VITEEE 2014 Question Paper is available for download here. VITEEE 2014 Question Paper includes 40 questions from Mathematics/Biology, 35 questions from Physics, 35 questions from Chemistry, 5 questions from English, 10 questions from Aptitude to be attempted in 150 minutes. Candidates can download the VITEEE 2014 Question Paper with Solution PDF using the link below.

VITEEE 2014 Question Paper with Solution PDF

VITEEE 2014 Question Paper with Solution PDF Download PDF Check Solution

Question 1:

The amplification factor of a triode is 50. If the grid potential is decreased by 0.20 V, what increase in plate potential will keep the plate current unchanged?

  • (1) 5V
  • (2) 10V
  • (3) 0.2V
  • (4) 50V

Question 2:

If the nuclear fission piece of uranium of mass 5.0 g is lost, the energy obtained in kWh is?

  • (1) \(1.25 \times 10^7 \)
  • (2) \(2.25 \times 10^7 \)
  • (3) \(3.25 \times 10^7 \)
  • (4) \(0.25 \times 10^7 \)

Question 3:

Current in the circuit will be?

  • (1) \( \frac{5}{40} \) A
  • (2) \( \frac{5}{50} \) A
  • (3) \( \frac{5}{10} \) A
  • (4) \( 5 \) A

Question 4:

An installation consisting of an electric motor driving a water pump lets 75 L of water per second to a height of 4.7 m. If the motor consumes a power of 5 kW, then the efficiency of the installation is?

  • (1) 39%
  • (2) 69%
  • (3) 93%
  • (4) 96%

Question 5:

A potential difference across the terminals of a battery is 50 V when 11 A current is drawn and 60 V, when 1 A current is drawn. The emf and the internal resistance of the battery are?

  • (1) 62V, 2Ω
  • (2) 63V, 1Ω
  • (3) 61V, 1Ω
  • (4) 64V, 2Ω

Question 6:

Beyond which frequency, the ionosphere bands any incident electromagnetic radiation but do not reflect it back towards the earth?

  • (1) 50 MHz
  • (2) 40 MHz
  • (3) 30 MHz
  • (4) 20 MHz

Question 7:

A metallic surface ejects electrons. When exposed to green light of intensity I but no photoelectrons are emitted, when exposed to yellow light of intensity 1 it is possible to eject electrons from the same surface by?

  • (1) Yellow light of same intensity which is more than I
  • (2) Green light of any intensity
  • (3) Red light of any intensity
  • (4) None of the above

Question 8:

An electron moves at right angle to a magnetic field of \( 5 \times 10^{-2} \, T \) with a speed of \( 6 \times 10^{7} \, m/s \). If the specific charge of the electron is \( 1.7 \times 10^{11} \, C/kg \), the radius of the circular path will be?

  • (1) 2.9 cm
  • (2) 3.9 cm
  • (3) 2.35 cm
  • (4) 2 cm

Question 9:

A solenoid 30 cm long is made by winding 2000 loops of wire on an iron rod whose cross-section is \( 1.5 \, cm^2 \). If the relative permeability of the iron is 6000, what is the self-inductance of the solenoid?

  • (1) 1.5 H
  • (2) 2.5 H
  • (3) 3.5 H
  • (4) 0.5 H

Question 10:

A coil of resistance 10 Ω and an inductance 5 H is connected to a 100 V battery. The energy stored in the coil is?

  • (1) 125 erg
  • (2) 250 erg
  • (3) 280 erg
  • (4) 250 J

Question 11:

A galvanometer has current range of 15 mA and voltage range 750 mV. To convert this galvanometer into an ammeter of range 25 A, the required shunt is?

  • (1) 0.8 Ω
  • (2) 0.93 Ω
  • (3) 0.03 Ω
  • (4) 2 Ω

Question 12:

The denial cell is balanced on 125 cm length of a potentiometer. Now, the cell is short-circuited by a resistance of 2Ω and the balance is obtained at 100 cm. The internal resistance of the denial cell is?

  • (1) \( \frac{4}{3} \) Ω
  • (2) 1.5 Ω
  • (3) 1.25 Ω
  • (4) 0.5 Ω

Question 13:

Four resistances of 10Ω, 60Ω, 100Ω, and 200Ω respectively taken in order are used to form a Wheatstone’s bridge. A 15V battery is connected to the ends of a 200Ω resistance, the current through it will be?

