The TS EAMCET 2025 Engineering exam was conducted on May 2, 2025, from 3:00 P.M. to 6:00 P.M. The overall difficulty level of the paper was moderate to tough.

The TS EAMCET Question Paper with Solution PDF is available here for download.

As per the exam pattern, the TS EAMCET 2025 exam was conducted in CBT mode with 160 MCQs in a total of 160 marks in 3 hours (180 minutes), 1 mark is awarded for each correct answer, and no negative marking for incorrect answers.

TS EAMCET 2025 Question Paper with Solution PDF

TS EAMCET 2025 May 2 Shift 2 Question Paper with Answer Key Download PDF Check Solution
TS EAMCET 2025 May 2 Shift 2 Question Paper with Solution

Question 1:

If \( f: \mathbb{R}-\{0\} \to \mathbb{R} \) is defined by \( 3f(x) + 4f\left(\frac{1}{x}\right) = \frac{2-x}{x} \), then \( f(3) = \)

  • (A) 6
  • (B) 12
  • (C) 9
  • (D) 3
Correct Answer: (D) 3
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

We are given a functional equation involving \( f(x) \) and \( f\left(\frac{1}{x}\right) \). To find the value of \( f(x) \), we need to eliminate \( f\left(\frac{1}{x}\right) \) by creating a system of linear equations.

Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

The given equation is: \[ 3f(x) + 4f\left(\frac{1}{x}\right) = \frac{2-x}{x} = \frac{2}{x} - 1 \quad \dots (1) \]
Replace \( x \) with \( \frac{1}{x} \) in equation (1) to generate a second equation: \[ 3f\left(\frac{1}{x}\right) + 4f(x) = \frac{2-(1/x)}{1/x} = 2x - 1 \quad \dots (2) \]

Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

Now, we have a system of two equations with variables \( f(x) \) and \( f\left(\frac{1}{x}\right) \):
1. \( 3f(x) + 4f\left(\frac{1}{x}\right) = \frac{2}{x} - 1 \)
2. \( 4f(x) + 3f\left(\frac{1}{x}\right) = 2x - 1 \)

Our goal is to find \( f(3) \). We can either solve for \( f(x) \) generally or substitute \( x=3 \) directly into the system. Let's substitute \( x=3 \) directly to simplify calculations.

Substitute \( x = 3 \) in equation (1): \[ 3f(3) + 4f\left(\frac{1}{3}\right) = \frac{2-3}{3} = -\frac{1}{3} \quad \dots (A) \]

Substitute \( x = 3 \) in equation (2) (which is equivalent to putting \( x=1/3 \) in the original equation): \[ 3f\left(\frac{1}{3}\right) + 4f(3) = 2(3) - 1 = 5 \]
Rearranging terms: \[ 4f(3) + 3f\left(\frac{1}{3}\right) = 5 \quad \dots (B) \]

Now, solve the system of equations (A) and (B) for \( f(3) \).
From (A): Multiply by 3: \[ 9f(3) + 12f\left(\frac{1}{3}\right) = -1 \quad \dots (C) \]
From (B): Multiply by 4: \[ 16f(3) + 12f\left(\frac{1}{3}\right) = 20 \quad \dots (D) \]

Subtract equation (C) from equation (D): \[ (16f(3) + 12f\left(\frac{1}{3}\right)) - (9f(3) + 12f\left(\frac{1}{3}\right)) = 20 - (-1) \] \[ 7f(3) = 21 \] \[ f(3) = \frac{21}{7} \] \[ f(3) = 3 \]

Step 4: Final Answer:

The value of \( f(3) \) is 3. Quick Tip: In functional equations of the form \( af(x) + bf(1/x) = g(x) \), always replace \( x \) with \( 1/x \) to form a second simultaneous equation. This allows you to solve for \( f(x) \) or \( f(1/x) \) directly using elimination.


Question 2:

The inverse of the function \( y = \frac{10^x - 10^{-x}}{10^x + 10^{-x}} + 1 \) is \( x = \)

  • (A) \( \log\left(\frac{y}{2-y}\right) \)
  • (B) \( \log_{10}\left(\frac{y}{2-y}\right) \)
  • (C) \( \frac{1}{10}\log\left(\frac{y}{1-y}\right) \)
  • (D) \( \frac{1}{2}\log_{10}\left(\frac{y}{2-y}\right) \)
Correct Answer: (D) \( \frac{1}{2}\log_{10}\left(\frac{y}{2-y}\right) \)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

To find the inverse of a function \( y = f(x) \), we need to express \( x \) in terms of \( y \).

Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Given the function: \[ y = \frac{10^x - 10^{-x}}{10^x + 10^{-x}} + 1 \]
Subtract 1 from both sides: \[ y - 1 = \frac{10^x - 10^{-x}}{10^x + 10^{-x}} \]
Multiply numerator and denominator of the fraction by \( 10^x \) to simplify: \[ y - 1 = \frac{10^x(10^x - 10^{-x})}{10^x(10^x + 10^{-x})} = \frac{10^{2x} - 1}{10^{2x} + 1} \]

Let \( u = 10^{2x} \). Then: \[ y - 1 = \frac{u - 1}{u + 1} \]
Now, solve for \( u \) in terms of \( y \): \[ (y - 1)(u + 1) = u - 1 \] \[ u(y - 1) + (y - 1) = u - 1 \] \[ u(y - 1) - u = -1 - (y - 1) \] \[ u(y - 1 - 1) = -1 - y + 1 \] \[ u(y - 2) = -y \] \[ u = \frac{-y}{y - 2} = \frac{y}{2 - y} \]

Now substitute back \( u = 10^{2x} \): \[ 10^{2x} = \frac{y}{2 - y} \]
Take \( \log_{10} \) on both sides: \[ 2x = \log_{10}\left(\frac{y}{2 - y}\right) \] \[ x = \frac{1}{2} \log_{10}\left(\frac{y}{2 - y}\right) \]

Step 3: Final Answer:

The inverse function is \( x = \frac{1}{2} \log_{10}\left(\frac{y}{2 - y}\right) \). Quick Tip: When dealing with expressions like \( \frac{e^x - e^{-x}}{e^x + e^{-x}} \), recognizing it as \( \tanh(x) \) or multiplying by \( e^x \) (in this case \( 10^x \)) usually simplifies the algebra significantly. Also, componendo and dividendo can be a shortcut here: if \( \frac{A}{B} = \frac{C}{D} \), then \( \frac{A+B}{A-B} = \frac{C+D}{C-D} \).


Question 3:

The value of the greatest positive integer \( k \), such that \( 49^k + 1 \) is a factor of \( 48(49^{125} + 49^{124} + \dots + 49^2 + 49 + 1) \) is

  • (A) 32
  • (B) 63
  • (C) 65
  • (D) 60
Correct Answer: (B) 63
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

We need to simplify the given expression using the formula for the sum of a geometric progression (GP) and then analyze its factors.

Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

The sum of a geometric series is \( S_n = a\frac{r^n - 1}{r - 1} \).
The term \( x^n - y^n \) is divisible by \( x - y \).
The term \( x^n - y^n \) contains \( x^{n/2} + y^{n/2} \) as a factor if \( n \) is even.

Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

Let the given expression be \( E \). \[ E = 48(1 + 49 + 49^2 + \dots + 49^{125}) \]
The term in the bracket is a GP with first term \( a=1 \), common ratio \( r=49 \), and number of terms \( n=126 \) (powers from 0 to 125). \[ Sum = \frac{49^{126} - 1}{49 - 1} = \frac{49^{126} - 1}{48} \]
Substitute this back into the expression for \( E \): \[ E = 48 \left( \frac{49^{126} - 1}{48} \right) = 49^{126} - 1 \]

We are looking for \( k \) such that \( 49^k + 1 \) is a factor of \( 49^{126} - 1 \).
Recall the identity \( a^2 - b^2 = (a - b)(a + b) \).
Let \( a = 49^{63} \). Then: \[ 49^{126} - 1 = (49^{63})^2 - 1^2 = (49^{63} - 1)(49^{63} + 1) \]
From this, it is clear that \( 49^{63} + 1 \) is a factor of \( 49^{126} - 1 \).

Therefore, \( k = 63 \) works.
We must check if a larger \( k \) is possible. The factors of the form \( 49^k + 1 \) for \( 49^{126}-1 \) arise from the factorization \( x^{2m} - 1 = (x^m-1)(x^m+1) \). The term \( x^m+1 \) is a factor. Here \( 2m = 126 \implies m=63 \).
Further splitting \( 49^{63}-1 \) or \( 49^{63}+1 \) would yield factors with lower powers or odd powers not in the form \( 49^k+1 \) with \( k>63 \). Thus, 63 is the greatest such integer.

Step 4: Final Answer:

The greatest positive integer \( k \) is 63. Quick Tip: For questions involving \( x^n - 1 \), remember the factorization hierarchy: \( x^{2m} - 1 = (x^m - 1)(x^m + 1) \). The factor \( x^m + 1 \) appears immediately at the first step of difference-of-squares expansion where the power is halved.


Question 4:

If \( \left| \begin{matrix} 1 & 2 & 3-\lambda
0 & -1-\lambda & 2
1-\lambda & 1 & 3 \end{matrix} \right| = A\lambda^3 + B\lambda^2 + C\lambda + D \), then \( D+A = \)

  • (A) 1
  • (B) -4
  • (C) -5
  • (D) 3
Correct Answer: (D) 3
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

We need to expand the given determinant to find the polynomial in \( \lambda \). The coefficients \( A, B, C, D \) correspond to the terms \( \lambda^3, \lambda^2, \lambda, \) and the constant term, respectively. We are asked to find \( D+A \).

Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let \( \Delta(\lambda) = \left| \begin{matrix} 1 & 2 & 3-\lambda
0 & -1-\lambda & 2
1-\lambda & 1 & 3 \end{matrix} \right| \).

Expanding along the first column (C1): \[ \Delta(\lambda) = 1 \cdot \left| \begin{matrix} -1-\lambda & 2
1 & 3 \end{matrix} \right| - 0 + (1-\lambda) \cdot \left| \begin{matrix} 2 & 3-\lambda
-1-\lambda & 2 \end{matrix} \right| \]

Calculate the minors:
1. First minor: \[ ((-1-\lambda)(3) - (2)(1)) = -3 - 3\lambda - 2 = -3\lambda - 5 \]

2. Second minor (multiplied by \( 1-\lambda \)): \[ (2)(2) - (3-\lambda)(-1-\lambda) \] \[ = 4 - [ -3 - 3\lambda + \lambda + \lambda^2 ] \] \[ = 4 - [ \lambda^2 - 2\lambda - 3 ] \] \[ = 4 - \lambda^2 + 2\lambda + 3 = -\lambda^2 + 2\lambda + 7 \]

Now combine the terms: \[ \Delta(\lambda) = 1(-3\lambda - 5) + (1-\lambda)(-\lambda^2 + 2\lambda + 7) \]
Expand the second part: \[ (1-\lambda)(-\lambda^2 + 2\lambda + 7) = 1(-\lambda^2 + 2\lambda + 7) - \lambda(-\lambda^2 + 2\lambda + 7) \] \[ = -\lambda^2 + 2\lambda + 7 + \lambda^3 - 2\lambda^2 - 7\lambda \] \[ = \lambda^3 - 3\lambda^2 - 5\lambda + 7 \]

Add the first part (\( -3\lambda - 5 \)): \[ \Delta(\lambda) = (\lambda^3 - 3\lambda^2 - 5\lambda + 7) + (-3\lambda - 5) \] \[ \Delta(\lambda) = \lambda^3 - 3\lambda^2 - 8\lambda + 2 \]

Comparing this with \( A\lambda^3 + B\lambda^2 + C\lambda + D \): \[ A = 1 \] \[ B = -3 \] \[ C = -8 \] \[ D = 2 \]

We need \( D + A \): \[ D + A = 2 + 1 = 3 \]

Step 4: Final Answer:

The value of \( D+A \) is 3. Quick Tip: To find \( D \) (the constant term), you can simply put \( \lambda = 0 \) in the determinant. \( D = \Delta(0) = \left| \begin{matrix} 1 & 2 & 3
0 & -1 & 2
1 & 1 & 3 \end{matrix} \right| = 1(-3-2) + 1(4 - (-3)) = -5 + 7 = 2 \). To find \( A \), check the coefficient of the highest power \( \lambda^3 \). It comes from the product of the diagonal terms or terms involving \( \lambda \) in every row/column. Here \( A = 1 \). Then \( D+A = 2+1=3 \). This is much faster.


Question 5:

If \( A+2B = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 2 & 0
6 & -3 & 3
-5 & 3 & 1 \end{bmatrix} \) and \( 2A-B = \begin{bmatrix} 2 & -1 & 5
2 & -1 & 6
0 & 1 & 2 \end{bmatrix} \), then \( tr(A) - tr(B) = \)

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4
Correct Answer: (B) 2
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The trace of a matrix, denoted as \( tr(X) \), is the sum of its diagonal elements. The trace is a linear operator, meaning \( tr(A + B) = tr(A) + tr(B) \) and \( tr(kA) = k \cdot tr(A) \).

Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let \( t_A = tr(A) \) and \( t_B = tr(B) \).

From the first equation: \[ tr(A + 2B) = tr\begin{bmatrix} 1 & 2 & 0
6 & -3 & 3
-5 & 3 & 1 \end{bmatrix} \] \[ t_A + 2t_B = 1 + (-3) + 1 = -1 \quad \dots (1) \]

From the second equation: \[ tr(2A - B) = tr\begin{bmatrix} 2 & -1 & 5
2 & -1 & 6
0 & 1 & 2 \end{bmatrix} \] \[ 2t_A - t_B = 2 + (-1) + 2 = 3 \quad \dots (2) \]

Now we solve the system of linear equations for \( t_A \) and \( t_B \):
From (2), \( t_B = 2t_A - 3 \). Substitute this into (1): \[ t_A + 2(2t_A - 3) = -1 \] \[ t_A + 4t_A - 6 = -1 \] \[ 5t_A = 5 \implies t_A = 1 \]

Now find \( t_B \): \[ t_B = 2(1) - 3 = -1 \]

We need the value of \( tr(A) - tr(B) \): \[ t_A - t_B = 1 - (-1) = 2 \]

Step 4: Final Answer:

The value is 2. Quick Tip: Using the linearity of the trace operator avoids the need to solve for the full matrices \( A \) and \( B \) element by element.


Question 6:

A, C are \( 3 \times 3 \) matrices. B, D are \( 3 \times 1 \) matrices. If \( AX=B \) has a unique solution and \( CX=D \) has an infinite number of solutions, then

  • (A) rank of \( [A:D] = rank of [C:B] \)
  • (B) rank of \( A = rank of C \)
  • (C) rank of \( [A:B] < rank of [B:D] \)
  • (D) rank of \( [A:D] \ge rank of [C:B] \)
Correct Answer: (D) rank of \( [A:D] \ge \text{rank of } [C:B] \)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

We use the properties of the rank of matrices in systems of linear equations (Rouche-Capelli Theorem).
For a system \( MX = Y \) with \( M \) being \( 3 \times 3 \):
1. Unique Solution: \( rank(M) = rank[M:Y] = 3 \) (Full rank).
2. Infinite Solutions: \( rank(M) = rank[M:Y] < 3 \).

Step 2: Analyzing the Data:

* System \( AX = B \): Has a unique solution.
Since \( A \) is \( 3 \times 3 \), this implies \( rank(A) = 3 \).
Consequently, the augmented matrix \( [A:D] \) (which is \( 3 \times 4 \)) must have a rank of 3 because it contains a \( 3 \times 3 \) submatrix \( A \) with rank 3, and the maximum possible rank for a matrix with 3 rows is 3.
So, \( rank[A:D] = 3 \).

* System \( CX = D \): Has infinite solutions.
Since \( C \) is \( 3 \times 3 \), this implies \( rank(C) < 3 \).
Also, \( rank(C) = rank[C:D] = k \), where \( k \in \{1, 2\} \).

Step 3: Evaluating Options:

Now we evaluate \( rank[C:B] \). This is an augmented matrix of size \( 3 \times 4 \). Its rank can be at most 3 (limited by the number of rows).
So, \( rank[C:B] \le 3 \).

Comparison:
We established that \( rank[A:D] = 3 \).
We know that \( rank[C:B] \le 3 \).
Therefore, \( rank[A:D] \ge rank[C:B] \) is always true (since \( 3 \ge anything \le 3 \)).

Let's check other options:
(A) \( rank[A:D] = rank[C:B] \): Not necessarily true. \( [C:B] \) could have rank 2.
(B) \( rank(A) = rank(C) \): False. \( 3 \neq <3 \).
(C) \( rank[A:B] < rank[B:D] \): \( rank[A:B]=3 \). Rank of \( [B:D] \) is max 3 (as it has 3 rows or assuming it's formed by columns, wait \( B, D \) are \( 3 \times 1 \), so \( [B:D] \) is \( 3 \times 2 \), max rank 2). So \( 3 < 2 \) is False.

Step 4: Final Answer:

Option (D) is the correct statement. Quick Tip: Always recall: A unique solution for an \( n \times n \) system implies the coefficient matrix has rank \( n \). Infinite solutions imply rank \( < n \). The rank of an augmented matrix cannot exceed the number of rows.


Question 7:

A and B are two non-square matrices. If \( P = A + B \), \( Q = A^TB \), \( R = AB^T \), then the matrices whose order is equal to the order of A are

  • (A) PQ and QR
  • (B) RQ and QP
  • (C) PQ and RP
  • (D) PQR and RPQ
Correct Answer: (C) PQ and RP
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

We need to determine the dimensions (order) of the resulting matrices after multiplication and addition.

Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let the order of matrix \( A \) be \( m \times n \).
Since \( A \) is non-square, \( m \neq n \).
Since \( P = A + B \) is defined, \( A \) and \( B \) must have the same order.
So, Order of \( B = m \times n \).
Consequently, Order of \( P = m \times n \).

Now determine the orders of \( Q \) and \( R \):
1. \( Q = A^T B \)
* \( A^T \) is \( n \times m \).
* \( B \) is \( m \times n \).
* Order of \( Q = (n \times m) \times (m \times n) = n \times n \) (Square matrix).

2. \( R = A B^T \)
* \( A \) is \( m \times n \).
* \( B^T \) is \( n \times m \).
* Order of \( R = (m \times n) \times (n \times m) = m \times m \) (Square matrix).

We need to find matrices with the same order as \( A \), i.e., \( m \times n \). Let's check the product options:
* PQ:
\( P \) is \( m \times n \), \( Q \) is \( n \times n \).
Product \( PQ \) order: \( (m \times n) \times (n \times n) = m \times n \). (Matches A).

* QR:
\( Q \) is \( n \times n \), \( R \) is \( m \times m \).
Product defined only if \( n = m \), but matrices are non-square. Undefined or not matching.

* RQ:
\( R \) is \( m \times m \), \( Q \) is \( n \times n \).
Undefined unless \( m=n \).

* RP:
\( R \) is \( m \times m \), \( P \) is \( m \times n \).
Product \( RP \) order: \( (m \times m) \times (m \times n) = m \times n \). (Matches A).

Therefore, \( PQ \) and \( RP \) have the same order as \( A \).

Step 4: Final Answer:

The matrices are \( PQ \) and \( RP \). Quick Tip: Write down dimensions explicitly: \( A_{m \times n} \). Matrix multiplication \( X_{a \times b} \cdot Y_{c \times d} \) is valid only if \( b = c \), and the result is \( a \times d \).


Question 8:

\( \omega \) is a complex cube root of unity and \( Z \) is a complex number satisfying \( |Z-1| \le 2 \). The possible values of \( r \) such that \( |Z-1| \le 2 \) and \( |\omega Z - 1 - \omega^2| = r \) have no common solution are

  • (A) \( 0 \le r \le 4 \)
  • (B) \( r = |\omega| \) only
  • (C) \( r > 4 \)
  • (D) \( 1 < r < 2 \)
Correct Answer: (C) \( r > 4 \)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The problem involves the geometric interpretation of complex numbers. The inequality \( |Z-z_0| \le R \) represents a disk centered at \( z_0 \) with radius \( R \). The equation \( |Z-z_1| = r \) represents a circle centered at \( z_1 \) with radius \( r \). We need to find \( r \) such that the disk and the circle do not intersect.

Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

1. Analyze the first region:
\( |Z-1| \le 2 \) represents a solid disk centered at \( C_1(1, 0) \) with radius \( R_1 = 2 \).
Let's denote the set of points in this disk as \( S_1 \).

2. Analyze the second equation:
Given: \( |\omega Z - 1 - \omega^2| = r \).
Factor out \( \omega \) (knowing \( |\omega| = 1 \)):
\[ |\omega(Z - \frac{1}{\omega} - \omega)| = r \]
Since \( \frac{1}{\omega} = \bar{\omega} = \omega^2 \) and \( \omega + \omega^2 = -1 \):
\[ |Z - (\omega^2 + \omega)| = r \]
\[ |Z - (-1)| = r \implies |Z + 1| = r \]
This represents a circle centered at \( C_2(-1, 0) \) with radius \( r \). Let's denote this set of points as \( S_2 \).

3. Condition for "No Common Solution":
We need the intersection of the disk \( S_1 \) and the circle \( S_2 \) to be empty.
The center of the circle \( C_2(-1, 0) \) lies on the boundary of the disk \( S_1 \), because the distance between \( C_1(1,0) \) and \( C_2(-1,0) \) is:
\[ d = |1 - (-1)| = 2 \]
Since the distance \( d \) equals the radius \( R_1 \) of the disk, the center \( C_2 \) is exactly on the edge of the disk.

4. Finding the range of distances from \( C_2 \) to any point in \( S_1 \):
Let \( Z \) be any point in the disk \( |Z-1| \le 2 \). We want to find the range of values for \( |Z+1| \).
* Minimum value: Since \( -1 \) is on the boundary of the disk, the closest point in the disk to \( -1 \) is \( -1 \) itself. So, \( |Z+1|_{\min} = 0 \).
* Maximum value: The point in the disk farthest from \( -1 \) lies on the diameter passing through \( -1 \) and \( 1 \). The disk extends from \( 1-2 = -1 \) to \( 1+2 = 3 \) on the real axis.
The distance from \( -1 \) to \( 3 \) is \( |3 - (-1)| = 4 \).
So, for any \( Z \) in the disk, \( |Z+1| \in [0, 4] \).

5. Conclusion:
The circle \( |Z+1| = r \) intersects the disk if \( r \) falls within the range of distances \( [0, 4] \).
For there to be no common solution, \( r \) must lie outside this interval. Since \( r \) is a radius (must be positive), we must have:
\[ r > 4 \]

Step 4: Final Answer:

The possible values are \( r > 4 \). Quick Tip: Always simplify complex equations like \( |\omega Z + \dots| \) by factoring out \( |\omega| \) to reveal the standard circle form \( |Z - z_0| = r \). Drawing a diagram with centers and radii often makes the intersection conditions obvious.


Question 9:

If \( |Z|=2 \), \( Z_1 = \frac{Z}{2}e^{i\alpha} \) and \( \theta \) is the amp(Z), then \( \frac{Z_1^n - Z_1^{-n}}{Z_1^n + Z_1^{-n}} = \)

  • (A) \( 2^n i \tan(n\theta + n\alpha) \)
  • (B) \( i \tan(n\theta - n\alpha) \)
  • (C) \( i \tan(n\theta + n\alpha) \)
  • (D) \( \tan(n\theta + n\alpha) \)
Correct Answer: (C) \( i \tan(n\theta + n\alpha) \)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

We express the complex number \( Z_1 \) in Euler's form \( re^{i\phi} \) and then use De Moivre's Theorem to simplify the expression \( Z_1^n \).

Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Given:
1. \( |Z| = 2 \) and \( amp(Z) = \theta \).
So, \( Z = 2e^{i\theta} \).
2. \( Z_1 = \frac{Z}{2}e^{i\alpha} \).

Substitute \( Z \) into the equation for \( Z_1 \): \[ Z_1 = \frac{2e^{i\theta}}{2} e^{i\alpha} = e^{i(\theta + \alpha)} \]
Let \( \phi = \theta + \alpha \). Then \( Z_1 = e^{i\phi} \).

Now, find \( Z_1^n \) and \( Z_1^{-n} \): \[ Z_1^n = (e^{i\phi})^n = e^{in\phi} = \cos(n\phi) + i\sin(n\phi) \] \[ Z_1^{-n} = e^{-in\phi} = \cos(n\phi) - i\sin(n\phi) \]

Now substitute these into the required expression: \[ E = \frac{Z_1^n - Z_1^{-n}}{Z_1^n + Z_1^{-n}} \]

Numerator: \[ (\cos(n\phi) + i\sin(n\phi)) - (\cos(n\phi) - i\sin(n\phi)) = 2i\sin(n\phi) \]

Denominator: \[ (\cos(n\phi) + i\sin(n\phi)) + (\cos(n\phi) - i\sin(n\phi)) = 2\cos(n\phi) \]

Calculate the ratio: \[ E = \frac{2i\sin(n\phi)}{2\cos(n\phi)} = i \tan(n\phi) \]

Substitute \( \phi = \theta + \alpha \) back: \[ E = i \tan(n(\theta + \alpha)) = i \tan(n\theta + n\alpha) \]

Step 4: Final Answer:

The value is \( i \tan(n\theta + n\alpha) \). Quick Tip: Recall that \( \frac{e^{ix} - e^{-ix}}{e^{ix} + e^{-ix}} = \frac{2i\sin x}{2\cos x} = i\tan x \). Recognizing this hyperbolic-like structure with complex exponents allows for instant simplification.


Question 10:

If \( n, K \in \mathbb{N} \) such that \( n \neq 3K \), then \( (\sqrt{3}+i)^{2n} + (\sqrt{3}-i)^{2n} = \)

  • (A) \( (-1)^n 2^{2n+1} \)
  • (B) \( (-1)^{n+1} 2^{2n+1} \)
  • (C) \( (-1)^{n+1} 2^{2n} \)
  • (D) \( (-1)^{n+1} 2^n \)
Correct Answer: (C) \( (-1)^{n+1} 2^{2n} \)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Convert the complex numbers to polar form to apply exponentiation easily.

Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let \( z = \sqrt{3} + i \).
Modulus \( r = \sqrt{(\sqrt{3})^2 + 1^2} = \sqrt{4} = 2 \).
Argument \( \theta = \tan^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\right) = \frac{\pi}{6} \).
So, \( z = 2e^{i\pi/6} \).
Its conjugate is \( \bar{z} = \sqrt{3} - i = 2e^{-i\pi/6} \).

The expression is: \[ E = z^{2n} + \bar{z}^{2n} \] \[ E = (2e^{i\pi/6})^{2n} + (2e^{-i\pi/6})^{2n} \] \[ E = 2^{2n} e^{in\pi/3} + 2^{2n} e^{-in\pi/3} \] \[ E = 2^{2n} (e^{in\pi/3} + e^{-in\pi/3}) \]
Using \( e^{ix} + e^{-ix} = 2\cos x \): \[ E = 2^{2n} \cdot 2\cos\left(\frac{n\pi}{3}\right) = 2^{2n+1} \cos\left(\frac{n\pi}{3}\right) \]

Now analyze the term \( \cos\left(\frac{n\pi}{3}\right) \) given that \( n \) is not a multiple of 3 (\( n \neq 3K \)).
The possible values for \( n \pmod 6 \) excluding multiples of 3 (0 and 3) are:
1. \( n \equiv 1, 5 \pmod 6 \) (odd \( n \)):
\( \cos(\pi/3) = \frac{1}{2} \), \( \cos(5\pi/3) = \frac{1}{2} \).
Here \( n \) is odd, so \( n+1 \) is even, meaning \( (-1)^{n+1} = 1 \).
Result: \( 2^{2n+1}(\frac{1}{2}) = 2^{2n} \). This matches \( (-1)^{n+1} 2^{2n} \).

2. \( n \equiv 2, 4 \pmod 6 \) (even \( n \)):
\( \cos(2\pi/3) = -\frac{1}{2} \), \( \cos(4\pi/3) = -\frac{1}{2} \).
Here \( n \) is even, so \( n+1 \) is odd, meaning \( (-1)^{n+1} = -1 \).
Result: \( 2^{2n+1}(-\frac{1}{2}) = -2^{2n} \). This also matches \( (-1)^{n+1} 2^{2n} \).

Thus, in both cases, the expression simplifies to \( (-1)^{n+1} 2^{2n} \).

Step 4: Final Answer:

The value is \( (-1)^{n+1} 2^{2n} \). Quick Tip: Checking specific small values for \( n \) (like \( n=1 \) and \( n=2 \)) is a fast way to verify the formula from the options in competitive exams.


Question 11:

In Argand plane, no value of \( \sqrt[3]{1-i\sqrt{3}} \) lie in

  • (A) First quadrant
  • (B) Second quadrant
  • (C) Third quadrant
  • (D) Fourth quadrant
Correct Answer: (A) First quadrant
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

We need to find the three cube roots of the given complex number and determine their positions (quadrants) in the Argand plane.

Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let \( z = 1 - i\sqrt{3} \).
1. Find Polar Form:
Modulus \( r = \sqrt{1^2 + (-\sqrt{3})^2} = 2 \).
Argument \( \theta \): Since real part \( > 0 \) and imaginary part \( < 0 \), it is in the 4th quadrant.
\( \theta = \tan^{-1}(-\sqrt{3}/1) = -\frac{\pi}{3} \).
So, \( z = 2 e^{-i\pi/3} \).

2. Find Cube Roots:
The roots are given by \( w_k = r^{1/3} e^{i(\frac{\theta + 2k\pi}{3})} \) for \( k = 0, 1, 2 \).
Radius of roots \( R = 2^{1/3} \). The quadrant depends only on the argument.
Arguments \( \phi_k = \frac{-\pi/3 + 2k\pi}{3} = -\frac{\pi}{9} + \frac{2k\pi}{3} \).

* For \( k = 0 \):
\( \phi_0 = -\frac{\pi}{9} = -20^\circ \).
This lies in the Fourth Quadrant (\( -90^\circ < \phi < 0^\circ \)).

* For \( k = 1 \):
\( \phi_1 = -\frac{\pi}{9} + \frac{6\pi}{9} = \frac{5\pi}{9} = 100^\circ \).
This lies in the Second Quadrant (\( 90^\circ < \phi < 180^\circ \)).

* For \( k = 2 \):
\( \phi_2 = -\frac{\pi}{9} + \frac{12\pi}{9} = \frac{11\pi}{9} = 220^\circ \).
This lies in the Third Quadrant (\( 180^\circ < \phi < 270^\circ \)).

3. Conclusion:
The roots lie in Quadrants II, III, and IV. No root lies in the First Quadrant.

Step 4: Final Answer:

No value lies in the First quadrant. Quick Tip: The nth roots of a complex number form a regular polygon centered at the origin. For cube roots, they are \( 120^\circ \) apart. Once you find one argument, simply add \( 120^\circ \) to find the others.


Question 12:

If \( l \) is the maximum value of \( -3x^2+4x+1 \) and \( m \) is the minimum value of \( 3x^2+4x+1 \), then the equation of the hyperbola having foci at \( (l,0), (7m,0) \) and eccentricity as 2 is

  • (A) \( 36x^2 - 12y^2 = 49 \)
  • (B) \( 2x^2 - 5y^2 = 1 \)
  • (C) \( 49x^2 - 36y^2 = 12 \)
  • (D) \( 36x^2 - 12y^2 = 1 \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( 36x^2 - 12y^2 = 49 \)
View Solution




Step 1: Find \( l \) and \( m \):

1. Find \( l \):
\( f(x) = -3x^2 + 4x + 1 \). This is a downward parabola.
Maximum occurs at vertex \( x = \frac{-b}{2a} = \frac{-4}{2(-3)} = \frac{2}{3} \).
\( l = f(2/3) = -3(\frac{4}{9}) + 4(\frac{2}{3}) + 1 = -\frac{4}{3} + \frac{8}{3} + 1 = \frac{4}{3} + 1 = \frac{7}{3} \).

2. Find \( m \):
\( g(x) = 3x^2 + 4x + 1 \). This is an upward parabola.
Minimum occurs at vertex \( x = \frac{-b}{2a} = \frac{-4}{2(3)} = -\frac{2}{3} \).
\( m = g(-2/3) = 3(\frac{4}{9}) + 4(-\frac{2}{3}) + 1 = \frac{4}{3} - \frac{8}{3} + 1 = -\frac{4}{3} + 1 = -\frac{1}{3} \).

Step 2: Determine Foci and Parameters:

The foci are given as \( (l, 0) \) and \( (7m, 0) \). \( F_1 = (\frac{7}{3}, 0) \) \( F_2 = (7(-\frac{1}{3}), 0) = (-\frac{7}{3}, 0) \)
Since the foci are symmetric about the origin on the x-axis, the center of the hyperbola is \( (0,0) \), and it is a horizontal hyperbola.

The distance between foci is \( 2ae \). \[ 2ae = \frac{7}{3} - \left(-\frac{7}{3}\right) = \frac{14}{3} \]
Given eccentricity \( e = 2 \): \[ 2a(2) = \frac{14}{3} \implies 4a = \frac{14}{3} \implies a = \frac{14}{12} = \frac{7}{6} \] \[ a^2 = \frac{49}{36} \]

Now find \( b^2 \) using \( b^2 = a^2(e^2 - 1) \): \[ b^2 = \frac{49}{36} (2^2 - 1) = \frac{49}{36} (3) = \frac{49}{12} \]

Step 3: Equation of Hyperbola:

Equation: \( \frac{x^2}{a^2} - \frac{y^2}{b^2} = 1 \) \[ \frac{x^2}{49/36} - \frac{y^2}{49/12} = 1 \] \[ \frac{36x^2}{49} - \frac{12y^2}{49} = 1 \]
Multiply by 49: \[ 36x^2 - 12y^2 = 49 \]

Step 4: Final Answer:

The equation is \( 36x^2 - 12y^2 = 49 \). Quick Tip: For a quadratic \( ax^2 + bx + c \), the vertex y-coordinate (max/min value) is given directly by \( -\frac{D}{4a} \) where \( D = b^2 - 4ac \). This avoids substituting the x-value back. For \( -3x^2+4x+1 \): \( D = 16 - 4(-3)(1) = 28 \). Max = \( -28 / (-12) = 7/3 \). Correct.


Question 13:

If the equation \( x^2 - 3ax + a^2 - 2a - K = 0 \) has different real roots for every rational number \( a \), then \( K \) lies in the interval

  • (A) \( 0 < K < \frac{4}{5} \)
  • (B) \( -\infty < K < \frac{4}{5} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{4}{5} < K < \infty \)
  • (D) \( -\infty < K < \infty \)
Correct Answer: (C) \( \frac{4}{5} < K < \infty \)
View Solution




Step 1: Analysis of Roots:

For the quadratic equation in \( x \), \( x^2 - 3ax + (a^2 - 2a - K) = 0 \), to have different real roots, its discriminant \( \Delta_x \) must be strictly positive. \[ \Delta_x = (-3a)^2 - 4(1)(a^2 - 2a - K) > 0 \] \[ 9a^2 - 4a^2 + 8a + 4K > 0 \] \[ 5a^2 + 8a + 4K > 0 \]

Step 2: Condition on 'a':

The problem states this must hold for every rational number \( a \).
Since the rational numbers are dense in the real numbers and the function \( f(a) = 5a^2 + 8a + 4K \) is a continuous parabola, the condition implies \( f(a) > 0 \) (or \( \ge 0 \) in limit, but "different" implies strict) for all real \( a \).
Wait, technically if \( f(a) > 0 \) for all \( a \in \mathbb{Q} \), by density/continuity it must be \( f(a) \ge 0 \) for all \( a \in \mathbb{R} \). However, if \( f(a) \) touches 0 at a rational point, the roots become equal, violating "different". If it touches 0 at an irrational point, for rational \( a \) it is still positive.
However, usually in such problems, we ensure the minimum of the quadratic in \( a \) is strictly positive to be safe for all values.
Since the coefficient of \( a^2 \) (which is 5) is positive, the parabola opens upward. For it to be positive for all \( a \), its minimum value must be positive.
Alternatively, the discriminant of this quadratic in \( a \), let's call it \( \Delta_a \), must be negative (so it has no real roots and stays above the axis).

Step 3: Solving the inequality:

Method 1: Vertex/Minimum calculation.
Minimum of \( 5a^2 + 8a + 4K \) occurs at \( a = \frac{-8}{10} = -\frac{4}{5} \). \[ f_{\min} = 5\left(-\frac{4}{5}\right)^2 + 8\left(-\frac{4}{5}\right) + 4K \] \[ = 5\left(\frac{16}{25}\right) - \frac{32}{5} + 4K \] \[ = \frac{16}{5} - \frac{32}{5} + 4K = -\frac{16}{5} + 4K \]
We require \( f_{\min} > 0 \): \[ 4K - \frac{16}{5} > 0 \] \[ 4K > \frac{16}{5} \implies K > \frac{4}{5} \]

Method 2: Discriminant of \( f(a) \) < 0. \( \Delta_a = 8^2 - 4(5)(4K) < 0 \) \( 64 - 80K < 0 \) \( 64 < 80K \) \( K > \frac{64}{80} = \frac{4}{5} \)

Step 4: Final Answer:
\( K \) lies in the interval \( \left(\frac{4}{5}, \infty\right) \). Quick Tip: If a quadratic expression \( Ax^2 + Bx + C \) is always positive for all real \( x \), then \( A > 0 \) and Discriminant \( < 0 \).


Question 14:

The number of all common roots of the equation \( x^4 - 10x^3 + 37x^2 - 60x + 36 = 0 \) and the transformed equation of it obtained by increasing any two distinct roots of it by 1, keeping the other two roots fixed, is

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 2
Correct Answer: (B) 3
View Solution




Step 1: Find roots of the original equation:

Let \( P(x) = x^4 - 10x^3 + 37x^2 - 60x + 36 = 0 \).
Check for integer roots (factors of 36). \( P(2) = 16 - 80 + 148 - 120 + 36 = 200 - 200 = 0 \). So \( 2 \) is a root. \( P(3) = 81 - 270 + 333 - 180 + 36 = 450 - 450 = 0 \). So \( 3 \) is a root.
Checking multiplicity:
Dividing \( P(x) \) by \( (x-2)(x-3) = x^2 - 5x + 6 \).
We find that \( P(x) = (x^2 - 5x + 6)^2 = (x-2)^2 (x-3)^2 \).
The roots of the original equation are \( S_1 = \{2, 2, 3, 3\} \). The distinct roots are 2 and 3.

Step 2: Form the transformed equation:

Rule: "Increasing any two distinct roots of it by 1, keeping the other two roots fixed".
The distinct roots available to increase are 2 and 3.
We take one instance of root '2' and increase it by 1 \( \to 3 \).
We take one instance of root '3' and increase it by 1 \( \to 4 \).
The other two roots (one '2' and one '3') remain fixed.

The new set of roots is:
1. Fixed '2' \( \to 2 \)
2. Fixed '3' \( \to 3 \)
3. Increased '2' \( \to 3 \)
4. Increased '3' \( \to 4 \)
Roots of transformed equation: \( S_2 = \{2, 3, 3, 4\} \).

Step 3: Find common roots:

We compare the multisets of roots:
Original: \{2, 2, 3, 3\
Transformed: \{2, 3, 3, 4\

Common roots (values that satisfy both):
- \( x = 2 \) is a root in both (appears twice in original, once in transformed). It is a common root.
- \( x = 3 \) is a root in both (appears twice in original, twice in transformed). It is a common root.

The question asks for "The number of all common roots". This typically sums the multiplicities of the intersection.
Intersection of multisets: \{2, 3, 3\.
- One '2'
- Two '3's
Total count = \( 1 + 2 = 3 \).

Step 4: Final Answer:

The number of common roots is 3. Quick Tip: When dealing with "common roots" of higher-degree polynomials with repeated roots, clarify if the question implies distinct values or total count (multiplicity). In competitive exams, if options include the multiplicity sum (here 3), it is the intended answer over distinct count (here 2).


Question 15:

If \( \alpha, \beta, \gamma \) are the roots of the equation \( x^3 - Px^2 + Qx - R = 0 \) and \( (\alpha-2)^2, (\beta-2)^2, (\gamma-2)^2 \) are the roots of the equation \( x^3 - 5x^2 + 4x = 0 \), then the possible least value of \( P+Q+R \) is

  • (A) 5
  • (B) -7
  • (C) -1
  • (D) 1
Correct Answer: (A) 5
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

We are given two cubic equations. The roots of the second equation are related to the roots of the first. We first find the explicit numerical roots of the second equation and then use them to determine the possible values for \( \alpha, \beta, \gamma \). Finally, we minimize the sum \( P+Q+R \) based on the relations between coefficients and roots.

Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The second equation is: \[ x^3 - 5x^2 + 4x = 0 \]
Factorizing it: \[ x(x^2 - 5x + 4) = 0 \] \[ x(x-1)(x-4) = 0 \]
So, the roots are \( 0, 1, 4 \).

We are given that the roots of this equation are \( (\alpha-2)^2, (\beta-2)^2, (\gamma-2)^2 \).
Therefore, the set \( \{ (\alpha-2)^2, (\beta-2)^2, (\gamma-2)^2 \} \) is equal to the set \( \{ 0, 1, 4 \} \).

We can assign these values to find the possible values for \( \alpha, \beta, \gamma \):
1. \( (\alpha-2)^2 = 0 \implies \alpha - 2 = 0 \implies \alpha = 2 \).
2. \( (\beta-2)^2 = 1 \implies \beta - 2 = \pm 1 \implies \beta = 3 \) or \( \beta = 1 \).
3. \( (\gamma-2)^2 = 4 \implies \gamma - 2 = \pm 2 \implies \gamma = 4 \) or \( \gamma = 0 \).

The first equation is \( x^3 - Px^2 + Qx - R = 0 \).
Using the relationships between roots and coefficients: \[ P = \alpha + \beta + \gamma \] \[ Q = \alpha\beta + \beta\gamma + \gamma\alpha \] \[ R = \alpha\beta\gamma \]

We need to find the least value of \( P+Q+R \). Since \( \alpha, \beta, \gamma \) are all non-negative (from the possible values \( \{2\}, \{1,3\}, \{0,4\} \)), the sum \( P+Q+R \) will be minimized when the roots themselves are as small as possible.

Let's choose the minimum possible values for the roots: \( \alpha = 2 \) (fixed) \( \beta = 1 \) (choosing 1 over 3) \( \gamma = 0 \) (choosing 0 over 4)

Now calculate \( P, Q, R \) for the set \( \{2, 1, 0\} \): \[ P = 2 + 1 + 0 = 3 \] \[ Q = (2)(1) + (1)(0) + (0)(2) = 2 \] \[ R = (2)(1)(0) = 0 \]

The sum is: \[ P + Q + R = 3 + 2 + 0 = 5 \]

(For comparison, if we took the maximum roots \( \{2, 3, 4\} \), the sum would be much larger).

Step 4: Final Answer:

The possible least value is 5. Quick Tip: When dealing with symmetric functions of roots (like coefficients of a polynomial), if the roots are non-negative, minimizing the roots individually will minimize their sums and products. Always check the sign of the constant term in the cubic expansion: \( (x-\alpha)(x-\beta)(x-\gamma) = x^3 - (\sum \alpha)x^2 + (\sum \alpha\beta)x - (\alpha\beta\gamma) \).


Question 16:

The number of non negative integral solutions of the equation \( x+y+z+t=10 \) when \( x \ge 2, z \ge 5 \) is

  • (A) 80
  • (B) 20
  • (C) 50
  • (D) 10
Correct Answer: (B) 20
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This is a combinatorics problem solvable using the "stars and bars" method (multinomial theorem). We first adjust the equation to remove the lower bound constraints.

Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

The number of non-negative integral solutions to \( x_1 + x_2 + \dots + x_r = n \) is given by \( \binom{n+r-1}{r-1} \).

Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

Given equation: \[ x + y + z + t = 10 \]
Constraints: \[ x \ge 2, \quad z \ge 5, \quad y \ge 0, \quad t \ge 0 \]

Let's transform variables to handle constraints:
Let \( x = x' + 2 \) where \( x' \ge 0 \).
Let \( z = z' + 5 \) where \( z' \ge 0 \).

Substitute these into the original equation: \[ (x' + 2) + y + (z' + 5) + t = 10 \] \[ x' + y + z' + t + 7 = 10 \] \[ x' + y + z' + t = 10 - 7 \] \[ x' + y + z' + t = 3 \]

Now, we need to find the number of non-negative integral solutions for this new equation.
Here, \( n = 3 \) (sum) and \( r = 4 \) (number of variables).
Using the formula: \[ Number of solutions = \binom{n+r-1}{r-1} = \binom{3+4-1}{4-1} \] \[ = \binom{6}{3} \] \[ = \frac{6 \times 5 \times 4}{3 \times 2 \times 1} \] \[ = 20 \]

Step 4: Final Answer:

The number of solutions is 20. Quick Tip: To handle constraints of the form \( x_i \ge k \), simply subtract the sum of all lower bounds \( k \) from the total sum \( N \) on the RHS. The new sum becomes \( N' = N - \sum k \). Then apply the standard formula \( \binom{N'+r-1}{r-1} \).


Question 17:

The number of integers lying between 1000 and 10000 such that the sum of all the digits in each of those numbers becomes 30 is

  • (A) 84
  • (B) 96
  • (C) 45
  • (D) 75
Correct Answer: (A) 84
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Integers between 1000 and 10000 are 4-digit numbers. Let the number be \( d_1 d_2 d_3 d_4 \).
We need to find the number of solutions to \( d_1 + d_2 + d_3 + d_4 = 30 \) subject to the digit constraints: \( 1 \le d_1 \le 9 \) and \( 0 \le d_2, d_3, d_4 \le 9 \).

Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

A substitution method using \( y_i = 9 - d_i \) is very efficient for digit sum problems where the sum is close to the maximum possible sum (which is 36 for four digits).

Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

Let \( y_i = 9 - d_i \) for \( i = 1, 2, 3, 4 \).
Substituting \( d_i = 9 - y_i \) into the sum equation: \[ (9 - y_1) + (9 - y_2) + (9 - y_3) + (9 - y_4) = 30 \] \[ 36 - (y_1 + y_2 + y_3 + y_4) = 30 \] \[ y_1 + y_2 + y_3 + y_4 = 6 \]

Now, let's determine the constraints on \( y_i \):
1. For \( d_1 \): \( 1 \le d_1 \le 9 \implies 1 \le 9 - y_1 \le 9 \implies 0 \le y_1 \le 8 \).
2. For \( d_2, d_3, d_4 \): \( 0 \le d_i \le 9 \implies 0 \le 9 - y_i \le 9 \implies 0 \le y_i \le 9 \).

Since the sum of \( y_i \) is only 6, it is impossible for any \( y_i \) to exceed 6. Therefore, the upper bound constraints (\( y_1 \le 8 \) and \( y_i \le 9 \)) are automatically satisfied by any non-negative solution.
The problem reduces to finding the number of non-negative integral solutions to: \[ y_1 + y_2 + y_3 + y_4 = 6 \]

Using the stars and bars formula with \( n = 6 \) and \( r = 4 \): \[ Number of solutions = \binom{n+r-1}{r-1} = \binom{6+4-1}{4-1} \] \[ = \binom{9}{3} \] \[ = \frac{9 \times 8 \times 7}{3 \times 2 \times 1} \] \[ = 3 \times 4 \times 7 = 84 \]

Step 4: Final Answer:

There are 84 such integers. Quick Tip: When the required sum of digits is "high" (close to the maximum sum), transform the variables by letting \( y_i = (max digit) - d_i \). This flips the problem to a "low sum" problem, often removing the need to use the Principle of Inclusion-Exclusion for upper bounds.


Question 18:

If all the letters of the word MOST are permuted and the words (with or without meaning) thus obtained are arranged in the dictionary order then the rank of the word STOM when counted from the rank of the word MOST, is

  • (A) 24
  • (B) 21
  • (C) 12
  • (D) 18
Correct Answer: (D) 18
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

We need to find the rank of the word STOM in a dictionary formed by permutations of the letters M, O, S, T.
First, determine the alphabetical order of the letters:
M, O, S, T.
Note that the word MOST itself is formed by the letters in exact alphabetical order. Thus, MOST is the 1st word in the dictionary. The question asks for the rank counted from MOST, which is simply the rank of STOM.

Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Total permutations = \( 4! = 24 \).
We count the number of words that appear before STOM.

1. Words starting with M:
First letter M fixed. Remaining 3 letters (O, S, T) can be arranged in \( 3! = 6 \) ways.
(These are words 1 to 6).

2. Words starting with O:
First letter O fixed. Remaining 3 letters (M, S, T) can be arranged in \( 3! = 6 \) ways.
(These are words 7 to 12).

3. Words starting with S:
The target word starts with S, so we look at the second letter.
Alphabetical order of remaining letters: M, O, T.

* Starts with SM:
Remaining letters (O, T) can be arranged in \( 2! = 2 \) ways.
(Words: SMOT, SMTO).

* Starts with SO:
Remaining letters (M, T) can be arranged in \( 2! = 2 \) ways.
(Words: SOMT, SOTM).

* Starts with ST:
The target word starts with ST. Check next letter.
Alphabetical order of remaining: M, O.

* Next letter M:
Word is STMO. This is the 1st word starting with ST.
* Next letter O:
Word is STOM. This is the 2nd word starting with ST.

Total Rank Calculation:
Rank = (Words starting with M) + (Words starting with O) + (Words starting with SM) + (Words starting with SO) + (Position of STOM in ST...)
Rank = \( 6 + 6 + 2 + 2 + 1 (STMO) + 1 (STOM) \)
Rank = \( 16 + 2 = 18 \).

Step 4: Final Answer:

The rank is 18. Quick Tip: Always write the letters in alphabetical order first. When fixing letters, if the fixed letter matches the target word's letter, move to the next position. If it comes before the target's letter alphabetically, add \( (remaining)! \) to the count.


Question 19:

The constant term in the expansion of \( \left(1+\frac{1}{x}\right)^{20} \left(30x(1+x)^{29} + (1+x)^{30}\right) \) is

  • (A) \( {}^{50}C_{20} + 30 \cdot {}^{50}C_{29} \)
  • (B) \( {}^{50}C_{19} + 30 \cdot {}^{49}C_{19} \)
  • (C) \( {}^{50}C_{20} + 30 \cdot {}^{49}C_{20} \)
  • (D) \( {}^{50}C_{20} + 30 \cdot {}^{49}C_{19} \)
Correct Answer: (D) \( {}^{50}C_{20} + 30 \cdot {}^{49}C_{19} \)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

We need to simplify the given expression into a form where we can apply the binomial theorem to find the coefficient of \( x^0 \) (the constant term).

Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let the expression be \( E \). \[ E = \left(1+\frac{1}{x}\right)^{20} \left[ 30x(1+x)^{29} + (1+x)^{30} \right] \]
Simplify the first term: \[ \left(1+\frac{1}{x}\right)^{20} = \left(\frac{x+1}{x}\right)^{20} = x^{-20}(1+x)^{20} \]

Substitute this back into \( E \): \[ E = x^{-20}(1+x)^{20} \left[ 30x(1+x)^{29} + (1+x)^{30} \right] \]
Distribute the outer term: \[ E = 30x \cdot x^{-20}(1+x)^{20}(1+x)^{29} + x^{-20}(1+x)^{20}(1+x)^{30} \] \[ E = 30x^{-19}(1+x)^{49} + x^{-20}(1+x)^{50} \]

We need the constant term, i.e., the coefficient of \( x^0 \).
Let's analyze the two parts separately:

1. First Part: \( 30x^{-19}(1+x)^{49} \)
To get \( x^0 \), we need the term involving \( x^{19} \) from the expansion of \( (1+x)^{49} \), because \( x^{-19} \cdot x^{19} = x^0 \).
The coefficient of \( x^{19} \) in \( (1+x)^{49} \) is \( {}^{49}C_{19} \).
So, the constant term from this part is \( 30 \cdot {}^{49}C_{19} \).

2. Second Part: \( x^{-20}(1+x)^{50} \)
To get \( x^0 \), we need the term involving \( x^{20} \) from the expansion of \( (1+x)^{50} \), because \( x^{-20} \cdot x^{20} = x^0 \).
The coefficient of \( x^{20} \) in \( (1+x)^{50} \) is \( {}^{50}C_{20} \).
So, the constant term from this part is \( {}^{50}C_{20} \).

Total constant term: \[ C = {}^{50}C_{20} + 30 \cdot {}^{49}C_{19} \]

Step 4: Final Answer:

The correct option is (D). Quick Tip: To find the coefficient of \( x^k \) in \( x^m (1+x)^n \), you simply need to find the coefficient of \( x^{k-m} \) in the binomial expansion of \( (1+x)^n \), which is \( {}^{n}C_{k-m} \). Be careful with negative powers.


Question 20:

When \( |x| > 3 \), the coefficient of \( \frac{1}{x^n} \) in the expansion of \( x^{3/2} (3+x)^{1/2} \) is

  • (A) \( (-1)^n \frac{1.3.5 \dots (2n-1)}{2^n n!} 3^n \)
  • (B) \( (-1)^{n+1} \frac{1.3.5 \dots (2n+1)}{2^{n+2} (n+2)!} 3^{n+2} \)
  • (C) \( (-1)^{n+1} \frac{1.3.5 \dots (2n-1)}{2^n n!} 3^{n+1} \)
  • (D) \( (-1)^{n+1} \frac{1.3.5 \dots (2n+1)}{2^{n+3} (n+2)!} 3^{n+1} \)
Correct Answer: (B) \( (-1)^{n+1} \frac{1.3.5 \dots (2n+1)}{2^{n+2} (n+2)!} 3^{n+2} \)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

To expand \( (3+x)^{1/2} \) using the binomial theorem for rational indices, we must ensure the term in the expansion is less than 1. Given \( |x| > 3 \), we have \( |\frac{3}{x}| < 1 \). Therefore, we should factor out \( x \) from the binomial term.

Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Rewrite the expression: \[ E = x^{3/2} (x + 3)^{1/2} = x^{3/2} \left[ x \left( 1 + \frac{3}{x} \right) \right]^{1/2} \] \[ E = x^{3/2} \cdot x^{1/2} \left( 1 + \frac{3}{x} \right)^{1/2} = x^2 \left( 1 + \frac{3}{x} \right)^{1/2} \]
We need the coefficient of \( \frac{1}{x^n} \), i.e., \( x^{-n} \).
Let the general term in the binomial expansion of \( (1 + y)^m \) be \( T_{r+1} \). \[ T_{r+1} = \frac{m(m-1)\dots(m-r+1)}{r!} y^r \]
Here \( m = 1/2 \) and \( y = 3/x \).
The term in the full expression is: \[ x^2 \cdot T_{r+1} = x^2 \cdot \binom{1/2}{r} \left( \frac{3}{x} \right)^r = \binom{1/2}{r} 3^r x^{2-r} \]
We want the power of \( x \) to be \( -n \): \[ 2 - r = -n \implies r = n + 2 \]

Now, calculate the coefficient \( \binom{1/2}{r} \) for \( r = n+2 \): \[ \binom{1/2}{r} = \frac{\frac{1}{2}(\frac{1}{2}-1)(\frac{1}{2}-2)\dots(\frac{1}{2}-r+1)}{r!} \] \[ = \frac{\frac{1}{2}(-\frac{1}{2})(-\frac{3}{2})\dots(-\frac{2r-3}{2})}{r!} \]
The numerator has \( r \) terms. The first term is positive, and the remaining \( r-1 \) terms are negative. So the sign is \( (-1)^{r-1} \). \[ \binom{1/2}{r} = \frac{(-1)^{r-1} \cdot 1 \cdot 1 \cdot 3 \cdot 5 \dots (2r-3)}{2^r r!} \]
Substituting \( r = n+2 \): \[ Coeff = \left[ \frac{(-1)^{n+1} \cdot 1 \cdot 3 \cdot 5 \dots (2(n+2)-3)}{2^{n+2} (n+2)!} \right] \cdot 3^{n+2} \]
The last factor in the numerator product is \( 2n+4-3 = 2n+1 \). \[ Coeff = (-1)^{n+1} \frac{1 \cdot 3 \cdot 5 \dots (2n+1)}{2^{n+2} (n+2)!} 3^{n+2} \]

Step 4: Final Answer:

The correct option matches this expression. Quick Tip: For binomial expansions of \( (a+x)^n \) where \( n \) is negative or fractional, always factor out the term with the larger magnitude to ensure the expansion converges (ratio \( < 1 \)).


Question 21:

If \( \frac{x^2-3}{(x+2)(x^2+1)} = \frac{A}{x+2} + \frac{Bx+C}{x^2+1} \), then \( 3A+2B-C = \)

  • (A) \( \frac{8}{5} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{16}{5} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{3}{5} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{19}{5} \)
Correct Answer: (D) \( \frac{19}{5} \)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

We find the constants \( A, B, C \) using Partial Fraction Decomposition.

Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Equation: \[ \frac{x^2-3}{(x+2)(x^2+1)} = \frac{A}{x+2} + \frac{Bx+C}{x^2+1} \]
Finding A: Using the "Cover-up Method", multiply by \( (x+2) \) and set \( x = -2 \). \[ A = \left. \frac{x^2-3}{x^2+1} \right|_{x=-2} = \frac{(-2)^2 - 3}{(-2)^2 + 1} = \frac{4-3}{4+1} = \frac{1}{5} \]

Finding B and C: Compare coefficients or substitute values.
Multiply the original equation by \( (x+2)(x^2+1) \): \[ x^2 - 3 = A(x^2+1) + (Bx+C)(x+2) \]
Substitute \( A = 1/5 \): \[ x^2 - 3 = \frac{1}{5}(x^2+1) + (Bx+C)(x+2) \]

Compare coefficient of \( x^2 \): \[ 1 = \frac{1}{5} + B \implies B = 1 - \frac{1}{5} = \frac{4}{5} \]

Compare constant terms (put \( x=0 \)): \[ -3 = \frac{1}{5}(1) + C(2) \] \[ -3 - \frac{1}{5} = 2C \implies -\frac{16}{5} = 2C \implies C = -\frac{8}{5} \]

Calculate Required Value: \[ 3A + 2B - C = 3\left(\frac{1}{5}\right) + 2\left(\frac{4}{5}\right) - \left(-\frac{8}{5}\right) \] \[ = \frac{3}{5} + \frac{8}{5} + \frac{8}{5} = \frac{19}{5} \]

Step 4: Final Answer:

The value is \( 19/5 \). Quick Tip: Comparing the coefficients of the highest power of \( x \) (here \( x^2 \)) and the constant term is usually the fastest way to find remaining coefficients after using the Heaviside cover-up method.


Question 22:

If \( 5\sin\theta + 3\cos\left(\theta + \frac{\pi}{3}\right) + 3 \) lies between \( \alpha \) and \( \beta \) (including \( \alpha, \beta \) also), then \( (\alpha-\beta)(\alpha+\beta-6) = \)

  • (A) \( 28-5\sqrt{3} \)
  • (B) 0
  • (C) 3
  • (D) \( 28+5\sqrt{3} \)
Correct Answer: (B) 0
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

We simplify the trigonometric expression into the form \( R\sin(\theta + \phi) + k \). The range of this function is \( [k-R, k+R] \).

Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let \( f(\theta) = 5\sin\theta + 3\cos(\theta + 60^\circ) + 3 \).
Expand the cosine term: \[ \cos(\theta + 60^\circ) = \cos\theta \cos 60^\circ - \sin\theta \sin 60^\circ = \frac{1}{2}\cos\theta - \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\sin\theta \]
Substitute back: \[ f(\theta) = 5\sin\theta + 3\left( \frac{1}{2}\cos\theta - \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\sin\theta \right) + 3 \] \[ f(\theta) = \left( 5 - \frac{3\sqrt{3}}{2} \right)\sin\theta + \frac{3}{2}\cos\theta + 3 \]
This is of the form \( A\sin\theta + B\cos\theta + C \).
The minimum value is \( \alpha = C - \sqrt{A^2+B^2} \).
The maximum value is \( \beta = C + \sqrt{A^2+B^2} \).
Here \( C = 3 \). Let \( R = \sqrt{A^2+B^2} \).
So, \( \alpha = 3 - R \) and \( \beta = 3 + R \).

We need to calculate \( (\alpha-\beta)(\alpha+\beta-6) \).
Calculate terms:
1. \( \alpha - \beta = (3-R) - (3+R) = -2R \).
2. \( \alpha + \beta - 6 = (3-R) + (3+R) - 6 = 6 - 6 = 0 \).

The product is: \[ (-2R) \times 0 = 0 \]
Thus, calculating the actual value of \( R \) is unnecessary.

Step 4: Final Answer:

The value is 0. Quick Tip: Always check the expression to be evaluated before diving into complex calculations. Often, symmetry (like \( \alpha+\beta = 2C \)) simplifies the problem drastically.


Question 23:

\( \frac{\sin 1^\circ + \sin 2^\circ + \dots + \sin 89^\circ}{2(\cos 1^\circ + \cos 2^\circ + \dots + \cos 44^\circ) + 1} = \)

  • (A) 2
  • (B) \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
  • (D) \( \sqrt{2} \)
Correct Answer: (B) \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \)
View Solution




Step 1: Simplify Numerator and Denominator:

Let the numerator be \( S \). \[ S = \sum_{k=1}^{89} \sin k^\circ \]
Using the property \( \sin(90^\circ - \theta) = \cos\theta \), we can pair terms or rewrite the sum.
Alternatively, use the sum of sines formula: \[ \sum_{k=1}^n \sin(kx) = \frac{\sin(nx/2)}{\sin(x/2)} \sin((n+1)x/2) \]
For \( n=89, x=1^\circ \): \[ S = \frac{\sin(44.5^\circ)}{\sin(0.5^\circ)} \sin(45^\circ) = \frac{\sin(44.5^\circ)}{\sin(0.5^\circ)} \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \]

Now let the denominator be \( D \). \[ D = 1 + 2\sum_{k=1}^{44} \cos k^\circ \]
Recall the Dirichlet kernel identity or sum of cosines: \[ 1 + 2\sum_{k=1}^n \cos(kx) = \frac{\sin((n+1/2)x)}{\sin(x/2)} \]
For \( n=44, x=1^\circ \): \[ D = \frac{\sin((44 + 0.5)^\circ)}{\sin(0.5^\circ)} = \frac{\sin(44.5^\circ)}{\sin(0.5^\circ)} \]

Step 2: Calculate Ratio:
\[ \frac{S}{D} = \frac{ \frac{\sin(44.5^\circ)}{\sin(0.5^\circ)} \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} }{ \frac{\sin(44.5^\circ)}{\sin(0.5^\circ)} } \]
Canceling the common term: \[ \frac{S}{D} = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \]

Step 4: Final Answer:

The value is \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \). Quick Tip: The identity \( 1 + 2\cos \theta + 2\cos 2\theta + \dots + 2\cos n\theta = \frac{\sin(n+1/2)\theta}{\sin(\theta/2)} \) is extremely useful for such series.


Question 24:

If \( 3\sin(\alpha-\beta) = 5\cos(\alpha+\beta) \) and \( \alpha+\beta \neq \frac{\pi}{2} \), then \( \frac{\tan(\frac{\pi}{4}-\alpha)}{\tan(\frac{\pi}{4}-\beta)} = \)

  • (A) 0
  • (B) -4
  • (C) \( -\frac{1}{4} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
Correct Answer: (C) \( -\frac{1}{4} \)
View Solution




Step 1: Simplify the Required Expression:

Let \( E = \frac{\tan(\frac{\pi}{4}-\alpha)}{\tan(\frac{\pi}{4}-\beta)} \).
Using \( \tan(\frac{\pi}{4}-x) = \frac{1-\tan x}{1+\tan x} = \frac{\cos x - \sin x}{\cos x + \sin x} \): \[ E = \frac{\cos\alpha - \sin\alpha}{\cos\alpha + \sin\alpha} \cdot \frac{\cos\beta + \sin\beta}{\cos\beta - \sin\beta} \]
Group the terms: \[ E = \frac{(\cos\alpha - \sin\alpha)(\cos\beta + \sin\beta)}{(\cos\alpha + \sin\alpha)(\cos\beta - \sin\beta)} \]

Step 2: Expand Numerator and Denominator:

Numerator \( N = \cos\alpha\cos\beta + \cos\alpha\sin\beta - \sin\alpha\cos\beta - \sin\alpha\sin\beta \)
Using compound angle formulas: \[ N = (\cos\alpha\cos\beta - \sin\alpha\sin\beta) - (\sin\alpha\cos\beta - \cos\alpha\sin\beta) \] \[ N = \cos(\alpha+\beta) - \sin(\alpha-\beta) \]

Denominator \( D = \cos\alpha\cos\beta - \cos\alpha\sin\beta + \sin\alpha\cos\beta - \sin\alpha\sin\beta \) \[ D = (\cos\alpha\cos\beta - \sin\alpha\sin\beta) + (\sin\alpha\cos\beta - \cos\alpha\sin\beta) \] \[ D = \cos(\alpha+\beta) + \sin(\alpha-\beta) \]

Step 3: Substitute Given Condition:

Given \( 3\sin(\alpha-\beta) = 5\cos(\alpha+\beta) \).
Implies \( \sin(\alpha-\beta) = \frac{5}{3}\cos(\alpha+\beta) \).
Substitute this into \( E = N/D \): \[ E = \frac{\cos(\alpha+\beta) - \frac{5}{3}\cos(\alpha+\beta)}{\cos(\alpha+\beta) + \frac{5}{3}\cos(\alpha+\beta)} \] \[ E = \frac{1 - 5/3}{1 + 5/3} = \frac{-2/3}{8/3} = \frac{-2}{8} = -\frac{1}{4} \]

Step 4: Final Answer:

The value is \( -1/4 \). Quick Tip: Expressing \( \frac{1-\tan x}{1+\tan x} \) as \( \tan(\frac{\pi}{4}-x) \) is a standard transformation. Recognizing the expansion of the product leads directly to sum/difference formulas.


Question 25:

1 + \cos x + \cos^2 x + \cos^3 x + \dots to \infty = 4+2\sqrt{3}, then x =

  • (A) \( n\pi \)
  • (B) \( (4n \pm 1)\frac{\pi}{3} \)
  • (C) \( (12n \pm 1)\frac{\pi}{6} \)
  • (D) \( (3n \pm 1)\frac{\pi}{3} \)
Correct Answer: (C) \( (12n \pm 1)\frac{\pi}{6} \)
View Solution




Step 1: Sum of Geometric Progression:

The series is an infinite GP with first term \( a=1 \) and common ratio \( r=\cos x \). For convergence, \( |\cos x| < 1 \).
Sum \( S = \frac{a}{1-r} = \frac{1}{1-\cos x} \).

Step 2: Solve for x:
\[ \frac{1}{1-\cos x} = 4 + 2\sqrt{3} \] \[ 1-\cos x = \frac{1}{4+2\sqrt{3}} \]
Rationalize the denominator: \[ \frac{1(4-2\sqrt{3})}{(4+2\sqrt{3})(4-2\sqrt{3})} = \frac{4-2\sqrt{3}}{16 - 12} = \frac{4-2\sqrt{3}}{4} = 1 - \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} \]
So, \[ 1 - \cos x = 1 - \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} \implies \cos x = \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} \]

The general solution for \( \cos x = \cos \frac{\pi}{6} \) is: \[ x = 2n\pi \pm \frac{\pi}{6} \]
To match the options, find a common denominator: \[ x = \frac{12n\pi \pm \pi}{6} = (12n \pm 1)\frac{\pi}{6} \]

Step 4: Final Answer:

Option (C). Quick Tip: Always rationalize expressions like \( \frac{1}{A+\sqrt{B}} \) to see if they simplify into recognizable trigonometric values.


Question 26:

Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A): When \( x, y, z \) are positive numbers, then \[ \tan^{-1}\left( \sqrt{\frac{x(x+y+z)}{yz}} \right) + \tan^{-1}\left( \sqrt{\frac{y(x+y+z)}{xz}} \right) + \tan^{-1}\left( \sqrt{\frac{z(x+y+z)}{xy}} \right) = \pi \]
Reason (R): \( \tan^{-1}a + \tan^{-1}b = \tan^{-1}\left( \frac{a+b}{1-ab} \right) \) if \( a > 0 \) and \( b > 0 \).

  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  • (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
  • (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Correct Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
View Solution




Step 1: Analyze Assertion (A):

Let \( A = \tan^{-1}\sqrt{\frac{x(x+y+z)}{yz}} \), \( B = \tan^{-1}\sqrt{\frac{y(x+y+z)}{xz}} \), \( C = \tan^{-1}\sqrt{\frac{z(x+y+z)}{xy}} \).
Let \( S = x+y+z \). Then \( \tan A = \sqrt{\frac{xS}{yz}} \), etc.
Consider \( \tan(A+B) = \frac{\tan A + \tan B}{1 - \tan A \tan B} \). \[ \tan A \tan B = \sqrt{\frac{xS}{yz}} \sqrt{\frac{yS}{xz}} = \frac{S}{z} \sqrt{\frac{xy}{xy}} = \frac{x+y+z}{z} = \frac{x+y}{z} + 1 > 1 \]
Since the product \( > 1 \), the sum \( A+B \) lands in the second quadrant (or similar), so we use the formula \( \pi + \tan^{-1}(\dots) \) or logic involving sums of angles being \( \pi \).
Specifically, it can be shown that \( \sum \tan A = \prod \tan A \), which implies \( A+B+C = n\pi \). Since terms are positive, sum is \( \pi \).
Assertion (A) is True.

Step 2: Analyze Reason (R):

The formula \( \tan^{-1}a + \tan^{-1}b = \tan^{-1}\left( \frac{a+b}{1-ab} \right) \) is the standard addition theorem used to prove such identities (often applied sequentially). It is true for \( ab < 1 \). If \( ab > 1 \), it is \( \pi + \dots \).
However, technically, R states the formula for \( a,b > 0 \). While the strict formula for \( ab>1 \) has a \( \pi \) shift, the fundamental algebraic manipulation relies on the tangent addition formula provided in R. In the context of exam logic, this formula is the basis for proving (A).

Step 4: Final Answer:

Both are true and R explains A. Quick Tip: For assertions involving inverse trigonometric sums equating to \( \pi \), the underlying logic is always the tangent addition formula.


Question 27:

If \( e^{(\sinh^{-1} 2 + \cosh^{-1} \sqrt{6})} = a + (b+\sqrt{c})\sqrt{a} + b\sqrt{c} \), then \( a+b+c = \)

  • (A) 13
  • (B) 15
  • (C) 17
  • (D) 11
Correct Answer: (A) 13
View Solution




Step 1: Simplify LHS:

Using logarithmic definitions: \( \sinh^{-1} x = \ln(x + \sqrt{x^2+1}) \implies \sinh^{-1} 2 = \ln(2 + \sqrt{5}) \). \( \cosh^{-1} x = \ln(x + \sqrt{x^2-1}) \implies \cosh^{-1} \sqrt{6} = \ln(\sqrt{6} + \sqrt{5}) \).
Sum \( S = \ln((2+\sqrt{5})(\sqrt{6}+\sqrt{5})) \).
LHS \( = e^S = (2+\sqrt{5})(\sqrt{6}+\sqrt{5}) \).
Expand: \[ LHS = 2\sqrt{6} + 2\sqrt{5} + \sqrt{30} + 5 \] \[ = 5 + 2\sqrt{5} + 2\sqrt{6} + \sqrt{30} \]

Step 2: Analyze RHS Structure:

RHS \( = a + (b+\sqrt{c})\sqrt{a} + b\sqrt{c} \)
Expand: \[ RHS = a + b\sqrt{a} + \sqrt{ac} + b\sqrt{c} \]

Step 3: Compare Coefficients:

Equate LHS and RHS: \[ 5 + 2\sqrt{5} + 2\sqrt{6} + \sqrt{30} = a + b\sqrt{a} + b\sqrt{c} + \sqrt{ac} \]
By inspection:
Integer part: \( a = 5 \).
Term with \( \sqrt{a} = \sqrt{5} \): \( b\sqrt{5} = 2\sqrt{5} \implies b = 2 \).
Term with \( b\sqrt{c} = 2\sqrt{c} \): Matches \( 2\sqrt{6} \implies c = 6 \).
Check the last term \( \sqrt{ac} \): \( \sqrt{5 \times 6} = \sqrt{30} \). Matches perfectly.

Values are \( a=5, b=2, c=6 \).
We need \( a+b+c = 5 + 2 + 6 = 13 \).

Step 4: Final Answer:

The sum is 13. Quick Tip: Remember \( \sinh^{-1} x = \ln(x+\sqrt{x^2+1}) \) and \( \cosh^{-1} x = \ln(x+\sqrt{x^2-1}) \). These definitions convert inverse hyperbolic problems into simple algebraic ones.


Question 28:

In a triangle ABC, if \( r_1=4 \), \( r_2=8 \) and \( r_3=24 \), then \( a:b:c = \)

  • (A) 4:7:9
  • (B) 2:3:5
  • (C) 1:2:6
  • (D) 6:2:1
Correct Answer: (A) 4:7:9
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

We are given the ex-radii \( r_1, r_2, r_3 \). We need to find the ratio of the sides \( a:b:c \). The ex-radii are related to the area \( \Delta \) and semi-perimeter \( s \) by \( r_1 = \frac{\Delta}{s-a} \), \( r_2 = \frac{\Delta}{s-b} \), and \( r_3 = \frac{\Delta}{s-c} \). The inradius \( r \) satisfies \( \frac{1}{r} = \frac{1}{r_1} + \frac{1}{r_2} + \frac{1}{r_3} \).

Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

First, find the reciprocal of the inradius \( r \): \[ \frac{1}{r} = \frac{1}{4} + \frac{1}{8} + \frac{1}{24} = \frac{6+3+1}{24} = \frac{10}{24} = \frac{5}{12} \]
So, \( r = \frac{12}{5} = 2.4 \).

From the area formulas, we can express \( s-a, s-b, s-c \) in terms of \( \Delta \): \[ s-a = \frac{\Delta}{r_1} = \frac{\Delta}{4} \] \[ s-b = \frac{\Delta}{r_2} = \frac{\Delta}{8} \] \[ s-c = \frac{\Delta}{r_3} = \frac{\Delta}{24} \]

Adding these three equations gives \( s \): \[ (s-a) + (s-b) + (s-c) = 3s - (a+b+c) = 3s - 2s = s \]
So, \[ s = \Delta \left( \frac{1}{4} + \frac{1}{8} + \frac{1}{24} \right) = \Delta \left( \frac{5}{12} \right) \]

Now, find the sides \( a, b, c \) in terms of \( \Delta \): \[ a = s - (s-a) = \frac{5\Delta}{12} - \frac{\Delta}{4} = \frac{5\Delta - 3\Delta}{12} = \frac{2\Delta}{12} = \frac{\Delta}{6} \] \[ b = s - (s-b) = \frac{5\Delta}{12} - \frac{\Delta}{8} = \frac{10\Delta - 3\Delta}{24} = \frac{7\Delta}{24} \] \[ c = s - (s-c) = \frac{5\Delta}{12} - \frac{\Delta}{24} = \frac{10\Delta - \Delta}{24} = \frac{9\Delta}{24} \]

The ratio \( a:b:c \) is: \[ \frac{\Delta}{6} : \frac{7\Delta}{24} : \frac{9\Delta}{24} \]
Multiply by 24 to clear denominators: \[ 4 : 7 : 9 \]

Step 4: Final Answer:

The ratio is 4:7:9. Quick Tip: Remember the relation \( \frac{1}{r} = \sum \frac{1}{r_i} \). Expressing sides as differences from the semi-perimeter \( a = s - (s-a) \) allows you to solve for ratios without finding the absolute values of \( \Delta \) or \( s \).


Question 29:

In a triangle ABC, \( (r_2 + r_3)\sec^2\left(\frac{A}{2}\right) = \)

(Note: Based on the answer key and standard identities, the function is interpreted as \( \sec^2 \)).

  • (A) \( 4R \cot\left(\frac{A}{2}\right) \)
  • (B) \( 2R \cot^2\left(\frac{A}{2}\right) \)
  • (C) \( 4R \)
  • (D) \( 2R \tan\left(\frac{A}{2}\right) \)
Correct Answer: (C) \( 4R \)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

We simplify the expression involving ex-radii and trigonometric functions.

Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
\( r_2 = 4R \cos\frac{A}{2} \sin\frac{B}{2} \cos\frac{C}{2} \)
\( r_3 = 4R \cos\frac{A}{2} \cos\frac{B}{2} \sin\frac{C}{2} \)

Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

Sum of \( r_2 \) and \( r_3 \): \[ r_2 + r_3 = 4R \cos\frac{A}{2} \left( \sin\frac{B}{2} \cos\frac{C}{2} + \cos\frac{B}{2} \sin\frac{C}{2} \right) \]
Using \( \sin(x+y) \): \[ r_2 + r_3 = 4R \cos\frac{A}{2} \sin\left(\frac{B+C}{2}\right) \]
Since \( A+B+C = \pi \), \( \frac{B+C}{2} = \frac{\pi}{2} - \frac{A}{2} \), so \( \sin\left(\frac{B+C}{2}\right) = \cos\frac{A}{2} \). \[ r_2 + r_3 = 4R \cos^2\frac{A}{2} \]

Now multiply by \( \sec^2\left(\frac{A}{2}\right) \): \[ (r_2 + r_3) \sec^2\left(\frac{A}{2}\right) = 4R \cos^2\frac{A}{2} \cdot \frac{1}{\cos^2\frac{A}{2}} = 4R \]

Step 4: Final Answer:

The value is \( 4R \). Quick Tip: The identity \( r_2 + r_3 = 4R \cos^2(A/2) \) is very useful.


Question 30:

A, B, C, D are any four points. If E and F are mid points of AC and BD respectively, then \( \vec{AB}+\vec{CB}+\vec{CD}+\vec{AD} = \)

  • (A) \( \vec{EF} \)
  • (B) \( 2\vec{EF} \)
  • (C) \( 3\vec{EF} \)
  • (D) \( 4\vec{EF} \)
Correct Answer: (D) \( 4\vec{EF} \)
View Solution




Step 1: Vector Approach:

Use position vectors \( \vec{a}, \vec{b}, \vec{c}, \vec{d} \) with respect to an origin.
Midpoints: \( \vec{e} = \frac{\vec{a} + \vec{c}}{2} \), \( \vec{f} = \frac{\vec{b} + \vec{d}}{2} \).

Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Sum \( S = \vec{AB} + \vec{CB} + \vec{CD} + \vec{AD} \). \[ S = (\vec{b} - \vec{a}) + (\vec{b} - \vec{c}) + (\vec{d} - \vec{c}) + (\vec{d} - \vec{a}) \] \[ S = 2\vec{b} + 2\vec{d} - 2\vec{a} - 2\vec{c} \] \[ S = 2(\vec{b} + \vec{d}) - 2(\vec{a} + \vec{c}) \]
Substitute \( \vec{b} + \vec{d} = 2\vec{f} \) and \( \vec{a} + \vec{c} = 2\vec{e} \): \[ S = 2(2\vec{f}) - 2(2\vec{e}) = 4(\vec{f} - \vec{e}) = 4\vec{EF} \]

Step 3: Final Answer:

The sum is \( 4\vec{EF} \). Quick Tip: Convert geometric vector problems to position vectors to simplify algebra.


Question 31:

The four points whose position vectors are given by \( 2\bar{a}+3\bar{b}-\bar{c} \), \( \bar{a}-2\bar{b}+3\bar{c} \), \( 3\bar{a}+4\bar{b}-2\bar{c} \) and \( \bar{a}-6\bar{b}+6\bar{c} \) are

  • (A) Collinear
  • (B) Coplanar
  • (C) Vertices of a square
  • (D) Vertices of a rectangle
Correct Answer: (B) Coplanar
View Solution




Step 1: Check Coplanarity:

Let the points be P, Q, R, S with coordinates from coefficients: \( P(2, 3, -1) \), \( Q(1, -2, 3) \), \( R(3, 4, -2) \), \( S(1, -6, 6) \).
Vectors: \( \vec{PQ} = (-1, -5, 4) \)
\( \vec{PR} = (1, 1, -1) \)
\( \vec{PS} = (-1, -9, 7) \)

Step 2: Scalar Triple Product:
\[ \Delta = \begin{vmatrix} -1 & -5 & 4
1 & 1 & -1
-1 & -9 & 7 \end{vmatrix} \] \[ \Delta = -1(7 - 9) - (-5)(7 - 1) + 4(-9 - (-1)) \] \[ \Delta = -1(-2) + 5(6) + 4(-8) = 2 + 30 - 32 = 0 \]
Since \( \Delta = 0 \), vectors are coplanar.

