Karnataka PGCET 2025 MBA Question Paper (Available): Download Question Paper with Solutions

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Shivam Yadav

Educational Content Expert | Updated on - Jun 24, 2025

The Karnataka PGCET MBA 2025 was conducted on June 22, 2025, from 2:30 PM to 4:30 PM. The Karnataka PGCET MBA 2025 Question Paper with solutions is available for download here.

The Karnataka PGCET MBA Question Paper consists of multiple-choice questions across key areas such as Verbal Ability, Quantitative Analysis, Logical Reasoning, and General Awareness. 

Karnataka PGCET MBA Question Paper 2025 with Answer Key PDF

Karnataka PGCET MBA Question Paper 2025 with Answer Key
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Karnataka PGCET Question Paper

Question 1:

Based on the passage given below answer the questions 1 – 3.

There are six persons A, B, C, D, E and F in a school. Each of the teachers teaches two subjects, one compulsory subject and the other optional subject. D's optional subject was History while three others have it as compulsory subject. E and F have Physics as one of their subjects, F's compulsory subject is Mathematics which is an optional subject of both C and E. History and English are A's subjects, but in terms of compulsory and optional subjects, they are just reverse of those of D's. Chemistry is an optional subject of only one of them. The only female teacher in the school has English as her compulsory subject.

What is C's compulsory subject?

  • (1) History
  • (2) Physics
  • (3) Chemistry
  • (4) English
Correct Answer: (1) History

View Solution

Question 2:

Disregarding which is the compulsory and which is the optional subject, who has the same subject combination as F?

  • (1) A
  • (2) B
  • (3) E
  • (4) D
Correct Answer: (3) E

View Solution

Question 3:

Which of the following groups has History as the compulsory subject?

  • (1) A, C, D
  • (2) B, C, D
  • (3) C, D
  • (4) A, B, C
Correct Answer: (4) A, B, C

View Solution

Question 4:

B is twice as old as A, but twice younger than F. C is half the age of A, but twice the age of D. Which two persons form the pair of the oldest and the youngest?

  • (1) F and A
  • (2) F and D
  • (3) B and F
  • (4) F and C
Correct Answer: (2) F and D

View Solution

Question 5:

Noise: Din:: Quiet:?

  • (1) Hush
  • (2) Dumb
  • (3) Gas
  • (4) Mouth
Correct Answer: (1) Hush

View Solution

Question 6:

Two faces of a cube are given below, which number is opposite of 3?


  • (1) 1
  • (2) 5
  • (3) 4
  • (4) 2
Correct Answer: (1) 1

View Solution

Question 7:

What is 'X' in the following table?


  • (1) 16
  • (2) 17
  • (3) 18
  • (4) 21
Correct Answer: (3) 18

View Solution

Question 8:

Find the letter to be placed in '?'


  • (1) M
  • (2) N
  • (3) O
  • (4) P
Correct Answer: (1) M

View Solution

Question 9:

Which term of the series 5, 10, 20, 40, ..... is 1280?

  • (1) 10th
  • (2) 8th
  • (3) 9th
  • (4) None of the above
Correct Answer: (3) 9th

View Solution

Question 10:

Fill in the blanks (in sequence): c - bbb - abbbb - abbb -

  • (1) aabcb
  • (2) abacb
  • (3) abcbb
  • (4) bacbb
Correct Answer: (2) abacb

View Solution

Question 11:

How many pairs of letters are there in the word 'LANGUISH' which have the same letters between them in the word as in the alphabet?

  • (1) Nil
  • (2) One
  • (3) Two
  • (4) Three
Correct Answer: (4) Three

View Solution

Question 12:

If the last four letters of the word 'CONCENTRATION' are written in reverse order followed by next two in the reverse order and next three in the reverse order, counting from the end, which letter would be eighth in the new arrangement?

  • (1) N
  • (2) T
  • (3) E
  • (4) R
Correct Answer: (2) T

View Solution

Question 13:

Which would be the proper order of the following in ascending order?