  • (1) \( 7.5 \times 10^{-5} \) A
  • (2) \( 7.5 \times 10^{-4} \) A
  • (3) \( 7.5 \times 10^{-3} \) A
  • (4) \( 7.5 \times 10^{-2} \) A

Question 14:

A circuit has a self-inductance of 1 H and carries a current of 2A. To prevent sparking, when the circuit is switched off, a capacitor which can withstand 400 V is used. The least capacitance of the capacitor connected across the switch must be equal to?

  • (1) 50 μF
  • (2) 25 μF
  • (3) 100 μF
  • (4) 12.5 μF

Question 15:

The output Y of the logic circuit shown in figure is best represented as?

  • (1) \( A + BC \)
  • (2) \( A + \overline{BC} \)
  • (3) \( \overline{A + BC} \)
  • (4) \( A + \overline{B + C} \)

Question 16:

A resistor of 6kΩ with tolerance 10% and another resistance of 4kΩ with tolerance 10% are connected in series. The tolerance of the combination is about?

  • (1) 5%
  • (2) 10%
  • (3) 12%
  • (4) 15%

Question 17:

If we add impurity to a metal, those atoms also deflect electrons. Therefore?

  • (1) the electrical and thermal conductivities both increase
  • (2) the electrical and thermal conductivities both decrease
  • (3) the electrical conductivity increases but thermal conductivity decreases
  • (4) the electrical conductivity decreases but thermal conductivity increases

Question 18:

A proton and an α-particle, accelerated through the same potential difference, enter a region of uniform magnetic field normally. If the radius of the proton orbit is 10 cm, then the radius of α-particles is?

  • (1) 10 cm
  • (2) 20 cm
  • (3) \( \sqrt{2} \) cm
  • (4) 5 cm

Question 19:

An ammeter and a voltmeter of resistance \( R \) are connected in series to an electric cell of negligible internal resistance. Their readings are A and V respectively. If another resistance \( R' \) is connected in parallel with the voltmeter, then?

  • (1) both \( A \) and \( V \) will increase
  • (2) both \( A \) and \( V \) will decrease
  • (3) \( A \) will decrease and \( V \) will increase
  • (4) \( A \) will increase and \( V \) will decrease

Question 20:

A neutron is moving with velocity \( v \). It collides head on and elastically with an atom of mass number \( A \). If the initial kinetic energy of the neutron is \( E \), then how much kinetic energy will be retained by the neutron after reflection?

  • (1) \( \frac{A}{A+1} E \)
  • (2) \( \frac{A}{A+1}^2 E \)
  • (3) \( \left( A-1 \right)^2 \frac{E}{A+1} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{(A-1)}{A+1} E \)

Question 21:

If a magnet is suspended at angle 30° to the magnet meridian, the dip of needle makes angle of 45° with the horizontal, the real dip is?

  • (1) \( \tan^{-1} \left( \sqrt{3} \right) \)
  • (2) \( \tan^{-1} \left( \frac{3}{2} \right) \)
  • (3) \( \tan^{-1} \left( \frac{5}{2} \right) \)
  • (4) \( \tan^{-1} \left( 2 \right) \)

Question 22:

Which has more luminous efficiency?

  • (1) A 40W bulb
  • (2) A 40W fluorescent tube
  • (3) Both have same
  • (4) Cannot say

Question 23:

The resistance of a germanium junction diode whose \( V-I \) is shown in figure is ( \( V_k = 0.3 \, V \))?

  • (1) 5 kΩ
  • (2) 0.2 kΩ
  • (3) 2.3 kΩ
  • (4) \( \frac{10}{2.3} \) kΩ

Question 24:

In hydrogen discharge tube, it is observed that through a given cross-section \( 3.31 \times 10^{15} \) electrons are moving from right to left and \( 3.12 \times 10^{8} \) protons are moving from left to right. The current in the discharge tube and its direction will be?

  • (1) 2 mA towards left
  • (2) 2 mA towards right
  • (3) 1 mA towards right
  • (4) 2 mA towards left

Question 25:

In a semiconductor, separation between conduction and valence band is of the order of?

