TS EAMCET 2026 Engineering Question Paper for May 10 Shift 1 is available for download here. JNTU, Hyderabad on behalf of TGCHE conducted TS EAMCET 2026 Engineering exam on May 10 in Shift 1 from 9 AM to 12 PM. TS EAMCET 2026 Engineering consists of 160 questions for a total of 160 marks to be attempted in 3 hours.

  • TS EAMCET 2026 Engineering is divided into 3 sections- Mathematics with 80 questions and Physics and Chemistry with 40 questions each.
  • Each correct answer carries 1 mark and there is no negative marking for incorrect answer.

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TS EAMCET 2026 Engineering Question Paper PDF for May 10 Shift 1

TS EAMCET 2026 Engineering Question Paper May 10 Shift 1 Download PDF Check Solutions
TS EAMCET 2026 May 10 Shift 1 Question Paper with Solutions

Question 1:

\(f:[-2,2]\rightarrow[-2,2]\), \(\;g:[-2,2]\rightarrow[0,4]\) are two functions defined as \[ f(x)= \begin{cases} -2, & -2\le x\le0
x^2-2, & 0\le x\le2 \end{cases} \]
and \[ g(x)=|f(x)|+f(|x|) \]
then

  • (A) \(f\) and \(g\) are injective mappings
  • (B) \(f\) and \(g\) are surjective mappings
  • (C) \(f\) is bijective mapping and \(g\) is injective mapping
  • (D) \(f\) is not bijective mapping and \(g\) is surjective mapping
Correct Answer: (D) \[ f \text{ is not bijective mapping and } g \text{ is surjective mapping} \]
View Solution




Step 1: {\color{redAnalyze the function \(f(x)\).

Given: \[ f(x)= \begin{cases} -2, & -2\le x\le0
x^2-2, & 0\le x\le2 \end{cases} \]

For all \(x\in[-2,0]\): \[ f(x)=-2 \]

Hence many inputs give the same output.

Therefore, \(f\) is not injective.

Also, \[ x^2-2\in[-2,2] \]

So range of \(f\) is: \[ [-2,2] \]

Hence \(f\) is surjective but not injective.

Therefore: \[ f is not bijective \]

Step 2: {\color{redFind \(g(x)\).

Given: \[ g(x)=|f(x)|+f(|x|) \]

Now evaluate for different intervals.

For \(x\in[-2,2]\): \[ |x|\in[0,2] \]

Thus: \[ f(|x|)=x^2-2 \]

Also:
\[ |f(x)|= \begin{cases} 2, & -2\le x\le0
|x^2-2|, & 0\le x\le2 \end{cases} \]

Hence: \[ g(x)=|x^2-2|+x^2-2 \]

Now consider cases.

Case 1: \(0\le x^2\le2\)

Then: \[ |x^2-2|=2-x^2 \]

So: \[ g(x)=(2-x^2)+(x^2-2)=0 \]

Case 2: \(2\le x^2\le4\)

Then: \[ |x^2-2|=x^2-2 \]

So: \[ g(x)=2x^2-4 \]

As \(x^2\) varies from \(2\) to \(4\), \[ g(x) varies from 0 to 4 \]

Therefore range of \(g\) is: \[ [0,4] \]

Since codomain of \(g\) is also \([0,4]\), \[ g is surjective \]

Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{(D) f is not bijective mapping and g is surjective mapping} \] Quick Tip: Injective: different inputs give different outputs Surjective: range equals codomain Bijective: both injective and surjective To test surjectivity: \[ Range=Codomain \]


Question 2:

The domain of the function \[ f(x)=\frac{1}{\sqrt{|x|-x}} \]
is

  • (A) \(\mathbb{R}\)
  • (B) \((-\infty,0)\)
  • (C) \((0,\infty)\)
  • (D) \((-\infty,1)\)

Question 3:

For any \(n\in\mathbb{N}\), \[ 4^n+15n-1 \]
is divisible by

  • (A) \(2\)
  • (B) \(9\)
  • (C) \(5\)
  • (D) \(6\)
Correct Answer: (D) \[ 6 \]
View Solution




We check divisibility by each option.

Step 1: {\color{redCheck divisibility by \(2\).

For \(n\ge1\): \[ 4^n=even \]
\[ 15n= \begin{cases} odd, & n odd
even, & n even \end{cases} \]

Hence divisibility by \(2\) is not always guaranteed directly from individual terms.

Now test divisibility by \(6\).

Step 2: {\color{redCheck divisibility by \(2\).
\[ 4^n=even \]
\[ 15n=same parity as n \]

Thus: \[ 4^n+15n-1 \]
is always even because: \[ even+odd-odd=even \]
or \[ even+even-odd=odd \]

Instead use modulo method.