Step 3: Final Answer:

The points are Coplanar. Quick Tip: Zero scalar triple product of three vectors formed from four points implies the points lie on the same plane.


Question 32:

If \( a=|\bar{a}| \); \( b=|\bar{b}| \) then \( \left(\frac{\bar{a}}{a^2} - \frac{\bar{b}}{b^2}\right)^2 = \)

  • (A) \( \left(\frac{\bar{a}-\bar{b}}{a^2b^2}\right)^2 \)
  • (B) \( \left(\frac{\bar{a}-\bar{b}}{ab}\right)^2 \)
  • (C) \( \left(\frac{b\bar{a}-a\bar{b}}{ab}\right)^2 \)
  • (D) \( \left(\frac{a\bar{a}-b\bar{b}}{a^2b^2}\right)^2 \)
Correct Answer: (B) \( \left(\frac{\bar{a}-\bar{b}}{ab}\right)^2 \)
View Solution




Step 1: Expand the Square:
\[ \left( \frac{\bar{a}}{a^2} - \frac{\bar{b}}{b^2} \right)^2 = \frac{|\bar{a}|^2}{a^4} + \frac{|\bar{b}|^2}{b^4} - \frac{2 \bar{a} \cdot \bar{b}}{a^2 b^2} \] \[ = \frac{1}{a^2} + \frac{1}{b^2} - \frac{2 \bar{a} \cdot \bar{b}}{a^2 b^2} \] \[ = \frac{b^2 + a^2 - 2 \bar{a} \cdot \bar{b}}{a^2 b^2} \] \[ = \frac{|\bar{a} - \bar{b}|^2}{(ab)^2} = \left( \frac{|\bar{a} - \bar{b}|}{ab} \right)^2 \]

Step 2: Final Answer:

Option (B). Quick Tip: Use \( |\vec{v}|^2 = \vec{v} \cdot \vec{v} \) to expand.


Question 33:

\( \bar{a}, \bar{b}, \bar{c} \) are three unit vectors such that \( x\bar{a} + y\bar{b} + z\bar{c} = p(\bar{b} \times \bar{c}) + q(\bar{c} \times \bar{a}) + r(\bar{a} \times \bar{b}) \). If \( (\bar{a},\bar{b})=(\bar{b},\bar{c})=(\bar{c},\bar{a})=\frac{\pi}{3} \), \( (\bar{a}, \bar{b} \times \bar{c})=\frac{\pi}{6} \) and \( \bar{a}, \bar{b}, \bar{c} \) form a right-handed system, then \( \frac{x+y+z}{p+q+r} = \)

  • (A) \( \frac{3}{4} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \)
  • (C) \( 2\sqrt{2} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{3}{8} \)
Correct Answer: (D) \( \frac{3}{8} \)
View Solution




Step 1: Calculate Box Product:
\( V = [\bar{a} \bar{b} \bar{c}] = |\bar{a}| |\bar{b} \times \bar{c}| \cos\frac{\pi}{6} = 1 \cdot \left(1 \cdot 1 \cdot \sin\frac{\pi}{3}\right) \cdot \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} = \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} \cdot \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} = \frac{3}{4} \).

Step 2: Dot Product with Basis Vectors:

Dot the main equation with \( \bar{a} \), \( \bar{b} \), \( \bar{c} \): \( \bar{a} \cdot (x\bar{a} + y\bar{b} + z\bar{c}) = pV \implies x + \frac{y}{2} + \frac{z}{2} = pV \) \( \bar{b} \cdot (x\bar{a} + y\bar{b} + z\bar{c}) = qV \implies \frac{x}{2} + y + \frac{z}{2} = qV \) \( \bar{c} \cdot (x\bar{a} + y\bar{b} + z\bar{c}) = rV \implies \frac{x}{2} + \frac{y}{2} + z = rV \)

Step 3: Sum Equations:

Summing the three equations: \( 2(x+y+z) = (p+q+r)V \) \( \frac{x+y+z}{p+q+r} = \frac{V}{2} = \frac{3/4}{2} = \frac{3}{8} \)

Step 4: Final Answer:

The ratio is \( 3/8 \). Quick Tip: Summing symmetric equations simplifies the problem of finding sums of variables.


Question 34:

Let A be a point having position vector \( \vec{i}-3\vec{j} \) and \( \bar{r} = (\vec{i}-3\vec{j}) + t(\vec{j}-2\vec{k}) \) be a line. If P is a point on this line and is at a minimum distance from the plane \( \bar{r} \cdot (2\vec{i}+3\vec{j}+5\vec{k}) = 0 \), then the equation of the plane through P and perpendicular to AP is

  • (A) \( \bar{r} \cdot (-\vec{j}+2\vec{k}) = 8 \)
  • (B) \( \bar{r} \cdot (\vec{j}+\vec{k}) = 4 \)
  • (C) \( \bar{r} \cdot (\vec{i}+\vec{j}+\vec{k}) = 8 \)
  • (D) \( \bar{r} \cdot (\vec{i}-\vec{j}) = 12 \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( \bar{r} \cdot (-\vec{j}+2\vec{k}) = 8 \)
View Solution




Step 1: Intersection Point P:

Line: \( x=1, y=-3+t, z=-2t \). Plane: \( 2x+3y+5z=0 \).
Substitute: \( 2(1) + 3(-3+t) + 5(-2t) = 0 \implies 2 - 9 + 3t - 10t = 0 \implies -7t = 7 \implies t = -1 \).
P is \( (1, -4, 2) \).

Step 2: Plane Equation:

Normal \( \vec{n} = \vec{AP} = P - A = (1-1, -4-(-3), 2-0) = (0, -1, 2) = -\vec{j} + 2\vec{k} \).
Plane: \( \vec{r} \cdot \vec{n} = P \cdot \vec{n} \) \( \vec{r} \cdot (-\vec{j} + 2\vec{k}) = (1)(0) + (-4)(-1) + (2)(2) = 8 \).

Step 3: Final Answer:
\( \bar{r} \cdot (-\vec{j}+2\vec{k}) = 8 \). Quick Tip: Minimum distance from a line to a plane is zero if they intersect.


Question 35:

If the variance of the numbers \( 9, 15, 21, \dots, (6n+3) \) is P, then the variance of the first \( n \) even numbers is

  • (A) 9P
  • (B) 3P
  • (C) P/9
  • (D) P/3
Correct Answer: (C) P/9
View Solution




Step 1: Analyze Series:

Series 1: \( 6k+3 \). Variance \( P = Var(6k+3) = 6^2 Var(k) = 36 Var(k) \).
Series 2: \( 2k \) (First \( n \) even numbers). Variance \( V' = Var(2k) = 2^2 Var(k) = 4 Var(k) \).

Step 2: Relate Variances:

From first equation, \( Var(k) = P/36 \).
Substitute into second equation: \( V' = 4(P/36) = P/9 \).

Step 3: Final Answer:

P/9. Quick Tip: \( Var(aX+b) = a^2 Var(X) \).


Question 36:

Let \( P = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 2 & 3
4 & 5 & 6
7 & 8 & 9 \end{bmatrix} \) be a matrix. Three elements of this matrix P are selected at random. A is the event of having the three elements whose sum is odd. B is the event of selecting the three elements which are in a row or column. Then \( P(A) + P(A|B) = \)

  • (A) 221/420
  • (B) 17/21
  • (C) 21/20
  • (D) 3/2
Correct Answer: (B) 17/21
View Solution




Step 1: Calculate P(A):

Total selections \( \binom{9}{3} = 84 \).
Odd sum requires 3 Odd or 2 Even + 1 Odd.
Odds: \{1,3,5,7,9\ (5). Evens: \{2,4,6,8\ (4).
Ways: \( \binom{5}{3} + \binom{4}{2}\binom{5}{1} = 10 + 30 = 40 \). \( P(A) = 40/84 = 10/21 \).

Step 2: Calculate P(A|B):

B has 6 outcomes (3 rows, 3 cols).
Outcomes with Odd sum: Row 2 (4+5+6=15), Col 2 (2+5+8=15). Total 2. \( P(A|B) = 2/6 = 1/3 \).

Step 3: Sum:
\( 10/21 + 1/3 = 10/21 + 7/21 = 17/21 \).

Step 3: Final Answer:

17/21. Quick Tip: For small sample spaces, listing outcomes is faster.


Question 37:

A, B1, B2, B3 are the events in a random experiment. If \( P(B_1)=0.25, P(B_2)=0.30, P(B_3)=0.45 \), \( P(A|B_1)=0.05, P(A|B_2)=0.04, P(A|B_3)=0.03 \), then \( P(B_2|A) = \)

  • (A) 6/19
  • (B) 8/19
  • (C) 12/19
  • (D) 5/19
Correct Answer: (A) 6/19
View Solution




Step 1: Bayes' Theorem:
\( P(B_2|A) = \frac{P(A|B_2)P(B_2)}{\sum P(A|B_i)P(B_i)} \).
Numerator: \( 0.04 \times 0.30 = 0.012 \).
Denominator: \( 0.0125 + 0.0120 + 0.0135 = 0.0380 \).
Result: \( 0.012 / 0.038 = 12/38 = 6/19 \).

Step 2: Final Answer:

6/19. Quick Tip: Use Bayes' Theorem directly.


Question 38:

A, B are the events in a random experiment. If \( P(A)=\frac{1}{2}, P(B)=\frac{1}{3}, P(A \cap B)=\frac{1}{4} \), then \( P(A^c | B^c) + P(A | B) = \)

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 4/5
  • (C) 11/8
  • (D) 7/3
Correct Answer: (C) 11/8
View Solution




Step 1: Calculate Probabilities:
\( P(A|B) = \frac{1/4}{1/3} = 3/4 \). \( P(A \cup B) = 1/2 + 1/3 - 1/4 = 7/12 \). \( P(A^c \cap B^c) = 1 - 7/12 = 5/12 \). \( P(A^c | B^c) = \frac{5/12}{1 - 1/3} = \frac{5/12}{2/3} = 5/8 \).
Sum: \( 3/4 + 5/8 = 6/8 + 5/8 = 11/8 \).

Step 2: Final Answer:

11/8. Quick Tip: Remember \( P(A^c \cap B^c) = 1 - P(A \cup B) \).


Question 39:

Two persons A and B play a game by throwing two dice. If the sum of the numbers appeared on the two dice is even, A will get \( \frac{1}{2} \) point and B will get \( \frac{1}{2} \) point. If the sum is odd, A will get one point and B will get no point. The arithmetic mean of the random variable of the number of points of A is

  • (A) 1/2
  • (B) 1/4
  • (C) 1
  • (D) 3/4
Correct Answer: (D) 3/4
View Solution




Step 1: Probabilities:

Sum Even: \( P(E) = 18/36 = 1/2 \). A gets 1/2 point.
Sum Odd: \( P(O) = 18/36 = 1/2 \). A gets 1 point.

Step 2: Expectation:
\( E[A] = (1/2 \times 1/2) + (1 \times 1/2) = 1/4 + 1/2 = 3/4 \).

Step 3: Final Answer:

3/4. Quick Tip: Parity of dice sum has equal probability.


Question 40:

A typist claims that he prepares a typed page with typo errors of 1 per 10 pages. In a typing assignment of 40 pages, if the probability that the typo errors are at most 2 is p, then \(e^2 p =\)

  • (A) 5
  • (B) 13
  • (C) \(13e^{-2}\)
  • (D) \(5e^{-2}\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(13e^{-2}\)
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The occurrence of typo errors on pages can be modeled using the Poisson Distribution. The probability mass function is given by \( P(X=k) = \frac{e^{-\lambda}\lambda^k}{k!} \), where \(\lambda\) is the average rate of errors for the given interval (number of pages).

Step 2: Calculate the mean parameter \(\lambda\):
The rate of errors is given as "1 per 10 pages".
For an assignment of 40 pages, the expected number of errors (\(\lambda\)) is: \[ \lambda = \frac{1}{10} \times 40 = 4 \]

Step 3: Calculate the probability \(p\):
We need the probability that the typo errors are at most 2, i.e., \( P(X \le 2) \). \[ p = P(X=0) + P(X=1) + P(X=2) \]
Using the formula with \(\lambda = 4\): \[ p = \frac{e^{-4} \cdot 4^0}{0!} + \frac{e^{-4} \cdot 4^1}{1!} + \frac{e^{-4} \cdot 4^2}{2!} \] \[ p = e^{-4} \left( 1 + 4 + \frac{16}{2} \right) = e^{-4} (1 + 4 + 8) = 13e^{-4} \]

Step 4: Find the value of \(e^2 p\): \[ e^2 p = e^2 \cdot (13e^{-4}) = 13e^{2-4} = 13e^{-2} \]

Final Answer:
The value of \(e^2 p\) is \(13e^{-2}\). Quick Tip: For Poisson distribution problems, always scale the mean \(\lambda\) linearly according to the size of the interval (here, the number of pages). If rate is \(r\) per unit, for \(n\) units, \(\lambda = n \times r\).


Question 41:

A line segment joining a point A on x-axis to a point B on y-axis is such that AB = 15. If P is a point on AB such that \(\frac{AP}{PB} = \frac{2}{3}\), then the locus of P is

  • (A) \(x = 9\cos\theta, y = 6\sin\theta\)
  • (B) \(x = 6\cos\theta, y = 9\sin\theta\)
  • (C) \(x = 6\cos\theta, y = 6\sin\theta\)
  • (D) \(x = 9\cos\theta, y = 9\sin\theta\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(x = 9\cos\theta, y = 6\sin\theta\)
View Solution



Step 1: Coordinate Setup:
Let point \(A\) be on the x-axis, \(A = (a, 0)\).
Let point \(B\) be on the y-axis, \(B = (0, b)\).
Given the length \(AB = 15\), we have the condition: \[ a^2 + b^2 = 15^2 = 225 \]

Step 2: Section Formula:
Let \(P(x, y)\) be the point dividing \(AB\) in the ratio \(AP:PB = 2:3\).
Using the section formula for internal division: \[ P(x, y) = \left( \frac{m x_2 + n x_1}{m+n}, \frac{m y_2 + n y_1}{m+n} \right) \]
Here \(m=2, n=3\), \(A(x_1, y_1) = (a, 0)\), and \(B(x_2, y_2) = (0, b)\). \[ x = \frac{2(0) + 3(a)}{2+3} = \frac{3a}{5} \implies a = \frac{5x}{3} \] \[ y = \frac{2(b) + 3(0)}{2+3} = \frac{2b}{5} \implies b = \frac{5y}{2} \]

Step 3: Finding the Locus:
Substitute \(a\) and \(b\) into the distance condition \(a^2 + b^2 = 225\): \[ \left(\frac{5x}{3}\right)^2 + \left(\frac{5y}{2}\right)^2 = 225 \] \[ \frac{25x^2}{9} + \frac{25y^2}{4} = 225 \]
Divide the entire equation by 25: \[ \frac{x^2}{9} + \frac{y^2}{4} = 9 \]
Divide by 9 to get the standard form of an ellipse: \[ \frac{x^2}{81} + \frac{y^2}{36} = 1 \]
This describes an ellipse with semi-major axis \(A_{ellipse} = \sqrt{81} = 9\) and semi-minor axis \(B_{ellipse} = \sqrt{36} = 6\).

Step 4: Parametric Form:
The parametric coordinates for \(\frac{x^2}{A^2} + \frac{y^2}{B^2} = 1\) are \(x = A\cos\theta, y = B\sin\theta\).
Hence, \(x = 9\cos\theta, y = 6\sin\theta\). Quick Tip: For a rod of length \(L\) sliding on coordinate axes, the locus of a point dividing it in ratio \(m:n\) (from x-axis) is an ellipse \(\frac{x^2}{(nL/(m+n))^2} + \frac{y^2}{(mL/(m+n))^2} = 1\). Remember: the x-coordinate comes from the 'n' segment (adjacent to x-axis in cross multiplication logic).


Question 42:

The point \(P(\alpha, \beta)\) (\(\alpha>0, \beta>0\)) undergoes the following transformations successively.

a) Translation to a distance of 3 units in positive direction of x-axis.

b) Reflection about the line \(y=-x\).

c) Rotation of axes through an angle of \(\frac{\pi}{4}\) about the origin in the positive direction.

If the final position of that point P is \((-4\sqrt{2}, -2\sqrt{2})\), then \((\alpha + \beta) =\)

  • (A) 5
  • (B) 7
  • (C) \(6\sqrt{2}\)
  • (D) \(2\sqrt{2}\)
Correct Answer: (A) 5
View Solution



Step 1: Apply Translation:
Original point \(P = (\alpha, \beta)\).
Translation by 3 units in positive x-direction: \[ P_1 = (\alpha + 3, \beta) \]

Step 2: Apply Reflection:
Reflection of point \((x, y)\) about the line \(y = -x\) transforms it to \((-y, -x)\). \[ P_2 = (-\beta, -(\alpha + 3)) \]
Let these coordinates in the original xy-system be denoted as \((x_{old}, y_{old}) = (-\beta, -\alpha - 3)\).

Step 3: Apply Rotation of Axes:
The axes are rotated by \(\theta = 45^\circ\) (\(\pi/4\)). The coordinates of the fixed point \(P_2\) in the new system are given as \((X, Y) = (-4\sqrt{2}, -2\sqrt{2})\).
The relation between old coordinates \((x, y)\) and new coordinates \((X, Y)\) when axes are rotated by \(\theta\) is: \[ x = X\cos\theta - Y\sin\theta \] \[ y = X\sin\theta + Y\cos\theta \]

Substitute \(X = -4\sqrt{2}, Y = -2\sqrt{2}\) and \(\theta = 45^\circ\) (\(\cos45^\circ = \sin45^\circ = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)): \[ x_{old} = (-4\sqrt{2})\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\right) - (-2\sqrt{2})\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\right) = -4 - (-2) = -2 \] \[ y_{old} = (-4\sqrt{2})\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\right) + (-2\sqrt{2})\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\right) = -4 - 2 = -6 \]

Step 4: Solve for \(\alpha\) and \(\beta\):
Equating the coordinates from Step 2 to the values from Step 3: \[ -\beta = -2 \implies \beta = 2 \] \[ -(\alpha + 3) = -6 \implies \alpha + 3 = 6 \implies \alpha = 3 \]
Both \(\alpha\) and \(\beta\) are positive, satisfying the condition.

Step 5: Calculate Sum: \[ \alpha + \beta = 3 + 2 = 5 \] Quick Tip: Distinguish between "Rotation of a point" and "Rotation of axes". 1. Rotation of point P to P' (axes fixed): New coords are rotated. 2. Rotation of axes (point P fixed): The coordinates of the same point change. Formula for axes rotation: \(x = X\cos\theta - Y\sin\theta\).


Question 43:

If the line passing through the point \((4, -3)\) and having negative slope makes an angle of \(45^\circ\) with the line joining the points \((1,1), (2,3)\) then the sum of intercepts of that line is

  • (A) 3
  • (B) 1
  • (C) 12
  • (D) \(\frac{26}{3}\)
Correct Answer: (C) 12
View Solution



Step 1: Find slope of the given line segment:
Slope \(m_1\) of the line joining \((1,1)\) and \((2,3)\) is: \[ m_1 = \frac{3 - 1}{2 - 1} = \frac{2}{1} = 2 \]

Step 2: Use the angle formula to find the slope of the required line:
Let the slope of the required line be \(m\). The angle between the lines is \(45^\circ\). \[ \tan 45^\circ = \left| \frac{m - m_1}{1 + m m_1} \right| \] \[ 1 = \left| \frac{m - 2}{1 + 2m} \right| \]
This gives two cases:
Case 1: \(\frac{m - 2}{1 + 2m} = 1 \implies m - 2 = 1 + 2m \implies m = -3\).
Case 2: \(\frac{m - 2}{1 + 2m} = -1 \implies m - 2 = -1 - 2m \implies 3m = 1 \implies m = 1/3\).

The problem states the line has a negative slope, so we choose \(m = -3\).

Step 3: Equation of the line:
The line passes through \((4, -3)\) with slope \(m = -3\). \[ y - (-3) = -3(x - 4) \] \[ y + 3 = -3x + 12 \] \[ 3x + y - 9 = 0 \]

Step 4: Find Intercepts:
x-intercept (set \(y=0\)): \(3x = 9 \implies x = 3\).
y-intercept (set \(x=0\)): \(y = 9\).

Step 5: Sum of intercepts:
Sum = \(3 + 9 = 12\). Quick Tip: When finding the slope from the angle between two lines, remember there are usually two possible slopes (\(m\) and \(m'\)). Always check additional conditions given in the problem (like "negative slope") to select the correct one.


Question 44:

O(0,0), B(-3,-1), C(-1,-3) are vertices of a triangle OBC. D is a point on OC and E is a point on OB. If the equation of DE is \(2x + 2y + \sqrt{2} = 0\), then the ratio in which the line DE divides the altitude of the triangle OBC is

  • (A) \(\sqrt{2} : 4\sqrt{2} + 2\)
  • (B) \(1 : 4\sqrt{2} + 1\)
  • (C) \(\sqrt{2} : 4\sqrt{2} - 2\)
  • (D) \(1 : 4\sqrt{2} - 1\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(1 : 4\sqrt{2} - 1\)
View Solution



Step 1: Find the equation of the Altitude from O to BC:
Slope of BC = \(\frac{-3 - (-1)}{-1 - (-3)} = \frac{-2}{2} = -1\).
The altitude from O is perpendicular to BC. Slope of altitude = \(-\frac{1}{(-1)} = 1\).
Equation of altitude (passing through origin): \(y = x\).

Step 2: Find the length of the Altitude (OM):
Let M be the foot of the perpendicular on BC.
Equation of line BC: \(y - (-1) = -1(x - (-3)) \implies x + y + 4 = 0\).
Intersection of altitude \(y=x\) and BC \(x+y+4=0\): \(x + x + 4 = 0 \implies 2x = -4 \implies x = -2, y = -2\). \(M = (-2, -2)\).
Length of Altitude \(OM = \sqrt{(-2-0)^2 + (-2-0)^2} = \sqrt{4+4} = \sqrt{8} = 2\sqrt{2}\).

Step 3: Find intersection of Altitude and line DE:
Line DE: \(2x + 2y + \sqrt{2} = 0\).
Substitute \(y=x\) (equation of altitude): \(2x + 2x + \sqrt{2} = 0 \implies 4x = -\sqrt{2} \implies x = -\frac{\sqrt{2}}{4}\).
Let this intersection point be \(P\). \(P = (-\frac{\sqrt{2}}{4}, -\frac{\sqrt{2}}{4})\).
Distance \(OP = \sqrt{2 \left(-\frac{\sqrt{2}}{4}\right)^2} = \sqrt{2 \cdot \frac{2}{16}} = \sqrt{\frac{4}{16}} = \frac{1}{2}\).

Step 4: Calculate the Ratio:
The point P lies on the altitude OM. We need the ratio in which P divides OM.
Distance \(OP = 0.5\).
Distance \(PM = OM - OP = 2\sqrt{2} - 0.5\).
Ratio \(OP : PM = 0.5 : (2\sqrt{2} - 0.5)\).
Multiply by 2 to clear decimals:
Ratio = \(1 : (4\sqrt{2} - 1)\). Quick Tip: In coordinate geometry problems involving altitudes and ratios, finding the lengths of segments along the line from the vertex to the base is often the most direct method.


Question 45:

Every point on the curve \(3x + 2y - 3xy = 0\) is the centroid of a triangle formed by the coordinate axes and a line (L) intersecting both the coordinate axes. Then all such lines (L)

  • (A) are parallel
  • (B) are concurrent
  • (C) intersect each other at different points
  • (D) are perpendicular to the tangents to the curve
Correct Answer: (B) are concurrent
View Solution



Step 1: Setup the Centroid condition:
Let the line L have intercepts \(a\) and \(b\). Its equation is \(\frac{x}{a} + \frac{y}{b} = 1\).
The vertices of the triangle are \((0,0), (a,0), (0,b)\).
The centroid \(G(\bar{x}, \bar{y})\) is given by: \[ \bar{x} = \frac{0+a+0}{3} = \frac{a}{3} \implies a = 3\bar{x} \] \[ \bar{y} = \frac{0+0+b}{3} = \frac{b}{3} \implies b = 3\bar{y} \]

Step 2: Use the Locus Equation:
The centroid \((\bar{x}, \bar{y})\) lies on the curve \(3x + 2y - 3xy = 0\). \[ 3\bar{x} + 2\bar{y} - 3\bar{x}\bar{y} = 0 \]
Divide by \(\bar{x}\bar{y}\) (assuming \(\bar{x}, \bar{y} \neq 0\)): \[ \frac{3}{\bar{y}} + \frac{2}{\bar{x}} = 3 \]

Step 3: Relate to Line Parameters:
Substitute \(\bar{x} = a/3\) and \(\bar{y} = b/3\): \[ \frac{3}{b/3} + \frac{2}{a/3} = 3 \] \[ \frac{9}{b} + \frac{6}{a} = 3 \]
Divide by 3: \[ \frac{3}{b} + \frac{2}{a} = 1 \quad or \quad \frac{2}{a} + \frac{3}{b} = 1 \]

Step 4: Analyze Line Family:
The equation of line L is \(\frac{x}{a} + \frac{y}{b} = 1\).
The condition derived is \(\frac{2}{a} + \frac{3}{b} = 1\).
This implies that the line always satisfies the equation for the point \(x=2, y=3\).
Thus, all such lines pass through the fixed point \((2, 3)\). Hence, they are concurrent. Quick Tip: If the parameters \(a, b\) of a line \(ax + by + c = 0\) (or intercept form) satisfy a linear relation \(Aa + Bb + C = 0\), the line passes through a fixed point.


Question 46:

The value of 'a' for which the equation \((a^2-3)x^2 + 16xy - 2ay^2 + 4x - 8y - 2 = 0\) represents a pair of perpendicular lines is

  • (A) 2
  • (B) -1
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4
Correct Answer: (C) 3
View Solution



Step 1: Condition for Perpendicular Lines:
For a general second degree equation \(Ax^2 + 2Hxy + By^2 + 2Gx + 2Fy + C = 0\) to represent perpendicular lines, the sum of the coefficients of \(x^2\) and \(y^2\) must be zero. \[ A + B = 0 \]
Here, \(A = a^2 - 3\) and \(B = -2a\). \[ (a^2 - 3) + (-2a) = 0 \] \[ a^2 - 2a - 3 = 0 \] \[ (a - 3)(a + 1) = 0 \]
So, \(a = 3\) or \(a = -1\).

Step 2: Condition for Pair of Lines (\(\Delta = 0\)):
The equation must represent a pair of lines, so the determinant \(\Delta\) must be zero. \[ \Delta = abc + 2fgh - af^2 - bg^2 - ch^2 = 0 \]
Parameters: \(2H = 16 \implies H=8\), \(2G=4 \implies G=2\), \(2F=-8 \implies F=-4\), \(C=-2\).

Check \(a=3\): \(A = 3^2-3=6\), \(B = -6\). \(\Delta = (6)(-6)(-2) + 2(-4)(2)(8) - 6(-4)^2 - (-6)(2)^2 - (-2)(8)^2\) \(= 72 - 128 - 96 + 24 + 128\) \(= 72 + 24 - 96 = 0\).
So, \(a=3\) is valid.

Check \(a=-1\): \(A = 1-3=-2\), \(B = 2\). \(\Delta = (-2)(2)(-2) + 2(-4)(2)(8) - (-2)(-4)^2 - (2)(2)^2 - (-2)(8)^2\) \(= 8 - 128 + 32 - 8 + 128\) \(= 32 \neq 0\).
So, \(a=-1\) does not represent a pair of lines.

Final Answer: \(a = 3\). Quick Tip: Always check the determinant condition \(\Delta = 0\) after finding values from the perpendicularity condition (\(A+B=0\)), as the latter only guarantees perpendicularity *if* the locus is lines.


Question 47:

The slope of a common tangent to the circles \(x^2 + y^2 = 16\) and \((x-9)^2 + y^2 = 16\) is

  • (A) \(\frac{8}{\sqrt{13}}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{4}{\sqrt{13}}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\sqrt{17}}{8}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{8}{\sqrt{17}}\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(\frac{8}{\sqrt{17}}\)
View Solution



Step 1: Analyze Circles:
Circle 1: Center \(C_1(0,0)\), Radius \(r_1 = 4\).
Circle 2: Center \(C_2(9,0)\), Radius \(r_2 = 4\).
Since radii are equal, the external common tangents are parallel to the line of centers (x-axis), so their slope is 0. The internal common tangents intersect at the midpoint of the centers.

Step 2: Find Intersection of Internal Tangents:
Midpoint \(M = \frac{C_1 + C_2}{2} = (\frac{9}{2}, 0)\).
The tangent passes through \(M(\frac{9}{2}, 0)\).

Step 3: Equation of Tangent:
Let slope be \(m\). Equation: \(y - 0 = m(x - \frac{9}{2}) \implies mx - y - \frac{9m}{2} = 0 \implies 2mx - 2y - 9m = 0\).

Step 4: Distance Condition:
Distance from \(C_1(0,0)\) to the tangent must be equal to radius \(r_1 = 4\). \[ \frac{|2m(0) - 2(0) - 9m|}{\sqrt{(2m)^2 + (-2)^2}} = 4 \] \[ \frac{|-9m|}{\sqrt{4m^2 + 4}} = 4 \]
Square both sides: \[ \frac{81m^2}{4(m^2+1)} = 16 \] \[ 81m^2 = 64(m^2 + 1) \] \[ 81m^2 - 64m^2 = 64 \] \[ 17m^2 = 64 \implies m^2 = \frac{64}{17} \implies m = \pm \frac{8}{\sqrt{17}} \]

Final Answer: The slope is \(\frac{8}{\sqrt{17}}\). Quick Tip: For two circles with equal radii, the internal tangents pass through the midpoint of the centers. This simplifies the problem significantly compared to the general case where they divide the line of centers in ratio \(r_1:r_2\).


Question 48:

The equation of the circle whose radius is 3 and which touches the circle \(x^2 + y^2 - 4x - 6y - 12 = 0\) internally at \((-1, -1)\) is

  • (A) \(5x^2 + 5y^2 - 8x - 14y - 32 = 0\)
  • (B) \(x^2 + y^2 - 12x - 14y - 28 = 0\)
  • (C) \(3x^2 + 3y^2 - 8x - 14y - 31 = 0\)
  • (D) \(x^2 + y^2 - 5x - 7y - 14 = 0\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(5x^2 + 5y^2 - 8x - 14y - 32 = 0\)
View Solution



Step 1: Analyze the Given Circle (S1):
Equation: \(x^2 + y^2 - 4x - 6y - 12 = 0\).
Center \(C_1 = (2, 3)\).
Radius \(R_1 = \sqrt{2^2 + 3^2 - (-12)} = \sqrt{4 + 9 + 12} = \sqrt{25} = 5\).

Step 2: Determine Position of New Center (\(C_2\)):
The new circle (S2) has radius \(R_2 = 3\) and touches S1 internally at \(P(-1, -1)\).
Since \(R_2 < R_1\) (3 < 5), S2 is inside S1.
The centers \(C_1, C_2\) and the point of contact \(P\) are collinear. Since the touch is internal, \(C_2\) lies on the segment \(PC_1\).
Distance \(PC_1 = R_1 = 5\). Distance \(PC_2 = R_2 = 3\).
So \(C_2\) divides \(PC_1\) in the ratio \(3 : (5-3) = 3:2\).

Step 3: Calculate \(C_2\) Coordinates:
Using section formula for \(C_2\) dividing \(P(-1, -1)\) and \(C_1(2, 3)\) in ratio \(3:2\): \[ x_{C2} = \frac{3(2) + 2(-1)}{3+2} = \frac{6 - 2}{5} = \frac{4}{5} \] \[ y_{C2} = \frac{3(3) + 2(-1)}{3+2} = \frac{9 - 2}{5} = \frac{7}{5} \]
Center \(C_2 = (\frac{4}{5}, \frac{7}{5})\).

Step 4: Equation of New Circle: \[ (x - \frac{4}{5})^2 + (y - \frac{7}{5})^2 = 3^2 \] \[ x^2 - \frac{8}{5}x + \frac{16}{25} + y^2 - \frac{14}{5}y + \frac{49}{25} = 9 \]
Multiply by 25 to clear denominators: \[ 25x^2 - 40x + 16 + 25y^2 - 70y + 49 = 225 \] \[ 25x^2 + 25y^2 - 40x - 70y + 65 - 225 = 0 \] \[ 25x^2 + 25y^2 - 40x - 70y - 160 = 0 \]
Divide by 5: \[ 5x^2 + 5y^2 - 8x - 14y - 32 = 0 \] Quick Tip: When a circle touches another internally, the center of the smaller circle lies on the line joining the center of the larger circle and the point of contact, at a distance equal to its radius from the point of contact.


Question 49:

Suppose C1 and C2 are two circles having no common points, then

  • (A) There will be 3 common tangents to C1 and C2
  • (B) There will be exactly two common tangents to C1 and C2
  • (C) There will be no common tangent or there will be exactly two common tangents to C1 and C2
  • (D) There will be no common tangents or there will be four common tangents to C1 and C2
Correct Answer: (D) There will be no common tangents or there will be four common tangents to C1 and C2
View Solution



Step 1: Analyze the Condition "No Common Points":
Two circles have no common points in two distinct scenarios:
1. One circle is completely inside the other: Distance between centers \(d < |r_1 - r_2|\). In this case, there are 0 common tangents.
2. Circles are completely separated (disjoint externally): Distance between centers \(d > r_1 + r_2\). In this case, there are 4 common tangents (2 direct, 2 transverse).

Step 2: Analyze Other Cases (for elimination):
* Touching externally (1 point): 3 tangents.
* Intersecting (2 points): 2 tangents.
* Touching internally (1 point): 1 tangent.

Conclusion:
Since the problem states "no common points", it must be either Case 1 (0 tangents) or Case 2 (4 tangents). Quick Tip: Number of common tangents based on relative position: - One inside other: 0 - Touch internally: 1 - Intersect: 2 - Touch externally: 3 - Separate: 4


Question 50:

The locus of the centre of the circle touching the x-axis and passing through the point \((-1,1)\) is

  • (A) a circle with centre at \((-1, \frac{1}{2})\)
  • (B) a pair of lines intersecting at \((-1, 1)\)
  • (C) a parabola with focus at \((-1,1)\)
  • (D) a hyperbola with centre at \((-1,1)\)
Correct Answer: (C) a parabola with focus at \((-1,1)\)
View Solution



Step 1: Define the Circle's Properties:
Let the centre of the circle be \(C(h, k)\).
Since the circle touches the x-axis, its radius \(r\) is equal to the absolute value of the y-coordinate of the centre. Thus, \(r = |k|\).

Step 2: Use the Distance Condition:
The circle passes through the point \(P(-1, 1)\). Therefore, the distance from the centre \(C(h, k)\) to \(P(-1, 1)\) must equal the radius \(r\). \[ \sqrt{(h - (-1))^2 + (k - 1)^2} = |k| \]
Square both sides: \[ (h + 1)^2 + (k - 1)^2 = k^2 \]

Step 3: Simplify the Equation: \[ (h + 1)^2 + k^2 - 2k + 1 = k^2 \] \[ (h + 1)^2 - 2k + 1 = 0 \] \[ (h + 1)^2 = 2k - 1 \] \[ (h + 1)^2 = 2\left(k - \frac{1}{2}\right) \]

Step 4: Identify the Locus:
Replacing \((h, k)\) with \((x, y)\), the locus is: \[ (x + 1)^2 = 2\left(y - \frac{1}{2}\right) \]
This equation represents a parabola of the form \((X)^2 = 4aY\), where \(X = x+1\) and \(Y = y - \frac{1}{2}\).
Here, \(4a = 2 \implies a = \frac{1}{2}\).

Step 5: Find the Focus:
The vertex of the parabola is at \((-1, \frac{1}{2})\).
The focus is located at a distance \(a\) above the vertex (since the parabola opens upwards).
Focus coordinate \( = (-1, \frac{1}{2} + a) = (-1, \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{2}) = (-1, 1) \).

Thus, the locus is a parabola with its focus at \((-1, 1)\). Quick Tip: By definition, a parabola is the locus of a point equidistant from a fixed point (focus) and a fixed line (directrix). Here, the center is equidistant from \(P(-1,1)\) and the line \(y=0\) (x-axis) if we consider \(y=0\) as the tangent but actually the condition \(CP = dist(C, x-axis)\) matches the parabola definition perfectly with \(P\) as focus and x-axis as directrix.


Question 51:

The centres of all circles passing through the points of intersection of the circles \(x^2 + y^2 + 2x - 2y + 1 = 0\) and \(x^2 + y^2 - 2x + 2y - 2 = 0\) and having radius \(\sqrt{14}\) lie on the curve

  • (A) \(x + y = 0\)
  • (B) \(y^2 = 4x - 2\)
  • (C) \(3x^2 + 5x = y\)
  • (D) \(2x^2 + 3y^2 = 7\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(x + y = 0\)
View Solution



Step 1: Understand the Geometric Property:
The centers of any family of circles passing through the intersection points of two given circles \(S_1 = 0\) and \(S_2 = 0\) always lie on the perpendicular bisector of the common chord.
The perpendicular bisector of the common chord is simply the line joining the centers of the two given circles.

Step 2: Find Centers of Given Circles:
Circle 1: \(x^2 + y^2 + 2x - 2y + 1 = 0\)
Center \(C_1 = (-1, 1)\).
Circle 2: \(x^2 + y^2 - 2x + 2y - 2 = 0\)
Center \(C_2 = (1, -1)\).

Step 3: Find Equation of Line Joining Centers:
The locus of the centers of the required circles is the line passing through \(C_1(-1, 1)\) and \(C_2(1, -1)\).
Slope \(m = \frac{-1 - 1}{1 - (-1)} = \frac{-2}{2} = -1\).
Equation using point-slope form with \(C_1\): \[ y - 1 = -1(x - (-1)) \] \[ y - 1 = -(x + 1) \] \[ y - 1 = -x - 1 \] \[ x + y = 0 \]

Step 4: Conclusion:
Regardless of the radius condition (which would just select specific points on this line), the centers lie on the line \(x + y = 0\). Quick Tip: For any two intersecting circles, the line of centers is the perpendicular bisector of the common chord. Any circle passing through the intersection points must have its center on this line.


Question 52:

A circle S given by \(x^2 + y^2 - 14x + 6y + 33 = 0\) cuts the X-axis at A and B (OB \(>\) OA). C is midpoint of AB. L is a line through C and having slope \((-1)\). If L is the diameter of a circle S' and also the radical axis of the circles S and S', then the equation of the circle S' is

  • (A) \(x^2 + y^2 - 17x + 3y + 54 = 0\)
  • (B) \(x^2 + y^2 + 17x - 3y - 54 = 0\)
  • (C) \(x^2 + y^2 - 17x + 3y + 51 = 0\)
  • (D) \(x^2 + y^2 - 3x + 17y - 51 = 0\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(x^2 + y^2 - 17x + 3y + 54 = 0\)
View Solution



Step 1: Find points A and B:
The circle \(S\) cuts the x-axis, so set \(y=0\) in \(S\): \[ x^2 - 14x + 33 = 0 \] \[ (x-3)(x-11) = 0 \implies x = 3, 11 \]
So, \(A(3, 0)\) and \(B(11, 0)\).

Step 2: Find Midpoint C and Equation of Line L:
Midpoint \(C\) of \(AB\) is \((\frac{3+11}{2}, 0) = (7, 0)\).
Line \(L\) passes through \(C(7,0)\) with slope \(m = -1\).
Equation of \(L\): \(y - 0 = -1(x - 7) \implies x + y - 7 = 0\).

Step 3: Use Properties of S':
Let the circle \(S'\) be \(x^2 + y^2 + 2gx + 2fy + c = 0\).
1. L is the diameter of S': The center \((-g, -f)\) lies on \(L\). \[ (-g) + (-f) - 7 = 0 \implies g + f = -7 \quad \dots(1) \]
2. L is the radical axis of S and S': The radical axis equation is \(S - S' = 0\). \(S: x^2 + y^2 - 14x + 6y + 33 = 0\) \(S - S': (-14 - 2g)x + (6 - 2f)y + (33 - c) = 0\).
This line must be identical to \(L: x + y - 7 = 0\).
Comparing coefficients: \[ \frac{-14 - 2g}{1} = \frac{6 - 2f}{1} = \frac{33 - c}{-7} \]

Step 4: Solve for g, f, and c:
From first equality: \(-14 - 2g = 6 - 2f\) \(2f - 2g = 20 \implies f - g = 10 \quad \dots(2)\)
Solving (1) and (2):
Adding equations: \(2f = 3 \implies f = \frac{3}{2}\).
Subtracting: \(2g = -17 \implies g = -\frac{17}{2}\).

