AIAPGET Unani 2024 6 July Question Paper (Available): Download Question Paper with Answers PDF

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Shivam Yadav

Updated 3+ months ago

The All India AYUSH Post Graduate Entrance Test (AIAPGET) is a national-level entrance exam conducted by the National Testing Agency (NTA) on behalf of the Ministry of AYUSH, Government of India. It is the only entrance exam for admission into unani programs offered by various government, private, and deemed universities across India. There are 120 MCQs in 2 hours (120 minutes) and total of 480 marks, awarded +4 for each correct answer, -1 for each wrong answer.

AIAPGET Unani 2024 6 July Question Paper PDF Download

AIAPGET Ayurveda 2024 Question Paper with Answer Key download iconDownload Check Solutions
AIAPGET Unani 2024 6 July Question Paper PDF Download

Question 1:

Literary meaning of the word ‘Ruh’ is:

  • (1) Zawiul Arwah
  • (2) La Infi'al
  • (3) Amezish (mixture)
  • (4) Hawa e Muheet
Correct Answer: (1) Zawiul Arwah
View Solution

Question 2:

The excretion of Mawad-e-Fasida in the form of saliva, ear wax, sweat etc. is the function of:

  • (1) Aaza only
  • (2) Quwwat-e-Mudabir e Badan
  • (3) Quwwat-e-Tabiyah
  • (4) Quwwat-e-Nafsaniyah
Correct Answer: (2) Quwwat-e-Mudabir e Badan
View Solution

Question 3:

On the basis of definition, the Ustaqussat are:

  • (1) Solid (Jamid)
  • (2) Liquid (Sayyal)
  • (3) Mufrad (Single)
  • (4) Vaporous (Bukhari)
Correct Answer: (3) Mufrad (Single)
View Solution

Question 4:

The Feal of Tabiyat is:

  • (1) Muharik-e-Mizaj
  • (2) Tabreed-e-Mizaj
  • (3) Taskeen-e-Mizaj
  • (4) Ta’deel-e-Mizaj
Correct Answer: (4) Ta’deel-e-Mizaj
View Solution

Question 5:

Which concept has the prime importance, and is the back bone of Unani system of medicine:

  • (1) Afa'al
  • (2) Mizaj
  • (3) Az'aa
  • (4) Arwah
Correct Answer: (2) Mizaj
View Solution

Question 6:

Who is also known as Abul AlArwah?

  • (1) Galen
  • (2) Erasistratus
  • (3) Herophilus
  • (4) Aristotle
Correct Answer: (1) Galen
View Solution

Question 7:

Match List I with List II:


List I \hspace{3cm List II

(A) Ribat \hspace{2.4cm (I) Uzw Raees

(B) Dimagh \hspace{2cm (II) Uzw Mufrad

(C) Khusiya \hspace{2cm (III) Uzw Barid

(D) Aasab \hspace{2.3cm (IV) Quwwat Muwallida


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
  • (2) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
  • (3) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
  • (4) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
Correct Answer: (1) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
View Solution

Question 8:

In all organs of the human body, what is more barid after Izaam (bones):

  • (1) Asaab (Nerves)
  • (2) Ribat
  • (3) Kurri / Ghuzruf
  • (4) Baal
Correct Answer: (3) Kurri / Ghuzruf
View Solution

Question 9:

Opposite of Nafrat e Kimiawia is:

  • (1) Ulfat e Kimiawia
  • (2) Nafrat e Kimiawia
  • (3) Istehāla e Haqiqiya
  • (4) Istehāla Johariya
Correct Answer: (1) Ulfat e Kimiawia
View Solution

Question 10:

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).


Assertion (A) : Sin-e-Rihaq and Sin-e-Fata are sub types of Sin-e-Numu.


Reason (R) : Because in both Sin-e-Rihaq and Sin-e-Fata, growth and development of individual are progressive towards Sin-e-Shabab.


In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
  • (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
  • (4) (A) is false but (R) is true
Correct Answer: (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
View Solution

Question 11:

Given below are two statements:


Statement I : Rukn Hawa is lateef because of its Haar Ratab (hot and moist) Mizaj.


Statement II : The characteristic of Yabusat is not accepting and leaving the shapes easily.


In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Correct Answer: (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
View Solution

Question 12:

Given below are two statements:


Statement I : Mizaj Moatadil Nau’i and Mizaj Moatadil Sinfi are types of Mizaj Moatadil Tibbi.


Statement II : Mizaj Moatadil Haqeeqi is not present in any species.


In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Correct Answer: (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
View Solution

Question 13:

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).


