TS LAWCET 2026 LLB 3 Years Question Paper for Shift 2 is available here. Osmania University, Hyderabad on behalf of TGCHE conducted TS LAWCET 2026 LLB 3 Years exam on May 18 in Shift 2 from 12.30 PM to 2 PM. TS LAWCET 2026 Question Paper consists of 120 questions for 120 marks to be attempted in 90 minutes.

  • TS LAWCET Question Paper 2026 is divided into 3 sections- General Knowledge and Mental Ability with 30 questions, Current Affairs with 30 questions, Aptitude for the Study of Law with 60 questions.
  • Each correct answer carries 1 mark and there is no negative marking for incorrect answer.

TS LAWCET 2026 LLB 3 Years Shift 2 Question Paper with Solutions

TS LAWCET 2026 LLB 3 Years Question Paper Shift 2 Download PDF Check Solutions

Question 1:

What was the Assigned Code Name of India’s first successful Nuclear Bomb tested on 18 May 1974?

  • (A) Smiling Fire
  • (B) Smiling Monkey
  • (C) Smiling Buddha
  • (D) Smiling Pokhran
Correct Answer: (C) Smiling Buddha
View Solution



Concept:
The study of India's strategic defense history highlights key milestones in non-weaponized and weaponized nuclear capabilities, traditionally marked by specific military operation code names.



Step 1: Identifying the historical context of the 1974 test.

On May 18, 1974, India conducted its first underground nuclear test explosion at the Pokhran Test Range in the desert state of Rajasthan. This historic event made India the world's sixth nuclear power outside the five permanent members of the United Nations Security Council. The operation was designated as a "peaceful nuclear explosion" (PNE) by the Indian government.



Step 2: Verifying the official code name assignment.

The assigned code name for this specific test was Smiling Buddha (officially designated as Pokhran-I). The name was selected primarily because the day of the successful detonation coincided with Buddha Purnima, the festival celebrating the birth, enlightenment, and passing of Gautama Buddha.


Historical Note: To maintain absolute state secrecy, the scientists used this code phrase to inform Prime Minister Indira Gandhi of the successful test by stating, "The Buddha has smiled."


Distinction: This should not be confused with the 1998 nuclear tests, which were conducted under the code name \textit{Operation Shakti (Pokhran-II). Quick Tip: Link the test date directly to the holiday calendar: 18 May 1974 was Buddha Purnima. This cultural alignment is the reason behind the historic code name Smiling Buddha.


Question 2:

Which day is being celebrated as the World Hemophilia Day, observed to raise awareness and educate people about haemophilia and other bleeding disorders?

  • (A) April 15
  • (B) April 14
  • (C) April 17
  • (D) April 16
Correct Answer: (C) April 17
View Solution



Concept:
Global health awareness days are established by international medical federations and the World Health Organization (WHO) to improve diagnosis networks, gather funding, and support patients dealing with rare genetic conditions.



Step 1: Defining the medical condition and the objective of the day.

Hemophilia is a rare, typically inherited genetic bleeding disorder where the human blood does not clot normally because it lacks sufficient blood-clotting proteins (clotting factors). People with hemophilia can experience spontaneous internal bleeding or prolonged bleeding following an injury or surgical procedure. World Hemophilia Day is observed globally to educate the public, improve access to medical care, and advance sustainable treatment solutions worldwide.



Step 2: Identifying the specific date and its historical origin.

World Hemophilia Day is officially celebrated on April 17 every year. This date was chosen in 1989 by the World Federation of Hemophilia (WFH) to honor the birthday of Frank Schnabel, the charismatic businessman and hemophilia patient who founded the World Federation of Hemophilia in 1963 to bridge gaps in international patient care. Quick Tip: To remember this mid-April health date, place it chronologically right after Dr. B.R. Ambedkar Jayanti (April 14). April 17 is globally anchored as World Hemophilia Day.


Question 3:

Which country was the first to establish the office of Ombudsman to look after citizens' interests in their dealings with government in 1809?