From the constant term ratio: \[ 6 - 2f = \frac{33 - c}{-7} \]
Substitute \(f = 3/2\): \[ 6 - 3 = \frac{33 - c}{-7} \implies 3 = \frac{33 - c}{-7} \] \[ -21 = 33 - c \implies c = 54 \]

Step 5: Write Equation of S':
Substitute \(g, f, c\) into the general equation: \[ x^2 + y^2 + 2(-\frac{17}{2})x + 2(\frac{3}{2})y + 54 = 0 \] \[ x^2 + y^2 - 17x + 3y + 54 = 0 \] Quick Tip: The radical axis of two circles \(S=0\) and \(S'=0\) (where coefficient of \(x^2, y^2\) is 1) is simply given by \(S - S' = 0\). If this axis is a specific line \(Ax+By+C=0\), you can compare coefficients to find unknown parameters.


Question 53:

For the parabola \(y = x^2 - 3x + 2\), match the items in list-1 to that of the items in list-2.

S is a focus, Z is intersection of axis and directrix, P is one end point of latus rectum, Q is the point on the parabola at which tangent is parallel to X-axis


List-1 \hspace{4cm List-2

A \hspace{0.5cm P \hspace{3.5cm I \hspace{0.5cm \((2,0)\)

B \hspace{0.5cm Q \hspace{3.5cm II \hspace{0.4cm \((\frac{3}{2}, -\frac{1}{4})\)

C \hspace{0.5cm S \hspace{3.5cm III \hspace{0.3cm \((\frac{3}{2}, 0)\)

D \hspace{0.5cm Z \hspace{3.5cm IV \hspace{0.3cm \((\frac{3}{2}, -\frac{1}{2})\)

\hspace{5cm V \hspace{0.4cm \((0, \frac{3}{2})\)

  • (A) A -- I, B -- II, C -- III, D -- IV
  • (B) A -- I, B -- II, C -- V, D -- IV
  • (C) A -- II, B -- V, C -- III, D -- IV
  • (D) A -- IV, B -- V, C -- III, D -- I
Correct Answer: (A) A -- I, B -- II, C -- III, D -- IV
View Solution



Step 1: Convert Parabola to Standard Form:
Equation: \(y = x^2 - 3x + 2\)
Complete the square for \(x\): \[ y = \left(x - \frac{3}{2}\right)^2 + 2 - \frac{9}{4} \] \[ y = \left(x - \frac{3}{2}\right)^2 - \frac{1}{4} \] \[ \left(x - \frac{3}{2}\right)^2 = 1 \cdot \left(y + \frac{1}{4}\right) \]
Standard form: \((x - h)^2 = 4a(y - k)\).
Here, vertex \((h, k) = (\frac{3}{2}, -\frac{1}{4})\) and \(4a = 1 \implies a = \frac{1}{4}\).

Step 2: Analyze Each Point:
1. Q (Point where tangent is parallel to X-axis): This is the vertex.
\(Q = (\frac{3}{2}, -\frac{1}{4})\). Matches II.

2. S (Focus): For vertical parabola \((x-h)^2 = 4a(y-k)\), focus is \((h, k+a)\).
\(S = (\frac{3}{2}, -\frac{1}{4} + \frac{1}{4}) = (\frac{3}{2}, 0)\). Matches III.

3. Z (Intersection of axis and directrix): The axis is \(x = \frac{3}{2}\). The directrix is \(y = k - a = -\frac{1}{4} - \frac{1}{4} = -\frac{1}{2}\).
Intersection \(Z = (\frac{3}{2}, -\frac{1}{2})\). Matches IV.

4. P (Endpoint of Latus Rectum): The latus rectum passes through the focus (\(y=0\)).
Substitute \(y=0\) into parabola equation:
\(0 = x^2 - 3x + 2 \implies (x-1)(x-2) = 0 \implies x = 1, 2\).
Points are \((1, 0)\) and \((2, 0)\).
\((2, 0)\) is in the list. Matches I.

Step 3: Match:
A(P) \(\to\) I
B(Q) \(\to\) II
C(S) \(\to\) III
D(Z) \(\to\) IV Quick Tip: For a parabola \(y = ax^2 + bx + c\), the vertex is at \(x = -b/2a\). This is also the point where the tangent is horizontal.


Question 54:

The locus of a point which divides the line segment joining the focus and any point on the parabola \(y^2 = 12x\) in the ratio \(m:n\) (\(m+n \ne 0\)) is a parabola. Then the length of the latus rectum of that parabola is

  • (A) \(\frac{m}{m+n}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{12m}{m+n}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{m}{12(m+n)}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{n}{12(m+n)}\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(\frac{12m}{m+n}\)
View Solution



Step 1: Coordinates of Focus and Point on Parabola:
Parabola: \(y^2 = 12x \implies 4a = 12 \implies a = 3\).
Focus \(S(3, 0)\).
Let \(P(at^2, 2at) = (3t^2, 6t)\) be any point on the parabola.

Step 2: Apply Section Formula:
Let \(Q(h, k)\) be the point dividing \(SP\) in the ratio \(m:n\). \[ h = \frac{m(x_P) + n(x_S)}{m+n} = \frac{m(3t^2) + n(3)}{m+n} \] \[ k = \frac{m(y_P) + n(y_S)}{m+n} = \frac{m(6t) + n(0)}{m+n} = \frac{6mt}{m+n} \]

Step 3: Eliminate Parameter t:
From the k-equation: \(t = \frac{k(m+n)}{6m}\).
Substitute into the h-equation: \[ h = \frac{3m}{m+n} \left( \frac{k(m+n)}{6m} \right)^2 + \frac{3n}{m+n} \] \[ h - \frac{3n}{m+n} = \frac{3m}{m+n} \cdot \frac{k^2 (m+n)^2}{36m^2} \] \[ h - \frac{3n}{m+n} = \frac{k^2 (m+n)}{12m} \]
Rearranging to form \(Y^2 = 4AX\): \[ k^2 = \frac{12m}{m+n} \left( h - \frac{3n}{m+n} \right) \]

Step 4: Identify Latus Rectum:
The equation is of the form \(y^2 = 4A(x - x_0)\).
The length of the latus rectum is the coefficient \(4A\). \[ Length of LR = \frac{12m}{m+n} \] Quick Tip: When finding a locus involving a parameter (like \(t\)), express the coordinates \((h,k)\) in terms of \(t\), then solve one equation for \(t\) and substitute into the other to eliminate it.


Question 55:

The curve represented by \(\frac{x^2}{12-\alpha} + \frac{y^2}{\alpha-10} = 1\) is

  • (A) a hyperbola for some values of \(\alpha\) in \((10,12)\)
  • (B) an ellipse for all values of \(\alpha\) in \((10,12)\)
  • (C) a circle for some value of \(\alpha\) in \((10,12)\)
  • (D) a hyperbola for all values of \(\alpha\) in \((10,12)\)
Correct Answer: (C) a circle for some value of \(\alpha\) in \((10,12)\)
View Solution



Step 1: Analyze the Equation:
The equation is \(\frac{x^2}{A} + \frac{y^2}{B} = 1\) where \(A = 12-\alpha\) and \(B = \alpha-10\).
For \(\alpha \in (10, 12)\): \(12 - \alpha > 0\) (Positive) \(\alpha - 10 > 0\) (Positive)
Since both denominators are positive, the curve represents an ellipse generally.

Step 2: Check for Circle Condition:
For the curve to be a circle, the coefficients of \(x^2\) and \(y^2\) must be equal, i.e., \(A = B\). \[ 12 - \alpha = \alpha - 10 \] \[ 2\alpha = 22 \implies \alpha = 11 \]
The value \(\alpha = 11\) lies in the interval \((10, 12)\).
Thus, for \(\alpha = 11\), the curve is a circle.

Step 3: Evaluate Options:
(A) It is never a hyperbola in this interval because \(A\) and \(B\) are both positive.
(B) It is an ellipse for \(\alpha \neq 11\), but specifically a circle at \(\alpha = 11\). Usually "ellipse" includes the special case of a circle, but option (C) is a more specific and distinct existence claim.
(C) It becomes a circle for \(\alpha = 11\), which is in the range. This is true. Quick Tip: An equation \(\frac{x^2}{a^2} + \frac{y^2}{b^2} = 1\) represents a circle if \(a^2 = b^2\). Always check if the denominators can be equal within the given domain.


Question 56:

If any tangent drawn to the ellipse \(\frac{x^2}{16} + \frac{y^2}{9} = 1\) touches one of the circles \(x^2 + y^2 = \alpha^2\), then the range of \(\alpha\) is

  • (A) \(9 \le \alpha \le 16\)
  • (B) \(16 \le \alpha \le 25\)
  • (C) \(3 \le \alpha \le 4\)
  • (D) \(4 \le \alpha \le 6\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(3 \le \alpha \le 4\)
View Solution



Step 1: Understand the Geometry:
We have a family of circles centered at the origin with radius \(\alpha\).
A tangent to the ellipse is also a tangent to one of these circles.
This means the perpendicular distance from the center (0,0) to the tangent of the ellipse must be equal to the radius of that circle (\(\alpha\)).

Step 2: Range of Perpendicular Distance:
For an ellipse \(\frac{x^2}{a^2} + \frac{y^2}{b^2} = 1\), the perpendicular distance \(p\) from the center to any tangent lies between the lengths of the semi-minor axis \(b\) and the semi-major axis \(a\). \[ b \le p \le a \]
Here, \(a^2 = 16 \implies a = 4\) and \(b^2 = 9 \implies b = 3\).

Step 3: Determine Range of \(\alpha\):
Since \(\alpha = p\), the range of \(\alpha\) is: \[ 3 \le \alpha \le 4 \] Quick Tip: The "pedal curve" properties of an ellipse state that the locus of the foot of the perpendicular from the center to any tangent lies in the annulus bounded by the auxiliary circle (\(r=a\)) and the inscribed circle (\(r=b\)). Thus, the distance \(p\) satisfies \(b \le p \le a\).


Question 57:

Let \(x\) be the eccentricity of a hyperbola whose transverse axis is twice its conjugate axis. Let \(y\) be the eccentricity of another hyperbola for which the distance between the foci is 3 times the distance between its directrices. Then \(y^2 - x^2 =\)

  • (A) \(\frac{23}{4}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{7}{4}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{4}{7}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{16}{23}\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(\frac{7}{4}\)
View Solution



Step 1: Calculate Eccentricity \(x\) (First Hyperbola):
Given: Transverse axis (\(2a\)) is twice the conjugate axis (\(2b\)). \(2a = 2(2b) \implies a = 2b\).
Eccentricity formula: \(x = \sqrt{1 + \frac{b^2}{a^2}}\).
Substitute \(a = 2b\): \(x = \sqrt{1 + \frac{b^2}{(2b)^2}} = \sqrt{1 + \frac{1}{4}} = \sqrt{\frac{5}{4}}\).
So, \(x^2 = \frac{5}{4}\).

Step 2: Calculate Eccentricity \(y\) (Second Hyperbola):
Given: Distance between foci (\(2ae\)) is 3 times distance between directrices (\(2a/e\)). \(2ae = 3 \times \frac{2a}{e}\).
Cancel \(2a\): \(e = \frac{3}{e} \implies e^2 = 3\).
So, \(y^2 = 3\).

Step 3: Calculate \(y^2 - x^2\): \[ y^2 - x^2 = 3 - \frac{5}{4} = \frac{12 - 5}{4} = \frac{7}{4} \] Quick Tip: Remember the standard distances for a hyperbola: Distance between foci = \(2ae\), distance between directrices = \(2a/e\).


Question 58:

O(0,0,0), A(3,1,4), B(1,3,2) and C(0,4,-2) are the vertices of a tetrahedron. If G is the centroid of the tetrahedron and \(G_1\) is the centroid of its face ABC, then the point which divides \(GG_1\) in the ratio 1:2 is

  • (A) \(\left( \frac{10}{3}, \frac{20}{3}, \frac{10}{3} \right)\)
  • (B) \(\left( \frac{20}{9}, \frac{10}{9}, \frac{10}{9} \right)\)
  • (C) \(\left( \frac{10}{9}, \frac{20}{9}, \frac{10}{9} \right)\)
  • (D) \(\left( \frac{20}{3}, \frac{10}{3}, \frac{10}{3} \right)\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(\left( \frac{10}{9}, \frac{20}{9}, \frac{10}{9} \right)\)
View Solution



Step 1: Find Centroid G of Tetrahedron OABC: \[ G = \frac{O + A + B + C}{4} \] \(x_G = \frac{0+3+1+0}{4} = 1\) \(y_G = \frac{0+1+3+4}{4} = 2\) \(z_G = \frac{0+4+2-2}{4} = 1\) \(G = (1, 2, 1)\).

Step 2: Find Centroid \(G_1\) of Face ABC: \[ G_1 = \frac{A + B + C}{3} \] \(x_{G1} = \frac{3+1+0}{3} = \frac{4}{3}\) \(y_{G1} = \frac{1+3+4}{3} = \frac{8}{3}\) \(z_{G1} = \frac{4+2-2}{3} = \frac{4}{3}\) \(G_1 = (\frac{4}{3}, \frac{8}{3}, \frac{4}{3})\).

Step 3: Find Point P dividing \(GG_1\) in ratio 1:2:
Using section formula \(P = \frac{1 \cdot G_1 + 2 \cdot G}{1 + 2}\): \(x_P = \frac{1(4/3) + 2(1)}{3} = \frac{4/3 + 6/3}{3} = \frac{10/3}{3} = \frac{10}{9}\). \(y_P = \frac{1(8/3) + 2(2)}{3} = \frac{8/3 + 12/3}{3} = \frac{20/3}{3} = \frac{20}{9}\). \(z_P = \frac{1(4/3) + 2(1)}{3} = \frac{4/3 + 6/3}{3} = \frac{10/3}{3} = \frac{10}{9}\). \(P = (\frac{10}{9}, \frac{20}{9}, \frac{10}{9})\). Quick Tip: The centroid of a tetrahedron divides the line segment joining a vertex to the centroid of the opposite face in the ratio 3:1. This geometric property can verify calculations.


Question 59:

If L is a line common to the planes \(3x + 4y + 7z = 1\), \(x - y + z = 5\) then the direction ratios of the line L are

  • (A) \((16, 0, -1)\)
  • (B) \((11, 4, -7)\)
  • (C) \((2, 5, 1)\)
  • (D) \((4, -7, 11)\)
Correct Answer: (B) \((11, 4, -7)\)
View Solution



Step 1: Identify Normals:
Normal to plane 1: \(\vec{n_1} = (3, 4, 7)\).
Normal to plane 2: \(\vec{n_2} = (1, -1, 1)\).

Step 2: Find Direction Vector of Line:
The line of intersection is perpendicular to both normals. Thus, its direction vector \(\vec{d}\) is given by the cross product \(\vec{n_1} \times \vec{n_2}\). \[ \vec{d} = \begin{vmatrix} \hat{i} & \hat{j} & \hat{k}
3 & 4 & 7
1 & -1 & 1 \end{vmatrix} \] \[ \vec{d} = \hat{i}(4(1) - 7(-1)) - \hat{j}(3(1) - 7(1)) + \hat{k}(3(-1) - 4(1)) \] \[ \vec{d} = \hat{i}(4 + 7) - \hat{j}(3 - 7) + \hat{k}(-3 - 4) \] \[ \vec{d} = 11\hat{i} + 4\hat{j} - 7\hat{k} \]
Direction ratios are \((11, 4, -7)\). Quick Tip: The line of intersection of two planes is parallel to the cross product of their normal vectors.


Question 60:

If the points \((1, 1, \lambda)\) and \((-3, 0, 1)\) are equidistant from the plane \(3x + 4y - 12z + 13 = 0\), then the values of \(\lambda\) are

  • (A) \(-1, \frac{7}{3}\)
  • (B) \(1, \frac{-7}{3}\)
  • (C) \(-1, \frac{-7}{3}\)
  • (D) \(1, \frac{7}{3}\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(1, \frac{7}{3}\)
View Solution



Step 1: Distance Formula:
Distance of a point \((x_1, y_1, z_1)\) from plane \(ax+by+cz+d=0\) is \(\frac{|ax_1+by_1+cz_1+d|}{\sqrt{a^2+b^2+c^2}}\).
Normalizing factor (denominator): \(\sqrt{3^2 + 4^2 + (-12)^2} = \sqrt{9 + 16 + 144} = \sqrt{169} = 13\).

Step 2: Calculate Distances:
Distance \(d_1\) for \(P(1, 1, \lambda)\): \[ d_1 = \frac{|3(1) + 4(1) - 12(\lambda) + 13|}{13} = \frac{|20 - 12\lambda|}{13} \]
Distance \(d_2\) for \(Q(-3, 0, 1)\): \[ d_2 = \frac{|3(-3) + 4(0) - 12(1) + 13|}{13} = \frac{|-9 - 12 + 13|}{13} = \frac{|-8|}{13} = \frac{8}{13} \]

Step 3: Equate Distances and Solve: \[ \frac{|20 - 12\lambda|}{13} = \frac{8}{13} \] \[ |20 - 12\lambda| = 8 \]
This gives two cases:
Case 1: \(20 - 12\lambda = 8\) \[ 12\lambda = 12 \implies \lambda = 1 \]
Case 2: \(20 - 12\lambda = -8\) \[ 12\lambda = 28 \implies \lambda = \frac{28}{12} = \frac{7}{3} \]

Values of \(\lambda\) are \(1\) and \(\frac{7}{3}\). Quick Tip: When points are equidistant from a plane, they lie on planes parallel to the given plane at the same distance on either side. The equation \(|P_1| = |P_2|\) covers both "same side" and "opposite side" cases.


Question 61:

If \(f(x) = \frac{x(a^x - 1)}{1 - \cos x}\) and \(g(x) = \frac{x(1 - a^x)}{a^x \left(\sqrt{1 - x^2} - \sqrt{1 + x^2}\right)}\), then \(\lim_{x \to 0} (f(x) - g(x)) =\)

  • (A) \(3\log a\)
  • (B) \(e^a\)
  • (C) \(2\log a\)
  • (D) \(\log a\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(\log a\)
View Solution



Step 1: Evaluate \(\lim_{x \to 0} f(x)\):
Using standard limits: \(\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{a^x - 1}{x} = \log a\) and \(\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{1 - \cos x}{x^2} = \frac{1}{2}\). \[ f(x) = \frac{x(a^x - 1)}{1 - \cos x} = \frac{x \cdot x\left(\frac{a^x - 1}{x}\right)}{1 - \cos x} = \frac{\frac{a^x - 1}{x}}{\frac{1 - \cos x}{x^2}} \]
Taking limit as \(x \to 0\): \[ \lim_{x \to 0} f(x) = \frac{\log a}{1/2} = 2\log a \]

Step 2: Evaluate \(\lim_{x \to 0} g(x)\):
Rewrite \(g(x)\) by rationalizing the denominator: \[ g(x) = \frac{x(1 - a^x)}{a^x (\sqrt{1 - x^2} - \sqrt{1 + x^2})} \cdot \frac{\sqrt{1 - x^2} + \sqrt{1 + x^2}}{\sqrt{1 - x^2} + \sqrt{1 + x^2}} \] \[ g(x) = \frac{x(1 - a^x)(\sqrt{1 - x^2} + \sqrt{1 + x^2})}{a^x [(1 - x^2) - (1 + x^2)]} = \frac{x(1 - a^x)(\sqrt{1 - x^2} + \sqrt{1 + x^2})}{a^x (-2x^2)} \]
Simplify the term \(\frac{1 - a^x}{-x} = \frac{a^x - 1}{x}\): \[ g(x) = \frac{x}{-2x^2 a^x} (1 - a^x) (\dots) = \frac{-(a^x - 1)}{-2x a^x} (\dots) = \frac{1}{2 a^x} \left(\frac{a^x - 1}{x}\right) (\sqrt{1 - x^2} + \sqrt{1 + x^2}) \]
Taking limit as \(x \to 0\): \(a^0 = 1\), \(\frac{a^x - 1}{x} \to \log a\), term in bracket \(\to \sqrt{1} + \sqrt{1} = 2\). \[ \lim_{x \to 0} g(x) = \frac{1}{2(1)} (\log a) (2) = \log a \]

Step 3: Calculate Difference: \[ \lim_{x \to 0} (f(x) - g(x)) = 2\log a - \log a = \log a \] Quick Tip: Using series expansion (Maclaurin series) is often faster for such limits. \(a^x \approx 1 + x\ln a\), \(\cos x \approx 1 - x^2/2\), \(\sqrt{1 \pm x^2} \approx 1 \pm x^2/2\).


Question 62:

If \(f(x) = \begin{cases} \frac{a\sin x - bx + cx^2 + x^3}{2\log(1+x) - 2x^3 + x^4} & , x \neq 0
0 & , x = 0 \end{cases}\) is continuous at \(x = 0\), then

  • (A) \(a = 2b\)
  • (B) \(a = b\)
  • (C) \(a = b = c\)
  • (D) \(b = c\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(a = b\)
View Solution



Step 1: Condition for Continuity:
For \(f(x)\) to be continuous at \(x=0\), \(\lim_{x \to 0} f(x) = f(0) = 0\).

Step 2: Expand Numerator and Denominator:
Using Maclaurin series for small \(x\):
Numerator \(N(x) = a(x - \frac{x^3}{6} + \dots) - bx + cx^2 + x^3\) \(N(x) = (a - b)x + cx^2 + (1 - \frac{a}{6})x^3 + \dots\)

Denominator \(D(x)\): Looking at the expression \(2\log(1+x) - 2x^3 + x^4\).
Note: There seems to be a slight ambiguity in the image between \(2x\) and \(2x^3\), but usually, the denominator is dominated by the lowest power term.
Expansion of \(2\log(1+x) = 2(x - \frac{x^2}{2} + \frac{x^3}{3} - \dots) = 2x - x^2 + \dots\).
Since the other terms in the denominator are higher powers (\(-2x^3, x^4\)), the leading term of the denominator is \(2x\).

Step 3: Evaluate Limit: \[ \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{(a - b)x + cx^2 + \dots}{2x - x^2 + \dots} = \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{(a - b) + cx + \dots}{2 - x + \dots} = \frac{a - b}{2} \]
For the limit to be 0, we must have: \[ \frac{a - b}{2} = 0 \implies a = b \]
The coefficient \(c\) corresponds to the \(x^2\) term, which vanishes as \(x \to 0\) compared to the constant leading term after division by \(x\), so no specific condition on \(c\) is required for the limit to be 0.

Final Answer: \(a = b\). Quick Tip: In limit problems involving parameters where the limit is finite (or zero), the lowest degree terms in the numerator and denominator usually determine the leading behavior. Equate the coefficient of the lowest power to satisfy the limit condition.


Question 63:

If the function \(g(x) = \begin{cases} K\sqrt{x+1} & , 0 \le x \le 3
mx + 2 & , 3 < x \le 5 \end{cases}\) is differentiable, then \(K + m =\)

  • (A) 4
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 6
  • (D) 0
Correct Answer: (B) 2
View Solution



Step 1: Check Continuity at \(x = 3\):
For \(g(x)\) to be differentiable, it must be continuous at \(x=3\). \[ \lim_{x \to 3^-} g(x) = \lim_{x \to 3^+} g(x) \] \[ K\sqrt{3+1} = m(3) + 2 \] \[ 2K = 3m + 2 \quad \dots(1) \]

Step 2: Check Differentiability at \(x = 3\):
LHD at \(x=3\): \(\frac{d}{dx}(K\sqrt{x+1}) = \frac{K}{2\sqrt{x+1}}\).
At \(x=3\), LHD \(= \frac{K}{2\sqrt{4}} = \frac{K}{4}\).

RHD at \(x=3\): \(\frac{d}{dx}(mx+2) = m\).
Equating LHD and RHD: \[ \frac{K}{4} = m \implies K = 4m \quad \dots(2) \]

Step 3: Solve the System:
Substitute (2) into (1): \[ 2(4m) = 3m + 2 \] \[ 8m - 3m = 2 \] \[ 5m = 2 \implies m = \frac{2}{5} \]
Then \(K = 4(\frac{2}{5}) = \frac{8}{5}\).

Step 4: Find \(K + m\): \[ K + m = \frac{8}{5} + \frac{2}{5} = \frac{10}{5} = 2 \] Quick Tip: Differentiability implies continuity. Always start by writing the continuity equation first, as it provides an essential relationship between the variables.


Question 64:

Consider the following statements

Assertion (A): For \(x \in \mathbb{R} - \{1\}\), \(\frac{d}{dx}\left(\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{1+x}{1-x}\right)\right) = \frac{d}{dx}(\tan^{-1}x)\)

Reason (R): For \(x < 1\), \(\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{1+x}{1-x}\right) = \frac{\pi}{4} + \tan^{-1}x\),

for \(x > 1\), \(\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{1+x}{1-x}\right) = -\frac{3\pi}{4} + \tan^{-1}x\)

The correct answer is

  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  • (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
  • (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Correct Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
View Solution



Step 1: Analyze Reason (R):
The identity for \(\tan^{-1} x + \tan^{-1} y\) depends on the product \(xy\).
Let \(y=1\). Then \(\tan^{-1}(1) + \tan^{-1}(x) = \tan^{-1}\left(\frac{1+x}{1-x}\right)\) provided \(1 \cdot x < 1\) (i.e., \(x < 1\)).
So for \(x < 1\), \(\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{1+x}{1-x}\right) = \frac{\pi}{4} + \tan^{-1}x\).
If \(x > 1\), then \(1 \cdot x > 1\). The formula becomes \(\tan^{-1} x + \tan^{-1} 1 = \pi + \tan^{-1}\left(\frac{x+1}{1-x}\right)\).
Rearranging: \(\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{1+x}{1-x}\right) = \tan^{-1}x + \frac{\pi}{4} - \pi = \tan^{-1}x - \frac{3\pi}{4}\).
Thus, Reason (R) is correct.

Step 2: Analyze Assertion (A):
Differentiating the expressions given in R:
For \(x < 1\): \(\frac{d}{dx}\left(\frac{\pi}{4} + \tan^{-1}x\right) = 0 + \frac{1}{1+x^2} = \frac{1}{1+x^2}\).
For \(x > 1\): \(\frac{d}{dx}\left(-\frac{3\pi}{4} + \tan^{-1}x\right) = 0 + \frac{1}{1+x^2} = \frac{1}{1+x^2}\).
In both cases, the derivative is equal to \(\frac{d}{dx}(\tan^{-1}x)\).
Assertion (A) is true.

Step 3: Link A and R:
The Assertion follows directly from the piecewise definitions provided in the Reason, as the derivative of the constant terms (\(\pi/4\) and \(-3\pi/4\)) is zero. Hence, R explains A. Quick Tip: Inverse trigonometric identities often have conditional branches (e.g., \(xy < 1\) vs \(xy > 1\)). The derivative usually remains the same functional form because the branches differ only by a constant.


Question 65:

If \(\frac{d}{dx}\left\{ \frac{x-1}{x-\sqrt{x}} e^{2x+1} \right\} = \frac{x-1}{x-\sqrt{x}} e^{2x+1} f(x)\), then \(f(4) =\)

  • (A) 0
  • (B) 1
  • (C) \(\frac{35}{24}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{47}{24}\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(\frac{47}{24}\)
View Solution



Step 1: Simplify the Function:
Let \(y = \frac{x-1}{x-\sqrt{x}} e^{2x+1}\).
Simplify the algebraic part: \[ \frac{x-1}{x-\sqrt{x}} = \frac{(\sqrt{x}-1)(\sqrt{x}+1)}{\sqrt{x}(\sqrt{x}-1)} = \frac{\sqrt{x}+1}{\sqrt{x}} = 1 + x^{-1/2} \]
So, \(y = (1 + x^{-1/2}) e^{2x+1}\).

Step 2: Differentiate \(y\):
Using product rule: \[ \frac{dy}{dx} = \left( -\frac{1}{2}x^{-3/2} \right) e^{2x+1} + (1 + x^{-1/2}) \cdot e^{2x+1} \cdot 2 \] \[ \frac{dy}{dx} = e^{2x+1} \left[ -\frac{1}{2x\sqrt{x}} + 2 + \frac{2}{\sqrt{x}} \right] \]

Step 3: Equate to Given Form:
Given \(\frac{dy}{dx} = \left( \frac{x-1}{x-\sqrt{x}} \right) e^{2x+1} f(x) = (1 + x^{-1/2}) e^{2x+1} f(x)\).
So, \[ (1 + x^{-1/2}) f(x) = 2 + 2x^{-1/2} - \frac{1}{2}x^{-3/2} \] \[ \left( 1 + \frac{1}{\sqrt{x}} \right) f(x) = 2 + \frac{2}{\sqrt{x}} - \frac{1}{2x\sqrt{x}} \]

Step 4: Find \(f(4)\):
Substitute \(x = 4\) (\(\sqrt{4} = 2\)): \[ \left( 1 + \frac{1}{2} \right) f(4) = 2 + \frac{2}{2} - \frac{1}{2(4)(2)} \] \[ \frac{3}{2} f(4) = 2 + 1 - \frac{1}{16} = 3 - \frac{1}{16} = \frac{47}{16} \] \[ f(4) = \frac{47}{16} \times \frac{2}{3} = \frac{47}{24} \] Quick Tip: Always simplify algebraic expressions before differentiating. Here, cancelling the factor \((\sqrt{x}-1)\) simplified the function significantly.


Question 66:

If \(y = (\sin^{-1}x)^2\), then \((1-x^2)\frac{d^2y}{dx^2} - x\frac{dy}{dx} =\)

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (D) 4
Correct Answer: (B) 2
View Solution



Step 1: First Derivative: \(y = (\sin^{-1}x)^2\) \(\frac{dy}{dx} = 2\sin^{-1}x \cdot \frac{1}{\sqrt{1-x^2}}\)
Rearrange to avoid quotient rule: \(\sqrt{1-x^2} \frac{dy}{dx} = 2\sin^{-1}x\)

Step 2: Differentiate Again:
Square both sides first to simplify (optional but helpful): \((1-x^2) \left(\frac{dy}{dx}\right)^2 = 4(\sin^{-1}x)^2 = 4y\)
Differentiate w.r.t \(x\): \((1-x^2) \cdot 2\left(\frac{dy}{dx}\right) \frac{d^2y}{dx^2} + \left(\frac{dy}{dx}\right)^2 (-2x) = 4 \frac{dy}{dx}\)

Step 3: Simplify:
Divide throughout by \(2\frac{dy}{dx}\) (assuming \(\frac{dy}{dx} \neq 0\)): \((1-x^2) \frac{d^2y}{dx^2} - x \frac{dy}{dx} = 2\)

Final Answer: The value is 2. Quick Tip: When dealing with inverse trigonometric functions, rearranging the first derivative equation (e.g., cross-multiplying the square root) before finding the second derivative often leads directly to the required differential equation.


Question 67:

The radius of a cone of height 9 units is changed from 2 units to 2.12 units. The exact change and approximate change in the volume of the cone are respectively

  • (A) \((1.4437)\pi, (1.44)\pi\)
  • (B) \((1.4832)\pi, (1.479)\pi\)
  • (C) \((1.4842)\pi, (1.48)\pi\)
  • (D) \((1.4832)\pi, (1.44)\pi\)
Correct Answer: (D) \((1.4832)\pi, (1.44)\pi\)
View Solution



Step 1: Formula Setup:
Volume of cone \(V(r) = \frac{1}{3}\pi r^2 h\). Given \(h = 9\). \(V(r) = \frac{1}{3}\pi r^2 (9) = 3\pi r^2\).
Given \(r = 2\) and \(\Delta r = 2.12 - 2 = 0.12\).

Step 2: Approximate Change (\(dV\)):
Using differentials: \(dV = \frac{dV}{dr} \Delta r\). \(\frac{dV}{dr} = 6\pi r\).
At \(r=2\): \(dV = 6\pi(2) \cdot (0.12) = 12\pi \cdot 0.12 = 1.44\pi\).

Step 3: Exact Change (\(\Delta V\)): \(\Delta V = V(r + \Delta r) - V(r)\). \(\Delta V = 3\pi(2.12)^2 - 3\pi(2)^2 = 3\pi (2.12^2 - 4)\).
Using \(a^2 - b^2 = (a-b)(a+b)\): \(\Delta V = 3\pi (2.12 - 2)(2.12 + 2) = 3\pi (0.12)(4.12)\). \(\Delta V = 0.36\pi (4.12) = 1.4832\pi\).

Final Answer: Exact: \(1.4832\pi\), Approximate: \(1.44\pi\). Quick Tip: Differentials (\(dy\)) provide a linear approximation of the change (\(\Delta y\)). For small \(\Delta x\), \(dy \approx \Delta y\). The difference represents the error in approximation.


Question 68:

The local maximum value \(l\) and local minimum value \(m\) of \(f(x) = \frac{x^2+2x+2}{x+1}\) in \(\mathbb{R} - \{-1\}\) exist at \(\alpha, \beta\) respectively, then \(\frac{l+m}{\alpha+\beta} =\)

  • (A) 0
  • (B) -4
  • (C) -2
  • (D) 2
Correct Answer: (A) 0
View Solution



Step 1: Rewrite the Function: \(f(x) = \frac{(x^2+2x+1)+1}{x+1} = \frac{(x+1)^2+1}{x+1} = (x+1) + \frac{1}{x+1}\).
Let \(t = x+1\). Then \(g(t) = t + \frac{1}{t}\) for \(t \neq 0\).

Step 2: Find Local Extrema:
For \(t > 0\) (i.e., \(x > -1\)): By AM-GM, \(t + \frac{1}{t} \ge 2\). Minimum value is 2 at \(t=1\).
So local minimum \(m = 2\) at \(x+1=1 \implies x = 0\). Thus \(\beta = 0\).

For \(t < 0\) (i.e., \(x < -1\)): \(t + \frac{1}{t} \le -2\). Maximum value is -2 at \(t=-1\).
So local maximum \(l = -2\) at \(x+1=-1 \implies x = -2\). Thus \(\alpha = -2\).

Step 3: Calculate Required Value:
We have \(l = -2, m = 2, \alpha = -2, \beta = 0\). \[ \frac{l+m}{\alpha+\beta} = \frac{-2 + 2}{-2 + 0} = \frac{0}{-2} = 0 \] Quick Tip: For functions of the form \(x + \frac{1}{x}\), the local minimum is 2 (at \(x=1\)) and local maximum is -2 (at \(x=-1\)). Shifting \(x\) to \(x+1\) simply shifts the location of these extrema.


Question 69:

\(P(5,2)\) is a point on the curve \(y=f(x)\) and \(\frac{7}{2}\) is the slope of the tangent to the curve at P. The area of the triangle formed by the tangent and the normal to the curve at P with x-axis is

  • (A) 35
  • (B) \(\frac{35}{2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{53}{7}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{53}{14}\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(\frac{53}{7}\)
View Solution



Step 1: Tangent Equation:
Point \(P(5, 2)\), Slope \(m_T = \frac{7}{2}\).
Equation: \(y - 2 = \frac{7}{2}(x - 5)\).
X-intercept of Tangent (\(A\)): Set \(y=0\). \(-2 = \frac{7}{2}(x - 5) \implies -\frac{4}{7} = x - 5 \implies x_A = 5 - \frac{4}{7} = \frac{31}{7}\).

Step 2: Normal Equation:
Slope of Normal \(m_N = -\frac{1}{m_T} = -\frac{2}{7}\).
Equation: \(y - 2 = -\frac{2}{7}(x - 5)\).
X-intercept of Normal (\(B\)): Set \(y=0\). \(-2 = -\frac{2}{7}(x - 5) \implies 7 = x - 5 \implies x_B = 12\).

Step 3: Calculate Area:
Vertices are \(P(5,2)\), \(A(\frac{31}{7}, 0)\), \(B(12, 0)\).
Base on x-axis = \(|x_B - x_A| = |12 - \frac{31}{7}| = \frac{84 - 31}{7} = \frac{53}{7}\).
Height = y-coordinate of P = 2.
Area = \(\frac{1}{2} \times Base \times Height = \frac{1}{2} \times \frac{53}{7} \times 2 = \frac{53}{7}\). Quick Tip: Area of triangle formed by tangent, normal, and x-axis is given by \(\frac{1}{2} |y_P| |x_N - x_T|\). Or using formula: Area = \(\frac{y^2 |1 + m^2|}{2|m|}\) where \(m\) is slope of tangent.


Question 70:

If a particle is moving in a straight line so that after \(t\) seconds its distance \(S\) (in cms) from a fixed point on the line is given by \(S = f(t) = t^3 - 5t^2 + 8t\) then the acceleration of the particle at \(t=5\) sec is (in cm/sec\(^2\))

  • (A) 10
  • (B) 30
  • (C) 20
  • (D) 40
Correct Answer: (C) 20
View Solution



Step 1: Find Velocity:
Velocity \(v = \frac{dS}{dt}\). \(S = t^3 - 5t^2 + 8t\) \(v = 3t^2 - 10t + 8\)

Step 2: Find Acceleration:
Acceleration \(a = \frac{dv}{dt}\). \(a = \frac{d}{dt}(3t^2 - 10t + 8) = 6t - 10\)

Step 3: Calculate Acceleration at \(t=5\):
Substitute \(t=5\) into the acceleration equation: \(a(5) = 6(5) - 10 = 30 - 10 = 20 \, cm/sec^2\). Quick Tip: Distance \(\xrightarrow{d/dt}\) Velocity \(\xrightarrow{d/dt}\) Acceleration. Just differentiate twice.


Question 71:

If \(f:[a,b] \to [c,d]\) is a continuous and strictly increasing function, then \(\frac{d-c}{b-a}\) is

  • (A) Value of the function at a point \(t \in (a,b)\)
  • (B) Value of the function at \(t \in (a,b)\) such that \(f'(t)=0\)
  • (C) Slope of the tangent drawn to the curve \(y=f(t)\) at a point \(t \in (c,d)\)
  • (D) Slope of the tangent drawn to the curve \(y=f(t)\) at a point \(t \in (a,b)\)
Correct Answer: (D) Slope of the tangent drawn to the curve \(y=f(t)\) at a point \(t \in (a,b)\)
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The question asks for the geometric interpretation of the expression \(\frac{d-c}{b-a}\) given the properties of the function \(f\).

Step 2: Applying Function Properties:
Since \(f\) is a strictly increasing function from \([a,b]\) to \([c,d]\), it maps the smallest input to the smallest output and the largest input to the largest output.
Therefore: \(f(a) = c\) \(f(b) = d\)

Step 3: Interpreting the Expression:
Substitute these values into the expression: \[ \frac{d-c}{b-a} = \frac{f(b) - f(a)}{b - a} \]
This ratio represents the slope of the secant line joining the points \((a, f(a))\) and \((b, f(b))\).

Step 4: Using the Mean Value Theorem (Lagrange's MVT):
Since \(f\) is continuous on \([a,b]\) and differentiable on \((a,b)\) (implied by the context of "tangent" in options), by the Mean Value Theorem, there exists at least one point \(t \in (a,b)\) such that: \[ f'(t) = \frac{f(b) - f(a)}{b - a} \]
Here, \(f'(t)\) represents the slope of the tangent to the curve \(y=f(x)\) at the point \(x=t\).

Thus, \(\frac{d-c}{b-a}\) is the slope of the tangent drawn to the curve \(y=f(t)\) at a point \(t \in (a,b)\). Quick Tip: The expression \(\frac{f(b)-f(a)}{b-a}\) represents the average rate of change over the interval. The Mean Value Theorem guarantees there is an instantaneous rate of change (slope of tangent) equal to this average.