Assertion (A) : According to Imam Fakhruddin Razi, the moderate region is fourth Iqlim (Iqlim Chaharum) and according to Ibn Sina, the moderate region is the region nearby the equator (Khate Istiwa).


Reason (R) : According to Imam Fakhruddin Razi, Fourth Iqlim (Iqlim Chaharum) is moderate because it is situated in between the hot and cold regions and is best for habitat. The regions nearby the pole are cold and nearby equator are hot.

According to Ibn Sina, in regions near the equator the sun rays fall straight and the duration of day and night is equal. But the opinion of Imam Fakhruddin Razi is more appropriate than Ibn Sina.


In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
  • (3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
  • (4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Correct Answer: (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
View Solution

Question 14:

In which age, the process of anabolism (formation) is equal to the process of catabolism (destruction):

  • (1) Sin-i-Numu
  • (2) Sin-i-Shabab
  • (3) Sin-i-Kuhulat
  • (4) Sin-i-Shaikhukhat
Correct Answer: (2) Sin-i-Shabab
View Solution

Question 15:

Which is not included in Asbab Musakhkhina?

  • (1) Mo’tadil Miqdar ki Ghiza
  • (2) Harkat Mo’tadil
  • (3) Sudda basabab Fuzlat
  • (4) Ufoonat
Correct Answer: (1) Mo’tadil Miqdar ki Ghiza

View Solution

Question 16:

Enzyme elevated in first 2 hours of MI is:

  • (1) CKMB
  • (2) LDH
  • (3) SGPT
  • (4) Acid phosphatase
Correct Answer: (1) CKMB

View Solution

Question 17:

Diagnostic feature of rheumatic fever is:

  • (1) Antischkow cells
  • (2) Aschoff’s bodies
  • (3) MacCallum’s patch
  • (4) Epithelioid cells
Correct Answer: (2) Aschoff’s bodies

View Solution

Question 18:

Intravascular hemolysis occurs in:

  • (1) Hereditary spherocytosis
  • (2) Autoimmune haemolytic anemia
  • (3) Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
  • (4) Thalassemia
Correct Answer: (3) Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

View Solution

Question 19:

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).


Assertion (A) : Troponins become detectable in 2 to 4 hours in circulation in cases of MI.


Reason (R) : In myocardial infarction, cellular enzymes leak into the blood.


In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
  • (3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
  • (4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Correct Answer: (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

View Solution

Question 20:

Match List I with List II:


List I \hspace{4.5cm List II

(A) Angina pectoris \hspace{2cm (I) Irreversible cell injury

(B) Stroke \hspace{3.7cm (II) 4

(C) Awqat Amraz \hspace{2.3cm (III) Retinopathy

(D) Diabetes mellitus \hspace{1.7cm (IV) Reversible cell injury


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  • (2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
  • (3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
  • (4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
Correct Answer: (3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)

View Solution

Question 21:

The muscle responsible for unlocking the knee joint is:


(A) Popliteus muscle

(B) Soleus

(C) Soleus and gastrocnemius

(D) Plantaris


Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) only
  • (2) (A) and (B) only
  • (3) (B) and (C) only
  • (4) (C) only
Correct Answer: (1) (A) only

View Solution

Question 22:

The rotation of trunk is produced by:


(A) Combined action of external oblique with opposite internal oblique

(B) Contraction of both muscles

(C) Rectus abdominis with opposite external oblique

(D) Transversus abdominis


Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) only
  • (2) (A) and (B) only
  • (3) (B) and (C) only
  • (4) (C) only
Correct Answer: (1) (A) only

View Solution

Question 23:

Match List I with List II:


The nerve supply of the following muscles:






Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
  • (2) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  • (3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
  • (4) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
Correct Answer: (1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)

View Solution

Question 24:

The recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies all muscles of the larynx except:

  • (1) Cricothyroid
  • (2) Lateral cricoarytenoid
  • (3) Oblique cricoarytenoid
  • (4) Vocalis
Correct Answer: (1) Cricothyroid

View Solution

Question 25:

The 3rd part of the duodenum is supplied by the following artery:

  • (1) Supraduodenal artery
  • (2) Superior pancreaticoduodenal artery
  • (3) Inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery
  • (4) Gastroduodenal artery
Correct Answer: (3) Inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery

View Solution

Question 26:

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).


Assertion (A) : Basal Metabolic Rate is higher in male.


Reason (R) : It is due to larger body surface area of male bodies.


In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
  • (3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
  • (4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Correct Answer: (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

View Solution

Question 27:

Who proposed the double helical model of DNA?