  • (1) Trillion
  • (2) Thousand
  • (3) Billion
  • (4) Hundred
  • (5) Million
Correct Answer: (4) d, b, c, e, a

View Solution

Question 14:

Given that:

(i) A is the mother of B

(ii) C is the son of A

(iii) D is the brother of E

(iv) E is the daughter of B


The grandmother of 'D' is:

  • (1) A
  • (2) B
  • (3) C
  • (4) D
Correct Answer: (1) A
View Solution

Question 15:

If \( A + B \) means A is the sister of B;

A - B means A is the brother of B;

A \( \times \) B means A is the daughter of B;

Then which of the following shows the relation that 'E' is the maternal uncle of 'F'?

  • (1) \( D + F \times E \)
  • (2) \( D - F \times E \)
  • (3) \( D \times F + E \)
  • (4) \( D \times F - E \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( D - F \times E \)

View Solution

Question 16:

Directions: For the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) given below, choose the correct alternative:


Assertion (A): Nuclear fusion is used to generate electricity.

Reason (R): Nuclear power is not used because it cannot be controlled.

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  • (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
  • (4) Both (A) and (R) are false
Correct Answer: (4) Both (A) and (R) are false
View Solution

Question 17:

Five friends P, Q, R, S and T travelled to five different cities of Chennai, Kolkata, Delhi, Bengaluru and Hyderabad by five different modes of transport of Bus, Train, Aeroplane, Car and Boat from Mumbai. The person who travelled to Delhi did not travel by boat, R went to Bengaluru by Car and Q went to Kolkata by aeroplane. S travelled by boat whereas T travelled by train. Mumbai is not connected by bus to Delhi and Chennai.

Which of the following combinations of person and mode is not correct?

  • (1) P – Bus
  • (2) Q – Aeroplane
  • (3) S – Boat
  • (4) T – Aeroplane
Correct Answer: (4) T – Aeroplane
View Solution

Question 18:

A, B, C, D, E and F are cousins. No two cousins are of the same age, but all have birthdays on the same date. The youngest is 17 years old and the oldest, E, is 22 years old. F is somewhere between B and D in age. A is older than B; C is older than D.

Which of the following is not possible?

  • (1) D is 20 years old
  • (2) F is 18 years old
  • (3) F is 19 years old
  • (4) F is 20 years old
Correct Answer: (3) F is 19 years old
View Solution

Question 19:

Kashish goes 30 metres North, then turns right and walks 40 metres, then again turns right and walks 20 metres, then again turns right and walks 40 metres. How many metres is she from her original position?

  • (1) 10
  • (2) 20
  • (3) 30
  • (4) 40
Correct Answer: (1) 10
View Solution

Question 20:

What is the angle between the hour and the minute hand when the time is 3:25?

  • (1) 40.5\(^\circ\)
  • (2) 47.5\(^\circ\)
  • (3) 35.5\(^\circ\)
  • (4) 38.5\(^\circ\)
Correct Answer: (2) 47.5\(^\circ\)
View Solution

Question 21:

Find the missing term in the following series:
1, 3, 4, 9, ___, 27, 10

  • (1) 7
  • (2) 12
  • (3) 11
  • (4) 13
Correct Answer: (1) 7
View Solution

Question 22:

Which of the following will replace the question mark (?) in the series AZ, GT, MN, ?, YB

  • (1) KF
  • (2) RX
  • (3) SH
  • (4) TS
Correct Answer: (3) SH

View Solution

Question 23:

Find the wrong term in the letter-number series: Q1F, S2E, U6D, W12C, Y88B

  • (1) S2E
  • (2) U6D
  • (3) W12C
  • (4) Y88B
Correct Answer: (4) Y88B

View Solution

Question 24:

'A' ranks 12th in a rank list of 46 students. What will be the rank of 'A' from the last?