  • (1) 0 eV
  • (2) 1 eV
  • (3) 10 eV
  • (4) 50 eV

Question 26:

If 1000 droplets each of potential 1 V and radius \( r \) are mixed to form a big drop, then the potential of the drop as compared to small droplets will be?

  • (1) 1000 V
  • (2) 800 V
  • (3) 100 V
  • (4) 20 V

Question 27:

A Zener diode, having breakdown voltage equal to 15 V, is used in a voltage regulator circuit shown in figure. The current through the diode is?

  • (1) 10 mA
  • (2) 15 mA
  • (3) 20 mA
  • (4) 5 mA

Question 28:

The activity of a radioactive sample is measured as \( N_0 \) counts per minute at \( t = 0 \) and \( N \) counts per minute at \( t = 5 \) min. The time, in minutes, at which the activity reduces to half its value is?

  • (1) \( \log_2 5 \)
  • (2) \( \log_2 2 \)
  • (3) \( 5 \log_2 2 \)
  • (4) \( 5 \log_2 5 \)

Question 29:

If the electron in the hydrogen atom jumps from the third orbit to second orbit, the wavelength of the emitted radiation in terms of Rydberg constant is?

  • (1) 36 nm
  • (2) 150 nm
  • (3) 200 nm
  • (4) 500 nm

Question 30:

Silver has a work function of 4.7 eV. When ultraviolet light of wavelength 100 nm is incident on it, a potential of 7.7 V is required to stop the photoelectrons from reaching the collector plate. How much potential will be required to stop photoelectrons when light of wavelength 200 nm is incident on it?

  • (1) 154 V
  • (2) 235 V
  • (3) 385 V
  • (4) 1.5 V

Question 31:

If the distance of 100 W lamp is increased from a photocell, the saturation current in the photocell varies with the distance \( d \) as?

  • (1) \( i \propto d^2 \)
  • (2) \( i \propto \frac{1}{d^2} \)
  • (3) \( i \propto \frac{1}{d} \)
  • (4) \( i \propto \frac{1}{d^3} \)

Question 32:

Following process is known as?

  • (1) Pair production
  • (2) Photoelectric effect
  • (3) Compton effect
  • (4) Zeeman effect

Question 33:

During charging a capacitor, variations of potential \( V \) of the capacitor with time \( t \) is shown as?


Question 34:

When a resistor of 11 Ω is connected in series with an electric cell, the current following in it is 0.5 A. Instead, when a resistor of 5Ω is connected to the same electric cell in series, the current increases by 0.4 A. The internal resistance of the cell is?

  • (1) 1.5 Ω
  • (2) 2 Ω
  • (3) 2.5 Ω
  • (4) 3.5 Ω

Question 35:

A battery is charged at a potential of 15 V in 8 h when the current flowing is 10 A. The battery on discharge supplies a current of 5 A for 15 h. The mean terminal voltage during discharge is 14V. The watt-hour efficiency of the battery is?

  • (1) 80%
  • (2) 87.5%
  • (3) 85%
  • (4) 82.5%

Question 36:

A circular current carrying coil has a radius \( R \). The distance from the center of the coil on the axis, where the magnetic induction will be \( \frac{1}{8} \) to its value at the center of the coil is?

  • (1) \( \frac{R}{\sqrt{3}} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{R}{\sqrt{5}} \)
  • (3) \( \sqrt{2} R \)
  • (4) \( \frac{2 R}{\sqrt{3}} \)

Question 37:

The incorrect statement regarding the lines of force of the magnetic field \( B \) is?

  • (1) Magnetic intensity is a measure of lines of force passing through unit area held normal to it
  • (2) Magnetic lines of force form a close curve
  • (3) Inside a magnet, its magnetic lines of force move from north pole of a magnet towards its south pole
  • (4) None of the above

Question 38:

Two coils have a mutual inductance of 0.55 H. The current changes in the first coil according to the equation \( I = I_0 \sin \omega t \), where \( I_0 = 10 \, A \) and \( \omega = 100 \, rad/s \). The maximum value of emf in the second coil is?

  • (1) \( 2\pi \)
  • (2) 5π
  • (3) 5π x 10

Question 39:

An L-C-R circuit contains \( R = 50 \, \Omega \), \( L = 1 \, mH \), and \( C = 0.1 \, \mu F \). The impedance of the circuit will be minimum for a frequency of?