  • (1) Erwin Chargaff
  • (2) Rosalind Franklin
  • (3) Watson \& Crick
  • (4) Linus Pauling
Correct Answer: (3) Watson \& Crick

View Solution

Question 28:

The functions of cerebellum are:

  • (1) Muscle tone and posture
  • (2) Thinking
  • (3) Hearing
  • (4) Reticular formation
Correct Answer: (1) Muscle tone and posture

View Solution

Question 29:

What are the functions of Vitamin A?


(A) Blood coagulation

(B) Immunity

(C) Forming Epithelium

(D) Acts as coenzyme

(E) Produces Rhodopsin


Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) and (B) only
  • (2) (C) and (E) only
  • (3) (B) and (D) only
  • (4) (C) and (D) only
Correct Answer: (2) (C) and (E) only

View Solution

Question 30:

Given below are two statements:


Statement I : During a blood group test, agglutination occurs with both Anti sera A and B.


Statement II : Blood group is AB.


In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Correct Answer: (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

View Solution

Question 31:

Who is the writer of the book “Kitab al-Manazir”?

  • (1) Ibn Sina
  • (2) Ibn Haytham
  • (3) Ibn Rushd
  • (4) Ibn Zuhr
Correct Answer: (2) Ibn Haytham

View Solution

Question 32:

Who is the writer of the book “Ganj Badaward”?

  • (1) Amanullah Khan
  • (2) Muhammad Kabiruddin
  • (3) Mehmood Khan
  • (4) Ajmal Khan
Correct Answer: (2) Muhammad Kabiruddin

View Solution

Question 33:

Given below are two statements:


Statement I : “Jawam’e al – Iskandrnain” is the collection of fourteen books.


Statement II : Out of fourteen books seven books were written by Buqarat and seven by Jalinoos.


In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Correct Answer: (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

View Solution

Question 34:

Which of the following physicians belong to the Mughal period?



(A) Hakim Ziauddin Mehmood Zangi

(B) Hakim Yusufi

(C) Hakim Ali Gilani

(D) Hakim Mehmood Khan

(E) Hakim Alwi Khan


Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) (B) (C) only
  • (2) (B) (C) (D) only
  • (3) (C) (D) (E) only
  • (4) (B) (C) (E) only
Correct Answer: (1) (A) (B) (C) only

View Solution

Question 35:

As per Indian Factory Act 1948, total number of hours of work in a week including overtime shall not exceed:

  • (1) 40 hours
  • (2) 48 hours
  • (3) 60 hours
  • (4) 90 hours
Correct Answer: (2) 48 hours

View Solution

Question 36:

Regarding introduction of the term “Social Medicine” which of the following statements are correct:


(A) The term Social Medicine was first introduced by Jules Guerin

(B) Jules Guerin was a scientist from Berlin

(C) The term Social Medicine was first introduced by Alfred Grotjahn

(D) Alfred Grotjahn was a scientist from France

(E) The term Social Medicine was first introduced in the year 1848


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) (B) only
  • (2) (C) (D) only
  • (3) (C) (E) only
  • (4) (A) (E) only
Correct Answer: (4) (A) (E) only

View Solution

Question 37:

Match List I with List II:






Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  • (2) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
  • (3) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
  • (4) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
Correct Answer: (1) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)

View Solution

Question 38:

Minimum distance between well and source of contamination should be at least:

  • (1) 500 meter
  • (2) 50 feet
  • (3) 15 meter
  • (4) 100 feet
Correct Answer: (4) 100 feet

View Solution

Question 39:

Match List I with List II:






Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
  • (2) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
  • (3) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  • (4) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
Correct Answer: (1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)

View Solution

Question 40:

Acceptable level of Thermal comfort is:

  • (1) 20\(^\circ\)C
  • (2) 20\(^\circ\)C - 25\(^\circ\)C
  • (3) 25\(^\circ\)C - 27\(^\circ\)C
  • (4) 27\(^\circ\)C - 28\(^\circ\)C
Correct Answer: (2) 20\(^\circ\)C - 25\(^\circ\)C

View Solution

Question 41:

On the basis of the year of invention arrange the vaccines in ascending order:


(A) Hepatitis B Vaccine

(B) Yellow Fever Vaccine

(C) Diphtheria Toxoid

(D) Smallpox Vaccine

(E) Anthrax Vaccine


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A, B, C, D, E
  • (2) B, C, D, A, E
  • (3) D, C, B, E, A
  • (4) E, D, C, B, A
Correct Answer: (4) E, D, C, B, A

View Solution

Question 42:

Which of the following theories of Aging Process describe “Old age sets in, when the body cells exhaust the capacity of undergoing multiplication”?