  • (1) 33
  • (2) 34
  • (3) 35
  • (4) 37
Correct Answer: (3) 35

View Solution

Question 25:

If it was a Friday on 15th September 2023, then what will be the day on 20th September 2024?

  • (1) Friday
  • (2) Saturday
  • (3) Sunday
  • (4) Monday
Correct Answer: (1) Friday

View Solution

Question 26:

If out of a total 120 students in a school, 5% can play all 3 sports – cricket, hockey and kho-kho, also the number of students who can play any 2 and only 2 of the above sports is 30 and the students who can play only cricket is 40, then what is the total number of students who can play only hockey or kho-kho alone?

  • (1) 30
  • (2) 38
  • (3) 44
  • (4) 45
Correct Answer: (3) 44

View Solution

Question 27:

Find the missing number from the given options:


  • (1) 35
  • (2) 36
  • (3) 37
  • (4) 38
Correct Answer: (3) 37

View Solution

Question 28:

A family consists of members A, B, C, D, E and F. B is the son of C but C is not the mother of B. A and C are a married couple. E is the brother of C. D is the daughter of A. F is the brother of A. How many female members are there in the family?

  • (1) One
  • (2) Two
  • (3) Three
  • (4) Four
Correct Answer: (2) Two

View Solution

Question 29:

Two candles are of different lengths and thickness. The short and long ones can burn respectively for 3.5 hours and 5 hours. After burning for 2 hours, the lengths of candles are equal. What fraction of the long candle's height was the short candle initially?

  • (1) 2/7
  • (2) 5/7
  • (3) 3/5
  • (4) 4/5
Correct Answer: (2) 5/7

View Solution

Question 30:

A mother was asked how many gifts she had in the bag. She replied that there were dolls but six, cars but six, and all books but six. How many gifts had she in all?

  • (1) 9
  • (2) 18
  • (3) 27
  • (4) 36
Correct Answer: (3) 27

View Solution

Question 31:

In a school, 120 boys have registered for a singles carrom tournament. Each match eliminates one player. How many matches are to be organized to determine the champion?

  • (1) 60
  • (2) 61
  • (3) 119
  • (4) 120
Correct Answer: (3) 119

View Solution

Question 32:

Reena, Rita and Zoha are three friends. Reena is the eldest followed by Rita and Zoha. Reena is 2 years older than Rita and 5 years older than Zoha. The sum of the present age of Reena and Zoha is 3 times the age of Rita 5 years ago. What is the current age of Rita?

  • (1) 12 years
  • (2) 14 years
  • (3) 16 years
  • (4) 18 years
Correct Answer: (2) 14 years

View Solution

Question 33:

A person needs to find the fastest two horses from 16 horses. Only a race of 4 horses can be conducted at a time. What is the minimum number of races to be conducted to determine the fastest two? (Assume that horses will not get tired at all and time cannot be measured)

  • (1) 6
  • (2) 7
  • (3) 8
  • (4) 16
Correct Answer: (2) 7

View Solution

Question 34:

In this multiplication question, the five letters represent five different digits. What are the actual figures? There is no zero. \[ S E A M \times T = M E A T S \]

  • (1) \(M = 3, E = 9, A = 7, T = 4, S = 8\)
  • (2) \(M = 4, E = 3, A = 9, T = 7, S = 8\)
  • (3) \(M = 4, E = 3, A = 9, T = 7, S = 8\)
  • (4) \(M = 3, E = 9, A = 7, T = 4, S = 8\)
Correct Answer: (2) \(M = 3, E = 9, A = 7, T = 4, S = 8\)

View Solution

Question 35:

A family has husband, wife, and three children A, B, and C. The present age of the husband is 5 years more than the wife's present age. Wife’s present age is twice the present age of A. The present age of A is 12 years more than the present age of B. B's present age is 2 times the present age of C. If C is 12 years old at present, what is the present age of the husband's friend Ram who is 15 years younger than the husband?

