 2a p^2 + 2a^3 \)

Question 107:

A random variable \( X \) has the probability distribution
\[ P(X) = \{ 0.15, 0.23, 0.12, 0.10, 0.20, 0.07, 0.06, 0.08 \} \]

For the events \( E = \{ X is a prime number \} \) and \( F = \{ X < 4 \} \), then \( P(E \cup F) \) is

  • (1) 0.50
  • (2) 0.77
  • (3) 0.35
  • (4) 0.87

Question 108:

The value of \( \tan^{-1} \left( \frac{1}{2} \right) + \tan^{-1} \left( \frac{1}{3} \right) \) is

  • (1) \( \tan^{-1} 7 \)
  • (2) \( \tan^{-1} 15 \)
  • (3) \( \tan^{-1} 5 \)
  • (4) None of these

Question 109:

The parabola having its focus at (3, 2) and directrix along the y-axis has its vertex at

  • (1) (2, 2)
  • (2) \( \left( \frac{3}{2}, 2 \right) \)
  • (3) \( \left( 3, \frac{2}{3} \right) \)
  • (4) \( (1, 2) \)

Question 110:

The rank of the matrix \[ \begin{pmatrix} 1 & 2 & 5
2 & 4 & 4
3 & 6 & 6 \end{pmatrix} \]

is

  • (1) 1 if \( a = 6 \)
  • (2) 2 if \( a = 1 \)
  • (3) 3 if \( a = 4 \)
  • (4) None of these

Question 111:

If \( f(x) = \cos x + 1 \) and \( f'(x) = 2 \cos x \), then \[ \int_0^\frac{\pi}{2} f(x)dx \]

is equal to

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{3} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{5}{3} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
  • (4) 1

Question 112:

The distance of the point \( (1, -2, 3) \) from the plane \( x - y + z = 5 \) measured parallel to the line \[ \frac{x}{2} = \frac{y}{3} = \frac{z - 1}{6} \]
is

  • (1) \( \frac{3}{2} \)
  • (2) 3
  • (3) \( \sqrt{5} \)
  • (4) 4

Question 113:

The tangent lines to the curve \( y^2 = 4ax \) at points where \( x = a \), are

  • (1) parallel
  • (2) perpendicular
  • (3) inclined at \( 60^\circ \)
  • (4) inclined at \( 30^\circ \)

Question 114:

If the eccentricity of the hyperbola \[ x^2 - y^2 \cos^2 \alpha = 25 \]
is \( \sqrt{5} \), then the eccentricity of the ellipse \[ x^2 \cos^2 \alpha + y^2 = 5 \]
is equal to:

  • (1) \( \sqrt{2} \)
  • (2) \( \sin^{-1} \frac{3}{4} \)
  • (3) \( \sin^{-1} \frac{\sqrt{5}}{4} \)
  • (4) None of these

Question 115:

The conditional \( (P \land Q) \Rightarrow P \) is

  • (1) A tautology
  • (2) A fallacy, i.e., contradiction
  • (3) Neither tautology nor fallacy
  • (4) None of these

Question 116:

The set of points of discontinuity of the function \[ f(x) = \sin (2 \sin x) \sin^2 x \]
is given by

  • (1) \( \mathbb{R} \)
  • (2) \( \left[ \frac{\pi}{3}, \infty \right) \)
  • (3) \( \mathbb{R} - \left[ \frac{\pi}{6}, \infty \right) \)
  • (4) None of these

Question 117:

The volume \( V \) and depth \( x \) of water in a vessel are connected by the relation \[ V = 5x - \frac{x^2}{6} \]
and the volume of water is increasing, at the rate of 5 cm\(^3\)/sec, when \( x = 2 \) cm. The rate at which the depth of water is increasing is

  • (1) \( 5 \, cm/sec \)
  • (2) \( \frac{5}{18} \, cm/sec \)
  • (3) \( 1 \, cm/sec \)
  • (4) None of these

Question 118:

If vectors \( \mathbf{i} + \mathbf{j} + \mathbf{k} \) and \( \mathbf{i} + \mathbf{j} + \mathbf{k} \) are coplanar, then find

  • (1) \( 0 \)
  • (2) \( 1 \)
  • (3) \( -1 \)
  • (4) \( 2 \)

Question 119:

If matrix \( A = \begin{pmatrix} 3 & 2 & 4
1 & 2 & -1 \end{pmatrix} \) and

  • (1) \( 4 \)
  • (2) \( -4 \)
  • (3) \( 5 \)
  • (4) \( 7 \)

Question 120:

The angle between a pair of tangents drawn from a point \( T \) to the curve \[ x^2 + y^2 + 4x - 6y - 9 = 3x + 1 \]
is

  • (1) \( 45^\circ \)
  • (2) \( 30^\circ \)
  • (3) \( 60^\circ \)
  • (4) None of these

Directions (Qs. 121-123): Study the paragraph and answer the questions that follow:

At this stage of civilisation, when many nations are brought into close and vital contact for good and evil, it is essential, as never before, that their gross ignorance of one another should be diminished, that they should begin to understand a little of one another's historical experience and resulting mentality. It is the fault of the English to expect the people of other countries to react as they do, to political and international situations. Our genuine goodwill and good intentions are often brought to nothing, because we expect other people to be like us. This would be corrected if we knew the history, not necessarily in detail but in broad outlines, of the social and political conditions which have given to each nation its present character.

Question 121:


The character of a nation is the result of its

  • (1) gross ignorance
  • (2) cultural heritage
  • (3) socio-political conditions
  • (4) mentality

Question 122:

According to the author, Mentality* of a nation is mainly product of its

  • (1) present character
  • (2) international position
  • (3) politics
  • (4) history

Question 123:

The need for a greater understanding between nations

  • (1) is more today than ever before
  • (2) was always there
  • (3) is no longer there
  • (4) will always be there

Directions (Q. 124):
In the question below a sentence is given, a part of which is printed in bold and underlined. This part may contain a grammatical error. Each sentence is followed by phrases a, b, c, and d. Find out which phrase should replace the phrase given in bold/underline to correct the error, if there is any, to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct.

 

Question 124:
There are many number of skilled writers who can develop content and create marketing materials with a keen eye to using proven methods, but also to develop new and innovative techniques.

  • (a) with a keen eye to using proven methods, but also to developing new and innovative techniques.
  • (b) with a keen eye for using proven methods, and also developing new and innovative techniques.
  • (c) with a keen eye not only to using proven methods, but also developing new and innovative techniques.
  • (d) with a keen eye to using proven methods, but to developing new and innovative techniques.

Question 125:

Choose the best pronunciation of the word, Sorbet from the following options.

  • (a) Sore-bet
  • (b) Sore-bay
  • (c) Sorb rhymes with orb
  • (d) Shore-bay