Question 72:

\(\int \left( \frac{1}{x^2} + \frac{\sin^3 x + \cos^3 x}{\sin^2 x \cos^2 x} \right) dx =\)

  • (A) \(\frac{(\sin x - \cos x)x - \sin x \cos x}{x \sin x \cos x} + c\)
  • (B) \(\sec x - \csc x + c\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{x} \frac{\sin x - \cos x}{\sin^2 x \cos^2 x} + c\)
  • (D) \(\frac{(\sin x - \cos x)x - \sin x + \cos x}{x(\sin x + \cos x)} + c\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(\frac{(\sin x - \cos x)x - \sin x \cos x}{x \sin x \cos x} + c\)
View Solution



Step 1: Simplify the Integrand:
Let the integral be \(I\). \[ I = \int \frac{1}{x^2} dx + \int \frac{\sin^3 x + \cos^3 x}{\sin^2 x \cos^2 x} dx \]

First part: \[ \int x^{-2} dx = -\frac{1}{x} \]

Second part:
Split the numerator: \[ \frac{\sin^3 x}{\sin^2 x \cos^2 x} + \frac{\cos^3 x}{\sin^2 x \cos^2 x} = \frac{\sin x}{\cos^2 x} + \frac{\cos x}{\sin^2 x} \] \[ = \sec x \tan x + \csc x \cot x \]

Integrating the trigonometric part: \[ \int (\sec x \tan x + \csc x \cot x) dx = \sec x - \csc x \]

Total Integral: \[ I = -\frac{1}{x} + \sec x - \csc x + c \] \[ I = \frac{1}{\cos x} - \frac{1}{\sin x} - \frac{1}{x} + c \]

Step 2: Match with Options:
Let's simplify Option (A): \[ \frac{(\sin x - \cos x)x - \sin x \cos x}{x \sin x \cos x} \]
Split the fraction: \[ \frac{x(\sin x - \cos x)}{x \sin x \cos x} - \frac{\sin x \cos x}{x \sin x \cos x} \] \[ = \frac{\sin x - \cos x}{\sin x \cos x} - \frac{1}{x} \] \[ = \frac{\sin x}{\sin x \cos x} - \frac{\cos x}{\sin x \cos x} - \frac{1}{x} \] \[ = \frac{1}{\cos x} - \frac{1}{\sin x} - \frac{1}{x} \] \[ = \sec x - \csc x - \frac{1}{x} \]
This matches our calculated result exactly. Quick Tip: Always break down fractions with sums in the numerator (\(\frac{A+B}{C} = \frac{A}{C} + \frac{B}{C}\)) to simplify integrals involving trigonometric powers.


Question 73:

If \(I_n = \int \frac{1}{(x^2+1)^n} dx\), then \(2n I_{n+1} - (2n-1) I_n =\)

  • (A) \(\frac{(x^2+1)^n}{x} + c\)
  • (B) \(\frac{x}{(x^2+1)^n} + c\)
  • (C) \(x(x^2+1)^{n-1} + c\)
  • (D) \(\frac{x}{(x^2+1)^{n-1}} + c\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(\frac{x}{(x^2+1)^n} + c\)
View Solution



Step 1: Use Integration by Parts on \(I_n\):
Let \(u = \frac{1}{(x^2+1)^n}\) and \(dv = dx\).
Then \(du = -n(x^2+1)^{-n-1}(2x) dx\) and \(v = x\). \[ I_n = \frac{x}{(x^2+1)^n} - \int x \left( \frac{-2nx}{(x^2+1)^{n+1}} \right) dx \] \[ I_n = \frac{x}{(x^2+1)^n} + 2n \int \frac{x^2}{(x^2+1)^{n+1}} dx \]

Step 2: Algebraic Manipulation:
Write \(x^2\) in the numerator as \((x^2+1) - 1\): \[ I_n = \frac{x}{(x^2+1)^n} + 2n \int \frac{(x^2+1) - 1}{(x^2+1)^{n+1}} dx \] \[ I_n = \frac{x}{(x^2+1)^n} + 2n \left[ \int \frac{1}{(x^2+1)^n} dx - \int \frac{1}{(x^2+1)^{n+1}} dx \right] \]

Step 3: Relate \(I_n\) and \(I_{n+1}\):
Substitute definitions of \(I_n\) and \(I_{n+1}\): \[ I_n = \frac{x}{(x^2+1)^n} + 2n [ I_n - I_{n+1} ] \] \[ I_n = \frac{x}{(x^2+1)^n} + 2n I_n - 2n I_{n+1} \]

Rearrange terms to match the required expression: \[ 2n I_{n+1} = \frac{x}{(x^2+1)^n} + 2n I_n - I_n \] \[ 2n I_{n+1} = \frac{x}{(x^2+1)^n} + (2n - 1) I_n \] \[ 2n I_{n+1} - (2n - 1) I_n = \frac{x}{(x^2+1)^n} \]

Final Answer: The value is \(\frac{x}{(x^2+1)^n} + c\). Quick Tip: Reduction formulas for integrals of the form \(\frac{1}{(x^2+a^2)^n}\) are standard. Remembering the technique of adding and subtracting constants in the numerator during integration by parts is crucial.


Question 74:

\(\int \frac{x^3}{x^4 + 3x^2 + 2} dx =\)

  • (A) \(\log \left( \frac{x^2+2}{\sqrt{x^2+1}} \right) + c\)
  • (B) \(\log(x^2+2) - 2\log(x^2+1) + c\)
  • (C) \(\log \left( \frac{(x^2+2)x}{\sqrt{x^2+1}} \right) + c\)
  • (D) \(\log \left( \frac{x^2+1}{\sqrt{x^2+2}} \right) + c\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(\log \left( \frac{x^2+2}{\sqrt{x^2+1}} \right) + c\)
View Solution



Step 1: Substitution:
Let \(x^2 = t\). Then \(2x dx = dt \implies x dx = \frac{dt}{2}\).
Rewrite the integrand: \[ \int \frac{x^2 \cdot x}{x^4 + 3x^2 + 2} dx = \int \frac{t}{t^2 + 3t + 2} \frac{dt}{2} \] \[ = \frac{1}{2} \int \frac{t}{(t+1)(t+2)} dt \]

Step 2: Partial Fractions:
Let \(\frac{t}{(t+1)(t+2)} = \frac{A}{t+1} + \frac{B}{t+2}\). \(t = A(t+2) + B(t+1)\).
At \(t = -1\): \(-1 = A(1) \implies A = -1\).
At \(t = -2\): \(-2 = B(-1) \implies B = 2\).

Step 3: Integration: \[ I = \frac{1}{2} \left[ \int \frac{-1}{t+1} dt + \int \frac{2}{t+2} dt \right] \] \[ I = \frac{1}{2} [ -\log(t+1) + 2\log(t+2) ] + c \] \[ I = \frac{1}{2} [ \log \frac{(t+2)^2}{t+1} ] + c \] \[ I = \log \left( \sqrt{\frac{(t+2)^2}{t+1}} \right) + c = \log \left( \frac{t+2}{\sqrt{t+1}} \right) + c \]

Step 4: Back Substitution:
Replace \(t\) with \(x^2\): \[ I = \log \left( \frac{x^2+2}{\sqrt{x^2+1}} \right) + c \] Quick Tip: When the integrand involves only even powers of \(x\) and an \(x\) or \(x^3\) in the numerator, substituting \(t=x^2\) is the standard approach to simplify the degree.


Question 75:

If \(\int \frac{dx}{(x^2+9)\sqrt{x^2+16}} = \frac{1}{3\sqrt{7}} \tan^{-1} \left( K \frac{x}{\sqrt{16+x^2}} \right) + c\), then \(K =\)

  • (A) \(\frac{\sqrt{7}}{3}\)
  • (B) \(3\sqrt{7}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{3}{\sqrt{7}}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{3}{7}\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(\frac{\sqrt{7}}{3}\)
View Solution



Step 1: Standard Substitution:
For integrals of type \(\int \frac{dx}{(ax^2+b)\sqrt{cx^2+d}}\), a convenient substitution is \(x = \sqrt{d} \tan \theta\) or substituting \(u = \frac{x}{\sqrt{x^2+16}}\).
Let's use \(u = \frac{x}{\sqrt{x^2+16}}\).
Squaring: \(u^2 = \frac{x^2}{x^2+16} \implies x^2(1-u^2) = 16u^2 \implies x^2 = \frac{16u^2}{1-u^2}\).
Differentiating: \[ du = \frac{\sqrt{x^2+16} - x \frac{x}{\sqrt{x^2+16}}}{x^2+16} dx = \frac{16}{(x^2+16)^{3/2}} dx \]
So \(\frac{dx}{\sqrt{x^2+16}} = \frac{x^2+16}{16} du\).
From \(x^2 = \frac{16u^2}{1-u^2}\), we have \(x^2+16 = \frac{16u^2 + 16(1-u^2)}{1-u^2} = \frac{16}{1-u^2}\).
Thus, \(\frac{dx}{\sqrt{x^2+16}} = \frac{1}{16} \cdot \frac{16}{1-u^2} du = \frac{du}{1-u^2}\).

Step 2: Transform the Integral:
The remaining term is \(\frac{1}{x^2+9}\). \(x^2+9 = \frac{16u^2}{1-u^2} + 9 = \frac{16u^2 + 9 - 9u^2}{1-u^2} = \frac{7u^2+9}{1-u^2}\).
So, \(\frac{1}{x^2+9} = \frac{1-u^2}{7u^2+9}\).

Integral becomes: \[ I = \int \left( \frac{1-u^2}{7u^2+9} \right) \left( \frac{du}{1-u^2} \right) = \int \frac{du}{7u^2+9} \]

Step 3: Integrate: \[ I = \int \frac{du}{(\sqrt{7}u)^2 + (3)^2} \]
Using formula \(\int \frac{dx}{x^2+a^2} = \frac{1}{a} \tan^{-1}(\frac{x}{a})\): \[ I = \frac{1}{\sqrt{7}} \cdot \frac{1}{3} \tan^{-1} \left( \frac{\sqrt{7}u}{3} \right) + c \] \[ I = \frac{1}{3\sqrt{7}} \tan^{-1} \left( \frac{\sqrt{7}}{3} \frac{x}{\sqrt{x^2+16}} \right) + c \]

Step 4: Identify K:
Comparing with the given expression: \[ K = \frac{\sqrt{7}}{3} \] Quick Tip: For integrals involving \(\sqrt{x^2+a^2}\), the substitution \(x = a \tan \theta\) is standard, but substituting the ratio \(u = x/\sqrt{x^2+a^2}\) can often simplify the algebra faster by eliminating square roots immediately.


Question 76:

\(\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1}{n^2} \left[ e^{1/n} + 2e^{2/n} + 3e^{3/n} + \dots + 2n e^{2n/n} \right] =\)

  • (A) \(e^2 - 1\)
  • (B) \(e^2 + 1\)
  • (C) \(2e^2 - 2\)
  • (D) \(2e^2 + 1\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(e^2 + 1\)
View Solution



Step 1: Express as a Riemann Sum:
The given limit is: \[ L = \lim_{n \to \infty} \sum_{r=1}^{2n} \frac{r}{n^2} e^{r/n} \]
Rewrite \(\frac{r}{n^2}\) as \(\frac{1}{n} \cdot \frac{r}{n}\): \[ L = \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1}{n} \sum_{r=1}^{2n} \left( \frac{r}{n} \right) e^{r/n} \]

Step 2: Convert to Definite Integral:
Let \(x = \frac{r}{n}\) and \(dx = \frac{1}{n}\).
Lower limit: As \(r \to 1, n \to \infty, x \to 0\).
Upper limit: As \(r \to 2n, n \to \infty, x \to 2\). \[ L = \int_{0}^{2} x e^x dx \]

Step 3: Solve the Integral:
Using Integration by Parts (\(\int u dv = uv - \int v du\)):
Let \(u = x \implies du = dx\).
Let \(dv = e^x dx \implies v = e^x\). \[ \int_{0}^{2} x e^x dx = \left[ x e^x \right]_0^2 - \int_{0}^{2} e^x dx \] \[ = (2e^2 - 0e^0) - [e^x]_0^2 \] \[ = 2e^2 - (e^2 - e^0) \] \[ = 2e^2 - (e^2 - 1) \] \[ = e^2 + 1 \] Quick Tip: When converting a summation to an integral \(\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1}{n} \sum f(r/n)\), always check the upper limit of summation. If it goes up to \(kn\), the integral upper bound is \(k\).


Question 77:

Let m, n, p, q be four positive integers. If \(\int_0^{2\pi} \sin^m x \cos^n x dx = 4 \int_0^{\pi/2} \sin^m x \cos^n x dx\), \(\int_0^{2\pi} \sin^p x \cos^q x dx = 0\), \(a = m+n+p\) and \(b = m+n+q\), then

  • (A) a is even number and b is odd number
  • (B) a is odd number and b is even number
  • (C) Both a and b are even numbers
  • (D) Both a and b are odd numbers
Correct Answer: (D) Both a and b are odd numbers
View Solution



Step 1: Analyze First Integral Condition:
Let \(I_1 = \int_0^{2\pi} \sin^m x \cos^n x dx\).
For \(I_1\) to equal \(4 \int_0^{\pi/2} \sin^m x \cos^n x dx\), the integrand \(f(x) = \sin^m x \cos^n x\) must be symmetric and positive (relative to the integral transformation) in all quadrants. Specifically, reduction to 4 times the first quadrant integral requires that \(m\) and \(n\) are both even integers.
If either \(m\) or \(n\) were odd, the integral over \([0, 2\pi]\) would be 0 (due to cancellation of positive and negative areas).
Since the integral is non-zero (implied by equality to 4 times a wallis integral which is positive), \(m\) and \(n\) must be even.
Thus, \(m+n\) is an even number.

Step 2: Analyze Second Integral Condition:
Let \(I_2 = \int_0^{2\pi} \sin^p x \cos^q x dx = 0\).
For the integral of \(\sin^p x \cos^q x\) over a full period \([0, 2\pi]\) to be zero, it is sufficient that at least one of the powers \(p\) or \(q\) is an odd integer.

Step 3: Analyze Options with \(a\) and \(b\):
Given \(a = m + n + p\) and \(b = m + n + q\).
Since \(m+n\) is even:
- The parity of \(a\) is the same as the parity of \(p\).
- The parity of \(b\) is the same as the parity of \(q\).

We need to select the option that ensures \(I_2 = 0\).
If \(a\) and \(b\) are both odd (Option D), then \(p\) and \(q\) are both odd.
If \(p\) and \(q\) are both odd, the integral \(\int_0^{2\pi} \sin^p x \cos^q x dx\) is indeed 0. (In fact, substitution \(x = \pi + t\) shows \(f(x)\) has period properties that cancel out, or simply \(x = \pi - t\) symmetry).
Since this condition (p, q odd) satisfies the problem statement, and matches Option (D), it is the correct answer.

(Note: Options A and B also lead to integral 0, but usually in such questions, the "symmetric" or "strongest" case is the intended answer key, or there is a context implying strict non-zero behavior for the other variables not mentioned. Given the official answer key points to D, we proceed with that). Quick Tip: \(\int_0^{2\pi} \sin^m x \cos^n x dx\) is non-zero only if both \(m\) and \(n\) are even. Otherwise, it is zero.


Question 78:

The area of the region bounded by the curves \(y=x^3\), \(y=x^2\) and the lines \(x=0\) and \(x=2\) is

  • (A) \(\frac{4}{3}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{5}{3}\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
View Solution



Step 1: Identify Intersection Points:
Solve \(x^3 = x^2 \implies x^2(x-1) = 0\). Intersections at \(x=0\) and \(x=1\).
The region is bounded by \(x=0\) and \(x=2\). So we split the integral at \(x=1\).

Step 2: Determine Upper Curve:
In interval \((0, 1)\): Test \(x=0.5\). \(y=x^2=0.25\), \(y=x^3=0.125\). So \(x^2 > x^3\).
In interval \((1, 2)\): Test \(x=1.5\). \(y=x^2=2.25\), \(y=x^3=3.375\). So \(x^3 > x^2\).

Step 3: Calculate Area: \[ A = \int_0^1 (x^2 - x^3) dx + \int_1^2 (x^3 - x^2) dx \]
Area 1: \[ A_1 = \left[ \frac{x^3}{3} - \frac{x^4}{4} \right]_0^1 = \left( \frac{1}{3} - \frac{1}{4} \right) - 0 = \frac{1}{12} \]
Area 2: \[ A_2 = \left[ \frac{x^4}{4} - \frac{x^3}{3} \right]_1^2 = \left( \frac{16}{4} - \frac{8}{3} \right) - \left( \frac{1}{4} - \frac{1}{3} \right) \] \[ A_2 = \left( 4 - \frac{8}{3} \right) - \left( \frac{3-4}{12} \right) = \frac{4}{3} - \left( -\frac{1}{12} \right) = \frac{16}{12} + \frac{1}{12} = \frac{17}{12} \]

Total Area: \[ A = A_1 + A_2 = \frac{1}{12} + \frac{17}{12} = \frac{18}{12} = \frac{3}{2} \] Quick Tip: Always check for intersection points within the integration limits. If curves cross, you must split the integral and take the absolute difference \(|f(x) - g(x)|\).


Question 79:

The substitution required to reduce the differential equation \(t^2 dx + (x^2 - tx + t^2) dt = 0\) to a differential equation which can be solved by variables separable method is

  • (A) \(t = Vx\)
  • (B) \(ax + bt = Z\)
  • (C) \(V = tx^2\)
  • (D) \(x = tV^2\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(t = Vx\)
View Solution



Step 1: Analyze the Equation:
Rewrite the differential equation: \[ t^2 dx = -(x^2 - tx + t^2) dt \] \[ \frac{dx}{dt} = -\frac{x^2 - tx + t^2}{t^2} = -\left( \left(\frac{x}{t}\right)^2 - \frac{x}{t} + 1 \right) \]
The equation is a homogeneous differential equation because it can be expressed as a function of \(x/t\).

Step 2: Identify Substitution:
Standard substitutions for homogeneous equations are \(x = vt\) (which implies \(v = x/t\)) or \(t = vx\) (which implies \(v = t/x\)).
The goal is to separate variables.
Option (A) is \(t = Vx\). This is one of the valid substitutions for homogeneous equations (often used when \(dx/dt\) is a function of \(t/x\), but also valid here algebraically).
Let's check if it works:
If \(t = Vx\), then \(dt = V dx + x dV\).
Substitute into the original form \(t^2 dx + (x^2 - tx + t^2) dt = 0\):
Since it's homogeneous, this substitution will reduce it to a separable form involving \(V\) and \(x\).
Specifically, substituting \(t=Vx\) (or equivalently \(x/t = 1/V\)) into \(\frac{dx}{dt} = f(x/t)\) is mathematically sound for separation.

Thus, the substitution \(t = Vx\) is the correct choice among the options. Quick Tip: For a homogeneous differential equation \(\frac{dy}{dx} = f(y/x)\), use \(y=vx\). For \(\frac{dx}{dy} = f(x/y)\), use \(x=vy\). Here, variables are \(x, t\), so \(x=vt\) or \(t=vx\) are the candidates.


Question 80:

The equation which represents the system of parabolas whose axis is parallel to y-axis satisfies the differential equation

  • (A) \(\frac{d^3y}{dx^3} = 0\)
  • (B) \(\frac{d^3y}{dx^3} + \frac{d^2y}{dx^2} = x+y\)
  • (C) \(\frac{d^2y}{dx^2} + xy = 4ax\)
  • (D) \(\frac{dy}{dx} + xy = x^2\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(\frac{d^3y}{dx^3} = 0\)
View Solution



Step 1: General Equation of Parabola:
The general equation of a parabola with its axis parallel to the y-axis is: \[ y = Ax^2 + Bx + C \]
Here, \(A, B, C\) are three arbitrary constants.

Step 2: Eliminate Constants:
To find the differential equation, we need to differentiate the equation as many times as there are arbitrary constants (3 times).
1st Derivative: \[ \frac{dy}{dx} = 2Ax + B \]
2nd Derivative: \[ \frac{d^2y}{dx^2} = 2A \]
3rd Derivative: \[ \frac{d^3y}{dx^3} = 0 \]

The resulting differential equation is \(\frac{d^3y}{dx^3} = 0\). Quick Tip: The order of the differential equation representing a family of curves is equal to the number of independent arbitrary constants in the general equation of the family.


Question 81:

Bose-Einstein statistics is applicable to particles with

  • (A) Even integral spin particles only
  • (B) Integral spin particles
  • (C) Half odd integral spin particles
  • (D) Odd integral spin particles only
Correct Answer: (B) Integral spin particles
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
In quantum mechanics, particles are classified based on their spin quantum number.
1. Fermions: Particles with half-integer spin (e.g., \(1/2, 3/2, \dots\)). They obey Fermi-Dirac statistics and the Pauli Exclusion Principle. Examples include electrons, protons, and neutrons.
2. Bosons: Particles with integer spin (e.g., \(0, 1, 2, \dots\)). They obey Bose-Einstein statistics and do not follow the Pauli Exclusion Principle. Examples include photons, gluons, and Helium-4 atoms.

Conclusion:
Bose-Einstein statistics applies to particles with integral spin. Quick Tip: Remember: Bosons have Whole (integer) spins. Fermions have Fractional (half-integer) spins.


Question 82:

If L and C are inductance and capacitance respectively, then the dimensional formula of \((LC)^{-\frac{1}{2}}\) is

  • (A) \([M^0 L^0 T^{-1}]\)
  • (B) \([M^1 L^1 T^{-1}]\)
  • (C) \([M^0 L^1 T^1]\)
  • (D) \([M^0 L^0 T^{-2}]\)
Correct Answer: (A) \([M^0 L^0 T^{-1}]\)
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The expression \((LC)^{-1/2}\) corresponds to the resonance angular frequency (\(\omega\)) of an LC circuit.
The formula for resonance frequency is: \[ \omega = \frac{1}{\sqrt{LC}} = (LC)^{-\frac{1}{2}} \]

Step 2: Determine Dimensions:
The dimension of angular frequency \(\omega\) is the inverse of time (\(T^{-1}\)), as frequency is cycles per unit time. \[ [\omega] = [T^{-1}] \]
Therefore, the dimensional formula for \((LC)^{-1/2}\) is \([M^0 L^0 T^{-1}]\).

Alternative Method: \(L = [M L^2 T^{-2} A^{-2}]\) \(C = [M^{-1} L^{-2} T^4 A^2]\) \(LC = [T^2]\) \((LC)^{-1/2} = (T^2)^{-1/2} = [T^{-1}]\). Quick Tip: Memorize that the time constant \(\tau = RC = L/R = \sqrt{LC}\) has dimensions of Time \([T]\). Therefore, \(1/\sqrt{LC}\) is Frequency \([T^{-1}]\).


Question 83:

The ratio of times taken by a freely falling body to travel first 5m, second 5m, third 5m distances is

  • (A) \(1 : \sqrt{2} : \sqrt{3}\)
  • (B) \(1 : \sqrt{2}-1 : \sqrt{3}-2\)
  • (C) \(1 : \sqrt{3} : \sqrt{5}\)
  • (D) \(1 : \sqrt{2}-1 : \sqrt{3}-\sqrt{2}\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(1 : \sqrt{2}-1 : \sqrt{3}-\sqrt{2}\)
View Solution



Step 1: Key Formula:
For a freely falling body starting from rest (\(u=0\)), the distance covered is given by \(s = \frac{1}{2}gt^2\).
Therefore, time taken to cover distance \(s\) is \(t = \sqrt{\frac{2s}{g}} \propto \sqrt{s}\).

Step 2: Calculate Cumulative Times:
Let \(d = 5 m\).
Time to travel first \(d\) (Total distance \(d\)): \(t_1 \propto \sqrt{d} \propto \sqrt{1}\)
Time to travel first \(2d\) (Total distance \(10 m\)): \(t_2 \propto \sqrt{2d} \propto \sqrt{2}\)
Time to travel first \(3d\) (Total distance \(15 m\)): \(t_3 \propto \sqrt{3d} \propto \sqrt{3}\)

Step 3: Calculate Interval Times:
Time for 1st 5m (\(\Delta t_1\)) = \(t_1 \propto \sqrt{1}\)
Time for 2nd 5m (\(\Delta t_2\)) = \(t_2 - t_1 \propto \sqrt{2} - \sqrt{1}\)
Time for 3rd 5m (\(\Delta t_3\)) = \(t_3 - t_2 \propto \sqrt{3} - \sqrt{2}\)

Step 4: Ratio:
The ratio is \(1 : (\sqrt{2}-1) : (\sqrt{3}-\sqrt{2})\). Quick Tip: Galileo's Law of Odd Numbers states that for equal *time intervals*, distances are in ratio \(1:3:5\). Conversely, for equal *distance intervals*, the time intervals are in ratio \(1 : (\sqrt{2}-1) : (\sqrt{3}-\sqrt{2}) : \dots\)


Question 84:

Two bodies are projected from the same point with the same initial velocity 'u' making angles '\(\theta\)' and (\(90^\circ-\theta\)) with the horizontal in opposite directions. The horizontal distance between their positions when the bodies are at their maximum heights is

  • (A) \(\frac{u^2}{2g}(\sin^2 \theta - \cos^2 \theta)\)
  • (B) \(\frac{u^2 \sin 2\theta}{2g}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{u^2}{g}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{u^2 \sin 2(90^\circ-\theta)}{g}\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(\frac{u^2 \sin 2(90^\circ-\theta)}{g}\)
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The two bodies are projected with complementary angles \(\theta\) and \(90^\circ-\theta\). For complementary angles, the horizontal range \(R\) is the same. \(R = \frac{u^2 \sin 2\theta}{g}\).

Step 2: Position of Maximum Height:
The horizontal distance to the maximum height for a projectile is half the range (\(R/2\)).
Since they are projected in opposite directions from the same point:
- Body 1 travels horizontal distance \(x_1 = R/2\) to the right.
- Body 2 travels horizontal distance \(x_2 = R/2\) to the left.

Step 3: Calculate Separation:
The total horizontal distance between them when both are at their respective maximum heights is: \[ D = x_1 + x_2 = \frac{R}{2} + \frac{R}{2} = R \] \[ D = \frac{u^2 \sin 2\theta}{g} \]

Step 4: Check Options:
Option (D) is \(\frac{u^2 \sin 2(90^\circ-\theta)}{g}\).
Using \(\sin(180^\circ - A) = \sin A\): \[ \sin 2(90^\circ-\theta) = \sin(180^\circ - 2\theta) = \sin 2\theta \]
So, Option (D) simplifies to \(\frac{u^2 \sin 2\theta}{g}\), which is the correct distance. Quick Tip: For complementary angles of projection (\(\theta\) and \(90-\theta\)), the horizontal ranges are equal. The maximum heights occur at \(R/2\).


Question 85:

If the system of blocks shown in the figure is released from rest, the ratio of the tensions \(T_1\) and \(T_2\) is (Neglect the mass of the string shown in the figure)


  • (A) \(1:1\)
  • (B) \(1:2\)
  • (C) \(1:3\)
  • (D) \(3:4\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(1:2\)
View Solution



Step 1: Identify Masses and Acceleration:
Left Side Mass: \(M_L = 4 kg\).
Right Side Total Mass: \(M_R = 3 kg + 3 kg = 6 kg\).
Since \(M_R > M_L\), the right side moves down and the left side moves up with acceleration \(a\). \[ a = \frac{(M_R - M_L)g}{M_R + M_L} = \frac{(6-4)g}{6+4} = \frac{2g}{10} = \frac{g}{5} \]

Step 2: Calculate Tension \(T_2\) (Main String):
Consider the 4 kg block moving up: \[ T_2 - 4g = 4a \] \[ T_2 = 4(g + a) = 4\left(g + \frac{g}{5}\right) = 4\left(\frac{6g}{5}\right) = \frac{24g}{5} = 4.8g \]

Step 3: Calculate Tension \(T_1\) (Lower String):
Consider the bottom-most 3 kg block moving down: \[ 3g - T_1 = 3a \] \[ T_1 = 3(g - a) = 3\left(g - \frac{g}{5}\right) = 3\left(\frac{4g}{5}\right) = \frac{12g}{5} = 2.4g \]

Step 4: Find Ratio: \[ \frac{T_1}{T_2} = \frac{2.4g}{4.8g} = \frac{1}{2} \]
The ratio is \(1:2\). Quick Tip: For connected bodies, find the common acceleration first using \(a = F_{net}/M_{total}\). Then isolate individual bodies to find internal tensions.


Question 86:

If the component of the vector \(\vec{A}\) along the vector \(\vec{B}\) is twice the component of \(\vec{B}\) along \(\vec{A}\), then the ratio of magnitudes of vectors \(\vec{A}\) and \(\vec{B}\) is

  • (A) \(1:2\)
  • (B) \(3:2\)
  • (C) \(2:1\)
  • (D) \(3:1\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(2:1\)
View Solution



Step 1: Write Formulae for Components:
Component of \(\vec{A}\) along \(\vec{B}\) = \(A \cos \theta = \frac{\vec{A} \cdot \vec{B}}{|\vec{B}|}\).
Component of \(\vec{B}\) along \(\vec{A}\) = \(B \cos \theta = \frac{\vec{A} \cdot \vec{B}}{|\vec{A}|}\).

Step 2: Apply Condition:
Given: \((Comp of \vec{A} on \vec{B}) = 2 \times (Comp of \vec{B} on \vec{A})\). \[ \frac{\vec{A} \cdot \vec{B}}{|\vec{B}|} = 2 \left( \frac{\vec{A} \cdot \vec{B}}{|\vec{A}|} \right) \]

Step 3: Solve for Ratio:
Assuming \(\vec{A} \cdot \vec{B} \neq 0\), cancel the dot product term: \[ \frac{1}{|\vec{B}|} = \frac{2}{|\vec{A}|} \] \[ |\vec{A}| = 2 |\vec{B}| \] \[ \frac{|\vec{A}|}{|\vec{B}|} = \frac{2}{1} \] Quick Tip: The projection of \(\vec{P}\) on \(\vec{Q}\) is \(\vec{P} \cdot \hat{Q}\). This depends inversely on the magnitude of the vector being projected *on*.


Question 87:

A body projected vertically up with an initial speed of \(10 ms^{-1}\) reaches the point of projection after sometime with a speed of \(8 ms^{-1}\). The maximum height reached by the body is (Acceleration due to gravity \(= 10 ms^{-2}\))

  • (A) \(5 m\)
  • (B) \(3.2 m\)
  • (C) \(4.1 m\)
  • (D) \(4.5 m\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(4.1\text{ m}\)
View Solution



Step 1: Analyze the Problem:
Since the body returns with a speed (\(v = 8 m/s\)) less than the projection speed (\(u = 10 m/s\)), there is a resistive force (air resistance) acting on the body. Assume a constant resistive force \(f\).
Let \(H\) be the maximum height.

Step 2: Work-Energy Theorem:
During the upward journey, work is done against gravity and air resistance.
Initial KE = Work done against gravity + Work done against resistance. \[ \frac{1}{2}mu^2 = (mg + f)H \quad \dots(1) \]
During the downward journey, potential energy is converted to kinetic energy and work against resistance. \[ (mg - f)H = \frac{1}{2}mv^2 \quad \dots(2) \]

Step 3: Solve for Resistance Force \(f\):
Divide (1) by (2): \[ \frac{mg+f}{mg-f} = \frac{u^2}{v^2} = \frac{10^2}{8^2} = \frac{100}{64} = \frac{25}{16} \] \[ 16(mg+f) = 25(mg-f) \] \[ 16mg + 16f = 25mg - 25f \] \[ 41f = 9mg \implies f = \frac{9}{41}mg \]

Step 4: Calculate Maximum Height \(H\):
Substitute \(f\) back into equation (1): \[ \left(mg + \frac{9}{41}mg\right)H = \frac{1}{2}m(100) \] \[ mg\left(1 + \frac{9}{41}\right)H = 50m \] \[ g\left(\frac{50}{41}\right)H = 50 \] \[ 10 \cdot \frac{50}{41} H = 50 \] \[ \frac{10}{41} H = 1 \implies H = 4.1 m \] Quick Tip: When speed decreases upon return to the same point, mechanical energy is lost due to non-conservative forces like air drag. Use Work-Energy principle separately for ascent and descent.


Question 88:

Due to global warming, if the ice in the polar region melts and some of this water flows to the equatorial region, then

  • (A) Angular momentum of the earth increases and duration of day increases
  • (B) Angular momentum of the earth decreases and duration of day decreases
  • (C) Angular momentum of the earth is constant and duration of day decreases
  • (D) Angular momentum of the earth is constant and duration of day increases
Correct Answer: (D) Angular momentum of the earth is constant and duration of day increases
View Solution



Step 1: Conservation of Angular Momentum:
Since there is no external torque acting on the Earth, its angular momentum (\(L\)) remains constant. \[ L = I\omega = constant \]

Step 2: Change in Moment of Inertia (\(I\)):
Water flows from the poles (distance from axis \(r \approx 0\)) to the equator (distance from axis \(r = R\)).
Since mass is moving to a larger distance from the axis of rotation, the moment of inertia \(I = \sum mr^2\) increases.

Step 3: Effect on Time Period:
Since \(L = I\omega\) is constant and \(I\) increases, the angular velocity \(\omega\) must decrease.
The duration of the day is \(T = \frac{2\pi}{\omega}\).
As \(\omega\) decreases, \(T\) increases.

Conclusion:
Angular momentum is constant, and the duration of the day increases. Quick Tip: \(L = I\omega\). If mass redistributes away from the axis, \(I\) goes up, \(\omega\) goes down, and Time Period (\(T\)) goes up (rotation slows down).


Question 89:

If the moment of inertia of a thin circular ring about an axis passing through its edge and perpendicular to its plane is I, then the moment of inertia of the ring about its diameter is

  • (A) \(I/4\)
  • (B) \(4I\)
  • (C) \(I/2\)
  • (D) \(2I\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(I/4\)
View Solution



Step 1: Relate 'I' to Mass and Radius:
Moment of Inertia of a ring about an axis passing through the center and perpendicular to the plane is \(I_{CM} = MR^2\).
Using the Parallel Axis Theorem, the moment of inertia about an axis through the edge (tangent) and perpendicular to the plane is: \[ I_{edge} = I_{CM} + MR^2 = MR^2 + MR^2 = 2MR^2 \]
Given \(I_{edge} = I\).
So, \(I = 2MR^2 \implies MR^2 = \frac{I}{2}\).

Step 2: Calculate Moment of Inertia about Diameter:
Using the Perpendicular Axis Theorem (\(I_z = I_x + I_y\)), for a ring lying in the x-y plane: \(I_z = I_{CM} = MR^2\).
By symmetry, \(I_x = I_y = I_{dia}\).
So, \(MR^2 = 2 I_{dia}\). \[ I_{dia} = \frac{1}{2} MR^2 \]

Step 3: Express in terms of I:
Substitute \(MR^2 = I/2\) into the expression for \(I_{dia}\): \[ I_{dia} = \frac{1}{2} \left( \frac{I}{2} \right) = \frac{I}{4} \] Quick Tip: Standard M.I. for Ring: Center, perp: \(MR^2\). Diameter: \(MR^2/2\). Tangent, in plane: \(3/2 MR^2\). Tangent, perp: \(2MR^2\).


Question 90:

A particle is executing simple harmonic motion. If the force acting on the particle at a position is 86.6% of the maximum force on it, then the ratio of its velocity at that point and its maximum velocity is

  • (A) \(1:\sqrt{3}\)
  • (B) \(1:2\)
  • (C) \(\sqrt{3}:2\)
  • (D) \(1:3\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(1:2\)
View Solution



Step 1: Relate Force to Position:
Restoring force in SHM is \(F = -kx\). Maximum force is \(F_{max} = kA\).
Given \(F = 86.6% of F_{max} = 0.866 F_{max}\). \[ kx = 0.866 kA \] \[ x = 0.866 A = \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} A \]
(Since \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} \approx 0.866\)).

Step 2: Relate Velocity to Position:
Velocity at position \(x\) is \(v = \omega \sqrt{A^2 - x^2}\).
Maximum velocity is \(v_{max} = \omega A\).

Step 3: Calculate Ratio: \[ \frac{v}{v_{max}} = \frac{\omega \sqrt{A^2 - x^2}}{\omega A} = \sqrt{1 - \left(\frac{x}{A}\right)^2} \]
Substitute \(\frac{x}{A} = \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\): \[ \frac{v}{v_{max}} = \sqrt{1 - \left(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\right)^2} = \sqrt{1 - \frac{3}{4}} = \sqrt{\frac{1}{4}} = \frac{1}{2} \]

Ratio is \(1:2\). Quick Tip: Common SHM values: At \(x = \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}A\), \(v = \frac{1}{2}v_{max}\). At \(x = \frac{1}{2}A\), \(v = \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}v_{max}\). Energy partitions similarly.


Question 91:

The ratio of the time periods of a simple pendulum at heights \(2R_E\) and \(3R_E\) from the surface of the earth is (\(R_E\) is radius of the earth)

  • (A) \(1:2\)
  • (B) \(1:3\)
  • (C) \(3:4\)
  • (D) \(2:3\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(3:4\)
View Solution



Step 1: Formula for Time Period and Gravity:
Time period of a simple pendulum: \(T = 2\pi \sqrt{\frac{L}{g}}\).
Acceleration due to gravity at height \(h\): \(g' = \frac{GM}{(R_E + h)^2}\).
Thus, \(T \propto \frac{1}{\sqrt{g'}} \propto \sqrt{(R_E + h)^2} \propto (R_E + h)\).

Step 2: Calculate for given heights:
Case 1: \(h_1 = 2R_E\). Distance from center \(r_1 = R_E + 2R_E = 3R_E\). \(T_1 \propto 3R_E\).

Case 2: \(h_2 = 3R_E\). Distance from center \(r_2 = R_E + 3R_E = 4R_E\). \(T_2 \propto 4R_E\).

Step 3: Calculate Ratio: \[ \frac{T_1}{T_2} = \frac{3R_E}{4R_E} = \frac{3}{4} \]
Ratio is \(3:4\). Quick Tip: For a simple pendulum at altitude, \(T \propto r\), where \(r\) is the distance from the center of the earth.


Question 92:

Two wires A and B made of same material and areas of cross-section in the ratio \(1:2\) are stretched by same force. If the masses of the wires A and B are in the ratio \(2:3\), then the ratio of the elongations of the wires A and B is

  • (A) \(1:2\)
  • (B) \(8:3\)
  • (C) \(1:3\)
  • (D) \(4:3\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(8:3\)
View Solution



Step 1: Formula for Elongation:
Elongation \(\Delta L = \frac{FL}{AY}\), where \(F\) is force, \(L\) is length, \(A\) is area, \(Y\) is Young's modulus.

Step 2: Express Length in terms of Mass:
Mass \(m = Density(\rho) \times Volume = \rho \cdot A \cdot L\).
So, \(L = \frac{m}{\rho A}\).
Substitute \(L\) into the elongation formula: \[ \Delta L = \frac{F}{AY} \left( \frac{m}{\rho A} \right) = \frac{Fm}{A^2 Y \rho} \]

Step 3: Apply Ratios:
Given:
Same material \(\implies Y, \rho\) are constant.
Same force \(\implies F\) is constant.
Ratio of Areas: \(A_A : A_B = 1:2\).
Ratio of Masses: \(m_A : m_B = 2:3\).
\[ \frac{\Delta L_A}{\Delta L_B} = \frac{m_A / A_A^2}{m_B / A_B^2} = \left( \frac{m_A}{m_B} \right) \left( \frac{A_B}{A_A} \right)^2 \]

Step 4: Calculate: \[ \frac{\Delta L_A}{\Delta L_B} = \left( \frac{2}{3} \right) \left( \frac{2}{1} \right)^2 = \frac{2}{3} \times 4 = \frac{8}{3} \] Quick Tip: When length is not explicitly given but mass is, substitute \(L = Mass/(Density \times Area)\). This modifies the dependency on Area from \(A^{-1}\) to \(A^{-2}\).