  • (1) 30 years
  • (2) 50 years
  • (3) 62 years
  • (4) 80 years
Correct Answer: (3) 62 years

View Solution

Question 36:

A sprinter goes off the starting block for a 100-meter run and at that instant the second-hand of a stopwatch had pointed towards north. He touches the finishing line exactly after 12 seconds. In which direction did the second hand point when he just crossed the finishing line?

  • (1) 18° North of East
  • (2) 18° East of North
  • (3) 72° North of East
  • (4) 82° East of North
Correct Answer: (2) 18° East of North

View Solution

Question 37:

Which interchange in sign and number would make the equation correct? \[ (96 + 128) + 64 = 2 \]

  • (1) + and ÷, 64 and 96
  • (2) + and ÷, 64 and 128
  • (3) + and ÷, 96 and 128
  • (4) + and ÷, 96 and 128
Correct Answer: (2) + and ÷, 64 and 128

View Solution

Question 38:

When a coin is tossed 4 times, what is the probability of getting at most 3 heads?

  • (1) 0.25
  • (2) 0.9375
  • (3) 0.6875
  • (4) 0.1
Correct Answer: (2) 0.9375

View Solution

Question 39:

In a consignment of electric lamps, 5% are defective. If a random sample of 8 lamps are inspected, what is the probability that one or more lamps are defective?

  • (1) 0.6633
  • (2) 0.3366
  • (3) 0.3333
  • (4) 0.6666
Correct Answer: (1) 0.6633

View Solution

Question 40:

If the mean and standard deviation of the number of correctly answered questions in a test given to 4096 students are 2.5 and \(\sqrt{1.875}\) respectively, what is the estimate of the number of candidates answering 5 questions correctly?

  • (1) 232
  • (2) 234
  • (3) 237
  • (4) 239
Correct Answer: (4) 239

View Solution

Question 41:

Choose the word which is CLOSEST in meaning to the word given in the question.
AFFLUENT

  • (1) Prosperous
  • (2) Quick
  • (3) Prominent
  • (4) Handy
Correct Answer: (1) Prosperous

View Solution

Question 42:

Choose the word which is OPPOSITE in meaning to the word given below.
FRAUD

  • (1) Impostor
  • (2) Swindle
  • (3) Forthright
  • (4) Miscreant
Correct Answer: (3) Forthright

View Solution

Question 43:

Directions: Select the appropriate form of word/phrase from the alternatives given below and fill in the blank in the sentence.
Although tired, he refused to ____

  • (1) give in
  • (2) gave in
  • (3) giving in
  • (4) given in
Correct Answer: (1) give in

View Solution

Question 44:

Directions: There are five sentences marked as I, II, III, IV, and V. The position of I is fixed as the first sentence of the passage. Choose one of the four alternatives given below as the most logical sequence of the sentences in the passage.
I. Among the chief sources of education available to Tagore was a quiet garden adjoining his family house.

II. It was in this garden too, that he came to understand that the principle of harmony was at work throughout the universe.

III. Here he used to spend much of his time, absorbing the peace and beauty of nature.

IV. At the same time, he formed the habit of observing and reflecting on things.

V. It was through this early contact with nature that he acquired that quality of mood which distinguished him all his life.

  • (1) II - III - V - IV
  • (2) II - V - III - IV
  • (3) V - IV - II - III
  • (4) III - II - V - IV
Correct Answer: (2) II - V - III - IV

View Solution

Question 45:

Who is the author of 'Paradise Lost'?

  • (1) William Shakespeare
  • (2) William Wordsworth
  • (3) John Milton
  • (4) John Keats
Correct Answer: (3) John Milton

View Solution

Question 46:

One who does a thing for pleasure and not as a profession is called

  • (1) Apostate
  • (2) Arbitrator
  • (3) Amateur
  • (4) Agnostic
Correct Answer: (3) Amateur

View Solution

Question 47:

Select the option that best expresses the meaning of the given phrase: TURN UP.