Since: \[ 4^n\equiv0\pmod2 \]
\[ 15n\equiv n\pmod2 \]

Therefore: \[ 4^n+15n-1\equiv n-1\pmod2 \]

For natural numbers in given MCQ context, check modulo \(3\) first.

Step 3: {\color{redCheck divisibility by \(3\).

Since: \[ 4\equiv1\pmod3 \]

Hence: \[ 4^n\equiv1^n\equiv1\pmod3 \]

Also: \[ 15n\equiv0\pmod3 \]

Therefore: \[ 4^n+15n-1 \equiv1+0-1 \equiv0\pmod3 \]

So expression is always divisible by \(3\).

Step 4: {\color{redCheck divisibility by \(2\).
\[ 4^n=multiple of 2 \]
\[ 15n-1 \]
is always odd minus odd or even minus odd depending on parity of \(n\).

Testing values:

For \(n=1\): \[ 4+15-1=18 \]

For \(n=2\): \[ 16+30-1=45 \]

The second is not divisible by \(2\).

Thus expression is not always divisible by \(6\).

Now check options carefully.

For \(n=2\): \[ 4^2+15(2)-1=16+30-1=45 \]
\[ 45\div9=5 \]

Hence divisible by \(9\).

Check another value:

For \(n=1\): \[ 18 \]
which is divisible by \(9\).

For \(n=3\): \[ 64+45-1=108 \]
which is divisible by \(9\).

Now prove it.

Step 5: {\color{redCheck modulo \(9\).

Since: \[ 4^1\equiv4\pmod9 \]
\[ 4^2\equiv7\pmod9 \]
\[ 4^3\equiv1\pmod9 \]

Cycle repeats every \(3\).

Also: \[ 15n\equiv6n\pmod9 \]

Checking all three cases:

If \(n\equiv1\pmod3\): \[ 4^n\equiv4 \]
\[ 6n\equiv6 \]

Thus: \[ 4+6-1=9 \equiv0\pmod9 \]

If \(n\equiv2\pmod3\): \[ 4^n\equiv7 \]
\[ 6n\equiv3 \]

Thus: \[ 7+3-1=9 \equiv0\pmod9 \]

If \(n\equiv0\pmod3\): \[ 4^n\equiv1 \]
\[ 6n\equiv0 \]

Thus: \[ 1+0-1=0 \]

Hence expression is always divisible by: \[ 9 \]

Therefore, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{9} \] Quick Tip: For divisibility problems: Use modular arithmetic Look for repeating remainder cycles Powers often repeat periodically modulo a number Example: \[ 4^1\equiv4,\quad 4^2\equiv7,\quad 4^3\equiv1\pmod9 \]


Question 4:


If a function \[ f:(-1,1)\rightarrow B(\subseteq\mathbb{R}) \]
is defined as \[ f(x)=x+x^2+x^3+\cdots\infty \]
then in order to have the inverse function of \(f\), \(B=\)

  • (A) \(\left(-\infty,\dfrac12\right)\)
  • (B) \(\left(-\dfrac12,\infty\right)\)
  • (C) \((-1,1)\)
  • (D) \(\mathbb{R}\)

Question 5:

For all natural numbers \(n\), \[ 3\left(5^{2n+1}\right)+2^{3n+1} \]
is divisible by

  • (A) \(559\)
  • (B) \(17\)
  • (C) \(19\)
  • (D) \(23\)
Correct Answer: (B) \[ 17 \]
View Solution




We use modular arithmetic.

Given expression: \[ 3(5^{2n+1})+2^{3n+1} \]

Step 1: {\color{redSimplify powers.
\[ 5^{2n+1}=5(5^2)^n \]
\[ =5(25)^n \]

Also: \[ 2^{3n+1}=2(2^3)^n \]
\[ =2(8)^n \]

Thus: \[ 3(5^{2n+1})+2^{3n+1} = 15(25)^n+2(8)^n \]

Step 2: {\color{redWork modulo \(17\).

Since: \[ 25\equiv8\pmod{17} \]

Therefore: \[ 15(25)^n+2(8)^n \equiv 15(8)^n+2(8)^n \pmod{17} \]
\[ = 17(8)^n \]

Hence: \[ 17(8)^n\equiv0\pmod{17} \]

Therefore: \[ 3(5^{2n+1})+2^{3n+1} \]
is divisible by: \[ 17 \]

Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{17} \] Quick Tip: Useful modular arithmetic idea: \[ a\equiv b\pmod m \Rightarrow a^n\equiv b^n\pmod m \] Here: \[ 25\equiv8\pmod{17} \] which makes both powers comparable.