  • (1) Somatic Mutation Theory
  • (2) Autoimmune Theory
  • (3) Hayflick’s Theory
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (3) Hayflick’s Theory

View Solution

Question 43:

According to which rule, square root of the length of the fetus in centimeters gives the approximate age of fetus in months in first five months of fetal life:

  • (1) Bishop scoring
  • (2) Rule of nines
  • (3) Hiss’s rule
  • (4) Rule of halves
Correct Answer: (3) Hiss’s rule

View Solution

Question 44:

Which of the following is NOT the active principle of AKDO?

  • (1) Uscharin
  • (2) Calotoxin
  • (3) Calactin
  • (4) Capsicin
Correct Answer: (4) Capsicin

View Solution

Question 45:

Most widely used substance dependence drug is:

  • (1) Opium
  • (2) Cocaine
  • (3) Amphetamines
  • (4) Cannabis
Correct Answer: (4) Cannabis

View Solution

Question 46:

Match List I with List II:






Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  • (2) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
  • (3) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
  • (4) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
Correct Answer: (1) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)

View Solution

Question 47:

Kahroba Shamai is also known as:

  • (1) Qarnal Ayyal
  • (2) Qarnal Bahr
  • (3) Azba
  • (4) Baqlatul Ghazal
Correct Answer: (2) Qarnal Bahr

View Solution

Question 48:

Match List I with List II:






Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
  • (2) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
  • (3) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
  • (4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
Correct Answer: (1) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

View Solution

Question 49:

Which of the following is an example of Nashif?

  • (1) Beladur
  • (2) Khushk choona
  • (3) Suddab
  • (4) Rewand
Correct Answer: (2) Khushk choona

View Solution

Question 50:

Which of the following effects is produced by Jhaw?

  • (1) Muzir Sar
  • (2) Muzir Halaq
  • (3) Muzir Bah
  • (4) Muzir Basar
Correct Answer: (2) Muzir Halaq

View Solution

Question 51:

Panwad is also known as:

  • (1) Khilaf Balakhi
  • (2) Kiram Shab Tab
  • (3) Qalb
  • (4) Tira Tezak
Correct Answer: (4) Tira Tezak

View Solution

Question 52:

Choose the correct statements:


(A) The flower of Palas is known as GUL-E-TISU

(B) Chinya Gond is obtained from Balsan

(C) Gul-e-Tisu acts as Muhallil-e-waram

(D) On each branch of Dhak only two leaves are found

(E) Samagh-e-Dhak and Kamar Kas both are same.


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) B, D, E
  • (2) A, B
  • (3) A, C, E
  • (4) D, E
Correct Answer: (3) A, C, E

View Solution

Question 53:

Match List I with List II:






Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
  • (2) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
  • (3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
  • (4) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
Correct Answer: (1) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)

View Solution

Question 54:

Given below are two statements:


Statement I : Drugs having Harrif Taste produce Tafteeh, Talteef, Tahleel, Tarqeeq and Taskheen actions.


Statement II : Drugs having Afas Taste produce Tarteeb, Tarqeeq, Irkha, Taleen and Nuzj actions.


In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Correct Answer: (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

View Solution

Question 55:

Given below are two statements:


Assertion (A) : Bhilawan produces cardiotonic action.


Reason (R) : Bhilawan resembles with the shape of heart.


In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
  • (3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
  • (4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Correct Answer: (3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

View Solution

Question 56:

Alkaloids found in Asrol:


(A) Reserpine

(B) Rescinnamine

(C) Isoajmaline

(D) Peganine


Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A, B and C only
  • (2) A and C only
  • (3) B and C only
  • (4) A and B only
Correct Answer: (1) A, B and C only

View Solution

Question 57:

Afloonia is used in the form of:

  • (1) Safoof
  • (2) Marham
  • (3) Sharbat
  • (4) Majoon
Correct Answer: (2) Marham

View Solution

Question 58:

Khesanda is called as:

  • (1) Matbookh
  • (2) Zulal
  • (3) Naqoo
  • (4) Zaroor
Correct Answer: (2) Zulal

View Solution

Question 59:

Sikanjbeen Lemuni does not contain the following ingredient:

  • (1) Asl
  • (2) Shakar-i-Teghal
  • (3) Shakar
  • (4) Lemun
Correct Answer: (1) Asl

View Solution

Question 60:

The following ingredient is part of Tiryq-i-Pechish:

  • (1) Kamoon Siyah
  • (2) Hubb-al-Aas
  • (3) Kafoor
  • (4) Anisoon
Correct Answer: (1) Kamoon Siyah

View Solution

Question 61:

Match List I with List II:






Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
  • (2) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
  • (3) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  • (4) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
Correct Answer: (1) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

View Solution

Question 62:

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).