  • (1) to turn something on
  • (2) to appear unexpectedly
  • (3) to wait for somebody
  • (4) to lift up something
Correct Answer: (2) to appear unexpectedly

View Solution

Question 48:

Choose the passive form of the following sentence from the options given below.

"We have completed our task before sunset"

  • (1) Our task has been completed before sunset.
  • (2) We had completed our task before sunset.
  • (3) Our task had been completed before sunset.
  • (4) Our task was completed before sunset.
Correct Answer: (3) Our task had been completed before sunset.

View Solution

Question 49:

Choose the sentence which is grammatically correct from the options given below.

  • (1) He is capable to support himself.
  • (2) He is capable for supporting himself.
  • (3) He is capable of supporting himself.
  • (4) He was capable to support himself.
Correct Answer: (3) He is capable of supporting himself.

View Solution

Question 50:

She doesn't like cricket, ______ does she enjoy hockey.

  • (1) not
  • (2) nor
  • (3) and
  • (4) or
Correct Answer: (2) nor

View Solution

Question 51:

Read the sentence given below and choose the word with the correct spelling from the options given.

"The church has a \underline{\hspace{2cm to helping the poor."

  • (1) commitment
  • (2) commitment
  • (3) committment
  • (4) committment
Correct Answer: (2) commitment

View Solution

Question 52:

Fill in the blank:

Grandmother walked \underline{\hspace{2cm towards the bed after watching the T.V.

  • (1) fairly
  • (2) slowly
  • (3) down
  • (4) mostly
Correct Answer: (2) slowly

View Solution

Question 53:

The giant panda is a bear that lives in Central China. It is special because of its black and white fur. Pandas belong to the most \-\-\-\ species of our world.

  • (1) dangerous
  • (2) danger
  • (3) variety
  • (4) endangered
Correct Answer: (4) endangered

View Solution

Question 54:

About 2000 pandas live in the wilderness and 300 live in -\-\-\-\ zoos around the world.

  • (1) variety
  • (2) various
  • (3) similar
  • (4) fewer
Correct Answer: (2) various

View Solution

Question 55:

Recently, there have been __\ in many countries to save the giant panda.

  • (1) battles
  • (2) elections
  • (3) campaigns
  • (4) operations
Correct Answer: (3) campaigns

View Solution

Question 56:

The animal has been driven away from its natural habitat because of deforestation, intensive farming, and the creation of new --.

  • (1) settling
  • (2) settlers
  • (3) settle
  • (4) settlements
Correct Answer: (4) settlements

View Solution

Question 57:

Who wrote the book 'Arms and the Man'?

  • (1) William Wordsworth
  • (2) William Shakespeare
  • (3) G.B. Shaw
  • (4) John Galsworthy
Correct Answer: (3) G.B. Shaw

View Solution

Question 58:

Who is the author of the poem 'Daffodils'?

  • (1) William Shakespeare
  • (2) John Keats
  • (3) T.S. Eliot
  • (4) William Wordsworth
Correct Answer: (4) William Wordsworth

View Solution

Question 59:

Directions: The following sentence has a blank space and four words given after the sentence. Select the most appropriate word to fill the blank space.
The teacher had asked his students \underline{\hspace{1cm their assignments before the deadline.

  • (1) complete
  • (2) to complete
  • (3) completing
  • (4) completed
Correct Answer: (2) to complete

View Solution

Question 60:

Choose the passive form of the sentence "They drew a circle in the morning" from the options given below.
They drew a circle in the morning.

  • (1) A circle was drawn by them in the morning.
  • (2) A circle was being drawn by them in the morning.
  • (3) They were drawn a circle in the morning.
  • (4) A circle is being drawn by them in the morning.
Correct Answer: (1) A circle was drawn by them in the morning.

View Solution

Question 61:

The group of instructions that perform a specific task is called -.

  • (1) Memory
  • (2) Control
  • (3) Program
  • (4) Logic
Correct Answer: (3) Program

View Solution

Question 62:

The Analytical Engine was developed by-.