Question 93:

Water is filled in a tank up to a height of 20 cm from the bottom of the tank. Water flows through a hole of area \(1 mm^2\) at its bottom. The mass of the water coming out from the hole in a time of 0.6 s is
(Density of water \(= 1000 kg m^{-3}\) and acceleration due to gravity \(= 10 ms^{-2}\))

  • (A) \(1.8 g\)
  • (B) \(1.2 g\)
  • (C) \(0.6 g\)
  • (D) \(2.4 g\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(1.2\text{ g}\)
View Solution



Step 1: Calculate Velocity of Efflux:
Using Torricelli's Law: \(v = \sqrt{2gh}\). \(h = 20 cm = 0.2 m\). \(g = 10 m/s^2\). \[ v = \sqrt{2 \times 10 \times 0.2} = \sqrt{4} = 2 m/s \]

Step 2: Calculate Volume Flow Rate: \(Q = Area \times Velocity\).
Area \(A = 1 mm^2 = 1 \times 10^{-6} m^2\). \[ Q = 10^{-6} \times 2 = 2 \times 10^{-6} m^3/s \]

Step 3: Calculate Mass Flow Rate: \(\dot{m} = Density \times Q\). \(\rho = 1000 kg/m^3\). \[ \dot{m} = 1000 \times 2 \times 10^{-6} = 2 \times 10^{-3} kg/s = 2 g/s \]

Step 4: Calculate Total Mass:
Mass \(m = \dot{m} \times t\).
Given \(t = 0.6 s\). \[ m = 2 g/s \times 0.6 s = 1.2 g \] Quick Tip: Remember standard conversions: \(1 mm^2 = 10^{-6} m^2\) and \(1 kg = 1000 g\).


Question 94:

For which of the following Reynold's number, a flow is streamlined?

  • (A) 900
  • (B) 2100
  • (C) 2900
  • (D) 4000
Correct Answer: (A) 900
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The Reynolds number (\(R_e\)) characterizes the nature of fluid flow:

If \(R_e < 2000\), the flow is streamlined or laminar.
If \(2000 < R_e < 3000\), the flow is unstable or transitional.
If \(R_e > 3000\), the flow is turbulent.


Step 2: Check Options:
We need to identify the value corresponding to streamlined flow (\(R_e < 2000\)).

900 is less than 2000.
2100 is in the transition region.
2900 is in the transition region.
4000 is turbulent.

Thus, 900 is the correct value for streamlined flow. Quick Tip: Reynolds Number \(R_e = \frac{\rho v d}{\eta}\). Remember the critical limits: 2000 for Laminar and 3000 for Turbulent.


Question 95:

A body cools from a temperature of \(60\,^\circ\mathrm{C}\) to \(50\,^\circ\mathrm{C}\) in 10 minutes and \(50\,^\circ\mathrm{C}\) to \(40\,^\circ\mathrm{C}\) in 15 minutes. The time taken in minutes for the body to cool from \(40\,^\circ\mathrm{C}\) to \(30\,^\circ\mathrm{C}\) is

  • (A) 30
  • (B) 20
  • (C) 25
  • (D) 40
Correct Answer: (A) 30
View Solution



Step 1: Formula for Newton's Law of Cooling:
For small temperature differences or linear approximation, we use: \[ \frac{T_1 - T_2}{t} = K \left( \frac{T_1 + T_2}{2} - T_s \right) \]
where \(T_s\) is the surrounding temperature.

Step 2: Case 1 (\(60 \to 50\) in 10 min): \[ \frac{60 - 50}{10} = K \left( \frac{60 + 50}{2} - T_s \right) \] \[ 1 = K(55 - T_s) \quad \dots(1) \]

Step 3: Case 2 (\(50 \to 40\) in 15 min): \[ \frac{50 - 40}{15} = K \left( \frac{50 + 40}{2} - T_s \right) \] \[ \frac{10}{15} = K(45 - T_s) \implies \frac{2}{3} = K(45 - T_s) \quad \dots(2) \]

Step 4: Solve for \(T_s\):
Divide equation (1) by (2): \[ \frac{1}{2/3} = \frac{K(55 - T_s)}{K(45 - T_s)} \] \[ \frac{3}{2} = \frac{55 - T_s}{45 - T_s} \] \[ 3(45 - T_s) = 2(55 - T_s) \] \[ 135 - 3T_s = 110 - 2T_s \] \[ T_s = 25\,^\circ\mathrm{C} \]

Step 5: Find \(K\):
From (1): \(1 = K(55 - 25) \implies 1 = 30K \implies K = \frac{1}{30}\).

Step 6: Case 3 (\(40 \to 30\) in \(t\) min): \[ \frac{40 - 30}{t} = K \left( \frac{40 + 30}{2} - 25 \right) \] \[ \frac{10}{t} = \frac{1}{30} (35 - 25) \] \[ \frac{10}{t} = \frac{1}{30} (10) \] \[ \frac{10}{t} = \frac{1}{3} \implies t = 30 minutes \] Quick Tip: When using Newton's Law of Cooling \(\frac{dT}{dt} = -K(T_{avg} - T_s)\), always find the surrounding temperature \(T_s\) first using the first two conditions.


Question 96:

When the temperature of a gas in a closed vessel is increased by \(2.4\,^\circ\mathrm{C}\), its pressure increases by \(0.5%\). The initial temperature of the gas is

  • (A) \(120\,^\circ\mathrm{C}\)
  • (B) \(240\,^\circ\mathrm{C}\)
  • (C) \(480\,^\circ\mathrm{C}\)
  • (D) \(207\,^\circ\mathrm{C}\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(207\,^\circ\mathrm{C}\)
View Solution



Step 1: Understand the Gas Law:
For a closed vessel, Volume (\(V\)) is constant. According to Gay-Lussac's Law, Pressure (\(P\)) is directly proportional to Absolute Temperature (\(T\)). \[ P \propto T \implies \frac{\Delta P}{P} = \frac{\Delta T}{T} \]

Step 2: Substitute Values:
Given:
Percentage increase in pressure, \(\frac{\Delta P}{P} \times 100 = 0.5 \implies \frac{\Delta P}{P} = 0.005\).
Change in temperature \(\Delta T = 2.4\,K\) (Change in Celsius is same as Kelvin).
Let initial temperature be \(T\) Kelvin.
\[ 0.005 = \frac{2.4}{T} \] \[ T = \frac{2.4}{0.005} = \frac{2400}{5} = 480\,K \]

Step 3: Convert to Celsius: \[ T(^\circ\mathrm{C}) = 480 - 273 = 207\,^\circ\mathrm{C} \] Quick Tip: Always use Absolute Temperature (Kelvin) in gas law calculations. \(T(K) = T(^\circ\mathrm{C}) + 273\).


Question 97:

A gas is suddenly compressed such that its absolute temperature is doubled. If the ratio of the specific heat capacities of the gas is 1.5, then the percentage decrease in the volume of the gas is

  • (A) 30
  • (B) 50
  • (C) 25
  • (D) 75
Correct Answer: (D) 75
View Solution



Step 1: Identify Process:
"Suddenly compressed" implies an adiabatic process.
The relationship between Temperature (\(T\)) and Volume (\(V\)) in an adiabatic process is given by: \[ T V^{\gamma - 1} = Constant \]
where \(\gamma = 1.5\).

Step 2: Set up Equation:
Let initial state be \((T_1, V_1)\) and final state be \((T_2, V_2)\).
Given \(T_2 = 2T_1\). \[ T_1 V_1^{1.5 - 1} = T_2 V_2^{1.5 - 1} \] \[ T_1 V_1^{0.5} = (2T_1) V_2^{0.5} \] \[ V_1^{0.5} = 2 V_2^{0.5} \]

Step 3: Solve for Volume Ratio:
Squaring both sides: \[ (V_1^{0.5})^2 = (2 V_2^{0.5})^2 \] \[ V_1 = 4 V_2 \implies V_2 = \frac{V_1}{4} = 0.25 V_1 \]

Step 4: Calculate Percentage Decrease:
Decrease in volume \(= V_1 - V_2 = V_1 - 0.25V_1 = 0.75V_1\).
Percentage decrease \(= \frac{0.75 V_1}{V_1} \times 100 = 75%\). Quick Tip: For adiabatic processes: \(TV^{\gamma-1} = C\), \(PV^\gamma = C\), and \(T^\gamma P^{1-\gamma} = C\). Ensure \(\gamma\) is correctly identified (\(C_p/C_v\)).


Question 98:

If the heat required to increase the rms speed of 4 moles of a diatomic gas from \(v\) to \(\sqrt{3}v\) is \(83.1\,\mathrm{kJ}\), then the initial temperature of the gas is (Universal gas constant \(= 8.31\,\mathrm{J\,mol^{-1}\,K^{-1}}\))

  • (A) \(377\,^\circ\mathrm{C}\)
  • (B) \(327\,^\circ\mathrm{C}\)
  • (C) \(227\,^\circ\mathrm{C}\)
  • (D) \(277\,^\circ\mathrm{C}\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(227\,^\circ\mathrm{C}\)
View Solution



Step 1: Relate RMS Speed and Temperature: \(v_{rms} \propto \sqrt{T}\).
Given \(v_{initial} = v\) and \(v_{final} = \sqrt{3}v\). \[ \frac{v_{final}}{v_{initial}} = \frac{\sqrt{3}v}{v} = \sqrt{3} \] \[ \sqrt{\frac{T_f}{T_i}} = \sqrt{3} \implies \frac{T_f}{T_i} = 3 \implies T_f = 3T_i \]
Change in temperature \(\Delta T = T_f - T_i = 3T_i - T_i = 2T_i\).

Step 2: Heat Energy Calculation:
For "heat required to increase rms speed", we consider the change in internal energy (\(\Delta U\)) or heat at constant volume (\(Q_v\)), as speed is a function of internal kinetic energy.
For a diatomic gas, \(C_v = \frac{5}{2}R\). \[ Q = n C_v \Delta T \]
Given \(n = 4\) moles, \(Q = 83.1\,\mathrm{kJ} = 83100\,\mathrm{J}\). \[ 83100 = 4 \times \frac{5}{2} R \times (2T_i) \] \[ 83100 = 4 \times \frac{5}{2} \times R \times 2T_i = 20 R T_i \]

Step 3: Solve for Initial Temperature: \[ 20 \times 8.31 \times T_i = 83100 \] \[ 166.2 T_i = 83100 \] \[ T_i = \frac{83100}{166.2} = 500\,K \]

Step 4: Convert to Celsius: \[ T_i = 500 - 273 = 227\,^\circ\mathrm{C} \] Quick Tip: RMS speed depends only on temperature (\(v_{rms} = \sqrt{3RT/M}\)). Increasing speed by factor \(k\) requires temperature to increase by factor \(k^2\).


Question 99:

If the lengths of the open and closed pipes are in the ratio of \(2:3\), then the ratio of the frequencies of the third harmonic of the open pipe and the fifth harmonic of the closed pipe is

  • (A) \(3:5\)
  • (B) \(9:5\)
  • (C) \(2:3\)
  • (D) \(4:9\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(9:5\)
View Solution



Step 1: Formulas for Harmonics:
For an Open Pipe of length \(L_o\):
Fundamental frequency \(f_o = \frac{v}{2L_o}\). \(n^{th}\) harmonic frequency \(= n f_o\).
Third harmonic (\(n=3\)): \(f_{open} = 3 \left( \frac{v}{2L_o} \right)\).

For a Closed Pipe of length \(L_c\):
Fundamental frequency \(f_c = \frac{v}{4L_c}\).
Only odd harmonics exist: \((2n-1)f_c\).
Fifth harmonic corresponds to frequency \(5 f_c\): \(f_{closed} = 5 \left( \frac{v}{4L_c} \right)\).

Step 2: Calculate Ratio:
Given ratio of lengths \(\frac{L_o}{L_c} = \frac{2}{3}\).
Ratio of frequencies: \[ \frac{f_{open}}{f_{closed}} = \frac{3v / 2L_o}{5v / 4L_c} \] \[ = \frac{3}{2} \times \frac{4}{5} \times \frac{L_c}{L_o} \] \[ = \frac{6}{5} \times \left( \frac{3}{2} \right) \quad (Substituting \frac{L_c}{L_o} = \frac{3}{2} ) \] \[ = \frac{18}{10} = \frac{9}{5} \]

Final Answer: The ratio is \(9:5\). Quick Tip: Open pipe harmonics: \(v/2L, 2v/2L, 3v/2L \dots\) (All integers). Closed pipe harmonics: \(v/4L, 3v/4L, 5v/4L \dots\) (Odd integers only).


Question 100:

The equation of a transverse wave propagating on a stretched string is given by \(y = 3\sin(4x + 200t)\), where \(x\) and \(y\) are in metre and the time \(t\) is in second. If the tension applied to the string is \(500\,\mathrm{N}\), the linear density of the string is

  • (A) \(0.25\,\mathrm{kg\,m^{-1}}\)
  • (B) \(0.4\,\mathrm{kg\,m^{-1}}\)
  • (C) \(0.2\,\mathrm{kg\,m^{-1}}\)
  • (D) \(0.1\,\mathrm{kg\,m^{-1}}\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(0.2\,\mathrm{kg\,m^{-1}}\)
View Solution



Step 1: Extract Wave Parameters:
Comparing \(y = 3\sin(4x + 200t)\) with standard equation \(y = A\sin(kx + \omega t)\):
Wave number \(k = 4\,\mathrm{m^{-1}}\).
Angular frequency \(\omega = 200\,\mathrm{rad/s}\).

Step 2: Calculate Wave Velocity (\(v\)): \[ v = \frac{\omega}{k} = \frac{200}{4} = 50\,\mathrm{m/s} \]

Step 3: Relate Velocity to Tension and Linear Density:
For a stretched string, \(v = \sqrt{\frac{T}{\mu}}\), where \(T\) is tension and \(\mu\) is linear mass density.
Squaring both sides: \(v^2 = \frac{T}{\mu} \implies \mu = \frac{T}{v^2}\).

Step 4: Calculation:
Given \(T = 500\,\mathrm{N}\). \[ \mu = \frac{500}{(50)^2} = \frac{500}{2500} = \frac{1}{5} = 0.2\,\mathrm{kg\,m^{-1}} \] Quick Tip: Speed of a transverse wave on a string depends on Tension (\(T\)) and mass per unit length (\(\mu\)): \(v = \sqrt{T/\mu}\).


Question 101:

A compound microscope has an objective of focal length \(1.25\,\mathrm{cm}\) and an eyepiece of focal length \(5\,\mathrm{cm}\) separated by a distance of \(7.5\,\mathrm{cm}\). The total magnification produced by the microscope when the final image forms at infinity is

  • (A) 6.25
  • (B) 30
  • (C) 120
  • (D) 72.5
Correct Answer: (B) 30
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Configuration:
Objective focal length \(f_o = 1.25\,\mathrm{cm}\).
Eyepiece focal length \(f_e = 5\,\mathrm{cm}\).
Separation distance (often approximated as tube length \(L\) in competitive exams) \(d = 7.5\,\mathrm{cm}\).
Final image is at infinity (Normal adjustment).

Step 2: Formula for Magnification:
When the final image is at infinity, the magnification \(M\) is: \[ M = \frac{L}{f_o} \times \frac{D}{f_e} \]
where \(D\) is the least distance of distinct vision (\(25\,\mathrm{cm}\)) and \(L\) is the distance between the lenses (or tube length approximation used here).

Step 3: Calculation: \[ M = \frac{7.5}{1.25} \times \frac{25}{5} \] \[ M = 6 \times 5 = 30 \]

Note: While strictly \(L\) in the formula is the distance between foci, in many exam contexts, the separation distance given is used directly as \(L\) for the simplified formula. Quick Tip: Microscope Magnification (Infinity): \(M = \frac{L{f_o} \frac{D}{f_e}\). Microscope Magnification (Near Point): \(M = \frac{L}{f_o} (1 + \frac{D}{f_e})\).


Question 102:

The property of light that explains the formation of coloured images due to thick lenses is

  • (A) Refraction
  • (B) Dispersion
  • (C) Reflection
  • (D) Total internal reflection
Correct Answer: (B) Dispersion
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The formation of coloured images (defects) by lenses is called Chromatic Aberration.
This occurs because the focal length of a lens depends on the refractive index (\(f \propto \frac{1}{\mu-1}\)).
Since the refractive index \(\mu\) varies with wavelength (color) of light, different colors focus at different points.

Step 2: Identifying the Property:
The phenomenon where refractive index depends on wavelength, causing splitting of white light into constituent colors, is called Dispersion. Quick Tip: Chromatic aberration is caused by Dispersion. Spherical aberration is caused by the geometry (aperture size) of the lens.


Question 103:

For an aperture of \(5 \times 10^{-3}\,\mathrm{m}\) and a monochromatic light of wavelength \(\lambda\), the distance for which ray optics becomes a good approximation is \(50\,\mathrm{m}\), then \(\lambda =\)

  • (A) \(5000\,\mathring{A}\)
  • (B) \(6000\,\mathring{A}\)
  • (C) \(5400\,\mathring{A}\)
  • (D) \(6500\,\mathring{A}\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(5000\,\mathring{A}\)
View Solution



Step 1: Concept (Fresnel Distance):
The distance up to which ray optics is a good approximation is called the Fresnel distance (\(Z_F\)).
Formula: \(Z_F = \frac{a^2}{\lambda}\)
where \(a\) is the aperture size and \(\lambda\) is the wavelength.

Step 2: Calculation:
Given \(Z_F = 50\,\mathrm{m}\), \(a = 5 \times 10^{-3}\,\mathrm{m}\). \[ 50 = \frac{(5 \times 10^{-3})^2}{\lambda} \] \[ \lambda = \frac{25 \times 10^{-6}}{50} \] \[ \lambda = 0.5 \times 10^{-6}\,\mathrm{m} = 5 \times 10^{-7}\,\mathrm{m} \]

Step 3: Convert to Angstroms: \(1\,\mathring{A} = 10^{-10}\,\mathrm{m}\). \[ \lambda = 5000 \times 10^{-10}\,\mathrm{m} = 5000\,\mathring{A} \] Quick Tip: Fresnel Distance (\(Z_F\)) defines the boundary between Ray Optics and Wave Optics. For distances \(< Z_F\), diffraction effects are negligible (Ray Optics valid).


Question 104:

An electron and a positron enter a uniform electric field E perpendicular to it with equal speeds at the same time. The distance of separation between them in the direction of the field after a time 't' is
(\(\frac{e}{m}\) is specific charge of electron)

  • (A) \(\frac{2Eet^2}{m}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{Eet^2}{m}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{Eet^2}{2m}\)
  • (D) Zero
Correct Answer: (B) \(\frac{Eet^2}{m}\)
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
An electron (charge \(-e\), mass \(m\)) and a positron (charge \(+e\), mass \(m\)) experience forces in a uniform electric field \(E\). The force is given by \(F = qE\).
Since the field is uniform, both particles undergo constant acceleration in the direction of the force. The initial velocity in the direction of the field is zero (since they enter perpendicular to it).

Step 2: Calculate Displacement for Each Particle:
Acceleration of electron: \(\vec{a}_e = \frac{-e\vec{E}}{m}\). It moves opposite to the field.
Acceleration of positron: \(\vec{a}_p = \frac{e\vec{E}}{m}\). It moves along the field.
Since they have the same mass magnitude and charge magnitude, the magnitude of acceleration is \(a = \frac{eE}{m}\).

Using the kinematic equation \(s = ut + \frac{1}{2}at^2\) with \(u=0\) in the direction of the field:
Displacement of positron in time \(t\): \(y_p = \frac{1}{2} a t^2 = \frac{1}{2} \left(\frac{eE}{m}\right) t^2\) (along field).
Displacement of electron in time \(t\): \(y_e = \frac{1}{2} a t^2 = \frac{1}{2} \left(\frac{eE}{m}\right) t^2\) (opposite to field).

Step 3: Calculate Separation:
Since they move in opposite directions along the field line, the total separation distance is the sum of their individual displacements.
Separation \(d = y_p + y_e = \frac{1}{2} \left(\frac{eE}{m}\right) t^2 + \frac{1}{2} \left(\frac{eE}{m}\right) t^2 = \left(\frac{eE}{m}\right) t^2\).

Final Answer: \(\frac{Eet^2}{m}\). Quick Tip: When two particles with equal mass and opposite charge start from the same point in a uniform electric field, they accelerate in opposite directions with the same magnitude. The relative acceleration is \(2a\), so separation is \(\frac{1}{2}(2a)t^2 = at^2\).


Question 105:

A charge q is placed at the centre 'O' of a circle of radius R and two other charges q and q are placed at the ends of the diameter AB of the circle. The work done to move the charge at point B along the circumference of the circle to a point C as shown in the figure is



  • (A) \(\frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0} \frac{q^2}{R} (\sqrt{2})\)
  • (B) Zero
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0} \frac{q^2}{R} \left(\frac{\sqrt{2}-1}{2}\right)\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0} \frac{q^2}{R} \left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\right)\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(\frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0} \frac{q^2}{R} \left(\frac{\sqrt{2}-1}{2}\right)\)
View Solution



Step 1: Formula for Work Done:
Work done \(W\) to move a charge \(q\) from point B to point C in an external electric field is given by \(W = q(V_C - V_B)\), where \(V_C\) and \(V_B\) are the potentials at points C and B due to the other fixed charges (at O and A).

Step 2: Identify Coordinates and Distances:
Let centre O be \((0,0)\). Radius is \(R\).
Charge at O: \(q\).
Charge at A: \(q\) at \((-R, 0)\).
Initial Position B: \((R, 0)\).
Final Position C: \((0, R)\) (since \(\angle BOC = 90^\circ\)).

Step 3: Calculate Potential at B (\(V_B\)):
Potential at B is due to charge at O and charge at A.
Distance OB = \(R\). Distance AB = \(2R\). \[ V_B = \frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0} \left( \frac{q}{R} + \frac{q}{2R} \right) \]

Step 4: Calculate Potential at C (\(V_C\)):
Potential at C is due to charge at O and charge at A.
Distance OC = \(R\). Distance AC = \(\sqrt{R^2 + R^2} = R\sqrt{2}\). \[ V_C = \frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0} \left( \frac{q}{R} + \frac{q}{R\sqrt{2}} \right) \]

Step 5: Calculate Work Done: \[ W = q(V_C - V_B) \] \[ W = \frac{q^2}{4\pi\epsilon_0} \left[ \left(\frac{1}{R} + \frac{1}{R\sqrt{2}}\right) - \left(\frac{1}{R} + \frac{1}{2R}\right) \right] \]
The term \(1/R\) cancels out (potential due to central charge is constant on circumference). \[ W = \frac{q^2}{4\pi\epsilon_0 R} \left( \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} - \frac{1}{2} \right) \] \[ \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} - \frac{1}{2} = \frac{\sqrt{2} - 1}{2} \] \[ W = \frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0} \frac{q^2}{R} \left( \frac{\sqrt{2}-1}{2} \right) \] Quick Tip: The potential due to the charge at the center is constant everywhere on the circumference. Therefore, it contributes zero to the potential difference and work done. You only need to calculate the change in potential due to the charge at A.


Question 106:

In a potentiometer experiment, a wire of length 10 m and resistance \(5\,\Omega\) is connected to a cell of emf 2.2 V. If the potential difference between two points separated by a distance of 660 cm on potentiometer wire is 1.1 V, then the internal resistance of the cell is

  • (A) \(1.6\,\Omega\)
  • (B) \(1.4\,\Omega\)
  • (C) \(1.2\,\Omega\)
  • (D) \(1\,\Omega\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(1.6\,\Omega\)
View Solution



Step 1: Calculate Potential Gradient (\(k\)):
We are given that the potential difference across a length \(l = 660 cm = 6.6 m\) is \(V = 1.1 V\).
Potential gradient \(k = \frac{V}{l} = \frac{1.1}{6.6} = \frac{1}{6} V/m\).

Step 2: Calculate Current in the Wire (\(I\)):
The resistance of the potentiometer wire is \(R_p = 5\,\Omega\) and length \(L = 10 m\).
Resistance per unit length \(\lambda = \frac{5}{10} = 0.5\,\Omega/m\).
Since \(k = I \lambda\), we have: \[ \frac{1}{6} = I \times 0.5 \implies I = \frac{1}{6 \times 0.5} = \frac{1}{3} A \]

Step 3: Calculate Internal Resistance (\(r\)):
The current \(I\) is supplied by the cell of emf \(E = 2.2 V\) connected in series with the wire. Let \(r\) be the internal resistance.
Total resistance of the circuit = \(R_p + r = 5 + r\).
Using Ohm's law: \(I = \frac{E}{R_p + r}\). \[ \frac{1}{3} = \frac{2.2}{5 + r} \] \[ 5 + r = 6.6 \] \[ r = 6.6 - 5 = 1.6\,\Omega \] Quick Tip: Potential Gradient \(k = \frac{V_{wire}}{L} = \left( \frac{E}{R_{wire} + r} \right) \frac{R_{wire}}{L}\). Use the data given for a segment to find \(k\) first.


Question 107:

When the right gap of a meter bridge consists of two equal resistors in series, the balancing point is at 50 cm. When one of the resistors in the right gap is removed and is connected in parallel to the resistor in the left gap, the balancing point is at

  • (A) 60 cm
  • (B) 33.3 cm
  • (C) 25 cm
  • (D) 40 cm
Correct Answer: (D) 40 cm
View Solution



Step 1: Analyze First Case:
Left gap resistance = \(X\).
Right gap resistance = \(R + R = 2R\).
Balancing length \(l_1 = 50\) cm.
Wheatstone bridge principle: \(\frac{X}{2R} = \frac{50}{100-50} = 1\). \(\implies X = 2R\).

Step 2: Analyze Second Case:
One resistor \(R\) is removed from the right gap. Right gap resistance = \(R\).
This removed resistor is connected in parallel to the left gap resistor (\(X\)).
New Left gap resistance \(X' = \frac{X \cdot R}{X + R}\).
Since \(X = 2R\), \(X' = \frac{2R \cdot R}{2R + R} = \frac{2R^2}{3R} = \frac{2R}{3}\).
New Right gap resistance = \(R\).

Step 3: Find New Balancing Point (\(l\)):
Let the new balancing length be \(l\). \[ \frac{X'}{R} = \frac{l}{100 - l} \]
Substitute \(X' = \frac{2R}{3}\): \[ \frac{2R/3}{R} = \frac{l}{100 - l} \] \[ \frac{2}{3} = \frac{l}{100 - l} \] \[ 2(100 - l) = 3l \] \[ 200 - 2l = 3l \implies 5l = 200 \implies l = 40 cm \] Quick Tip: For a meter bridge, \(\frac{R_L}{R_R} = \frac{l}{100-l}\). If the ratio of resistances is known, solving for \(l\) is straightforward.


Question 108:

Two identical wires, carrying equal currents are bent into circular coils A and B with 2 and 3 turns respectively. The ratio of the magnetic fields at the centres of the coils A and B is

  • (A) 4:9
  • (B) 2:3
  • (C) 9:4
  • (D) 3:2
Correct Answer: (A) 4:9
View Solution



Step 1: Relation between N and r:
Let the length of the wire be \(L\).
For coil A with \(N_A = 2\) turns of radius \(r_A\): \(L = N_A (2\pi r_A) \implies r_A = \frac{L}{2\pi N_A} \propto \frac{1}{N_A}\).
For coil B with \(N_B = 3\) turns of radius \(r_B\): \(r_B \propto \frac{1}{N_B}\).

Step 2: Magnetic Field Formula:
Magnetic field at the center of a coil with \(N\) turns: \(B = \frac{\mu_0 N I}{2r}\).
Since \(I\) is same, \(B \propto \frac{N}{r}\).
Substituting \(r \propto \frac{1}{N}\), we get \(B \propto \frac{N}{1/N} \propto N^2\).

Step 3: Calculate Ratio: \[ \frac{B_A}{B_B} = \left( \frac{N_A}{N_B} \right)^2 \] \[ \frac{B_A}{B_B} = \left( \frac{2}{3} \right)^2 = \frac{4}{9} \] Quick Tip: If a wire of fixed length is bent into \(N\) turns, the magnetic field at the center is proportional to \(N^2\). \(B \propto N^2\).


Question 109:

A current of 4 A is passed through a square loop of side 5 cm made of a uniform manganin wire as shown in the figure. The magnetic field at the centre of the loop is



  • (A) \(\frac{24\sqrt{2}}{5} \times 10^{-5}\) T
  • (B) \(\frac{3\sqrt{2}}{5} \times 10^{-5}\) T
  • (C) \(\frac{6\sqrt{2}}{5} \times 10^{-5}\) T
  • (D) Zero
Correct Answer: (D) Zero
View Solution



Step 1: Analyze the Circuit:
The figure shows a square loop of uniform wire. Current enters at one corner and leaves at another.
Let the side of the square be \(a\). The total current is \(I\).
Let the input terminal be A and the output terminal be B.
The current splits into two paths:
1. Short path (one side, length \(a\), Resistance \(R\)).
2. Long path (three sides, length \(3a\), Resistance \(3R\)).

Step 2: Current Division:
Since the wire is uniform, resistance is proportional to length.
Current in short path (\(I_1\)) and long path (\(I_2\)) divides inversely to resistance. \(I_1 = I \left(\frac{3R}{R+3R}\right) = \frac{3}{4}I\). \(I_2 = I \left(\frac{R}{R+3R}\right) = \frac{1}{4}I\).

Step 3: Magnetic Field Calculation:
The magnetic field at the center of a square side of length \(a\) carrying current \(i\) is \(B \propto \frac{i}{a}\).
Field due to short path (1 side): \(B_1 \propto \frac{I_1}{a} = \frac{3I}{4a}\). (Direction: Out of page, say).
Field due to long path (3 sides): \(B_2 \propto 3 \times \frac{I_2}{a} = \frac{3(I/4)}{a} = \frac{3I}{4a}\). (Direction: Into page).

Step 4: Net Field:
The magnitudes are equal: \(B_1 = B_2\).
The directions produced by the currents in the two branches at the center are opposite (one clockwise, one counter-clockwise relative to center).
Thus, the net magnetic field is \(B_{net} = B_1 - B_2 = 0\).

Note: This result holds true for any regular polygon loop of uniform wire where current enters and leaves at any two vertices. Quick Tip: For any closed loop of regular geometric shape made of uniform wire, if current enters at one point and leaves at another point on the loop, the net magnetic field at the center is always zero.


Question 110:

If \(B_V\) and \(B_H\) are respectively the vertical and horizontal components of the earth's magnetic field at a place where the angle of dip is \(60^\circ\), then the total magnetic field at that place is

  • (A) \(\sqrt{5} B_H\)
  • (B) \(\sqrt{3} B_V\)
  • (C) \(\frac{2}{\sqrt{3}} B_V\)
  • (D) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} B_H\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(\frac{2}{\sqrt{3}} B_V\)
View Solution



Step 1: Formulae:
Angle of dip \(\delta = 60^\circ\).
Vertical component \(B_V = B \sin \delta\).
Horizontal component \(B_H = B \cos \delta\).
Total magnetic field \(B\).

Step 2: Express B in terms of components:
From the vertical component equation: \(B = \frac{B_V}{\sin \delta}\).

Step 3: Substitute \(\delta\): \(B = \frac{B_V}{\sin 60^\circ} = \frac{B_V}{\sqrt{3}/2} = \frac{2}{\sqrt{3}} B_V\).

(Checking horizontal option: \(B = \frac{B_H}{\cos 60^\circ} = 2B_H\). This is not among the options in that form). Quick Tip: Remember the triangle of magnetic components: \(B\) is the hypotenuse, \(B_H\) is adjacent to \(\delta\), \(B_V\) is opposite to \(\delta\).


Question 111:

A coil of resistance \(8\,\Omega\), number of turns 250 and area \(120 cm^2\) is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 2 T such that the plane of the coil makes an angle of \(\frac{\pi}{6}\) with the direction of the magnetic field. In a time of 100 ms, the coil is rotated until its plane becomes parallel to the direction of the magnetic field. The current induced in the coil is

  • (A) 5.25 A
  • (B) 3.75 A
  • (C) 2.75 A
  • (D) 1.25 A
Correct Answer: (B) 3.75 A
View Solution



Step 1: Identify Flux Angles:
The magnetic flux is \(\phi = NBA \cos \theta\), where \(\theta\) is the angle between the normal to the coil and the magnetic field.
Initial state: Plane makes \(\pi/6 = 30^\circ\) with field. So normal makes \(\theta_1 = 90^\circ - 30^\circ = 60^\circ\).
Final state: Plane is parallel to field. So normal makes \(\theta_2 = 90^\circ\).

Step 2: Calculate Flux Change: \(N = 250\), \(B = 2\) T, \(A = 120 cm^2 = 120 \times 10^{-4} m^2\). \(\phi_1 = NBA \cos 60^\circ = 250 \times 2 \times 0.012 \times 0.5 = 500 \times 0.006 = 3\) Wb. \(\phi_2 = NBA \cos 90^\circ = 0\).
Change in flux \(|\Delta \phi| = |0 - 3| = 3\) Wb.

Step 3: Calculate Induced EMF and Current:
Time interval \(\Delta t = 100 ms = 0.1\) s.
Induced EMF \(\epsilon = \frac{|\Delta \phi|}{\Delta t} = \frac{3}{0.1} = 30\) V.
Induced Current \(I = \frac{\epsilon}{R} = \frac{30}{8} = 3.75\) A. Quick Tip: Be careful with the angle given. If it is the "angle of the plane with the field" (\(\alpha\)), the angle for flux (\(\theta\)) is \(90^\circ - \alpha\).


Question 112:

An inductor and a resistor are connected in series to an ac supply. If the potential differences across the inductor and the resistor are 180 V and 240 V respectively, then the voltage of the ac supply is

  • (A) 300 V
  • (B) 420 V
  • (C) 60 V
  • (D) 210 V
Correct Answer: (A) 300 V
View Solution



Step 1: AC Circuit Formula:
In a series RL circuit connected to an AC source, the voltages across the resistor (\(V_R\)) and the inductor (\(V_L\)) are not in phase. \(V_L\) leads \(V_R\) by \(90^\circ\).
The total supply voltage \(V\) is the phasor sum: \[ V = \sqrt{V_R^2 + V_L^2} \]

Step 2: Calculation:
Given \(V_L = 180\) V and \(V_R = 240\) V. \[ V = \sqrt{240^2 + 180^2} \] \[ V = \sqrt{57600 + 32400} = \sqrt{90000} \] \[ V = 300 V \] Quick Tip: AC voltages add vectorially (phasors), not algebraically. \(V_{total} \neq V_R + V_L\).


Question 113:

If electromagnetic waves of power 600 W incident on a non-reflecting surface, then the total force acting on the surface is

  • (A) \(12 \times 10^{-6}\) N
  • (B) \(9 \times 10^{-9}\) N
  • (C) \(6 \times 10^{-6}\) N
  • (D) \(2 \times 10^{-6}\) N
Correct Answer: (D) \(2 \times 10^{-6}\) N
View Solution



Step 1: Formula for Radiation Pressure Force:
When radiation is absorbed (non-reflecting surface), the momentum transfer per unit time is \(P/c\). The force \(F\) exerted is: \[ F = \frac{Power}{c} \]
where \(c\) is the speed of light (\(3 \times 10^8\) m/s).

Step 2: Calculation:
Power \(P = 600\) W. \[ F = \frac{600}{3 \times 10^8} = 200 \times 10^{-8} = 2 \times 10^{-6} N \] Quick Tip: For total absorption: \(F = P/c\). For total reflection: \(F = 2P/c\).


Question 114:

When a photosensitive material is illuminated by photons of energy 3.1 eV, the stopping potential of the photoelectrons is 1.7 V. When the same photosensitive material is illuminated by photons of energy 2.5 eV, the stopping potential of the photoelectrons is

  • (A) 1.8 V
  • (B) 1.4 V
  • (C) 1.1 V
  • (D) 1.3 V
Correct Answer: (C) 1.1 V
View Solution



Step 1: Einstein's Photoelectric Equation: \(E = \phi + K_{max} = \phi + e V_s\)
where \(E\) is photon energy, \(\phi\) is work function, \(V_s\) is stopping potential.

Step 2: Find Work Function (\(\phi\)):
From the first case: \(3.1 eV = \phi + e(1.7 V)\).
Since \(e(1 V) = 1 eV\), we can write: \(3.1 = \phi + 1.7\) \(\phi = 3.1 - 1.7 = 1.4 eV\).

Step 3: Calculate New Stopping Potential:
From the second case: \(E' = 2.5 eV\). \(2.5 = \phi + e V_s'\). \(2.5 = 1.4 + e V_s'\). \(e V_s' = 1.1 eV\). \(V_s' = 1.1 V\). Quick Tip: If energies are given in eV and stopping potential in V, you can treat them as numerically equal in the equation \(E = \phi + V_s\).


Question 115:

The ratio of the kinetic energies of the electrons in the third and fourth excited states of hydrogen atom is

  • (A) 4:3
  • (B) 16:9
  • (C) 25:16
  • (D) 5:4
Correct Answer: (C) 25:16
View Solution



Step 1: Identify Quantum Numbers:
Ground state: \(n=1\).
Third excited state: \(n_1 = 3 + 1 = 4\).
Fourth excited state: \(n_2 = 4 + 1 = 5\).

Step 2: Kinetic Energy Relation:
For a hydrogen atom, the kinetic energy \(K_n\) in the \(n\)-th orbit is inversely proportional to \(n^2\). \(K_n \propto \frac{1}{n^2}\).

Step 3: Calculate Ratio: \[ \frac{K_{3rd\_exc}}{K_{4th\_exc}} = \frac{K_4}{K_5} = \frac{1/4^2}{1/5^2} = \frac{5^2}{4^2} = \frac{25}{16} \] Quick Tip: Remember: \(n\)-th excited state means the principal quantum number is \((n+1)\). KE \(\propto 1/n^2\), PE \(\propto -1/n^2\), TE \(\propto -1/n^2\).


Question 116:

In \(\beta^-\) decay, a neutron transforms into a proton within the nucleus according to the equation:
neutron \(\to\) proton + \(\beta^-\) + \(x\)
In this equation the particle represented by 'x' is

  • (A) Neutrino
  • (B) Anti neutrino
  • (C) Positron
  • (D) Meson
Correct Answer: (B) Anti neutrino
View Solution



Step 1: Conservation Laws:
In beta decay (specifically \(\beta^-\) decay), a neutron turns into a proton and an electron (beta particle).
To conserve spin and lepton number, another particle is emitted. \(n \to p + e^- + \bar{\nu}_e\)
The electron has lepton number +1. To keep total lepton number zero (as for neutron), the emitted particle must have lepton number -1. This is the antineutrino (\(\bar{\nu}_e\)). Quick Tip: \(\beta^-\) decay produces an antineutrino. \(\beta^+\) decay produces a neutrino.


Question 117:

Two radioactive substances A and B have same number of initial nuclei. If the half-lives of A and B are 1.5 days and 4.5 days respectively, then the ratio of the number of nuclei remaining in A and B after 9 days is

  • (A) 1:16
  • (B) 1:1
  • (C) 1:4
  • (D) 1:8
Correct Answer: (A) 1:16
View Solution



Step 1: Formula for Remaining Nuclei: \(N = N_0 \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^n\), where \(n = \frac{t}{T_{1/2}}\) is the number of half-lives.

Step 2: Calculate for Substance A:
Half-life \(T_A = 1.5\) days. Time \(t = 9\) days.
Number of half-lives \(n_A = \frac{9}{1.5} = 6\).
Remaining nuclei \(N_A = N_0 \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^6 = \frac{N_0}{64}\).

Step 3: Calculate for Substance B:
Half-life \(T_B = 4.5\) days. Time \(t = 9\) days.
Number of half-lives \(n_B = \frac{9}{4.5} = 2\).
Remaining nuclei \(N_B = N_0 \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^2 = \frac{N_0}{4}\).

Step 4: Calculate Ratio: \[ \frac{N_A}{N_B} = \frac{N_0/64}{N_0/4} = \frac{4}{64} = \frac{1}{16} \] Quick Tip: Ratio of remaining nuclei \(N_A/N_B = (1/2)^{n_A - n_B}\). Here \(n_A - n_B = 6 - 2 = 4\). Ratio is \((1/2)^4 = 1/16\).


Question 118:

\(10^{10}\) electrons enter the emitter of a junction transistor in a time of \(0.4\ \mus\). If \(5%\) of the electrons are lost in the base, then the collector current is

  • (A) \(3.0\ mA\)
  • (B) \(3.2\ mA\)
  • (C) \(3.6\ mA\)
  • (D) \(3.8\ mA\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(3.8\ \text{mA}\)
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
In a transistor, the emitter current (\(I_E\)) is the sum of the base current (\(I_B\)) and the collector current (\(I_C\)): \[ I_E = I_B + I_C \]
The electrons lost in the base due to recombination constitute the base current. The remaining electrons reach the collector, forming the collector current.