Assertion (A): Triyaq Samania is named after.

Reason (R): Because it contains eight constituents.


In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
  • (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
  • (4) (A) is false but (R) is true
Correct Answer: (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

View Solution

Question 63:

Given below are two statements:


Statement I : Qurs musallas is used externally.

Statement II : Use of Barsha’sha increases pain.


In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Correct Answer: (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

View Solution

Question 64:

Arrange in the descending order:


(A) Dang

(B) Dirham

(C) Daam

(D) Chhatank

(E) Tola


Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) CEBDA
  • (2) BDACE
  • (3) DCEBA
  • (4) DBECA
Correct Answer: (4) DBECA

View Solution

Question 65:

Safoof Moalif is used for:


(A) Chronic Diarrhoea

(B) Jiryan-e-Mani

(C) Dysentery

(D) Riqqat-e-Mani

(E) Anaemia


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) B and D only
  • (2) A and B only
  • (3) C and E only
  • (4) A and D only
Correct Answer: (1) B and D only

View Solution

Question 66:

Given below are two statements:


Statement I : Ibne Hubal written that the joint of greater toe of foot is called Anqaroos, this is the origin for the word Niqras.

Statement II : Shaikh has written that Niqras starts from fingers especially from toe, but sometimes it starts from the heel and then spreads (even viscera getting involved).


In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Correct Answer: (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

View Solution

Question 67:

Causes of Aortic Regurgitation are:


(A) Congenital (Bicuspid), Myxomatous (Prolapse)

(B) Endocarditis, Rheumatic fever

(C) Syphilis

(D) Ankylosing spondylitis


Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A, B, C, D only
  • (2) A and B only
  • (3) B, C and D only
  • (4) A, B and D only
Correct Answer: (1) A, B, C, D only

View Solution

Question 68:

Farismoos:

  • (1) Is the other name for Azyoot
  • (2) Is an uncommon or excessive erection of penis
  • (3) Is another name for Aqoona
  • (4) Is another name for Ramak
Correct Answer: (2) Is an uncommon or excessive erection of penis

View Solution

Question 69:

Marham Qimooliya is effective in:

  • (1) Azyoot
  • (2) Hikkatal Qazeeb
  • (3) Aaqoona
  • (4) Shuqaq al-Qazeeb
Correct Answer: (4) Shuqaq al-Qazeeb

View Solution

Question 70:

Ramak

  • (1) Is a disease
  • (2) Is a symptom
  • (3) Is a formulation made from Sate Amla and other medicines
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (1) Is a disease

View Solution

Question 71:

Which of the following is a Arz-e-Laazim and meaning of Sara' (Epilepsy)?

  • (1) Frothing from mouth
  • (2) To fall
  • (3) Repeated contractions and relaxations of muscles
  • (4) Tongue bite
Correct Answer: (2) To fall

View Solution

Question 72:

Following are the statements related to Niqras (Gout), look for the correctness of the statements:


(A) Madda Niqrasiya Hazm Chaharum ka fuzla hai.

(B) It usually affects the poor people.

(C) Its pain mostly affects finger joints especially toes.

(D) Incidence is more in Females as compared to Males.


Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A and B only
  • (2) A and C only
  • (3) B and D only
  • (4) B and C only
Correct Answer: (2) A and C only

View Solution

Question 73:

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).


Assertion (A): "Marze Akhzar" or "Khizra", is a special type of SooUl Qiniya.

Reason (R): This is common in young girls due to menstrual abnormalities. There is change of skin colour into greenish or yellowish green, and this is due to alteration in the components of blood leading to change in the colour of the blood.


In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
  • (3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
  • (4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Correct Answer: (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

View Solution

Question 74:

Following are the statements related to formation of stone in kidneys, look for the correctness of the statements:


(A) Faaeli Sabab of renal stones is "Hararat".

(B) Maddi Sabab of renal stones is "GhaleeZ Lasidar Ratubat".

(C) Renal stones are often formed due to "Qarha".

(D) The causes of formation of stones in Kidney and Urinary Bladder are similar.


Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A and B only
  • (2) A, B and C only
  • (3) A, C and D only
  • (4) B, C and D only
Correct Answer: (2) A, B and C only

View Solution

Question 75:

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).


Assertion (A): Bronchial breathing classically heard in case of Pneumonia.

Reason (R): When the underlying area is airless, as in consolidation, the sounds generated in the large airways are transmitted more efficiently, so they are louder and there is less filtering of the high frequencies.