  • (1) \( 10^6 \, Hz \)
  • (2) \( 2 \times 10^5 \, Hz \)
  • (3) \( 2 \times 10^6 \, Hz \)
  • (4) \( 10^5 \, Hz \)

Question 40:

An eye can detect \( 5 \times 10^4 \) photons per square meter per second of green light ( \( \lambda = 500 \, nm \)) while the ear can detect \( 10^{-12} \, W/m^2 \). The factor by which the eye is more sensitive as a power detector than ear is close to?

  • (1) 5
  • (2) 0
  • (3) 5
  • (4) 0.5

Question 41:

The sodium extract of an organic compound on acidification with acetic acid and addition of lead acetate solution gives a black precipitate. The organic compound contains?

  • (1) nitrogen
  • (2) halogen
  • (3) phosphorus
  • (4) sulphur

Question 42:

The volume strength of 1.5 N H2O2 solution is?

  • (1) 16.81
  • (2) 8.4
  • (3) 42
  • (4) 52

Question 43:

MnO4- + 8H+ + 5e- → Mn2+ + 4H2O; \( E^\circ = 1.51 \, V \)
MnO4- + 4H+ + 2e- → Mn2+ + 2H2O; \( E^\circ = 1.23 \, V \)

  • (1) 1.70 V
  • (2) 0.91 V
  • (3) 1.37 V
  • (4) 0.548 V

Question 44:

A metal has bcc structure and the edge length of its unit cell is 3.04 Å. The volume of the unit cell in cm³ will be?

  • (1) \( 1.6 \times 10^{-21} \, cm^3 \)
  • (2) \( 2.81 \times 10^{-23} \, cm^3 \)
  • (3) \( 6.02 \times 10^{-23} \, cm^3 \)
  • (4) \( 6.6 \times 10^{-24} \, cm^3 \)

Question 45:

Among [Fe(H2O)6]3+, [Fe(CN)6]3-, [Fe(CO)6]3- species, the hybridization state of the Fe atom is?

  • (1) \( sp^3 \)
  • (2) \( sp^2 \)
  • (3) \( dsp^2 \)
  • (4) None of the above

Question 46:

Which of the following hydrogen bonds are strongest in vapour phase?

  • (1) HF . . . HF
  • (2) HF . . . HI
  • (3) HCl . . . HCl
  • (4) HF . . . HI

Question 47:

The rate constant for forward reaction and backward reaction of hydrolysis of ester are \( 1.1 \times 10^{-2} \) and \( 1.5 \times 10^{-3} \) per minute respectively. Equilibrium constant for the reaction is?

  • (1) 33.7
  • (2) 7.3
  • (3) 53
  • (4) 33

Question 48:

A 1.0 M NaOH reacts with 20 mL of HCl solution for complete neutralisation. The molarity of HCl solution is?

  • (1) 0.99
  • (2) 0.98
  • (3) 0.059
  • (4) 0.0099

Question 49:

An \( f \)-shell containing 6 unpaired electrons can exchange?

  • (1) 6 electrons
  • (2) 12 electrons
  • (3) 18 electrons
  • (4) 1 electron

Question 50:

The standard molar heat of formation of ethane, CO2, and water (\( \Delta H_f \)) are respectively -21.1, -94.1, and -68.3 kcal. The standard molar heat of combustion of ethane will be?

  • (1) 372 kcal
  • (2) 162 kcal
  • (3) 20 kcal
  • (4) 183.5 kcal

Question 51:

The solubility product of \( Ag_2 CrO_4 \) is \( 3.2 \times 10^{-12} \). What is the concentration of \( CrO_4^{2-} \) ions in that solution?

  • (1) \( 2 \times 10^{-4} \, M \)
  • (2) \( 16 \times 10^{-4} \, M \)
  • (3) \( 8 \times 10^{-4} \, M \)
  • (4) \( 10 \times 10^{-4} \, M \)

Question 52:

The equivalent conductivity of a solution containing 2.54g of CuSO4 per liter is 91.0 \( \Omega^{-1} \, cm^2 \). The conductivity would be?