  • (A) India
  • (B) New Zealand
  • (C) Sweden
  • (D) United Kingdom
Correct Answer: (C) Sweden
View Solution



Concept:
Administrative law evaluates institutional oversight mechanisms designed to protect citizens from systemic corruption, administrative overreach, and maladministration within executive organs of government.



Step 1: Tracing the historical origin of the Ombudsman institution.

The word "Ombudsman" is Swedish in origin, translating roughly to a "citizen's defender" or "representative". The modern institution of an administrative ombudsman was created by the Swedish Instrument of Government (the Constitution of Sweden) in 1809. This parliamentary ombudsman was tasked with operating independently of the executive branch to investigate citizens' complaints against public officials, ensuring that administrative agencies complied with statutory laws.



Step 2: Analyzing the global adoption of the model.

Following Sweden's successful institutional framework, the model gradually expanded across democratic nations:

Finland adopted the system next in 1919.


New Zealand became the first country outside continental Europe to adopt the system in 1962.


India integrated this concept into its governance framework under the nomenclature of Lokpal (at the national level) and Lokayukta (at the state level) following recommendations from the Administrative Reforms Commission. Quick Tip: The word Ombudsman is natively a Scandinavian linguistic term. Recognizing this etymology immediately narrows your historical target down to Sweden as the global pioneer of the office in 1809.


Question 4:

What is the primary use of India’s indigenously developed six new and rare Reference Materials (RMs)?

  • (A) Development of Vaccines
  • (B) Development of Semi-conductor chips
  • (C) Anti-Doping Analysis
  • (D) Pharmaceutical Analysis
Correct Answer: (C) Anti-Doping Analysis
View Solution



Concept:
Scientific research and chemical reference materials play a vital role in clinical validation and anti-doping systems, ensuring compliance with international sports regulations.



Step 1: Identifying the specific scientific breakthrough and partnership.

In a major advancement for self-reliance in sports science, India indigenously developed six rare Reference Materials (RMs). These chemical benchmarks were synthesized through a collaborative research project between the National Dope Testing Laboratory (NDTL) and the National Institute of Pharmaceutical Education and Research (NIPER), Guwahati.



Step 2: Understanding the operational utility of Reference Materials.

These Reference Materials are pure chemical substances used as baseline controls to identify prohibited performance-enhancing drugs and their metabolites in athletes' biological samples. Previously, Indian testing labs had to import these rare substances from international sources at a high cost.

Developing these materials locally enhances India's capabilities in Anti-Doping Analysis, aligns with the World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) standards, and strengthens the integrity of competitive sports monitoring both nationally and globally. Quick Tip: The creation of specialized Reference Materials (RMs) by the NDTL is a major step forward for domestic Anti-Doping Analysis. It eliminates India's reliance on imported chemical standards for athletic drug testing.


Question 5:

On \(4^{th}\) April 2022, which Union Ministry organised the ‘Exhibition on India’s Freedom struggle from 1757 to 1947’?

  • (A) Ministry of Culture
  • (B) Ministry of Education
  • (C) Ministry of Tourism
  • (D) Ministry of External Affairs
Correct Answer: (B) Ministry of Education
View Solution



Concept:
The administrative division of labor among Union Ministries assigns responsibility for public events based on their primary educational, cultural, or administrative objectives.



Step 1: Reviewing the event parameters and organizing body.

On April 4, 2022, an intensive historical gallery project titled "Exhibition on India's Freedom Struggle from 1757 to 1947" was formally inaugurated. While historical exhibitions are often associated with the Ministry of Culture, this specific educational and research initiative was conceptualized and organized by the Ministry of Education, in partnership with the Indian Council of Historical Research (ICHR).



Step 2: Understanding the institutional purpose.