In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
  • (3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
  • (4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Correct Answer: (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

View Solution

Question 76:

Match List I with List II:






Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III)
  • (2) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I)
  • (3) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I)
  • (4) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II)
Correct Answer: (1) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III)

View Solution

Question 77:

Following are the statements related to Asbab-e-Nabz, which these are correct?


(A) Arteries are among the Asbab-e-Muqawwima.

(B) Physical activity and Repose are among the Asbab-e-Ghair Muqawwima Lazima.

(C) Sleep and Awakening are among the Asbab-e-Ghair Muqawwima Mughayyara.

(D) Fever is among the Asbab-e-Ghair Muqawwima Lazima.


Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A and B only
  • (2) B and C only
  • (3) C and D only
  • (4) A and D only
Correct Answer: (2) B and C only

View Solution

Question 78:

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).


Assertion (A): As Fasd (venesection) is contraindicated in poisoned patients, same applies to the patients of plague.

Reason (R): Otherwise its toxicity will spread.


In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
  • (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
  • (4) (A) is false but (R) is true
Correct Answer: (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

View Solution

Question 79:

Shafviya, Khataliya, Mantiqiya are some of the types of

  • (1) Surkh Bada (Erysipelas)
  • (2) Jamrah (Anthrax)
  • (3) Nar Farsi (Eczema)
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (1) Surkh Bada (Erysipelas)

View Solution

Question 80:

The Deedan Jarb are first mentioned by Arab physicians in:

  • (1) Moalajate Buqratiya
  • (2) Moalajate Sharah Asbab
  • (3) Usoole Tibb
  • (4) Kitab Al Hawi
Correct Answer: (4) Kitab Al Hawi

View Solution

Question 81:

Keratinocytes comprise what percentage of epidermal cells?


(A) Keratinocytes comprise 95% of epidermal cells

(B) Keratinocytes comprise 90% of epidermal cells

(C) Keratinocytes comprise 80% to 99% of epidermal cells

(D) Keratinocytes comprise 50% to 60% of epidermal cells

(E) Keratinocytes comprise 55% of epidermal cells


Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A and C only
  • (2) B and C only
  • (3) A only
  • (4) E only
Correct Answer: (1) A and C only

View Solution

Question 82:

Chajan and Akoota are the other names for

  • (1) Namla (Herpes)
  • (2) Jamrah (Anthrax)
  • (3) Nar Farsi (Eczema)
  • (4) Shara (Urticaria)
Correct Answer: (1) Namla (Herpes)

View Solution

Question 83:

Match List I with List II:






Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
  • (2) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
  • (3) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  • (4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
Correct Answer: (3) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)

View Solution

Question 84:

Match List I with List II:






Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
  • (2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
  • (3) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
  • (4) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
Correct Answer: (1) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)

View Solution

Question 85:

An Aromatic liquid preparation kept in a wide mouthed bottle used for inhalation is known as:

  • (1) Shamoom
  • (2) Lakhlakha
  • (3) Mazmaza
  • (4) Gharghara
Correct Answer: (2) Lakhlakha

View Solution

Question 86:

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).


Assertion (A): Taking food before Hamam produces obesity and developed lean and thin persons and dryness on empty stomach Hamam.

Reason (R): Persons with dry temperament should intake less quantity of water during Hamam.


In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
  • (3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
  • (4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Correct Answer: (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)

View Solution

Question 87:

Given below are two statements:


Statement I : Injecting liquid drug or food into the rectum is called as Huqna.

Statement II : Huqna-e-Ghizayi is given in case of diseases of throat or when the food cannot be given orally.


In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Correct Answer: (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

View Solution

Question 88:

Exercise/Riyazat strengthens which of the following:

  • (1) Arwah
  • (2) Akhlat
  • (3) Arkan
  • (4) Az’aa
Correct Answer: (4) Az’aa

View Solution

Question 89:

What is Naqoo?

  • (1) Sheera
  • (2) Joshanda
  • (3) Khaisanda
  • (4) Zulal
Correct Answer: (4) Zulal

View Solution

Question 90:

Given below are two statements:


Statement I : Diuresis is advised for the treatment of purgation and vomiting.

Statement II : Diuretics are given in cardio pulmonary diseases.


In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Correct Answer: (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

View Solution

Question 91:

In case of varicose, venesection of which vein is indicated?

  • (1) Cephalic vein
  • (2) Basalic vein
  • (3) Sciatic vein
  • (4) Popliteal vein
Correct Answer: (4) Popliteal vein

View Solution

Question 92:

Which is not increased during pregnancy?