  • (1) \( 29.10^{-3} \, \Omega^{-1} \, cm^{-1} \)
  • (2) \( 18.10^{-3} \, \Omega^{-1} \, cm^{-1} \)
  • (3) \( 24.10^{-4} \, \Omega^{-1} \, cm^{-1} \)
  • (4) \( 36.10^{-8} \, \Omega^{-1} \, cm^{-1} \)

Question 53:

The half-life of two samples are 0.1 and 0.8 S. Their respective concentration are 400 and 0.5. The order of the reaction is?

  • (1) 0
  • (2) 1
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 4

Question 54:

Which sequence of reactions shows correct chemical relation between sodium and its compounds?

  • (1) \( Na^+ + O_2 \longrightarrow Na_2O \)
  • (2) \( Na^+ + H_2 \longrightarrow NaH \)
  • (3) \( Na^+ + CO_2 \longrightarrow Na_2CO_3 \)
  • (4) \( Na^+ + H_2O \longrightarrow NaOH \)

Question 55:

In the reaction, \[ 8Al + 3Fe_2O_3 \longrightarrow 4Al_2O_3 + 9Fe \]
the number of electrons transferred from the reductant to the oxidant is?

  • (1) 8
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 6
  • (4) 9

Question 56:

The bond angles of \( NH_3 \), \( NH_2 \), and \( NH_4^+ \) are?

  • (1) 107°, 115°, 120°
  • (2) 90°, 109°, 120°
  • (3) 104°, 118°, 120°
  • (4) 120°, 120°, 109°

Question 57:

A gaseous mixture containing He, CH4, and SO2 was allowed to effuse through a fine hole. Then find what molar ratio of gases coming out initially? (Given mixture contains He, CH4, and SO2 in 1:2:3 molar ratio)

  • (1) 1:1:1
  • (2) 1:2:3
  • (3) 1:2:4
  • (4) 2:2:3

Question 58:

According to Bohr’s theory, the angular momentum for an electron of third orbit is?

  • (1) \( \frac{h}{2\pi} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{3h}{2\pi} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{h}{\pi} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{2h}{\pi} \)

Question 59:

In the sequence of reactions, the final product (IV) is?

  • (1) \( CH_3 \)
  • (2) \( CH_3 COOH \)
  • (3) \( CH_3 CH_2 \)
  • (4) \( CH_3 CH_3 \)

Question 60:

2.76 g of silver carbonate on being strongly heated yields a residue weighing?

  • (1) 3.33 g
  • (2) 3.09 g
  • (3) 1.36 g
  • (4) 2.16 g

Question 61:

The final product (IV) in the sequence of reactions is?

  • (1) \( CH_3 \)
  • (2) \( CH_3 COOH \)
  • (3) \( CH_3 CH_2 \)
  • (4) \( CH_3 CH_3 \)

Question 62:

Following process is known as?


Question 63:

Ph—C=C—CH, undergoes Hg2+ / H+ to give?


Question 64:

Which of the following has an ester linkage?

  • (1) Nylon-66
  • (2) Dacron
  • (3) PVC
  • (4) Bakelite

Question 65:

Which of the following pairs give positive Tollen’s test?

  • (1) Glucose, sucrose
  • (2) Glucose, fructose
  • (3) Hexanal, acetophenone
  • (4) Fructose, sucrose

Question 66:

Peptisation involves?

  • (1) Precipitation of colloidal particles
  • (2) Disintegration of colloidal aggregates
  • (3) Evaporation of dispersion medium
  • (4) Impact of molecules of the dispersion medium on the colloidal particles

Question 67:

Which of the following has the maximum number of unpaired d-electrons?

  • (1) Fe
  • (2) Cu
  • (3) Zn
  • (4) Ne

Question 68:

Iodine is formed when potassium iodide reacts with a solution of?

  • (1) ZnSO₄
  • (2) CuSO₄
  • (3) (NH₄)₂SO₄
  • (4) Na₂SO₄

Question 69:

Which of the following does not represent the correct order of the property indicated?

  • (1) \( Sc^{3+} < Cr^{3+} < Fe^{3+} < Mn^{3+} \) — ionic radii
  • (2) \( Sc^{3+} < Ti^{4+} < Cr^{3+} < Mn^{3+} \) — density
  • (3) \( Mn^{2+} > Ni^{2+} > Co^{2+} < Fe^{2+} \) — ionic radii
  • (4) \( Fe^{2+} < Ca^{2+} < Mn^{2+} < Cu^{2+} \) — basic nature

Question 70:

If the elevation in boiling point of a solution of 10 g of solute (mol. wt. = 100) in 100 g of water is \( \Delta T_b \), the ebullioscopic constant of water is?