The exhibition was designed to show the historical trajectory of resistance from the Battle of Plassey (1757) up to Indian Independence (1947). It targeted school and college students to foster historical awareness under the broader framework of the Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav policy. This directly links the initiative to the curriculum development and academic tracking domain of the Ministry of Education. Quick Tip: While it looks like a cultural event, this specific 1757–1947 historical retrospective was driven directly by the ICHR under the Ministry of Education to strengthen historical education and research frameworks.


Question 6:

When is the ‘International Day of Sport for Development and Peace (IDSDP)’ observed, as declared by the UN General Assembly?

  • (A) April 4
  • (B) April 6
  • (C) April 8
  • (D) April 10
Correct Answer: (B) April 6
View Solution



Concept:
The United Nations General Assembly establishes specific international days to highlight how cultural, social, and physical activities can support global community development, peace-building, and human rights.



Step 1: Identifying the specific date and historical alignment.

The International Day of Sport for Development and Peace (IDSDP) is observed annually on April 6. The United Nations General Assembly declared this date in August 2013, and the day has been celebrated globally since 2014.

The selection of April 6 carries deep historical significance, as it marks the opening day of the first modern Olympic Games in Athens, Greece, in 1896.



Step 2: Understanding the social objective of IDSDP.

The day recognizes the role that sport plays in societies by promoting cooperation, solidarity, social inclusion, and health. Unlike purely competitive sports events, IDSDP emphasizes using physical activity as a tool to advance the UN Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), promote peaceful dialogue, and foster community resilience across divided regions. Quick Tip: Anchor this day to a major sporting milestone: April 6 marks the historic debut of the 1896 Modern Olympic Games. This makes it the perfect date for the UN to celebrate sports as a tool for global development and peace.


Question 7:

In context of our constitution the date of 09 December 1946 is known for which of the following?

  • (A) Cabinet Mission Plan
  • (B) Setting up of Constituent Assembly
  • (C) Objective Resolution was moved
  • (D) First meeting of Constituent Assembly
Correct Answer: (D) First meeting of Constituent Assembly
View Solution



Concept:
The constitutional history of India is marked by a precise timeline of events during the transition from British colonial rule to an independent republic.



Step 1: Analyzing the events of December 1946.

Let's look at the key historical milestones of the Constituent Assembly in chronological order:

09 December 1946: The Constituent Assembly met for the very first time in the Constitution Hall (now known as the Central Hall of Parliament). The meeting was attended by 211 members, while the Muslim League boycotted it. Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha was elected as the temporary interim President, following the French practice of choosing the oldest member.


11 December 1946: Two days later, Dr. Rajendra Prasad was formally elected as the permanent President of the Constituent Assembly.


13 December 1946: Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru moved the historic Objective Resolution, which laid down the foundational principles and philosophical structure of the future Constitution.




Step 2: Evaluating alternative options.

The Cabinet Mission arrived in India earlier in March 1946, and its plan was published in May 1946, which laid the groundwork for forming the Assembly. Therefore, the exact date of December 9, 1946, marks the first formal session of the Constituent Assembly. Quick Tip: Remember the December 1946 Trinitarian Timeline: 9th = First Meeting (Dr. Sinha chosen), 11th = Permanent President (Dr. Prasad chosen), 13th = Objective Resolution introduced by Nehru.


Question 8:

Administrative Tribunals were given Constitutional recognition through which Constitutional Amendment?

  • (A) \(42^{nd}\) Amendment
  • (B) \(44^{th}\) Amendment
  • (C) \(39^{th}\) Amendment
  • (D) \(45^{th}\) Amendment
Correct Answer: (A) \(42^{\text{nd}}\) Amendment
View Solution



Concept:
Constitutional amendments modify the institutional structure of the state. This includes introducing specialized quasi-judicial bodies to resolve public service disputes and reduce the case burden on traditional high courts.



Step 1: Locating the constitutional source text.

Administrative Tribunals were given formal constitutional status by the \(42^{nd}\) Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 (often referred to as the "Mini-Constitution"). This landmark amendment added a brand-new Part XIV-A to the Constitution of India, titled "Tribunals".