  • (1) Vital Capacity
  • (2) Blood-volume
  • (3) Extra cellular fluid
  • (4) Weight
Correct Answer: (1) Vital Capacity

View Solution

Question 93:

Most commonest cause of post partum Haemorrhage

  • (1) Atonic Uterus
  • (2) Traumatic
  • (3) Mixed causes
  • (4) Retained placenta
Correct Answer: (1) Atonic Uterus

View Solution

Question 94:

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).


Assertion (A) : Maternal BP decreased during pregnancy.

Reason (R) : Due to smooth muscle relaxing effect of progesterone.


In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
  • (3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
  • (4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Correct Answer: (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

View Solution

Question 95:

Given below are two statements:


Statement I : Obstetric conjugate is distance between midpoint of sacral promontory to inner surface of symphysis pubis.

Statement II : Diagonal conjugate is distance between lower border of symphysis pubis to midpoint on sacral promontory.


In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Correct Answer: (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

View Solution

Question 96:

Order of weight gain during pregnancy.


(A) Uterus

(B) Placenta

(C) Liquor Amnii

(D) Fetus

(E) Breasts


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) E > B > C > A > D
  • (2) D > A > C > B > E
  • (3) B > C > D > A > E
  • (4) A > C > D > B > E
Correct Answer: (2) D > A > C > B > E

View Solution

Question 97:

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).


Assertion (A) : When Biparietal diameter of fetus stretches the Vulval outlet.

Reason (R) : This is called as crowning of the head.


In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
  • (3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
  • (4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Correct Answer: (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

View Solution

Question 98:

Diagnostic indications of laparoscopic infertility:


(A) Fulguration of endometriotic implants

(B) Abnormal HSG

(C) Age > 35 yrs

(D) Women with comorbid pelvic pathology


Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A, D only
  • (2) B, C, D only
  • (3) A, B, C only
  • (4) A, B, D only
Correct Answer: (4) A, B, D only

View Solution

Question 99:

Match List I with List II:






Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
  • (2) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  • (3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
  • (4) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
Correct Answer: (3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

View Solution

Question 100:

Which of the entities are included in the category of PID?


(A) Endometritis

(B) Salpingitis

(C) Pelvic peritonitis

(D) Cervicitis


Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) B, D only
  • (2) D, A only
  • (3) B, C, D only
  • (4) A, B, C only
Correct Answer: (4) A, B, C only

View Solution

Question 101:

Match List I with List II:






Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
  • (2) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
  • (3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
  • (4) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
Correct Answer: (3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

View Solution

Question 102:

First molar tooth appears around the age:

  • (1) 9 month to 12 month
  • (2) 15 month and 18 month
  • (3) 12 month and 15 month
  • (4) 6 month to 9 month
Correct Answer: (3) 12 month and 15 month

View Solution

Question 103:

Gower’s sign is found in:

  • (1) Poliomyelitis
  • (2) Muscular Dystrophy
  • (3) Epilepsy
  • (4) Myasthenia Gravis
Correct Answer: (2) Muscular Dystrophy

View Solution

Question 104:

Duckett Jones major criteria for Rheumatic fever:


(A) Carelitis

(B) Meningitis

(C) Chorea

(D) Erythema marginatum


Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) B, C, D only
  • (2) A, C only
  • (3) A, C, D only
  • (4) A, B, C only
Correct Answer: (3) A, C, D only

View Solution

Question 105:

Match List I with List II:






Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  • (2) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  • (3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
  • (4) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
Correct Answer: (1) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)

View Solution

Question 106:

The Littre’s Hernia is protrusion of viscus through an abnormal opening.

  • (1) A portion of circumference of the Intestine
  • (2) A Meckel’s diverticulum
  • (3) Part of urinary bladder
  • (4) Part of stomach
Correct Answer: (2) A Meckel’s diverticulum

View Solution

Question 107:

Given below are two statements:


Statement I : Severe ulcerative colitis is characterised by more than four motions a day together with one or more signs of systemic illness.

Statement II : Acute Pancreatitis is defined as an acute condition presenting with abdominal pain and usually associated with raised pancreatic enzyme levels in the blood or urine as a result of pancreatic inflammation.


In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Correct Answer: (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

View Solution

Question 108:

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).


Assertion (A) : Full thickness prolapse of rectum includes protrusion of all the layers of rectal wall, and is usually associated with a weak pelvic floor.

Reason (R) : The Rectal prolapse is thought to commence as an intussusception of the rectum, which descends to protrude outside the anus.


In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
  • (3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
  • (4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Correct Answer: (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

View Solution

Question 109:

Given below are two statements:


Statement I : During the airway assessment of a Trauma Patient, we should check verbal response, clear mouth and airway with large bore sucker, if GCS ≤ 8, consider definitive airway, otherwise use jaw thrust or chin lift.