Step 2: Calculate Emitter Current (\(I_E\)):
Given:
Number of electrons, \(n = 10^{10}\).
Time, \(t = 0.4\ \mus = 0.4 \times 10^{-6}\ s\).
Charge of an electron, \(e = 1.6 \times 10^{-19}\ C\).
\[ I_E = \frac{Q}{t} = \frac{n \times e}{t} \] \[ I_E = \frac{10^{10} \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}}{0.4 \times 10^{-6}} \] \[ I_E = \frac{1.6 \times 10^{-9}}{4 \times 10^{-7}} = \frac{16 \times 10^{-10}}{4 \times 10^{-7}} = 4 \times 10^{-3}\ A = 4\ mA \]

Step 3: Calculate Collector Current (\(I_C\)):
Given that \(5%\) of electrons are lost in the base, this implies \(I_B = 5%\) of \(I_E\).
Therefore, the remaining \(95%\) constitutes the collector current. \[ I_C = \frac{95}{100} \times I_E \] \[ I_C = 0.95 \times 4\ mA \] \[ I_C = 3.8\ mA \]

Final Answer: The collector current is \(3.8\ mA\). Quick Tip: Current transfer ratio \(\alpha = \frac{I_C}{I_E}\). If base loss is \(x%\), then \(\alpha = 1 - \frac{x}{100}\). Here \(\alpha = 0.95\).


Question 119:

An electron in n-region of a p-n junction moves towards the junction with a speed of \(5 \times 10^5\ ms^{-1}\). If the barrier potential of the junction is \(0.45\ V\), then the speed with which the electron enters the p-region after penetration through the barrier is
(Charge of the electron \(= 1.6 \times 10^{-19}\ C\) and mass of the electron \(= 9 \times 10^{-31}\ kg\))

  • (A) \(3 \times 10^5\ ms^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(5 \times 10^5\ ms^{-1}\)
  • (C) \(4 \times 10^5\ ms^{-1}\)
  • (D) \(6 \times 10^5\ ms^{-1}\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(3 \times 10^5\ \text{ms}^{-1}\)
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
When an electron moves from the n-region to the p-region across the depletion layer, it has to overcome the potential barrier. The electric field in the depletion region opposes the motion of majority charge carriers (electrons from n-side). Consequently, the electron loses kinetic energy equal to the potential energy barrier.

Step 2: Apply Law of Conservation of Energy: \[ Initial K.E. - Work done against barrier = Final K.E. \] \[ \frac{1}{2} m u^2 - e V_0 = \frac{1}{2} m v^2 \]
Where: \(u\) is the initial speed \(= 5 \times 10^5\ m/s\) \(v\) is the final speed \(V_0\) is the barrier potential \(= 0.45\ V\)

Step 3: Solve for Final Speed (\(v\)):
Rearranging the equation: \[ v^2 = u^2 - \frac{2eV_0}{m} \]
Substitute the values: \[ u^2 = (5 \times 10^5)^2 = 25 \times 10^{10} \] \[ \frac{2eV_0}{m} = \frac{2 \times (1.6 \times 10^{-19}) \times 0.45}{9 \times 10^{-31}} \] \[ \frac{2eV_0}{m} = \frac{1.44 \times 10^{-19}}{9 \times 10^{-31}} = 0.16 \times 10^{12} = 16 \times 10^{10} \]

Now, calculate \(v^2\): \[ v^2 = 25 \times 10^{10} - 16 \times 10^{10} \] \[ v^2 = 9 \times 10^{10} \] \[ v = \sqrt{9 \times 10^{10}} = 3 \times 10^5\ m/s \]

Final Answer: The speed is \(3 \times 10^5\ ms^{-1}\). Quick Tip: Remember that majority carriers (electrons in n-type) must climb an energy hill to cross the junction. Therefore, their kinetic energy decreases.


Question 120:

Coaxial cable, a widely used wire medium offers an approximate frequency bandwidth of

  • (A) \(750\ GHz\)
  • (B) \(750\ Hz\)
  • (C) \(750\ MHz\)
  • (D) \(750\ kHz\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(750\ \text{MHz}\)
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding Communication Channels:
Different transmission media have different bandwidth capabilities:
- Twisted pair cables: Bandwidth is relatively low (few MHz).
- Coaxial cables: Bandwidth is moderately high, typically around \(750\ MHz\). They are commonly used for cable TV signals.
- Optical fibers: Bandwidth is extremely high, in the range of \(100\ GHz\) to \(1000\ GHz\) (THz range).

Step 2: Analyze Options:
- \(750\ GHz\) is in the optical fiber range.
- \(750\ Hz\) is very low, mainly for audio.
- \(750\ MHz\) matches the standard specification for coaxial cables.
- \(750\ kHz\) is in the AM radio range.

Final Answer: \(750\ MHz\). Quick Tip: Standard bandwidths to remember: Speech: \(2.8\ kHz\) Video: \(4.2\ MHz\) Coaxial Cable: \(\approx 750\ MHz\) Optical Fiber: \(> 100\ GHz\)


Question 121:

The electron in hydrogen atom undergoes transition from higher orbits to an orbit of radius 476.1 pm. This transition corresponds to which of the following series?

  • (A) Lyman
  • (B) Paschen
  • (C) Balmer
  • (D) Pfund
Correct Answer: (B) Paschen
View Solution



Step 1: Formula for Radius of Orbit
The radius of the \(n^{th}\) orbit of a hydrogen atom is given by: \[ r_n = 0.529 \times \frac{n^2}{Z} \ \AA \]
For Hydrogen, \(Z = 1\).
Given radius, \(r = 476.1 pm = 4.761 \AA\).

Step 2: Calculate the Orbit Number (\(n\))
Substitute the values into the formula: \[ 4.761 = 0.529 \times n^2 \] \[ n^2 = \frac{4.761}{0.529} \approx 9 \] \[ n = \sqrt{9} = 3 \]
So, the electron transitions to the orbit \(n = 3\).

Step 3: Identify the Spectral Series
Spectral series are defined by the final orbit (\(n_f\)) of the transition:

Lyman series: \(n_f = 1\)
Balmer series: \(n_f = 2\)
Paschen series: \(n_f = 3\)
Brackett series: \(n_f = 4\)
Pfund series: \(n_f = 5\)

Since the transition ends at \(n = 3\), it corresponds to the Paschen series.

Final Answer: Paschen series. Quick Tip: Remember the order of hydrogen spectral series: Lyman (1), Balmer (2), Paschen (3), Brackett (4), Pfund (5). The radius scales with \(n^2\), so \(n=3\) means \(r \approx 9 \times r_1\). Since \(r_1 \approx 0.53 \AA\), \(9 \times 0.53 \approx 4.77 \AA\).


Question 122:

Identify the incorrect statement from the following?

  • (A) \(m_l\) designates the orientation of the orbital
  • (B) The probability density of electron is expressed by \(|\psi|^2\)
  • (C) The total information about electron in atom is stored in its \(\psi\)
  • (D) Total number of orbitals in a sub level is equal to \((2l+1)\)
Correct Answer: (B) The probability density of electron is expressed by \(|\psi|^2\)
View Solution



Step 1: Analyze each statement

(A) \(m_l\) designates the orientation of the orbital: This is a correct statement. The magnetic quantum number \(m_l\) determines the spatial orientation of the orbital.
(B) The probability density of electron is expressed by \(|\psi|^2\): The square of the absolute value of the wave function, \(|\psi|^2\), represents the probability density of finding an electron at a specific point.
(C) The total information about electron in atom is stored in its \(\psi\): This is correct. The wave function \(\psi\) contains all the dynamical information about the system.
(D) Total number of orbitals in a sub level is equal to \((2l+1)\): This is correct. For a given azimuthal quantum number \(l\), there are \(2l+1\) possible values for \(m_l\), which corresponds to the number of orbitals.


Step 2: Identify the discrepancy
All statements as written in standard text appear correct. However, in the context of this specific exam question (indicated by the answer key), option (B) is marked as the incorrect statement. This often happens if the question paper had a typo, such as printing \(|\psi|\) or \(|\psi|^3\) instead of \(|\psi|^2\), or making a subtle distinction between "probability" and "probability density" that is non-standard. Given the options provided in the image, statement (B) is the intended answer for the "incorrect" statement, implying a latent error in its presentation in the original exam (e.g., it might have been intended to read "expressed by \(\psi\)" or similar). Based on standard quantum mechanics, \(|\psi|^2\) is indeed the probability density.

Final Answer: Option (B). Quick Tip: Always read options carefully for powers and notation. Probability density is \(|\psi|^2\) (Max Born interpretation). The radial probability distribution is \(4\pi r^2 R^2(r)\).


Question 123:

Atomic numbers of three elements \(E_1, E_2\) and \(E_3\) of periodic table are \(Z_1, 50\) and \(Z_2\) respectively. From the position of the elements shown in figure, the value of \((Z_2 - Z_1)\) is



  • (A) 52
  • (B) 46
  • (C) 64
  • (D) 34
Correct Answer: (A) 52
View Solution



Step 1: Identify the position of \(E_2\) \(E_2\) has atomic number 50. This is Tin (Sn).
Position in Periodic Table:
- Group 14 (Carbon family)
- Period 5

Step 2: Determine position of \(E_1\)
The diagram shows \(E_1\) is one step up and one step left relative to \(E_2\).
- Period of \(E_1 = Period of E_2 - 1 = 5 - 1 = 4\).
- Group of \(E_1 = Group of E_2 - 1 = 14 - 1 = 13\).
Element in Period 4, Group 13 is Gallium (Ga).
Atomic number \(Z_1 = 31\).

Step 3: Determine position of \(E_3\)
The diagram shows \(E_3\) is one step down and one step right relative to \(E_2\).
- Period of \(E_3 = Period of E_2 + 1 = 5 + 1 = 6\).
- Group of \(E_3 = Group of E_2 + 1 = 14 + 1 = 15\).
Element in Period 6, Group 15 is Bismuth (Bi).
Atomic number \(Z_2 = 83\).

Step 4: Calculate \((Z_2 - Z_1)\) \[ Z_2 - Z_1 = 83 - 31 = 52 \]

Final Answer: 52. Quick Tip: Use magic numbers to find atomic numbers in groups. Group 13: B(5) \(\xrightarrow{+8}\) Al(13) \(\xrightarrow{+18}\) Ga(31) \(\xrightarrow{+18}\) In(49) \(\xrightarrow{+32}\) Tl(81). Group 14: C(6) \(\xrightarrow{+8}\) Si(14) \(\xrightarrow{+18}\) Ge(32) \(\xrightarrow{+18}\) Sn(50). Group 15: N(7) ... Sb(51) \(\xrightarrow{+32}\) Bi(83).


Question 124:

Electron gain enthalpy values (\(\Delta_{eg}H\)) (in kJ mol\(^{-1}\)) of elements X, Y and Z are \(-349, -200\) and \(-295\) respectively. X, Y and Z are respectively

  • (A) Cl, I, S
  • (B) Cl, S, I
  • (C) S, Se, Te
  • (D) Na, K, Rb
Correct Answer: (B) Cl, S, I
View Solution



Step 1: Analyze the values
The given electron gain enthalpies are:
X: \(-349\) kJ/mol (Very high negative value, indicating Halogen, specifically Chlorine).
Y: \(-200\) kJ/mol (Moderate negative value).
Z: \(-295\) kJ/mol (High negative value, likely another Halogen).

Step 2: Compare with standard values
- Chlorine (Cl): Has the highest negative electron gain enthalpy in the periodic table, approximately \(-349\) kJ/mol. This matches X.
- Iodine (I): A halogen lower in the group, less negative than Cl. Value is approximately \(-295\) kJ/mol. This matches Z.
- Sulfur (S): A group 16 element. Its electron gain enthalpy is around \(-200\) kJ/mol. This matches Y.

Step 3: Match with options
We need X = Cl, Y = S, Z = I.
This corresponds to the sequence Cl, S, I.

Final Answer: Cl, S, I. Quick Tip: Chlorine has the most negative electron gain enthalpy. Fluorine is less negative than Chlorine due to small size and inter-electronic repulsion. The order for halogens is Cl > F > Br > I. Group 16 elements (S) are less negative than halogens.


Question 125:

Observe the following list of molecules. Number of polar and non polar molecules are respectively
\(NH_3, BF_3, NF_3, H_2S, CO_2, CH_4, CHCl_3, H_2O\)

  • (A) 4, 4
  • (B) 3, 5
  • (C) 5, 3
  • (D) 2, 6
Correct Answer: (C) 5, 3
View Solution



Step 1: Determine Polarity of each molecule
Polar molecules have a net dipole moment (\(\mu \neq 0\)). Non-polar molecules have zero net dipole moment (\(\mu = 0\)).
1. \(NH_3\): Pyramidal structure, unsymmetrical. Polar.
2. \(BF_3\): Trigonal planar, symmetrical. Dipoles cancel. Non-polar.
3. \(NF_3\): Pyramidal structure, unsymmetrical. Polar.
4. \(H_2S\): Bent structure, lone pairs on S. Polar.
5. \(CO_2\): Linear structure (\(O=C=O\)). Symmetrical. Non-polar.
6. \(CH_4\): Tetrahedral structure. Symmetrical. Non-polar.
7. \(CHCl_3\): Tetrahedral but atoms are different (3 Cl, 1 H). Unsymmetrical. Polar.
8. \(H_2O\): Bent structure, lone pairs on O. Polar.

Step 2: Count
Polar molecules: \(NH_3, NF_3, H_2S, CHCl_3, H_2O\). Total = 5.
Non-polar molecules: \(BF_3, CO_2, CH_4\). Total = 3.

Final Answer: 5, 3. Quick Tip: Symmetrical molecules with identical surrounding atoms and no lone pairs on the central atom (e.g., \(BF_3, CH_4, CO_2\)) are usually non-polar. Asymmetry or lone pairs usually lead to polarity.


Question 126:

The molecule `X' has see-saw shape with central atom in \(sp^3d\) hybridization. What is `X'?

  • (A) \(ClF_3\)
  • (B) \(XeF_4\)
  • (C) \(SF_4\)
  • (D) \(BrF_5\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(\text{SF}_4\)
View Solution



Step 1: Analyze the conditions
- Hybridization: \(sp^3d\) implies 5 electron domains (Steric Number = 5).
- Shape: See-saw implies 4 bonding pairs and 1 lone pair (\(AX_4E_1\) type).

Step 2: Check each option
1. \(ClF_3\): Cl has 7 valence \(e^-\). 3 bonded to F. Total valence \(e^-\) on central atom = \(7 + 3 = 10\). Pairs = 5. Bonding pairs = 3, Lone pairs = 2. Shape: T-shaped.
2. \(XeF_4\): Xe has 8 valence \(e^-\). 4 bonded to F. Total = \(8 + 4 = 12\). Pairs = 6. \(sp^3d^2\). Shape: Square Planar.
3. \(SF_4\): S has 6 valence \(e^-\). 4 bonded to F. Total = \(6 + 4 = 10\). Pairs = 5. Bonding pairs = 4, Lone pairs = 1. Hybridization: \(sp^3d\). Shape: See-saw.
4. \(BrF_5\): Br has 7 valence \(e^-\). 5 bonded to F. Total = \(7 + 5 = 12\). Pairs = 6. \(sp^3d^2\). Shape: Square Pyramidal.

Final Answer: \(SF_4\). Quick Tip: For \(sp^3d\) hybridization: - \(BP=5, LP=0\): Trigonal Bipyramidal (\(PCl_5\)) - \(BP=4, LP=1\): See-saw (\(SF_4\)) - \(BP=3, LP=2\): T-shape (\(ClF_3\)) - \(BP=2, LP=3\): Linear (\(XeF_2\))


Question 127:

Two vessels are filled with ideal gases A and B and are connected through a pipe of zero volume as shown in figure. The stop cock is opened and the gases are allowed to mix homogeneously and the temperature is kept constant. The partial pressures of A and B respectively (in atm) are


  • (A) 8.0, 5
  • (B) 9.6, 4
  • (C) 6.4, 4
  • (D) 4.8, 2
Correct Answer: (D) 4.8, 2
View Solution



Step 1: Calculate Total Volume
When the stopcock is opened, the total volume available for each gas is the sum of individual volumes. \[ V_{total} = V_A + V_B = 12 L + 8 L = 20 L \]

Step 2: Calculate Partial Pressure of Gas A
Using Boyle's Law (\(P_1 V_1 = P_2 V_2\)) for Gas A:
Initial state: \(P_A = 8 atm, V_A = 12 L\).
Final state: \(P'_A = ?, V_{total} = 20 L\). \[ P'_A = \frac{P_A V_A}{V_{total}} = \frac{8 \times 12}{20} = \frac{96}{20} = 4.8 atm \]

Step 3: Calculate Partial Pressure of Gas B
Using Boyle's Law for Gas B:
Initial state: \(P_B = 5 atm, V_B = 8 L\).
Final state: \(P'_B = ?, V_{total} = 20 L\). \[ P'_B = \frac{P_B V_B}{V_{total}} = \frac{5 \times 8}{20} = \frac{40}{20} = 2.0 atm \]

Final Answer: 4.8, 2. Quick Tip: For mixing of non-reacting gases at constant temperature, the new partial pressure is simply the initial pressure scaled by the volume fraction: \(P_{new} = P_{old} \times \frac{V_{old}}{V_{total}}\).


Question 128:

If the number of moles of \(Fe^{2+}\) ions oxidized by one mole of acidified \(MnO_4^-\) is \(x\), the number of moles of \(Fe^{2+}\) ions oxidized by one mole of acidified \(Cr_2O_7^{2-}\) is

  • (A) \(\frac{5x}{8}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{6x}{5}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{8x}{5}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{5x}{6}\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(\frac{6x}{5}\)
View Solution



Step 1: Determine \(x\) for \(MnO_4^-\)
In acidic medium, \(MnO_4^-\) is reduced to \(Mn^{2+}\).
Change in oxidation state of Mn: \(+7 \to +2\).
n-factor for \(MnO_4^- = 5\).
Reaction: \(MnO_4^- + 5Fe^{2+} + 8H^+ \to Mn^{2+} + 5Fe^{3+} + 4H_2O\).
Thus, 1 mole of \(MnO_4^-\) oxidizes 5 moles of \(Fe^{2+}\).
So, \(x = 5\).

Step 2: Determine moles for \(Cr_2O_7^{2-}\)
In acidic medium, \(Cr_2O_7^{2-}\) is reduced to \(Cr^{3+}\).
Change in oxidation state of Cr: \(+6 \to +3\). Since there are 2 Cr atoms, total change = \(2 \times 3 = 6\).
n-factor for \(Cr_2O_7^{2-} = 6\).
Reaction: \(Cr_2O_7^{2-} + 6Fe^{2+} + 14H^+ \to 2Cr^{3+} + 6Fe^{3+} + 7H_2O\).
Thus, 1 mole of \(Cr_2O_7^{2-}\) oxidizes 6 moles of \(Fe^{2+}\).

Step 3: Express the result in terms of \(x\)
We need the value 6.
We have \(x = 5\).
Substitute \(x=5\) into the options:
(A) \(5(5)/8 = 25/8\)
(B) \(6(5)/5 = 6\) (Matches)
(C) \(8(5)/5 = 8\)
(D) \(5(5)/6 = 25/6\)

Final Answer: \(\frac{6x}{5}\). Quick Tip: Equivalents of oxidizing agent = Equivalents of reducing agent. \(Moles \times n-factor = Moles \times n-factor\). For \(MnO_4^-\), n-factor=5. For \(Cr_2O_7^{2-}\), n-factor=6.


Question 129:

One mole of an ideal gas at 300 K and 20 atm expands to 2 atm under isothermal and reversible conditions. The work done by the gas is \(-x\ kJ mol^{-1}\). The value of \(x\) is
\((R=8.3\ J K^{-1}\ mol^{-1})\)

  • (A) 5.73
  • (B) 7.37
  • (C) 3.75
  • (D) 4.57
Correct Answer: (A) 5.73
View Solution



Step 1: Formula for Reversible Isothermal Expansion Work \[ w = -2.303 nRT \log_{10} \left( \frac{P_1}{P_2} \right) \]
Given: \(n = 1\ mol\) \(T = 300\ K\) \(R = 8.3\ J K^{-1} mol^{-1}\) \(P_1 = 20\ atm\) \(P_2 = 2\ atm\)

Step 2: Calculate work done \[ w = -2.303 \times 1 \times 8.3 \times 300 \times \log_{10} \left( \frac{20}{2} \right) \] \[ w = -2.303 \times 2490 \times \log_{10}(10) \]
Since \(\log_{10}(10) = 1\): \[ w = -2.303 \times 2490 \] \[ w \approx -5734.47\ J \]

Step 3: Convert to kJ and find \(x\) \[ w \approx -5.73\ kJ \]
Given \(w = -x\ kJ\). \[ x = 5.73 \]

Final Answer: 5.73. Quick Tip: Remember the value \(2.303 RT\) at 300 K is approximately \(5700 J\) or \(5.7 kJ\). Since \(\log(P_1/P_2) = \log(10) = 1\), the answer is directly related to this factor.


Question 130:

At 1000 K, the equilibrium constant for the reaction
\(CO_2(g) + H_2(g) \rightleftharpoons CO(g) + H_2O(g)\) is 0.53. In a one litre vessel, at equilibrium the mixture contains 0.25 mole of CO, 0.5 mole of \(CO_2\), 0.6 mole of \(H_2\) and \(x\) moles of \(H_2O\). The value of \(x\) is

  • (A) 0.563
  • (B) 0.363
  • (C) 0.636
  • (D) 0.736
Correct Answer: (C) 0.636
View Solution



Step 1: Write Equilibrium Constant Expression
For the reaction: \(CO_2 + H_2 \rightleftharpoons CO + H_2O\) \[ K_c = \frac{[CO][H_2O]}{[CO_2][H_2]} \]
Since volume is 1 Litre, Molar concentration = Number of moles.

Step 2: Substitute values
Given: \(K_c = 0.53\) \([CO] = 0.25\) \([CO_2] = 0.5\) \([H_2] = 0.6\) \([H_2O] = x\)
\[ 0.53 = \frac{0.25 \times x}{0.5 \times 0.6} \]

Step 3: Solve for \(x\) \[ 0.53 = \frac{0.25x}{0.3} \] \[ 0.25x = 0.53 \times 0.3 \] \[ 0.25x = 0.159 \] \[ x = \frac{0.159}{0.25} \] \[ x = 0.159 \times 4 \] \[ x = 0.636 \]

Final Answer: 0.636. Quick Tip: For reactions where \(\Delta n_g = 0\) (equal moles of gas on both sides), the equilibrium constant expression depends only on the moles, and the volume term cancels out.


Question 131:

Match the following

\begin{tabular{|l|l|l|l|
\hline
\multicolumn{2{|c|{List - 1 (Reactions) & \multicolumn{2{c|{List - 2 (Methods)

\hline
A & \(Mg(HCO_3)_2 \rightarrow Mg(OH)_2 \downarrow + 2CO_2 \uparrow\) & I & Clark's method

\hline
B & \(M^{2+} + Na_6P_6O_{18}^{2-} \rightarrow [Na_2MP_6O_{18}]^{2-} + 2Na^+\) & II & Ion exchange method

\hline
C & \(Ca(HCO_3)_2 + Ca(OH)_2 \rightarrow 2CaCO_3 + 2H_2O\) & III & Boiling

\hline
D & \(2NaZ + Ca^{2+}(aq) \rightarrow 2Na^+ + CaZ\) \((Z = Zeolite)\) & IV & Calgon's method

\hline
\end{tabular

The correct answer is

  • (A) A -- III, B -- IV, C -- I, D -- II
  • (B) A -- III, B -- IV, C -- II, D -- I
  • (C) A -- IV, B -- II, C -- I, D -- III
  • (D) A -- II, B -- IV, C -- I, D -- III
Correct Answer: (A) A -- III, B -- IV, C -- I, D -- II
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The question asks to match reactions involved in removing hardness of water with the specific methods used.

Step 2: Analyzing Each Reaction:

Reaction A: \(Mg(HCO_3)_2 \xrightarrow{\Delta} Mg(OH)_2 \downarrow + 2CO_2 \uparrow\).
This reaction represents the removal of temporary hardness caused by magnesium bicarbonate by Boiling. Note that unlike calcium bicarbonate which forms carbonate, magnesium bicarbonate precipitates as hydroxide because \(Mg(OH)_2\) is less soluble than \(MgCO_3\). (Matches with III).

Reaction B: \(M^{2+} + Na_6P_6O_{18}^{2-} \rightarrow [Na_2MP_6O_{18}]^{2-} + 2Na^+\).
The compound \(Na_6P_6O_{18}\) is commercially known as Calgon (Sodium hexametaphosphate). It complexes with metal ions like \(Ca^{2+}\) and \(Mg^{2+}\) to keep them in solution but inactive. This is Calgon's method. (Matches with IV).

Reaction C: \(Ca(HCO_3)_2 + Ca(OH)_2 \rightarrow 2CaCO_3 \downarrow + 2H_2O\).
This involves adding calculated amounts of lime (\(Ca(OH)_2\)) to precipitate out calcium carbonate. This is known as Clark's method. (Matches with I).

Reaction D: \(2NaZ + Ca^{2+} \rightarrow CaZ_2 + 2Na^+\).
Here, Z represents Zeolite (hydrated sodium aluminium silicate). The exchange of sodium ions for calcium/magnesium ions on the zeolite surface is characteristic of the Ion exchange method (specifically Permutit/Zeolite process). (Matches with II).


Step 3: Matching:
A \(\rightarrow\) III, B \(\rightarrow\) IV, C \(\rightarrow\) I, D \(\rightarrow\) II.

Final Answer: Option (A). Quick Tip: Remember the unique precipitation product for Magnesium temporary hardness on boiling: it forms \(Mg(OH)_2\), not \(MgCO_3\), due to solubility product differences (\(K_{sp}\) of \(Mg(OH)_2 < MgCO_3\)).


Question 132:

Observe the following statements

Statement - I: Both LiF and CsI have low solubility in water

Statement - II: Low solubility of LiF in water is due to smaller hydration enthalpy of ions and that of CsI is due to its high lattice enthalpy

The correct answer is

  • (A) Both statements I and II are correct
  • (B) Statement I is correct, but statement II is not correct
  • (C) Statement I is not correct, but statement II is correct
  • (D) Both statements I and II are not correct
Correct Answer: (B) Statement I is correct, but statement II is not correct
View Solution



Step 1: Analyzing Statement I:
Lithium Fluoride (LiF) has very low solubility in water compared to other alkali metal fluorides. Cesium Iodide (CsI) also has lower solubility compared to other alkali metal halides (like LiI, NaI, KI). In the context of alkali halides, LiF and CsI are often cited as the least soluble examples at the extremes. Statement I is considered correct in the context of standard textbook descriptions (e.g., NCERT).

Step 2: Analyzing Statement II:
The solubility depends on the balance between Lattice Enthalpy (\(\Delta H_{lattice}\)) and Hydration Enthalpy (\(\Delta H_{hyd}\)). For a salt to dissolve, \(\Delta H_{hyd}\) should generally overcome \(\Delta H_{lattice}\).
* For LiF: Both \(Li^+\) and \(F^-\) are small ions. This leads to a very high Lattice Enthalpy which the Hydration Enthalpy (though high for \(Li^+\)) cannot overcome significantly. Thus, low solubility of LiF is due to high lattice enthalpy.
* For CsI: Both \(Cs^+\) and \(I^-\) are large ions. Large ions have low hydration enthalpy. While the lattice enthalpy is also low, the hydration enthalpy is smaller to an extent that it doesn't support dissolution well. Thus, low solubility of CsI is due to smaller hydration enthalpy.

Comparison with Statement II:
Statement II claims LiF has low solubility due to *smaller hydration enthalpy* (Incorrect, it's due to high lattice enthalpy) and CsI due to *high lattice enthalpy* (Incorrect, it's due to small hydration enthalpy). The reasons are swapped/incorrect.

Final Answer: Statement I is correct, but Statement II is not correct. Quick Tip: For solubility of ionic compounds: 1. Small cation + Small anion \(\rightarrow\) High Lattice Energy \(\rightarrow\) Low Solubility (e.g., LiF). 2. Large cation + Large anion \(\rightarrow\) Low Hydration Energy \(\rightarrow\) Low Solubility (e.g., CsI). Mismatch in sizes (Small+Large or Large+Small) usually leads to high solubility.


Question 133:

In which of the following the s-block elements are arranged in the correct order of their melting points?

  • (A) \(Mg > Be > Na > Li\)
  • (B) \(Li > Be > Mg > Na\)
  • (C) \(Be > Mg > Li > Na\)
  • (D) \(Li > Mg > Na > Be\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(\text{Be} > \text{Mg} > \text{Li} > \text{Na}\)
View Solution



Step 1: Trends in Melting Points:
* Group 2 vs Group 1: Group 2 elements (Alkaline earth metals) generally have higher melting points than Group 1 elements (Alkali metals) due to smaller atomic size and two valence electrons contributing to stronger metallic bonding. So, Be and Mg will have higher MPs than Li and Na.
* Group 2 Trend: Melting points generally decrease down the group, but there are irregularities. Be has a very high MP (\(1287^\circC\)). Mg (\(650^\circC\)) is lower than Ca, but definitely lower than Be.
* Group 1 Trend: Melting points decrease down the group as metallic bond strength weakens with increasing size. Li (\(180^\circC\)) > Na (\(98^\circC\)).

Step 2: Comparison:
* \(Be \approx 1560 K\)
* \(Mg \approx 924 K\)
* \(Li \approx 454 K\)
* \(Na \approx 371 K\)

Order: \(Be > Mg > Li > Na\).

Final Answer: Option (C). Quick Tip: Be has the highest melting point among s-block elements due to its small size and strong metallic lattice. Mg has an exceptionally low melting point for Group 2 due to its hexagonal close packing structure.


Question 134:

The correct statements about the compounds of boron are

I. In borax bead test, the colour of cobalt metaborate is blue

II. Diborane is prepared by the oxidation of sodium borohydride with iodine

III. In diborane oxidation state of hydrogen is +1

IV. Boric acid is a tribasic acid

  • (A) I \& II
  • (B) III \& IV
  • (C) I \& III
  • (D) II \& IV
Correct Answer: (A) I \& II
View Solution



Step 1: Analyze Statement I:
Borax bead test: When borax is heated with cobalt salts, it forms cobalt metaborate \(Co(BO_2)_2\), which is indeed blue in colour. \(\rightarrow\) Statement I is Correct.

Step 2: Analyze Statement II:
Preparation of Diborane: Diborane (\(B_2H_6\)) is prepared in the lab by the oxidation of sodium borohydride (\(NaBH_4\)) with iodine (\(I_2\)).
Reaction: \(2NaBH_4 + I_2 \rightarrow B_2H_6 + 2NaI + H_2\). \(\rightarrow\) Statement II is Correct.

Step 3: Analyze Statement III:
Oxidation state in Diborane: Boron (Electronegativity \(\approx 2.0\)) is less electronegative than Hydrogen (Electronegativity \(\approx 2.1\)). Therefore, hydrogen is assigned an oxidation state of \(-1\) (hydride), and Boron is \(+3\). The statement says \(+1\). \(\rightarrow\) Statement III is Incorrect.

Step 4: Analyze Statement IV:
Boric Acid: Orthoboric acid (\(H_3BO_3\)) is a weak monobasic Lewis acid, not tribasic. It accepts an \(OH^-\) ion from water rather than donating 3 protons.
Reaction: \(B(OH)_3 + 2H_2O \rightleftharpoons [B(OH)_4]^- + H_3O^+\). \(\rightarrow\) Statement IV is Incorrect.

Conclusion: Only statements I and II are correct.

Final Answer: Option (A). Quick Tip: Remember: Boric acid is a proton donor only in the sense that it abstracts \(OH^-\) from water, releasing \(H^+\). It is a monobasic Lewis acid.


Question 135:

Dehydration of an organic acid X with concentrated \(H_2SO_4\) at 373K gives \(H_2O\) and gas Y. The hybridisation of the carbon in Y and nature of Y are respectively

  • (A) \(sp^2\), Neutral
  • (B) \(sp\), Neutral
  • (C) \(sp^2\), acidic
  • (D) \(sp\), acidic
Correct Answer: (B) \(sp\), Neutral
View Solution



Step 1: Identify X and Y:
The dehydration of carboxylic acids with conc. \(H_2SO_4\) is a specific reaction.
Formic acid (\(HCOOH\)) undergoes dehydration to give Carbon Monoxide (\(CO\)) and water.
Reaction: \(HCOOH \xrightarrow{conc. H_2SO_4, \Delta} CO \uparrow + H_2O\).
So, Acid X = Formic Acid, Gas Y = Carbon Monoxide (\(CO\)).

Step 2: Determine Hybridisation of C in CO:
The Lewis structure of CO is \(:C \equiv O:\).
The carbon atom forms a triple bond (1 sigma + 2 pi) and has one lone pair.
Steric number = (Number of sigma bonds) + (Lone pairs) = \(1 + 1 = 2\).
Steric number 2 corresponds to \(sp\) hybridisation.

Step 3: Determine Nature of Y (CO):
Carbon monoxide (\(CO\)) is a well-known neutral oxide (along with \(N_2O\) and \(NO\)). It does not react with acids or bases to form salts.

Conclusion: Hybridisation is \(sp\) and nature is Neutral.

Final Answer: Option (B). Quick Tip: Common Neutral Oxides: \(CO, NO, N_2O\). All other non-metal oxides are generally acidic.


Question 136:

Identify the correct statements from the following

I. Photochemical smog has high concentration of oxidising agents

II. \(NO_2\) is present in classical smog

III. Higher concentration of \(SO_2\) in air can cause stiffness of flower buds

IV. pH of rain water is approximately 7.5

  • (A) I \& III
  • (B) I \& II
  • (C) III \& IV
  • (D) II \& III
Correct Answer: (A) I \& III
View Solution



Step 1: Analyze Statement I:
Photochemical smog is also known as Oxidising Smog. It occurs in warm, dry, and sunny climates and contains oxidising agents like Ozone (\(O_3\)) and Peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN). \(\rightarrow\) Statement I is Correct.

Step 2: Analyze Statement II:
Classical smog (London smog) occurs in cool, humid climates and is chemically reducing in nature. It consists of smoke, fog, and sulphur dioxide (\(SO_2\)). Nitrogen dioxide (\(NO_2\)) is a primary component of Photochemical smog, not classical smog. \(\rightarrow\) Statement II is Incorrect.

Step 3: Analyze Statement III:
High concentrations of \(SO_2\) affect plants. It causes chlorosis and specifically leads to the stiffness of flower buds, which eventually fall off from plants. \(\rightarrow\) Statement III is Correct.

Step 4: Analyze Statement IV:
Normal rain water has a pH of about 5.6 due to the dissolution of atmospheric \(CO_2\) forming carbonic acid. pH 7.5 would be alkaline, which rain water is typically not. Acid rain has pH < 5.6. \(\rightarrow\) Statement IV is Incorrect.

Conclusion: Statements I and III are correct.

Final Answer: Option (A). Quick Tip: Contrast the two smogs: Classical = Cool + Humid + \(SO_2\) + Reducing. Photochemical = Warm + Sunny + \(NO_2/O_3\) + Oxidising.


Question 137:

Consider the given sequence of reactions.
\(C_2H_6 + \frac{3}{2}O_2 \xrightarrow[\Delta]{(CH_3COO)_2Mn} X \xrightarrow{Na} Y\)

Electrolysis of aqueous solution of Y gives gases P and Q at anode. P and Q are respectively.

  • (A) \(C_2H_6, CO_2\)
  • (B) \(CH_4, CO_2\)
  • (C) \(C_2H_6, H_2\)
  • (D) \(CH_4, CO\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(\text{C}_2\text{H}_6, \text{CO}_2\)
View Solution



Step 1: Identify X:
The reaction of Ethane (\(C_2H_6\)) with oxygen in the presence of Manganese Acetate \([(CH_3COO)_2Mn]\) catalyst is a method of controlled oxidation of alkanes. \(2C_2H_6 + 3O_2 \xrightarrow{Mn-acetate} 2CH_3COOH + 2H_2O\).
So, X is Ethanoic Acid (Acetic Acid), \(CH_3COOH\).

Step 2: Identify Y:
Reaction of X (\(CH_3COOH\)) with Na metal: \(2CH_3COOH + 2Na \rightarrow 2CH_3COONa + H_2 \uparrow\).
So, Y is Sodium Acetate, \(CH_3COONa\).

Step 3: Electrolysis of Y (Kolbe's Electrolysis):
Electrolysis of aqueous sodium acetate:
At Anode (Oxidation): Acetate ions oxidize. \(2CH_3COO^- \rightarrow 2CH_3COO^\bullet + 2e^-\) \(2CH_3COO^\bullet \rightarrow 2\dot{C}H_3 + 2CO_2 \uparrow\) \(\dot{C}H_3 + \dot{C}H_3 \rightarrow C_2H_6 \uparrow\) (Ethane).
So, gases produced at the anode are Ethane (\(C_2H_6\)) and Carbon Dioxide (\(CO_2\)).

Note: Hydrogen gas (\(H_2\)) is produced at the Cathode.

Final Answer: P and Q are \(C_2H_6\) and \(CO_2\). Quick Tip: Kolbe's Electrolysis of sodium salt of carboxylic acid (\(RCOONa\)) always yields the alkane \(R-R\) and \(CO_2\) at the anode.


Question 138:

When sodium fusion extract of an organic compound is boiled with iron (II) sulphate solution followed by addition of concentrated \(H_2SO_4\), gives Prussian blue colour. This confirms the presence of the element

  • (A) Sulphur
  • (B) Chlorine
  • (C) Phosphorus
  • (D) Nitrogen
Correct Answer: (D) Nitrogen
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding Lassaigne's Test:
The test described is the standard qualitative analysis test for Nitrogen in organic compounds, known as Lassaigne's test. The organic compound is fused with sodium metal to convert covalent nitrogen into ionic sodium cyanide.

Step 2: Chemical Reactions Involved:
1. Fusion: Carbon and Nitrogen from the organic compound react with Sodium metal.
\[ Na + C + N \xrightarrow{\Delta} NaCN \]
2. Reaction with Iron(II) Sulphate: The extract containing cyanide ions is boiled with ferrous sulphate (\(FeSO_4\)). It forms sodium ferrocyanide (Sodium hexacyanoferrate(II)).
\[ FeSO_4 + 2NaOH \rightarrow Fe(OH)_2 + Na_2SO_4 \]
\[ Fe(OH)_2 + 6NaCN \rightarrow Na_4[Fe(CN)_6] + 2NaOH \]
3. Formation of Prussian Blue: Upon adding concentrated sulphuric acid, some ferrous ions (\(Fe^{2+}\)) are oxidised to ferric ions (\(Fe^{3+}\)). These ferric ions react with the ferrocyanide complex to form a blue precipitate of Iron(III) hexacyanoferrate(II), known as Prussian Blue.
\[ 3Na_4[Fe(CN)_6] + 4Fe^{3+} \rightarrow Fe_4[Fe(CN)_6]_3 \cdot xH_2O \ (Prussian Blue) + 12Na^+ \]

Conclusion:
The appearance of the characteristic Prussian blue colour confirms the presence of the cyanide ion, which in turn confirms the presence of Nitrogen in the original organic compound. Quick Tip: If both Nitrogen and Sulphur are present, Sodium Thiocyanate (\(NaSCN\)) is formed. This gives a blood-red colour with \(Fe^{3+}\) due to the formation of \([Fe(SCN)]^{2+}\), not Prussian blue.


Question 139:

Which of the following is an example of electrophilic substitution reaction?

  • (A) \(CH_3CHO + HCN \rightarrow CH_3CH(OH)CN\)
  • (B) \((CH_3)_3CX + H_2O \rightarrow (CH_3)_3C-OH + HX\)
  • (C) \(C_6H_6 + CH_3COCl \xrightarrow{AlCl_3} C_6H_5(COCH_3) + HCl\)
  • (D) \(Br CH_2CH_2Br + Zn \xrightarrow{alcohol, \Delta} CH_2=CH_2 + ZnBr_2\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(\text{C}_6\text{H}_6 + \text{CH}_3\text{COCl} \xrightarrow{\text{AlCl}_3} \text{C}_6\text{H}_5(\text{COCH}_3) + \text{HCl}\)
View Solution



Step 1: Analyze Mechanism of Each Option:

(A) Nucleophilic Addition:
Reaction of Acetaldehyde with HCN. The nucleophile (\(CN^-\)) attacks the electrophilic carbonyl carbon.
\[ CH_3-C(=O)H \xrightarrow{CN^-} CH_3-CH(O^-)-CN \xrightarrow{H^+} CH_3-CH(OH)-CN \]

(B) Nucleophilic Substitution (\(S_{N}1\)):
Hydrolysis of tertiary butyl halide. The nucleophile (\(H_2O\)) substitutes the leaving group (Halide \(X^-\)).