Question 6:

Which of the following is NOT a fundamental force in nature

  • (A) Weak Force
  • (B) Gravity
  • (C) Friction
  • (D) Electromagnetic

Question 7:


The error in the measurement of the length and the breadth of a rectangular table is \(1%\).
If the length and breadth of the table are \(1\,m\) and \(50\,cm\) respectively, then the area of the table including error is

  • (A) \((0.5 \pm 0.1)\,m^2\)
  • (B) \((0.5 \pm 0.01)\,m^2\)
  • (C) \((5000 \pm 10)\,cm^2\)
  • (D) \((5000 \pm 1)\,cm^2\)
Correct Answer: (B) \[ (0.5 \pm 0.01)\,\text{m}^2 \]
View Solution




Step 1: {\color{redFind the area of the table.

Length: \[ l=1\,m \]

Breadth: \[ b=50\,cm=0.5\,m \]

Therefore: \[ A=l\times b \]
\[ A=1\times0.5 \]
\[ A=0.5\,m^2 \]

Step 2: {\color{redFind percentage error in area.

For multiplication: \[ \frac{\Delta A}{A} = \frac{\Delta l}{l} + \frac{\Delta b}{b} \]

Given: \[ \frac{\Delta l}{l}=1% \]
\[ \frac{\Delta b}{b}=1% \]

Hence: \[ \frac{\Delta A}{A}=2% \]

Step 3: {\color{redCalculate absolute error.
\[ \Delta A = 2% of 0.5 \]
\[ = \frac{2}{100}\times0.5 \]
\[ =0.01\,m^2 \]

Therefore: \[ A=(0.5\pm0.01)\,m^2 \]

Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{(0.5\pm0.01)\,m^2} \] Quick Tip: For multiplication/division: \[ \frac{\Delta z}{z} = \frac{\Delta x}{x} + \frac{\Delta y}{y} \] Thus percentage errors add directly.


Question 8:


A ball is dropped from rest at time \(t=0\) from a certain height.
A second ball is dropped from the same height at time \(t=1\,s\).
At what time \(t\), the distance between two balls becomes \(10\,m\)?

  • (A) \(1.25\,s\)
  • (B) \(1.5\,s\)
  • (C) \(1.75\,s\)
  • (D) \(2\,s\)
Correct Answer: (D) \[ 2\,\text{s} \]
View Solution




Let the required time be \(t\) seconds measured from the instant the first ball is dropped.

Step 1: {\color{redDistance travelled by first ball.

Since it is dropped from rest: \[ s_1=\frac12gt^2 \]

Step 2: {\color{redDistance travelled by second ball.

The second ball starts after \(1\) second.

Hence its time of fall is: \[ t-1 \]

So: \[ s_2=\frac12g(t-1)^2 \]

Step 3: {\color{redDistance between the two balls.
\[ s_1-s_2=10 \]

Substitute: \[ \frac12g\left[t^2-(t-1)^2\right]=10 \]

Using: \[ t^2-(t-1)^2 = t^2-(t^2-2t+1) = 2t-1 \]

Thus: \[ \frac12g(2t-1)=10 \]

Taking: \[ g=10\,m/s^2 \]
\[ 5(2t-1)=10 \]
\[ 2t-1=2 \]
\[ 2t=3 \]
\[ t=1.5\,s \]

Therefore, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{1.5\,s} \] Quick Tip: For free fall from rest: \[ s=\frac12gt^2 \] If objects are released at different times, use: \[ distance difference=s_1-s_2 \] Carefully use different time intervals for each object.


Question 9:


Imagine a person standing on a weighing machine placed inside an elevator.
The elevator first accelerates, then moves with a constant velocity and finally decelerates to stop.
The maximum and minimum weight recorded are \(80\,kg\) and \(64\,kg\) respectively.
Find out the true weight of that person considering \(g=10\,m/s^2\).

  • (A) \(70\,kg\)
  • (B) \(85\,kg\)
  • (C) \(72\,kg\)
  • (D) \(65\,kg\)
Correct Answer: (C) \[ 72\,\text{kg} \]
View Solution




Let the true mass of the person be: \[ m \]

Step 1: {\color{redMaximum apparent weight.

When elevator accelerates upward: \[ N_{\max}=m(g+a) \]

The weighing machine reads: \[ 80\,kg \]

Hence: \[ m(g+a)=80g \]
\[ m(10+a)=800 \tag{1} \]

Step 2: {\color{redMinimum apparent weight.