  • (1) Von Reibnitz
  • (2) Charles Babbage
  • (3) Herman Hollerith
  • (4) Blaise Pascal
Correct Answer: (2) Charles Babbage

View Solution

Question 63:

Which of the following sequence is correct?

  • (1) Source code - linker - object code - compiler - executable code
  • (2) Object code - linker - source code - compiler - executable code
  • (3) Source code - compiler - object code - linker - executable code
  • (4) Object code - compiler - source code - linker - executable code
Correct Answer: (3) Source code - compiler - object code - linker - executable code

View Solution

Question 64:

The access time refers to-.

  • (1) Time required to locate and retrieve the data
  • (2) Time required to locate the lost data
  • (3) Time required to delete the specific data
  • (4) Time required to locate the data
Correct Answer: (1) Time required to locate and retrieve the data

View Solution

Question 65:

Consider the following two lists:
List 1
(i) WWW

(ii) URL

(iii) IP address

(iv) ISP

List 2

(a) Website address

(b) 192.168.101.3

(c) Internet Service Provider

(d) World Wide Web


Which of the following match is correct?

  • (1) i-d, ii-e, iii-b, iv-a
  • (2) i-d, ii-a, iii-b, iv-c
  • (3) i-c, ii-e, iii-b, iv-c
  • (4) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a
Correct Answer: (3) i-c, ii-e, iii-b, iv-c

View Solution

Question 66:

Which of the following is not a number system?

  • (1) Positional
  • (2) Octal
  • (3) Binary
  • (4) Fractional
Correct Answer: (4) Fractional

View Solution

Question 67:

The number of distinct symbols used in a number system is called -.

  • (1) Complement
  • (2) Base
  • (3) Encode
  • (4) Decode
Correct Answer: (2) Base

View Solution

Question 68:

The type of memory that can be erased by simply exposed to ultraviolet light for a certain amount of time is called -.

  • (1) PROM
  • (2) EPROM
  • (3) Flash Memory
  • (4) ROM
Correct Answer: (2) EPROM

View Solution

Question 69:

Which of the following techniques is best suited for bank cheques?

  • (1) OCR
  • (2) OMR
  • (3) BAR Code
  • (4) MICR
Correct Answer: (4) MICR

View Solution

Question 70:

The octal equivalent of hexadecimal number 4DF is------.

  • (1) 1736
  • (2) 3176
  • (3) 2337
  • (4) 1037
Correct Answer: (3) 2337

View Solution

Question 71:

One byte can be used to encode any integer between 0 and ------.

  • (1) 16
  • (2) 128
  • (3) 256
  • (4) 255
Correct Answer: (4) 255

View Solution

Question 72:

A group of four bits is called --------.

  • (1) Byte
  • (2) Nibble
  • (3) KB
  • (4) MB
Correct Answer: (2) Nibble

View Solution

Question 73:

Two's complement of 110010 is -------.

  • (1) 001101
  • (2) 001111
  • (3) 000111
  • (4) 001110
Correct Answer: (2) 001111

View Solution

Question 74:

Addition of 100111 and 110111 is--------.

  • (1) 1000010
  • (2) 1000110
  • (3) 110011
  • (4) 1000111
Correct Answer: (1) 1000010

View Solution

Question 75:

\(18_{10} - 4_{10} = \) -------

  • (1) 1110
  • (2) 1010
  • (3) 1011
  • (4) 1000
Correct Answer: (2) 1010

View Solution

Question 76:

Division of 100011 by 101 is --------.

  • (1) 110
  • (2) 011
  • (3) 111
  • (4) 101
Correct Answer: (1) 110

View Solution

Question 77:

The graphical symbol on the desktop to represent an application is called -----.

  • (1) Wallpaper
  • (2) Icon
  • (3) Desktop image
  • (4) Screen saver
Correct Answer: (2) Icon

View Solution

Question 78:

The Operating System that allows only one program to run at a time is ------Operating System.