Statement II : There is no need of oxygen administration to all trauma patients.


In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Correct Answer: (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

View Solution

Question 110:

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).


Assertion (A) : Pancreatitis is inflammation of the parenchyma of the pancreas.

Reason (R) : The underlying mechanism of injury in pancreatitis is thought to be premature activation of pancreatic enzymes within the pancreas, leading to process of autodigestion.


In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
  • (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
  • (4) (A) is false but (R) is true
Correct Answer: (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

View Solution

Question 111:

Shock is a systemic state of:

  • (1) Low tissue perfusion
  • (2) High tissue perfusion
  • (3) Normal tissue perfusion
  • (4) Very high tissue perfusion
Correct Answer: (1) Low tissue perfusion

View Solution

Question 112:

Stress gastritis is characterised by:

  • (1) Reduction in the blood supply to superficial mucosa of stomach
  • (2) Disturbance of gastric mucosal barrier
  • (3) Enterogastric reflux
  • (4) Autoimmune condition
Correct Answer: (1) Reduction in the blood supply to superficial mucosa of stomach

View Solution

Question 113:

The life-threatening event with major burn is:

  • (1) Inflammatory changes of skin
  • (2) Burn around the face and neck
  • (3) Burn of Genitals
  • (4) Cell mediated immunity is significantly reduced
Correct Answer: (2) Burn around the face and neck

View Solution

Question 114:

The General anaesthetic triad includes:

  • (1) Unconsciousness and pain relief
  • (2) Unconsciousness, pain relief and muscle relaxation
  • (3) Unconsciousness, pain relief and Haemostasis
  • (4) Unconsciousness, Pain relief and wound care
Correct Answer: (2) Unconsciousness, pain relief and muscle relaxation

View Solution

Question 115:

What is chalazion?


(A) Inflammation of gland of Zies

(B) Inflammation of gland of Moll

(C) Inflammation of gland of Meibomian

(D) Inflammation of lid margin


Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A and C only
  • (2) B and C only
  • (3) C only
  • (4) D and C only
Correct Answer: (3) C only

View Solution

Question 116:

Match List I with List II:






Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
  • (2) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
  • (3) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  • (4) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
Correct Answer: (2) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

View Solution

Question 117:

What is epiphora?


(A) Excessive secretion of tears.

(B) Obstruction to outflow of tears.

(C) Steven’s–Johnson’s syndrome

(D) Sensory stimulation of eyes


Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) only
  • (2) (B) only
  • (3) (C) only
  • (4) (D) only
Correct Answer: (2) (B) only

View Solution

Question 118:

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).


Assertion (A) : There is severe pain in otitis.

Reason (R) : Because skin is adhered to underlying cartilage and due to congestion caused by recumbent position.


In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
  • (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
  • (4) (A) is false but (R) is true
Correct Answer: (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

View Solution

Question 119:

Which of the following is not a symptom of corneal ulcer?


(A) Acute pain in eye

(B) Muco purulent discharge

(C) Redness of eye

(D) Lacrimation

(E) Blepharospasm


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) B and D only
  • (2) D and E only
  • (3) B only
  • (4) A only
Correct Answer: (3) B only

View Solution

Question 120:

What term is used to describe perverted sense of smell?

  • (1) Anosmia
  • (2) Hyposmia
  • (3) Parosmia
  • (4) Cacosmia
Correct Answer: (3) Parosmia

View Solution


AIAPGET Questions

  • 1.
    Out of the following which is the fibrous septa that supports the breast? Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

      • Cardinal ligament
      • Cooper's ligament
      • Mackendrodt's ligament
      • Broad ligament

    • 2.
      Which one of the following is the smallest salivary gland?

        • Prostate gland
        • Parotid gland
        • Submandibular gland
        • Sublingual gland

      • 3.
        Which one of the following is not a method of Moist Heat sterilization?

          • Boiling
          • Autoclave
          • Hot Air Oven
          • Pasteurization

        • 4.
          Which one of the following causes the pleomorphism and involution forms?

            • Defective protein synthesis
            • Defective DNA synthesis
            • Improper cell division
            • Defective cell wall synthesis

          • 5.
            Which one of the following artery is the smallest and thinnest branch of the external carotid artery?

              • Superior thyroid artery
              • Lingual artery
              • Facial artery
              • Ascending pharyngeal artery

            • 6.
              Which is indicated by the passage of milky white urine?

                • Tuberculosis
                • Fever
                • Poisoning
                • Dryness of the body

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