Step 2: Analyzing the relevant constitutional articles.

Part XIV-A contains two key enabling provisions:

Article 323A: Empowers Parliament to establish specialized Administrative Tribunals to adjudicate disputes regarding the recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public services at the Centre, States, or local authorities. (This led to the creation of the Central Administrative Tribunal or CAT via the Administrative Tribunals Act of 1985).


Article 323B: Empowers both Parliament and State Legislatures to establish tribunals for resolving disputes related to other matters, such as taxation, foreign exchange, labor, land reforms, and essential commodities. Quick Tip: Major structural changes passed during the 1976 Emergency—such as adding Fundamental Duties (Part IV-A) or introducing Tribunals (Part XIV-A)—were implemented through the \(42^{nd}\) Amendment Act.


Question 9:

Which of the following legislation provided the right to vote for women for the first time in India?

  • (A) Indian Councils Act, 1909
  • (B) Government of India Act, 1919
  • (C) Government of India Act, 1935
  • (D) Indian Independence Act, 1947
Correct Answer: (B) Government of India Act, 1919
View Solution



Concept:
The evolution of franchise laws under British colonial rule shows a gradual shift from highly restrictive, property-based voting rights toward broader political representation.



Step 1: Analyzing franchise reforms under colonial legislation.

Let's evaluate how women's voting rights evolved across key colonial laws:

Indian Councils Act 1909 (Morley-Minto): Introduced separate electorates based on religion but completely excluded women from the franchise.


Government of India Act 1919 (Montagu-Chelmsford): This legislation took a major step forward by expanding the franchise and empowering provincial legislatures to decide if women could vote, provided they met certain property, tax, or educational criteria. This marked the first time in modern Indian history that women were legally granted voting rights, and provinces like Madras quickly implemented this reform in 1921.


Government of India Act 1935: Expanded this franchise further by creating separate reserved seats for women in federal and provincial assemblies, but it was not the initial source of the right. Quick Tip: The Government of India Act 1919 is famous for introducing Dyarchy and establishing a bicameral national legislature. It also marked the historic debut of limited voting rights for women in India.


Question 10:

Who described Prime Minister as ‘primus inter pares’ (first among equals)?

  • (A) Herbert Morrison
  • (B) Sir William Vernor Harcourt
  • (C) H.J. Laski
  • (D) Lord John Morley
Correct Answer: (D) Lord John Morley
View Solution



Concept:
Political science and constitutional theory use classical Latin maxims to describe the structural relationship between the head of government and other members of the cabinet within a Westminster parliamentary system.



Step 1: Defining the political concept.

The Latin phrase primus inter pares translates literally to "first among equals". In a cabinet system of government, all ministers theoretically hold equal status, power, and collective responsibility. However, the Prime Minister occupies the central position because they head the cabinet, select other ministers, allocate portfolios, and can dismiss them.



Step 2: Attributing the quote to the correct political theorist.

This classic description was famously articulated by British statesman and writer Lord John Morley. He used the phrase to describe the Prime Minister's dual nature: while legally holding equal status to other cabinet ministers, the Prime Minister exercises exceptional leadership authority, making them the "keynote of the cabinet arch."


Alternative Views: Other political scholars suggested that as the office grew more powerful over time, the Prime Minister shifted from being "first among equals" to holding a position of "inter stellas luna minores" (a moon among lesser stars, as described by Sir William Vernor Harcourt). Quick Tip: Remember the political theory pairings: Lord Morley famously defined the Prime Minister as 'first among equals' (primus inter pares), emphasizing the traditional balance of power within a classic parliamentary cabinet.

TS LAWCET 2026 Distribution of Questions

Section Maximum Marks Maximum Questions
Current Affairs 30 30
General Knowledge and Mental Ability 30 30
Aptitude for the Study of Law 60 60
Total 120 Marks 120 Questions

TS LAWCET 2026 Exam Analysis