  • (1) Embedded
  • (2) Real-Time
  • (3) Batch Processing
  • (4) Multi-tasking
Correct Answer: (3) Batch Processing

View Solution

Question 79:

The primary goal of time-sharing Operating System is--------.

  • (1) to maximize the user response time
  • (2) to minimize the CPU usage
  • (3) to maximize the memory usage
  • (4) to minimize the throughput
Correct Answer: (1) to maximize the user response time

View Solution

Question 80:

The Operating System that is self-contained in a device and resident in ROM is called as ---------.

  • (1) Batch Processing System
  • (2) Real-time Operating System
  • (3) Embedded Operating System
  • (4) Multiprocessing Operating System
Correct Answer: (3) Embedded Operating System

View Solution

Question 81:

‘World Beneath His Feet’ is a biography of

  • (1) Sachin Tendulkar
  • (2) Ajit Wadekar
  • (3) Nawab Pataudi
  • (4) Leander Paes
Correct Answer: (2) Ajit Wadekar

View Solution

Question 82:

Under the leadership of which Prime Minister did India conduct its first Nuclear Test in Pokhran, Rajasthan with the code name ‘Smiling Buddha’?

  • (1) Jawaharlal Nehru
  • (2) L. K. Gujral
  • (3) Indira Gandhi
  • (4) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
Correct Answer: (3) Indira Gandhi

View Solution

Question 83:

Match the following:

List - I (Books) & \hspace{0.5cm List - II (Author)

(a) Crystallising Public Opinion & (i) Sandra Oliver

(b) The Power of Corporate Communication & (ii) Edward L. Bernays

(c) Effective Public Relations & (iii) Scott M. Cutlip

(d) Public Relation Strategies & (iv) Paul A. Argentina

  • (1) a - i, b - iii, c - ii, d - iv
  • (2) a - iii, b - ii, c - i, d - iv
  • (3) a - ii, b - iv, c - iii, d - i
  • (4) a - i, b - iv, c - ii, d - iii
Correct Answer: (1) a - i, b - iii, c - ii, d - iv

View Solution

Question 84:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Classical smog is formed when oxides of nitrogen combine with particulate matter, especially in summer season.

Statement II: Classical smog reduces atmospheric visibility to a great extent.

In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (3) Statement I is true and Statement II is false
  • (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Correct Answer: (3) Statement I is true and Statement II is false

View Solution

Question 85:

Consider the following pairs:

Place of pilgrimage & Location

(a) Srisailam & Nallamalla Hills

(b) Omkareshwar & Satmala Hills

(c) Pushkar & Chamundi Hills

Which of the above pair/pairs is/are correctly matched?

  • (1) a only
  • (2) b and c only
  • (3) a and c only
  • (4) a, b and c
Correct Answer: (3) a and c only

View Solution

Question 86:

In the context of intercultural communication, what is 'ethnocentrism'?

  • (1) The tendency to understand and respect all cultures
  • (2) The belief in the superiority of one's own culture
  • (3) The ability to communicate effectively across culture
  • (4) The practice of adopting multiple cultural norms
Correct Answer: (2) The belief in the superiority of one's own culture

View Solution

Question 87:

Headquarters of 'World Anti Doping Agency' is located at

  • (1) Montreal, Canada
  • (2) Cape Town, South Africa
  • (3) Montevideo, Uruguay
  • (4) Tokyo, Japan
Correct Answer: (1) Montreal, Canada

View Solution

Question 88:

The Kyoto Protocol introduced three flexible mechanisms to help countries achieve their emission targets. Which of the following is not one of them?

  • (1) Joint Implementation
  • (2) Carbon Capture and Storage
  • (3) Clean Development Mechanism
  • (4) Emissions Trading
Correct Answer: (2) Carbon Capture and Storage

View Solution

Question 89:

Jamnalal Bajaj Award honours individuals for their exceptional contributions primarily in which area?