  • (1) 10
  • (2) 100
  • (3) 1
  • (4) 0.1

Question 71:

Which of the following compounds cannot be prepared singly by the Wurtz reaction?

  • (1) \( C_2H_6 \)
  • (2) \( CH_3CH_3 \)
  • (3) \( CH_3CH_2CH_2CH_3 \)
  • (4) All of the above can be prepared

Question 72:

Which of the following oxides is strongly basic?

  • (1) \( TiO_2 \)
  • (2) \( B_2O_3 \)
  • (3) \( Al_2O_3 \)
  • (4) \( Ga_2O_3 \)

Question 73:

In Langmuir’s model of adsorption of a gas on a solid surface, the rate of dissociation of adsorbed molecules from the surface does not depend on?

  • (1) The surface covered
  • (2) The adsorption at a single site on the surface
  • (3) The mass of gas striking a given area of surface
  • (4) The pressure of the gas

Question 74:

How many sigma and pi-bonds are there in the molecule of dicyanoethene (\( CH_2 CH CN \))?

  • (1) 3 sigma and 3 pi
  • (2) 5 sigma and 2 pi
  • (3) 7 sigma and 5 pi
  • (4) 2 sigma and 3 pi

Question 75:

What will be the order of reactivity of the following carbonyl compounds with Grignard’s reagent?

  • (1) \( I > II > III > IV \)
  • (2) \( IV > III > II > I \)
  • (3) \( II > I > III > IV \)
  • (4) \( III > II > I > IV \)

Question 76:

The final product \( C \) in the above reaction is?



Question 77:

Which of the following isomerism is shown by ethyl acetoacetate?

  • (1) Geometrical isomerism
  • (2) Keto-enol tautomerism
  • (3) Enantiomerism
  • (4) Diastereoisomerism

Question 78:

The final product obtained in the reaction,


Question 79:

Among the following the strongest nucleophile is?

  • (1) \( C_2H_5SH \)
  • (2) \( CH_3COO^- \)
  • (3) \( CH_3NH_2 \)
  • (4) \( NCH_3 \)

Question 80:

Which set has different class of compounds?

  • (1) Tranquillizers - Equanil, heroin, valium
  • (2) Antiseptics - Bithional, dettol, boric acid
  • (3) Analgesics - Naproxen, morphine, aspirin
  • (4) Bactericidal - Penicillin, aminoglycosides, ofloxacin

Question 81:

The solution of \( \frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{x^2 + y^2 + 1}{2xy} \), satisfying \( y(1) = 0 \), is given by?

  • (1) hyperbola
  • (2) ellipse
  • (3) circle
  • (4) parabola

Question 82:

If \( x \frac{dy}{dx} = x \cdot f(xy) \), then \( f(xy) \) is equal to?

  • (1) \( k \cdot e^{x^2} \)
  • (2) \( k \cdot e^{y^2} \)
  • (3) \( k \cdot e^{x^y} \)
  • (4) \( k \cdot e^{y/x} \)

Question 83:

The differential equation of the rectangular hyperbola, where axes are the asymptotes of the hyperbola, is?

  • (1) \( \frac{dy}{dx} = x \)
  • (2) \( \frac{dy}{dx} = y \)
  • (3) \( \frac{dy}{dx} = y^2 \)
  • (4) \( \frac{dy}{dx} = x^2 \)

Question 84:

The length of longer diagonal of the parallelogram constructed on \( 5a + 2b \) and \( a - 3b \), if it is given that \( |a| = 2\sqrt{2} \), \( |b| = 3 \), and the angle between \( a \) and \( b \) is \( \frac{\pi}{4} \), is?

  • (1) \( \sqrt{593} \)
  • (2) \( \sqrt{113} \)
  • (3) \( \sqrt{369} \)
  • (4) \( \sqrt{563} \)

Question 85:

If \( r = a \times b \times c + \beta \cdot a + \gamma \cdot b + [a \, b \, c] = 2 \), then \( a + \beta + \gamma \) is equal to?