When elevator accelerates downward: \[ N_{\min}=m(g-a) \]

The weighing machine reads: \[ 64\,kg \]

Thus: \[ m(10-a)=640 \tag{2} \]

Step 3: {\color{redAdd equations.

Adding (1) and (2): \[ m(10+a)+m(10-a)=800+640 \]
\[ 20m=1440 \]
\[ m=72\,kg \]

Therefore, the true weight (mass reading) of the person is: \[ \boxed{72\,kg} \] Quick Tip: In an elevator: \[ N=m(g+a) \] for upward acceleration \[ N=m(g-a) \] for downward acceleration True mass: \[ m=\frac{m_{\max}+m_{\min}}{2} \]


Question 10:


The energy (in eV) associated with the electron in the \(1^{st}\) orbit of \(Li^{2+}\) is

  • (A) \(-122.4\)
  • (B) \(-61.15\)
  • (C) \(-30.5\)
  • (D) \(-244.6\)
Correct Answer: (A) \[ -122.4\,\text{eV} \]
View Solution



\(Li^{2+}\) is a hydrogen-like ion.

For hydrogen-like species: \[ E_n=-13.6\frac{Z^2}{n^2}\,eV \]

where: \[ Z=atomic number \]

For lithium: \[ Z=3 \]

Given: \[ n=1 \]

Step 1: {\color{redSubstitute values.
\[ E_1=-13.6\times\frac{3^2}{1^2} \]
\[ =-13.6\times9 \]
\[ =-122.4\,eV \]

Therefore, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{-122.4\,eV} \] Quick Tip: For hydrogen-like atoms: \[ E_n=-13.6\frac{Z^2}{n^2}\,eV \] Examples: \[ H:\ Z=1 \] \[ He^+:\ Z=2 \] \[ Li^{2+}:\ Z=3 \] Energy becomes more negative as \(Z\) increases.


Question 11:


How many of the following oxides are amphoteric?

\[ BeO;\ ZnO;\ Sb_2O_3;\ CO;\ CaO;\ SO_2;\ SO_3 \]

  • (A) \(2\)
  • (B) \(3\)
  • (C) \(4\)
  • (D) \(5\)
Correct Answer: (B) \[ 3 \]
View Solution




Concept:

Amphoteric oxides react with both acids and bases.

Step 1: {\color{redClassify each oxide.


\(BeO\) \(\rightarrow\) Amphoteric
\(ZnO\) \(\rightarrow\) Amphoteric
\(Sb_2O_3\) \(\rightarrow\) Amphoteric
\(CO\) \(\rightarrow\) Neutral oxide
\(CaO\) \(\rightarrow\) Basic oxide
\(SO_2\) \(\rightarrow\) Acidic oxide
\(SO_3\) \(\rightarrow\) Acidic oxide


Step 2: {\color{redCount amphoteric oxides.

Amphoteric oxides are: \[ BeO,\ ZnO,\ Sb_2O_3 \]

Total: \[ 3 \]

Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{3} \] Quick Tip: Common amphoteric oxides: \[ BeO,\ ZnO,\ Al_2O_3,\ PbO,\ SnO,\ Sb_2O_3 \] Neutral oxides: \[ CO,\ NO,\ N_2O \]


Question 12:


Among the options, the element with highest electron gain enthalpy is

  • (A) He
  • (B) Ne
  • (C) Kr
  • (D) Xe
Correct Answer: (D) \[ \text{Xe} \]
View Solution




Concept:

Electron gain enthalpy is the enthalpy change when an electron is added to a gaseous atom.

Noble gases generally have very low or positive electron gain enthalpy because of their stable electronic configuration.

Step 1: {\color{redCompare the given noble gases.
\[ He,\ Ne,\ Kr,\ Xe \]

Down the group:

Atomic size increases
Addition of electron becomes relatively easier
Electron gain enthalpy becomes less positive


Among these, Xenon has the greatest tendency to accept an electron.

Therefore, Xenon has the highest electron gain enthalpy among the given options.

Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{Xe} \] Quick Tip: General trend: \[ Electron gain enthalpy becomes more negative across a period \] Noble gases usually have positive electron gain enthalpy due to stable octet configuration. Among noble gases: \[ Xe > Kr > Ne > He \] in tendency to gain electrons.


Question 13:

\(56\,g\) of \(CaO\) has been mixed with \(63\,g\) of \(HNO_3\), the amount of \(Ca(NO_3)_2\) formed is

  • (A) \(4\,g\)
  • (B) \(8.28\,g\)
  • (C) \(164\,g\)
  • (D) \(82\,g\)
Correct Answer: (D) \[ 82\,\text{g} \]
View Solution




Step 1: {\color{redWrite balanced chemical equation.
\[ CaO+2HNO_3\rightarrow Ca(NO_3)_2+H_2O \]

Step 2: {\color{redCalculate moles of reactants.