(C) Electrophilic Aromatic Substitution:
This is Friedel-Crafts Acylation.
The Lewis acid catalyst (\(AlCl_3\)) reacts with acetyl chloride to generate an electrophile (Acylium ion, \(CH_3-C^+=O\)).
\[ CH_3COCl + AlCl_3 \rightarrow CH_3C^+O + AlCl_4^- \]
This electrophile attacks the electron-rich benzene ring, substituting a hydrogen atom.
\[ C_6H_6 + E^+ \rightarrow C_6H_5E + H^+ \]
This matches the definition of electrophilic substitution.

(D) Elimination:
Reaction of vicinal dihalide with Zinc dust. It removes two bromine atoms to form a double bond (Debromination). This is an elimination reaction.


Final Answer: The reaction in option (C) is an electrophilic substitution. Quick Tip: Reactions involving Benzene rings where a group replaces a Hydrogen atom (Nitration, Sulphonation, Halogenation, Friedel-Crafts) are almost always Electrophilic Aromatic Substitutions.


Question 140:

An alkene X on ozonolysis gives a mixture of simplest ketone (Y) and 3-Pentanone. The IUPAC name of the alkene X is

  • (A) 2,3-Dimethylbut-2-ene
  • (B) 3-Ethyl-4-methylpent-3-ene
  • (C) 3-Ethyl-2-methylpent-2-ene
  • (D) 2-Methyl-3-ethylpent-2-ene
Correct Answer: (C) 3-Ethyl-2-methylpent-2-ene
View Solution



Step 1: Identify the Ozonolysis Products:
1. Simplest Ketone (Y): The simplest ketone is Propanone (Acetone).
Structure: \(CH_3-C(=O)-CH_3\)
2. 3-Pentanone: A 5-carbon ketone with the carbonyl group at the 3rd position.
Structure: \(CH_3-CH_2-C(=O)-CH_2-CH_3\)

Step 2: Determine Structure of Alkene X:
Ozonolysis cleaves a double bond \( C=C \) and places an Oxygen on each carbon atom to form two carbonyl compounds \( C=O + O=C \). To find the original alkene, we reverse this process: remove the oxygen atoms and join the carbonyl carbons with a double bond. \[ [Propanone] = (CH_3)_2C=O \] \[ [3-Pentanone] = O=C(CH_2CH_3)_2 \]
Joining them: \[ (CH_3)_2C = C(CH_2CH_3)_2 \]
Expanded Structure: \[ CH_3-C(CH_3)=C(CH_2CH_3)-CH_2CH_3 \]

Step 3: IUPAC Naming of X:
1. Select Principal Chain: The longest carbon chain containing the double bond.
Path: \(CH_3-C-C-C-C\) is a 5-carbon chain. (Parent: Pentene).
2. Numbering: Start from the end that gives the double bond the lowest number.
- From Left: \( C^1H_3-C^2(CH_3)=C^3(CH_2CH_3)-C^4H_2-C^5H_3 \) \(\rightarrow\) Double bond at C-2.
- From Right: Double bond starts at C-3.
Correct numbering is from the left.
3. Identify Substituents:
- At C-2: Methyl group (\(-CH_3\))
- At C-3: Ethyl group (\(-CH_2CH_3\))
4. Assemble Name: Substituents in alphabetical order (Ethyl before Methyl).
\(\textbf{3-Ethyl-2-methylpent-2-ene}\).

Final Answer: Option (C). Quick Tip: Reverse Ozonolysis Trick: Write the two carbonyl products facing each other: \( >C=O \quad O=C< \). Erase the O's and connect the carbons with a double bond: \( >C=C< \).


Question 141:

A solid contains elements A and B. Anions of B form ccp lattice. Cations of A occupy 50% of octahedral voids and 50% of tetrahedral voids. What is the molecular formula of the solid?

  • (A) \(AB_3\)
  • (B) \(A_3B_2\)
  • (C) \(A_2B_3\)
  • (D) \(AB\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(\text{A}_3\text{B}_2\)
View Solution



Step 1: Determine the number of atoms of B:
The anions B form a Cubic Close Packed (ccp) lattice.
Let the number of atoms of B in the unit cell be \(N\).
(For a standard unit cell calculation, ccp corresponds to FCC, so \(N=4\), but utilizing \(N\) is general).

Step 2: Determine number of Voids:
In a close packing of \(N\) atoms:
- Number of Octahedral Voids (OV) = \(N\)
- Number of Tetrahedral Voids (TV) = \(2N\)

Step 3: Determine the number of atoms of A:
Cations A occupy:
- 50% of Octahedral Voids = \(50% of N = 0.5N\)
- 50% of Tetrahedral Voids = \(50% of 2N = 0.5 \times 2N = N\)
Total atoms of A = \(0.5N + N = 1.5N = \frac{3}{2}N\).

Step 4: Find the simplest ratio (Formula):
Ratio \( A : B \) \( = 1.5N : N \) \( = \frac{3}{2} : 1 \)
Multiply by 2 to get whole numbers: \( = 3 : 2 \)
So, the empirical formula is \(A_3B_2\).

Final Answer: \(A_3B_2\). Quick Tip: Always remember: Number of packing atoms = \(N\) Octahedral voids = \(N\) Tetrahedral voids = \(2N\) The locations of these voids in an FCC cell are: OV at body center + edge centers; TV at body diagonals.


Question 142:

The osmotic pressure (in atm) of an aqueous solution containing 0.01 mol of NaCl (degree of dissociation 0.94) and 0.03 mol of glucose in 500 mL at \(27\,^\circC\) is \((R = 0.082\,L atm K^{-1}mol^{-1})\)

  • (A) 2.43
  • (B) 4.23
  • (C) 3.24
  • (D) 3.42
Correct Answer: (A) 2.43
View Solution



Step 1: Calculate Van't Hoff Factor for Electrolytes:
For NaCl (Electrolyte): \(NaCl \rightarrow Na^+ + Cl^-\) (\(n=2\)).
Given \(\alpha = 0.94\). \(i_{NaCl} = 1 + (n-1)\alpha = 1 + (2-1)(0.94) = 1.94\).
For Glucose (Non-electrolyte): \(i_{glu} = 1\).

Step 2: Calculate Effective Molarity (C):
Volume \(V = 500 mL = 0.5 L\).
Temperature \(T = 27^\circC = 300 K\).
Total effective moles (\(n_{total}\)): \(n_{eff} = (i_{NaCl} \times n_{NaCl}) + (i_{glu} \times n_{glu})\) \(n_{eff} = (1.94 \times 0.01) + (1 \times 0.03)\) \(n_{eff} = 0.0194 + 0.03 = 0.0494 mol\).

Step 3: Calculate Osmotic Pressure (\(\pi\)): \[ \pi = \frac{n_{eff}}{V} \times R \times T \] \[ \pi = \frac{0.0494}{0.5} \times 0.082 \times 300 \] \[ \pi = 0.0988 \times 24.6 \] \[ \pi \approx 2.43 atm \]

Final Answer: 2.43 atm. Quick Tip: Osmotic pressure is a colligative property. When multiple solutes are present, the pressures exerted by each are additive. \(\pi_{mix} = \pi_1 + \pi_2 + \dots = (\sum i_j C_j)RT\).


Question 143:

Electrolysis of aqueous copper (II) sulphate between Pt electrodes gives 'X' at anode and 'Y' at cathode. X and Y are respectively

  • (A) \(Cu, O_2\)
  • (B) \(O_2, Cu\)
  • (C) \(SO_2, H_2\)
  • (D) \(O_2, H_2\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(\text{O}_2, \text{Cu}\)
View Solution



Step 1: Identify Species Present:
Electrolyte: \(CuSO_4(aq) \rightarrow Cu^{2+} + SO_4^{2-}\).
Solvent: \(H_2O \rightleftharpoons H^+ + OH^-\).
Electrodes: Platinum (Inert).

Step 2: Reaction at Cathode (Negative Electrode):
Cations migrate to cathode: \(Cu^{2+}\) and \(H^+\).
Reduction potential of \(Cu^{2+}/ Cu\) (\(+0.34V\)) is higher than \(H^+ / H_2\) (\(0.0V\) or lower at pH 7).
Reaction: \(Cu^{2+} + 2e^- \rightarrow Cu(s)\).
So, Y is Copper (Cu).

Step 3: Reaction at Anode (Positive Electrode):
Anions migrate to anode: \(SO_4^{2-}\) and \(H_2O\) (or \(OH^-\)).
Oxidation of water is energetically favored over oxidation of sulphate ions.
Reaction: \(2H_2O(l) \rightarrow O_2(g) + 4H^+(aq) + 4e^-\).
So, X is Oxygen (\(O_2\)).

Final Answer: X = \(O_2\), Y = Cu. Quick Tip: Key Rule: At the anode, if the anion contains oxygen (like \(SO_4^{2-}, NO_3^-\)), it is generally not oxidised; instead, water is oxidised to \(O_2\). At the cathode, metals below Hydrogen in the activity series (Cu, Ag, Au) are deposited preferentially over \(H_2\).


Question 144:

Consider a general first order reaction \(A(g) \rightarrow B(g) + C(g)\). If the initial pressure is 200 mm and after 20 minutes it is 250 mm, then the half-life period of the reaction (in minutes) is
(\(\log 2 = 0.30, \log 3 = 0.48, \log 4 = 0.60\))

  • (A) 40.2
  • (B) 50.2
  • (C) 20.5
  • (D) 60.5
Correct Answer: (B) 50.2
View Solution



Step 1: Express Pressures at time t: \[ A(g) \rightarrow B(g) + C(g) \]
Initial (\(t=0\)): \(P_0\) \quad 0 \quad 0
At time \(t\): \(P_0 - p\) \quad \(p\) \quad \(p\)
Total Pressure \(P_t = (P_0 - p) + p + p = P_0 + p\).
From this, \(p = P_t - P_0\).
Pressure of reactant A remaining, \(P_A = P_0 - p = P_0 - (P_t - P_0) = 2P_0 - P_t\).

Step 2: Substitute Values:
Given \(P_0 = 200 mm\), \(P_t = 250 mm\) at \(t = 20 min\). \(P_A = 2(200) - 250 = 400 - 250 = 150 mm\).

Step 3: Calculate Rate Constant (k):
For first order: \(k = \frac{2.303}{t} \log \left( \frac{P_0}{P_A} \right)\) \(k = \frac{2.303}{20} \log \left( \frac{200}{150} \right) = \frac{2.303}{20} \log \left( \frac{4}{3} \right)\).
Using given logs: \(\log 4 - \log 3 = 0.60 - 0.48 = 0.12\). \(k = \frac{2.303 \times 0.12}{20}\).

Step 4: Calculate Half-Life (\(t_{1/2}\)): \(t_{1/2} = \frac{0.693}{k} = \frac{2.303 \times \log 2}{k}\). \(t_{1/2} = \frac{2.303 \times 0.30}{\frac{2.303 \times 0.12}{20}}\) \(t_{1/2} = \frac{0.30 \times 20}{0.12} = \frac{6}{0.12} = 50 min\).
Given the options, 50.2 is the closest and correct answer.

Final Answer: 50.2 min. Quick Tip: For decomposition of gas A into n gaseous products (\(A \rightarrow n Products\)): \(k = \frac{2.303}{t} \log \left( \frac{(n-1)P_0}{nP_0 - P_t} \right)\). Here \(n=2\), so \(k \propto \log \frac{P_0}{2P_0 - P_t}\).


Question 145:

The most effective coagulating agent for antimony sulphide sol is

  • (A) \(Na_2SO_4\)
  • (B) \(CaCl_2\)
  • (C) \(NH_4Cl\)
  • (D) \(Al_2(SO_4)_3\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(\text{Al}_2(\text{SO}_4)_3\)
View Solution



Step 1: Determine Charge of Sol:
Antimony sulphide (\(Sb_2S_3\)) is a metal sulphide sol, which are generally negatively charged.

Step 2: Apply Hardy-Schulze Rule:
The rule states:
1. The effective ion for coagulation is the one carrying a charge opposite to that of the sol particles. (Here, we need cations).
2. Higher the valency of the flocculating ion (coagulating ion), greater is its power to cause coagulation.

Step 3: Analyze Options:
We need the cation with the highest positive charge.
(A) \(Na_2SO_4 \rightarrow Na^+\) (Charge +1)
(B) \(CaCl_2 \rightarrow Ca^{2+}\) (Charge +2)
(C) \(NH_4Cl \rightarrow NH_4^+\) (Charge +1)
(D) \(Al_2(SO_4)_3 \rightarrow Al^{3+}\) (Charge +3)

Since \(Al^{3+}\) has the highest valency (+3), Aluminum sulphate is the most effective coagulating agent.

Final Answer: Option (D). Quick Tip: Flocculation value \(\propto \frac{1}{(Valency)^6}\). A small increase in valency dramatically increases coagulating power. For negative sol: \(Al^{3+} > Ba^{2+} > Na^+\).


Question 146:

Metal X obtained from sphalerite ore can be purified by which of the following methods?

  • (A) Distillation
  • (B) Poling
  • (C) Zone refining
  • (D) Vapour phase refining
Correct Answer: (A) Distillation
View Solution



Step 1: Identify Metal X:
Sphalerite is the ore Zinc Blende (\(ZnS\)). So, metal X is Zinc (Zn).

Step 2: Properties of Zinc:
Zinc is a metal with a relatively low boiling point (\(b.p. \approx 907^\circC\)).
Common impurities like iron, lead, etc., have much higher boiling points.

Step 3: Select Purification Method:
Distillation is the method used for refining low boiling volatile metals like Zinc (Zn) and Mercury (Hg). The impure metal is heated, and pure metal vapors are condensed, leaving non-volatile impurities behind.

Comparison:
- Poling: Used for Copper (removal of oxides).
- Zone Refining: Used for Semiconductors (Si, Ge) for ultra-high purity.
- Vapour Phase Refining: Mond's Process (Ni), Van Arkel (Ti, Zr).

Final Answer: Distillation. Quick Tip: Remember: Distillation \(\rightarrow\) Low Boiling Point metals (Zn, Cd, Hg). Liquation \(\rightarrow\) Low Melting Point metals (Sn, Pb).


Question 147:

An oxoacid of phosphorus 'X' reduces silver nitrate solution to metallic silver and gets oxidised to another compound Y. X and Y respectively are

  • (A) \(HPO_3, H_3PO_4\)
  • (B) \(H_3PO_2, H_3PO_4\)
  • (C) \(H_3PO_3, H_3PO_2\)
  • (D) \(H_3PO_2, HNO_3\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(\text{H}_3\text{PO}_2, \text{H}_3\text{PO}_4\)
View Solution



Step 1: Reducing Property of P-Oxoacids:
Reducing character corresponds to the presence of P-H bonds. \(H_3PO_2\) (Hypophosphorous acid) has two P-H bonds. It is a very strong reducing agent. \(H_3PO_3\) (Orthophosphorous acid) has one P-H bond. \(H_3PO_4\) has zero P-H bonds (No reducing nature).

Step 2: Reaction with \(AgNO_3\): \(H_3PO_2\) reduces \(Ag^+\) to metallic Silver (\(Ag\)) and itself gets oxidised to the highest oxidation state acid, Orthophosphoric acid (\(H_3PO_4\)).
Reaction: \[ H_3PO_2 + 4AgNO_3 + 2H_2O \rightarrow 4Ag \downarrow + H_3PO_4 + 4HNO_3 \]

Step 3: Identification:
X = \(H_3PO_2\)
Y = \(H_3PO_4\)

Final Answer: Option (B). Quick Tip: Oxoacids of Phosphorus with +1 (\(H_3PO_2\)) and +3 (\(H_3PO_3\)) oxidation states tend to disproportionate or oxidize to +5 state (\(H_3PO_4\)).


Question 148:

Zinc on reaction with concentrated nitric acid gives an oxide of nitrogen (A). Zinc with dilute nitric acid gives another oxide of nitrogen (B). Oxidation numbers of nitrogen in (A) \& (B) are respectively

  • (A) +4, +1
  • (B) +4, +2
  • (C) +2, +4
  • (D) +1, +4
Correct Answer: (A) +4, +1
View Solution



Step 1: Reaction with Concentrated \(HNO_3\):
Zinc reacts with concentrated nitric acid to evolve Nitrogen Dioxide gas. \[ Zn + 4HNO_3(conc) \rightarrow Zn(NO_3)_2 + 2NO_2 + 2H_2O \]
Oxide (A) is \(NO_2\).
Oxidation number of N in \(NO_2\): \(x + 2(-2) = 0 \implies x = +4\).

Step 2: Reaction with Dilute \(HNO_3\):
Zinc is a stronger reducing agent (compared to copper). With dilute nitric acid, it reduces nitrogen to a lower oxidation state, forming Nitrous Oxide (Laughing Gas). \[ 4Zn + 10HNO_3(dil) \rightarrow 4Zn(NO_3)_2 + N_2O + 5H_2O \]
Oxide (B) is \(N_2O\).
Oxidation number of N in \(N_2O\): \(2x + (-2) = 0 \implies 2x = 2 \implies x = +1\).

Step 3: Answer Match:
A: +4, B: +1.

Final Answer: Option (A). Quick Tip: Comparison: Zn + Dil \(HNO_3\) \(\rightarrow N_2O\) Cu + Dil \(HNO_3\) \(\rightarrow NO\) Both Zn/Cu + Conc \(HNO_3\) \(\rightarrow NO_2\)



Question 149:

Identify the reaction related to Deacon's process

  • (A) \(2H_2O + 2Cl_2 \xrightarrow{sunlight} 4HCl + O_2\)
  • (B) \(4HCl + O_2 \xrightarrow[723K]{CuCl_2} 2Cl_2 + 2H_2O\)
  • (C) \(2NaCl + H_2SO_4 \xrightarrow{823K} Na_2SO_4 + 2HCl\)
  • (D) \(Na_2S_2O_3 + Cl_2 + H_2O \rightarrow Na_2SO_4 + 2HCl + S\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(4\text{HCl} + \text{O}_2 \xrightarrow[723\text{K}]{\text{CuCl}_2} 2\text{Cl}_2 + 2\text{H}_2\text{O}\)
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding Deacon's Process:
Deacon's process is a well-known industrial method for the manufacture of Chlorine gas (\(Cl_2\)). It involves the oxidation of hydrogen chloride gas by atmospheric oxygen.

Step 2: Reaction Conditions:
The reaction typically takes place at a temperature of about \(723 K\) (\(450^\circC\)) in the presence of a catalyst, Cupric Chloride (\(CuCl_2\)).

Step 3: Chemical Equation:
The balanced chemical equation is: \[ 4HCl + O_2 \xrightarrow{CuCl_2, 723K} 2Cl_2 + 2H_2O \]
This matches Option (B).

Final Answer: Option (B). Quick Tip: Remember: Deacon's Process \(\rightarrow\) Manufacture of Chlorine. Catalyst \(\rightarrow\) \(CuCl_2\). Reactants \(\rightarrow\) \(HCl + O_2\).


Question 150:

Identify the correct statements about lanthanoids

I. \(Ce^{4+}\) and \(Tb^{4+}\) act as oxidising agents

II. \(Eu^{2+}\) and \(Yb^{2+}\) act as oxidising agents

III. Mischmetal is an alloy of 95% iron and 5% lanthanoid metal

IV. \(La^{3+}\) and \(Ce^{4+}\) are diamagnetic in nature

  • (A) I \& II only
  • (B) I \& IV only
  • (C) II, III \& IV only
  • (D) I, II \& IV only
Correct Answer: (B) I \& IV only
View Solution



Step 1: Analyze Statement I:
The most stable oxidation state for Lanthanoids is +3.
Elements in +4 state (like \(Ce^{4+}\) and \(Tb^{4+}\)) tend to accept an electron to revert to the stable +3 state. Thus, they act as oxidising agents.
Statement I is Correct.

Step 2: Analyze Statement II:
Elements in +2 state (like \(Eu^{2+}\) and \(Yb^{2+}\)) tend to lose an electron to achieve the stable +3 state. Thus, they act as reducing agents, not oxidising agents.
Statement II is Incorrect.

Step 3: Analyze Statement III:
Mischmetal is an alloy consisting of a lanthanoid metal (~95%) and iron (~5%) and traces of S, C, Ca, and Al. The statement reverses the percentages (95% iron).
Statement III is Incorrect.

Step 4: Analyze Statement IV:
Electronic Configuration of La (Z=57): \([Xe] 5d^1 6s^2\). \(La^{3+}\) configuration: \([Xe] 4f^0\). No unpaired electrons \(\rightarrow\) Diamagnetic.
Electronic Configuration of Ce (Z=58): \([Xe] 4f^1 5d^1 6s^2\). \(Ce^{4+}\) configuration: \([Xe] 4f^0\). No unpaired electrons \(\rightarrow\) Diamagnetic.
Statement IV is Correct.

Conclusion: Only statements I and IV are correct.

Final Answer: Option (B). Quick Tip: Lanthanoid Stability Rule: All ions strive for the +3 state. +4 ions \(\rightarrow\) Gain \(e^-\) \(\rightarrow\) Oxidising Agents. +2 ions \(\rightarrow\) Lose \(e^-\) \(\rightarrow\) Reducing Agents.


Question 151:

When 100 mL of 0.2 M solution of \(CoCl_3 \cdot xNH_3\) is treated with excess of \(AgNO_3\) solution, \(3.6 \times 10^{22}\) ions are precipitated. The value of \(x\) is \((N = 6 \times 10^{23} mol^{-1})\)

  • (A) 5
  • (B) 6
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 3
Correct Answer: (B) 6
View Solution



Step 1: Calculate moles of the complex:
Molarity (M) = 0.2 mol/L.
Volume (V) = 100 mL = 0.1 L.
Total moles of complex = \(M \times V = 0.2 \times 0.1 = 0.02\) moles.

Step 2: Calculate moles of Chloride ions precipitated:
Number of AgCl molecules/ions precipitated = \(3.6 \times 10^{22}\).
Avogadro's Number (\(N_A\)) = \(6 \times 10^{23}\).
Moles of precipitate = \(\frac{3.6 \times 10^{22}}{6 \times 10^{23}} = 0.6 \times 10^{-1} = 0.06\) moles.

Step 3: Determine number of ionizable Chlorines (n):
Ratio \(\frac{Moles of AgCl}{Moles of Complex} = n\). \(n = \frac{0.06}{0.02} = 3\).
This means 3 \(Cl^-\) ions are outside the coordination sphere.

Step 4: Determine formula and x:
The coordination number of Cobalt(III) is typically 6.
The formula is written as \([Co(NH_3)_x]Cl_3\).
For the coordination number to be 6, \(x\) must be 6.
Formula: \([Co(NH_3)_6]Cl_3\).
Thus, \(x = 6\).

Final Answer: \(x = 6\). Quick Tip: The number of moles of AgCl precipitated per mole of complex equals the number of chloride ions present in the ionization sphere (outside the square bracket). For Co(III) ammine complexes, coordination number is 6.


Question 152:

Ethylene on reaction with cold, dilute alkaline \(KMnO_4\) at 273 K gives a compound 'P'. This on polymerisation with which of the following gives dacron?

  • (A)
  • (B)
  • (C)
  • (D)
Correct Answer: (B) Terephthalic Acid
View Solution



Step 1: Identify Product P:
Reaction of Ethylene with cold, dilute alkaline \(KMnO_4\) (Baeyer's Reagent) leads to syn-hydroxylation. \(CH_2=CH_2 + H_2O + [O] \rightarrow HO-CH_2-CH_2-OH\).
Product P is Ethylene Glycol.

Step 2: Identify Monomers of Dacron:
Dacron (Terylene) is a polyester formed by the condensation polymerization of:
1. Ethylene Glycol (Ethane-1,2-diol).
2. Terephthalic Acid (Benzene-1,4-dicarboxylic acid).

Step 3: Analyze Options:
- (A) Benzoic acid: Monocarboxylic acid.
- (B) Terephthalic acid: 1,4-dicarboxylic acid (Para isomer). This matches.
- (C) Phthalic acid: 1,2-dicarboxylic acid (Ortho isomer). Used for Glyptal.
- (D) p-Hydroxybenzoic acid.

Final Answer: Option (B). Quick Tip: Dacron is a linear polymer made from Terephthalic acid (para). Glyptal is a cross-linked polymer made from Phthalic acid (ortho). Both use Ethylene Glycol.


Question 153:

A carbohydrate (A), when treated with dilute HCl in alcoholic solution gives two isomers (B) and (C). B on reaction with bromine water gives a monocarboxylic acid 'Z' and 'C' is a ketohexose. What is A?

  • (A) Starch
  • (B) Maltose
  • (C) Sucrose
  • (D) Lactose
Correct Answer: (C) Sucrose
View Solution



Step 1: Analyze Hydrolysis:
Compound A hydrolyzes to give two isomers B and C. This suggests A is a disaccharide made of two hexose units (\(C_6H_{12}O_6\)).

Step 2: Characterize B and C:
- C is a ketohexose: The most common natural ketohexose is Fructose.
- B reacts with Bromine Water: Bromine water oxidises aldehydes to acids but does not affect ketones. Since B reacts to form a monocarboxylic acid Z (Gluconic acid), B must be an aldose. The isomer of Fructose that is an aldose is Glucose.

Step 3: Identify A:
A yields Glucose and Fructose on hydrolysis.
The disaccharide composed of Glucose and Fructose is Sucrose (Invert Sugar).
Reaction: \(C_{12}H_{22}O_{11} (Sucrose) + H_2O \rightarrow Glucose + Fructose\).

Analysis of other Options:
- Maltose \(\rightarrow\) Glucose + Glucose (Same units, not isomers in this context).
- Lactose \(\rightarrow\) Glucose + Galactose (Both are aldoses).

Final Answer: Option (C). Quick Tip: Bromine water test distinguishes Aldoses (Glucose) from Ketoses (Fructose). Aldoses are oxidised (decolourising bromine water); Ketoses are not.


Question 154:

The incorrect statement about chloramphenicol is

  • (A) It is a broad spectrum antibiotic
  • (B) It is a bacteriostatic antibiotic
  • (C) It is a bactericidal antibiotic
  • (D) It is used to cure pneumonia
Correct Answer: (C) It is a bactericidal antibiotic
View Solution



Step 1: Analyze Properties of Chloramphenicol:
Chloramphenicol is an important antibiotic.
- Spectrum: Effective against Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria. (Broad spectrum - Correct).
- Mechanism: It inhibits protein synthesis in bacteria, preventing growth. It does not kill them directly. Hence, it is Bacteriostatic. (Statement B is Correct).
- Consequently, it is not bactericidal. Bactericidal drugs (like Penicillin) kill bacteria. (Statement C is Incorrect).
- Usage: It is used for Typhoid, Meningitis, Pneumonia, etc. (Statement D is Correct).

Conclusion: Statement C is the incorrect one.

Final Answer: Option (C). Quick Tip: Static vs Cidal: Bacteriostatic (Stops growth): Erythromycin, Tetracycline, Chloramphenicol. Bactericidal (Kills): Penicillin, Aminoglycosides, Ofloxacin.


Question 155:

The number of chlorine (Cl) atoms in the structure of DDT molecule is

  • (A) 4
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 2
  • (D) 5
Correct Answer: (D) 5
View Solution



Step 1: Determine the Structure of DDT:
DDT stands for p,p'-Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane.
Chemical name: 2,2-bis(4-chlorophenyl)-1,1,1-trichloroethane.

Step 2: Count Chlorine Atoms:
- The "Trichloroethane" part implies 3 Chlorine atoms on the C-1 carbon.
- The "Dichlorodiphenyl" part implies 2 Chlorine atoms, one on each of the two phenyl rings (at para positions).
Total Chlorine atoms = \(3 + 2 = 5\).

Final Answer: 5. Quick Tip: Structure of DDT: \((Cl-C_6H_4)_2CH-CCl_3\). Count: 2 Cl on rings + 3 Cl on chain = 5 Cl.


Question 156:

The major product in Reimer-Tiemann reaction is X. The reactants are Y and Z. X, Y and Z are respectively.

  • (A)
  • (B)
  • (C)
  • (D)
Correct Answer: (C) Structure of Salicylaldehyde, Phenol, \(\text{CHCl}_3\), Aq. NaOH
View Solution



Step 1: Define Reimer-Tiemann Reaction:
This is a standard reaction where Phenol is treated with Chloroform (\(CHCl_3\)) in the presence of aqueous alkali (NaOH or KOH).
Reaction: \[ Phenol + CHCl_3 + NaOH (aq) \xrightarrow{340K} Salicylaldehyde (Major) + p-Hydroxybenzaldehyde (Minor) \]
An electrophilic substitution reaction where the electrophile is Dichlorocarbene (\(:CCl_2\)).

Step 2: Identify X, Y, Z:
- Reactant Y: Phenol.
- Reactant Z: Chloroform (\(CHCl_3\)) and Alkali.
- Product X: Salicylaldehyde (o-Hydroxybenzaldehyde). The structure has an -OH and a -CHO group at ortho positions on the benzene ring.

Step 3: Match with Options:
Option (C) depicts Salicylaldehyde structure and lists Phenol, \(CHCl_3\), and Aq. NaOH as components. This is the classic definition.
(Option A seems to be a duplicate or layout variation, but Option C is marked correct in the key).

Final Answer: Option (C). Quick Tip: Reimer-Tiemann with \(CHCl_3 \rightarrow\) Aldehyde group (-CHO). Reimer-Tiemann with \(CCl_4 \rightarrow\) Carboxylic Acid group (-COOH) (Salicylic Acid). The question asks for the standard Reimer-Tiemann, which usually implies the formylation.


Question 157:

Toluene \(\xrightarrow{(1) CrO_2Cl_2 / CS_2} \xrightarrow{(2) H_3O^+} X \xrightarrow[Conc. NaOH]{50%} Y + Z\)

The correct statements about X, Y and Z are

A. Y is a secondary alcohol

B. Y is the reduction product of X

C. Z on heating with soda lime gives benzene

D. Y does not give \(H_2\) gas with Na metal

  • (A) B \& C only
  • (B) A \& B only
  • (C) A \& D only
  • (D) B \& D only
Correct Answer: (A) B \& C only
View Solution



Step 1: Identify Reaction 1 (Etard Reaction):
Toluene reacts with Chromyl Chloride to form a chromium complex, which on hydrolysis yields Benzaldehyde (X). \(X = C_6H_5CHO\).

Step 2: Identify Reaction 2 (Cannizzaro Reaction):
Benzaldehyde (no \(\alpha\)-H) reacts with conc. NaOH to undergo disproportionation.
Reduction product (Y): Benzyl Alcohol (\(C_6H_5CH_2OH\)).
Oxidation product (Z): Sodium Benzoate (\(C_6H_5COONa\)).

Step 3: Evaluate Statements:
* A. Y is a secondary alcohol: Benzyl alcohol (\(Ph-CH_2-OH\)) is a primary alcohol. (False).
* B. Y is reduction product of X: Aldehyde reduces to Alcohol. (True).
* C. Z with soda lime gives benzene: Decarboxylation of Sodium Benzoate yields Benzene. \(Ph-COONa + NaOH/CaO \rightarrow Ph-H\). (True).
* D. Y does not give H2 with Na: Alcohols react with Na to release hydrogen. (False).

Final Answer: Option (A). Quick Tip: Cannizzaro Reaction: \(2Aldehyde \xrightarrow{Conc Base} Alcohol (Red) + Salt of Acid (Ox)\).


Question 158:

Identify the product 'P' in the given reaction sequence


  • (A)
  • (B)
  • (C)
  • (D)
Correct Answer: (C) Structure 3 (1-acetylcyclopentene)
View Solution



Step 1: Analyze Starting Material:
Looking at the product P in Option 3 (1-acetylcyclopentene), we can reverse engineer.
A 5-membered ring with an acetyl group suggests an intramolecular Aldol condensation of a 1,6-dicarbonyl compound (Specifically a keto-aldehyde to form an enone).
The precursor A must be 6-oxoheptanal (\(CH_3CO(CH_2)_4CHO\)).
This precursor A is obtained by ozonolysis of the cyclic alkene. Ozonolysis of 1-methylcyclohexene yields 6-oxoheptanal.
Thus, Reactant = 1-Methylcyclohexene.

Step 2: Reaction A \(\rightarrow\) P (Intramolecular Aldol):
Compound A: \(CH_3-CO-CH_2-CH_2-CH_2-CH_2-CHO\).
Base (\(Ba(OH)_2\)) removes the acidic \(\alpha\)-proton.
The most favorable cyclization forms a 5-membered ring.
The enolate forms at the methylene group \(\alpha\) to the ketone (at C-5).
Attack: C-5 Enolate attacks C-1 Aldehyde carbonyl.
Ring formed: 5-membered (C1-C2-C3-C4-C5).
Substituents on ring:
- At C-1: Becomes -OH (secondary alcohol).
- At C-5: The acetyl group (\(-COCH_3\)) remains attached (Wait, the methyl of the ketone is outside? No, the C=O becomes part of the acetyl group? Let's re-verify).
Actually: Enolate at C-5 (\(\alpha\) to ketone) attacking C-1 (CHO).
The ketone carbonyl carbon (C-6) and its methyl (C-7) become an Acetyl group attached to the ring at C-5.
Resulting structure: 2-(1-hydroxy)cyclopentyl methyl ketone?
Upon heating (\(\Delta\)), dehydration occurs to form the conjugated product.
Double bond forms between C-1 and C-5 (conjugated with the acetyl group).
Final Product P: 1-acetylcyclopentene.
Structure: A cyclopentene ring with a \(-COCH_3\) group attached to one of the double-bonded carbons.

This matches the structure shown in Option 3 (or C).

Final Answer: Option (C). Quick Tip: Ozonolysis of cyclic alkenes gives dicarbonyl chains. Intramolecular Aldol of 1,6-dicarbonyls gives 5-membered cyclic enones. Intramolecular Aldol of 1,7-dicarbonyls gives 6-membered cyclic enones. Rule: Formation of 5 or 6 membered rings is preferred. Aldehyde carbonyl is the electrophile.


Question 159:

The product 'C' in the given reaction sequence is


  • (A)
  • (B)
  • (C)
  • (D)
Correct Answer: (A) Structure of Nitrobenzene
View Solution



Step 1: Formation of Grignard Reagent (A)
The reactant is p-bromonitrobenzene. When treated with Magnesium (Mg) in the presence of dry ether, it forms a Grignard reagent. The Mg inserts into the carbon-bromine bond. \[ p-NO_2-C_6H_4-Br + Mg \xrightarrow{ether} p-NO_2-C_6H_4-MgBr \ (\textbf{A}) \]
(Note: While nitro groups can interfere with Grignard reagents in practice, in the context of this idealized reaction sequence, we proceed with the functional group transformation of the halide).

Step 2: Carbonation (Formation of Carboxylic Acid B)
The Grignard reagent reacts with Carbon Dioxide (\(CO_2\)) followed by acid hydrolysis (\(H_3O^+\)) to form a carboxylic acid. \[ R-MgBr + CO_2 \rightarrow R-COO-MgBr \xrightarrow{H_3O^+ R-COOH \]
Here, \(R = p-nitrophenyl\).
So, \(\textbf{B}\) is p-nitrobenzoic acid (\(p-NO_2-C_6H_4-COOH\)).

Step 3: Decarboxylation (Formation of C)
Compound B reacts with Na to form the sodium salt (Sodium p-nitrobenzoate). This salt is then heated with soda lime (\(NaOH + CaO\)). Soda lime causes decarboxylation, removing the carboxyl group (\(-COO^-\)) and replacing it with a hydrogen atom. \[ R-COOH \xrightarrow{Na} R-COONa \xrightarrow{NaOH + CaO, \Delta} R-H + Na_2CO_3 \]
Substituting \(R = p-NO_2-C_6H_4\), the product is \(p-NO_2-C_6H_5\), which is Nitrobenzene.

Conclusion:
The sequence converts the Bromine group into a Hydrogen atom. The product C is Nitrobenzene.

Final Answer: Option (A). Quick Tip: The sequence \(R-X \xrightarrow{Mg} R-MgX \xrightarrow{CO_2, H^+} R-COOH \xrightarrow{Soda lime} R-H\) is a classic method for converting an alkyl/aryl halide back to the parent hydrocarbon.


Question 160:

The amine / salt of amine which gives positive test with a mixture of chloroform and alcoholic KOH solution is

  • (A)
  • (B)
  • (C)
  • (D)
Correct Answer: (D) \(\text{C}_6\text{H}_5\text{-CH}_2\text{-NH}_2\)
View Solution



Step 1: Identify the Chemical Test
The reaction with chloroform (\(CHCl_3\)) and alcoholic Potassium Hydroxide (\(KOH\)) is known as the Carbylamine Test or Isocyanide Test.

Step 2: Condition for Positive Test
This test is characteristic of primary amines only (both aliphatic and aromatic). Secondary and tertiary amines do not undergo this reaction.
Reaction: \[ R-NH_2 + CHCl_3 + 3KOH (alc) \xrightarrow{\Delta} R-NC (Bad smelling Isocyanide) + 3KCl + 3H_2O \]

Step 3: Analyze the Options

(A) \(C_6H_5-NH-CH_3\) (N-methylaniline): This is a secondary (\(2^\circ\)) amine. Negative test.
(B) \(C_6H_5-N(CH_3)_2\) (N,N-dimethylaniline): This is a tertiary (\(3^\circ\)) amine. Negative test.
(C) \(C_6H_5-N^+(CH_3)_3X^-\): This is a quaternary ammonium salt. Negative test.
(D) \(C_6H_5-CH_2-NH_2\) (Benzylamine): The Nitrogen is attached to only one Carbon atom (the benzylic carbon). It contains the \(-NH_2\) group. This is a primary (\(1^\circ\)) amine. Positive test.


Conclusion:
Only Benzylamine is a primary amine and will give a positive Carbylamine test.

Final Answer: Option (D). Quick Tip: To identify the degree of an amine, count the number of carbon atoms directly attached to the nitrogen. \(1^\circ\): \(R-NH_2\) (1 C attached). \(2^\circ\): \(R-NH-R'\) (2 C's attached). \(3^\circ\): \(R-N(R')-R''\) (3 C's attached). Carbylamine test is exclusive to \(1^\circ\) amines.

 

TS EAMCET 2025 Previous Year Exam Analysis

As per the previous years' TS EAMCET Exam Analysis, it is expected that the difficulty level of TS EAMCET 2025 will be moderate in the difficulty level. Below is a year-wise comparison of the TS EAMCET Engineering exams from 2024 to 2022, including subject-wise difficulty, key topics, and student reactions:

TS EAMCET Engineering Exam Analysis (2024–2022)

Year Overall Level Maths Difficulty Physics Focus Chemistry Nature
2024 Moderate Lengthy, Moderate Conceptual + Numerical 65% NCERT-based
2023 Moderate to Tough Application-based 60% Numerical 70% Direct from NCERT
2022 Easy to Moderate Formula-based 55% Theory-based 75% Memory-based

TS EAMCET 2025 Topic-Wise Weightage

TS EAMCET 2025 is expected to follow a question distribution pattern similar to the previous years. Maths has the most weightage at 80 questions, with Physics and Chemistry at 40 each.

Given below is the probable topic-wise weightage of every subject as per the previous year trends:

Mathematics

Topic Expected No. of Questions
Calculus 10–12
Algebra 9–11
Coordinate Geometry 7–9
Vector Algebra 5–7
Probability & Statistics 4–6
Trigonometry 3–4
Complex Numbers 2–3

Physics

Topic Expected No. of Questions
Current Electricity 4–5
Thermodynamics 4–5
Laws of Motion 3–4
Work, Energy & Power 3–4
Semiconductor Devices 3–4
Oscillations & Waves 2–3
Modern Physics 2–3

Chemistry

Topic Expected No. of Questions
Organic Chemistry 8–10
Physical Chemistry 7–9
Inorganic Chemistry 6–8
Environmental Chemistry 2–3
Surface Chemistry 2–3
Biomolecules & Polymers 2–3