  • (1) \( [b \cdot c + a \times b] \)
  • (2) \( \frac{1}{2} (a + b + c) \)
  • (3) \( 2a + b + c \)
  • (4) None of these

Question 86:

If \( a \), \( b \), and \( c \) are three non-coplanar vectors and \( p, q, r \) are reciprocal vectors, then \( (p + q + r) \) is equal to?

  • (1) \( (p^3 + m^3 + n^3) \)
  • (2) \( [r + p + q] \)
  • (3) \( p^3 + q^3 + r^3 \)
  • (4) None of these

Question 87:

If the integers \( m \) and \( n \) are chosen at random from 1 to 100, then the probability that a number of the form \( 7m + 7n \) is divisible by 5, equals to?

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{4} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{1}{8} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{16} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{1}{5} \)

Question 88:

Let \( X \) denote the sum of the numbers obtained when two fair dice are rolled. The variance and standard deviation of \( X \) are?

  • (1) \( \frac{31}{6} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{35}{6} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{17}{6} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{31}{7} \)

Question 89:

A four digit number is formed by the digits 1, 2, 3, 4 with no repetition. The probability that the number is odd is?

  • (1) 0
  • (2) \( \frac{1}{4} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{3} \)
  • (4) None of these

Question 90:

The vertices of a triangle are \( A(0,4,1) \), \( B(2,-3,-1) \), and \( C(4,5,0) \), then the orthocenter of ABC is?

  • (1) \( (4,5,0) \)
  • (2) \( (2,-3,-1) \)
  • (3) \( (2,0,-1) \)
  • (4) \( (0,0,0) \)

Question 91:

The equation of normal to the curve \( y = (1 + x) + \sin^{-1}(\sin x) \) at \( x = 0 \) is?

  • (1) \( x - y = 1 \)
  • (2) \( x + y = 1 \)
  • (3) \( x - y = -1 \)
  • (4) \( x = y \)

Question 92:

The value of from the Lagrange's mean value theorem for which \( f(x) = \sqrt{25 - x^2} \) in the interval \( [1,5] \) is?

  • (1) 5
  • (2) \( \sqrt{5} \)
  • (3) \( 3 \)
  • (4) None of these

Question 93:

Two lines \( x - y + 1 = 1 \) and \( x - 3y - k = 2 \) intersect at a point, if \( k \) is equal to?

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{4} \)
  • (2) \( 1 \)
  • (3) \( -4 \)
  • (4) None of these

Question 94:

The minimum value of \( \frac{x}{\log x} \) is?

  • (1) \( e \)
  • (2) \( e^2 \)
  • (3) \( e^3 \)
  • (4) None of these

Question 95:

The triangle formed by the tangent to the curve \( y = x^2 + x + 1 \) at the point \( (1, 3) \) and the coordinate axes lies in the first quadrant. If its area is 2, then the value of \( b \) is?

  • (1) -1
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 6
  • (4) None of these

Question 96:

The statement \( p \rightarrow q \) is equivalent to?

  • (1) \( \neg p \rightarrow \neg q \)
  • (2) \( p \vee q \)
  • (3) \( \neg p \vee q \)
  • (4) None of these

Question 97:

If \( x + y = 2 \cos \theta + 5 \sin \theta \), then \( x^2 + y^2 \) is equal to?

  • (1) \( 3x - 4y \)
  • (2) \( 4x - 3y \)
  • (3) \( 3x + 4y \)
  • (4) None of these

Question 98:

The negation of \( \sim (p \land q) \lor (p \land \sim q) \) is?

  • (1) \( \sim (p \lor q) \lor (\sim p \lor q) \)
  • (2) \( (p \lor \sim q) \land (p \lor q) \)
  • (3) \( (p \lor \sim q) \lor (p \lor \sim q) \)
  • (4) \( (p \lor \sim q) \land (p \lor q) \)

Question 99:

The normals at three points P, Q, and R of the parabola \( y^2 = 4ax \) meet at \( (h, k) \). The centroid of the triangle formed by the points P, Q, and R lies on?

  • (1) \( x = 0 \)
  • (2) \( y = 0 \)
  • (3) \( x = -a \)
  • (4) \( y = a \)

Question 100:

The minimum area of the triangle formed by any tangent to the ellipse \( \frac{x^2}{a^2} + \frac{y^2}{b^2} = 1 \) with the coordinate axes is?