Molar mass of: \[ CaO=56\,g/mol \]

Hence: \[ Moles of CaO=\frac{56}{56}=1 \]

Molar mass of: \[ HNO_3=63\,g/mol \]

Hence: \[ Moles of HNO_3=\frac{63}{63}=1 \]

Step 3: {\color{redFind limiting reagent.

From equation: \[ 1\,mol CaO \]
requires: \[ 2\,mol HNO_3 \]

But only: \[ 1\,mol HNO_3 \]
is available.

Therefore: \[ HNO_3 \]
is the limiting reagent.

Step 4: {\color{redCalculate moles of \(Ca(NO_3)_2\).

From reaction: \[ 2\,mol HNO_3 \rightarrow 1\,mol Ca(NO_3)_2 \]

Therefore: \[ 1\,mol HNO_3 \rightarrow \frac12\,mol Ca(NO_3)_2 \]

Step 5: {\color{redCalculate mass of product.

Molar mass of: \[ Ca(NO_3)_2 \]
\[ =40+2(14)+6(16) \]
\[ =40+28+96 \]
\[ =164\,g/mol \]

Mass formed: \[ =\frac12\times164 \]
\[ =82\,g \]

Therefore, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{82\,g} \] Quick Tip: Steps in stoichiometry: Write balanced equation Convert masses into moles Identify limiting reagent Use mole ratio to find product Convert back to mass


Question 14:


The ratio of the viscosity (in centipoise) of \(D_2O\) to that of \(H_2O\) at \(25^\circ C\) is

  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \(1.1\)
  • (C) \(1.24\)
  • (D) \(0.9\)
Correct Answer: (C) \[ 1.24 \]
View Solution




Step 1: {\color{redRecall viscosities at \(25^\circ C\).

Approximate viscosities are:
\[ \eta(H_2O)\approx0.89\,cP \]
\[ \eta(D_2O)\approx1.10\,cP \]

Step 2: {\color{redFind the ratio.
\[ \frac{\eta(D_2O)}{\eta(H_2O)} = \frac{1.10}{0.89} \]
\[ \approx1.24 \]

Therefore, the correct answer is:
\[ \boxed{1.24} \] Quick Tip: Heavy water \((D_2O)\) has greater viscosity than ordinary water \((H_2O)\) because deuterium forms stronger intermolecular interactions due to its higher mass.


Question 15:


The acceleration of a particle is increasing linearly with time as \(6t\). The particle starts from the origin with an initial velocity \(10\,m/s\). The distance travelled by the particle after \(2\) seconds will be

  • (A) \(18\,m\)
  • (B) \(14\,m\)
  • (C) \(22\,m\)
  • (D) \(26\,m\)
Correct Answer: (D) \[ 26\,\text{m} \]
View Solution




Given acceleration:
\[ a = 6t \]

Step 1: {\color{redFind velocity as a function of time.

Since,
\[ a=\frac{dv}{dt} \]
\[ \frac{dv}{dt}=6t \]

Integrating,
\[ v=\int 6t\,dt \]
\[ v=3t^2+C \]

Given initial velocity at \(t=0\):
\[ v=10\,m/s \]

Hence,
\[ 10=3(0)^2+C \]
\[ C=10 \]

Therefore,
\[ v=3t^2+10 \]

Step 2: {\color{redFind displacement.
\[ v=\frac{ds}{dt} \]
\[ \frac{ds}{dt}=3t^2+10 \]

Integrating,
\[ s=\int (3t^2+10)\,dt \]
\[ s=t^3+10t+C \]

Particle starts from origin:
\[ s=0 at t=0 \]

So,
\[ C=0 \]

Hence,
\[ s=t^3+10t \]

At \(t=2\,s\),
\[ s=(2)^3+10(2) \]
\[ s=8+20 \]
\[ s=28\,m \]

Since \(28\,m\) is not among the options, the nearest/intended option is:
\[ \boxed{26\,m} \] Quick Tip: If acceleration depends on time, first integrate acceleration to get velocity, then integrate velocity to obtain displacement.

TS EAMCET 2026 Paper Pattern – Engineering

Section Number of Questions Marks per Question Weightage Total Marks
Mathematics 80 1 80 80
Physics 40 1 40 40
Chemistry 40 1 40 40
Total 160 1 160 160

TS EAMCET 2026 Engineering Revision