  • (1) \( a^2 + b^2 \)
  • (2) \( \left( \frac{a + b}{2} \right)^2 \)
  • (3) \( ab \)
  • (4) \( (a - b)^2 \)

Question 101:

If the line \( lx + my - n = 0 \) will be a normal to the hyperbola, then \( \frac{a^2}{l^2} + \frac{b^2}{m^2} = k \), where \( k \) is equal to?

  • (1) \( \frac{n}{3} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{a^2}{b^2} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{n^2}{3} \)
  • (4) None of these

Question 102:

If \( \cos \alpha + i \sin \alpha = b \), \( c = \cos \gamma + i \sin \gamma \) and \( b + c + a = 1 \), then \( \cos (\beta - \gamma) + \cos (\alpha - \beta) \) is equal to?

  • (1) \( \frac{3}{2} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{3}{5} \)
  • (3) \( 1 \)
  • (4) None of these

Question 103:

The greatest and the least value of \( z = x + iy \), where \( |z| = 1 \) and \( |x| \leq 3 \), are?

  • (1) \( 6, 0 \)
  • (2) \( 6, 0 \)
  • (3) \( 6, 3 \)
  • (4) None of these

Question 104:

The angle between lines joining the origin to the point of intersection of the line \( \sqrt{3}x + y = 2 \) and the curve \( y^2 = x^3 \) is?

  • (1) \( \frac{\pi}{4} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{\pi}{3} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{\pi}{2} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{\pi}{6} \)

Question 105:

If the area of the triangle on the complex plane formed by the points \( z = x + iy \) and \( z = 1 \) is 200, then the value of \( 3 \times |z| \) must be equal to?

  • (1) \( 20 \)
  • (2) \( 40 \)
  • (3) \( 60 \)
  • (4) \( 80 \)

Question 106:

The equation of the chord of the hyperbola \( 25x^2 - 16y^2 = 400 \), which is bisected at the point \( (6, 2) \), is?

  • (1) \( 6x - 7y = 418 \)
  • (2) \( 75x - 16y = 418 \)
  • (3) \( 25x - 4y = 400 \)
  • (4) None of these

Question 107:

If a plane meets the coordinate axes at \( A, B, C \) such that the centroid of the triangle is \( (1, 2, 4) \), then the equation of the plane is?

  • (1) \( x + 2y + 4z = 12 \)
  • (2) \( x + 2y + 4z = 3 \)
  • (3) \( x + 2y + 4z = 10 \)
  • (4) \( x + 2y + 4z = 4 \)

Question 108:

The volume of the tetrahedron included between the plane \( 3x + 4y - 5z = 60 \) and the coordinate planes is?

  • (1) \( 600 \)
  • (2) \( 720 \)
  • (3) \( 400 \)
  • (4) \( 800 \)

Question 109:

\( \int_0^\infty \left( \sin x + \left| \sin x \right| \right) dx \) is equal to?

  • (1) 0
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 8
  • (4) 1

Question 110:

The value of \( \int_0^\infty \left[ \sqrt{x} \right] dx \), where \( \left[ . \right] \) is the greatest integer function, is?

  • (1) \( 2 - \sqrt{2} \)
  • (2) \( \sqrt{2} - 2 \)
  • (3) \( 2 \)
  • (4) \( 2 \sqrt{2} \)

Question 111:

If \( (m,n) \) is an integer solution of \( \int_1^\infty \left( 1 + y^2 \right) dy \), then the expression for \( (m, n) \) in terms of \( (m+1, n+1) \) is?

  • (1) \( 2m - n \)
  • (2) \( \frac{2}{n} \)
  • (3) \( m + n \)
  • (4) \( 2m + n \)

Question 112:

The area in the first quadrant between \( x^2 + y^2 = 4 \) and \( y = \sin x \) is?

  • (1) \( \pi^2 \)
  • (2) \( 4 - 16 \)
  • (3) \( 16 \)
  • (4) \( 4 \)

Question 113:

The area bounded by \( y = x \) and \( lines |x| = 1 \) is?

  • (1) 4 sq units
  • (2) 5 sq units
  • (3) 1 sq unit
  • (4) 2 sq units