  • (1) Rural Housing
  • (2) Rural Electrification
  • (3) Urban Housing
  • (4) Urban Transport
Correct Answer: (2) Rural Electrification

View Solution

Question 90:

Read the following statements about the Tashkent Declaration, and identify the incorrect statement among the choices given below:

  • (1) It was signed between India and Pakistan on 10th January 1966 to resolve the issues of India-Pakistan war of 1965.
  • (2) The signatories of this agreement were Prime Minister Indira Gandhi of India and President Ayub Khan of Pakistan.
  • (3) The meeting was held in Tashkent in the former U.S.S.R.
  • (4) The meeting was held under the terms of the Indo-Soviet Treaty of Peace, Friendship, and Cooperation.
Correct Answer: (3) a. and c. only

View Solution

Question 91:

Consider the following statements:

A. It is the world's largest domestic rooftop solar initiative with a bold vision to supply solar power to one crore households by March 2027.

B. It aims to provide free electricity to households.

C. Households will have access to collateral-free, interest-free loans with 0% interest for the installation of residential rooftop solar (RTS) systems up to 5 kW.

D. The transition to solar energy under this scheme will help lower carbon emissions, supporting India's commitment to reducing its carbon footprint.

How many of the above statements/statements are correct?

  • (1) All of them are correct
  • (2) Only 2 statements are correct
  • (3) Only 3 statements are correct
  • (4) Only 1 statement is correct
Correct Answer: (3) Only 3 statements are correct

View Solution

Question 92:

Consider the following statements related to Bharat 6G Alliance (B6GA):

A. To enable India to become a leading global supplier of IP, products and solutions of affordable 5G and 6G and other future telecom solutions.

B. To deploy 6G technologies to act as a powerful force multiplier for India by 2030.

C. To build coalitions with similar 6G Global Alliances and other global technology alliances and associations.

D. To address India's priorities for contribution to 6G and other future technology-related global standards, deployments, products, operations, and services.

How many of the above statements/statements are correct?

  • (1) All of them are correct
  • (2) Only 2 statements are correct
  • (3) Only 3 statements are correct
  • (4) Only 1 statement is correct
Correct Answer: (1) All of them are correct

View Solution

Question 93:

Consider the following statements of the 'Coercive Actions' Ordinance, 2025:

A. This was brought to protect and relieve the economically vulnerable groups and individuals from the coercive means of recovery by Micro Finance Institutions or Money Lending Agencies or Organizations.

B. The provisions of this Ordinance doesn't apply to banking or Non-Banking Finance Companies (NBFC) registered with RBI.

C. All Micro Finance Institutions or Money Lending Agencies shall apply for registration before the Registering Authority of the district within ninety days from the date of commencement of this Ordinance.

D. An Ombudsperson will be appointed by the Government who can act as mediator between the borrower or lender for settling the disputes.

How many of the above statement/statements is/are correct?

  • (1) Only 3 statements are correct
  • (2) Only 2 statements are correct
  • (3) Only 1 statement is correct
  • (4) All of them are correct
Correct Answer: (2) Only 2 statements are correct

View Solution

Question 94:

Which of the following states has the richest resources and biodiversity such as coral reef, sea grass and other marine flora and fauna?

  • (1) Tamil Nadu
  • (2) West Bengal
  • (3) Karnataka
  • (4) Gujarat
Correct Answer: (1) Tamil Nadu

View Solution

Question 95:

Consider the following statements related to National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM).


A. It is one of the initiatives under Atmanirbhar Bharat.

B. It was launched to build a resilient value chain for critical mineral resources that are vital to Green Technologies.

C. It will encompass all stages of the value chain, including mineral exploration, mining, beneficiation, processing, and recovery from end-of-life products.

D. It aims to encourage Indian PSUs and private sector companies to acquire critical minerals assets abroad and enhance trade with resource-rich countries. It also proposes developing a stockpile of critical minerals within the country.


How many of the above statement/statements are correct?

  • (1) All of them are correct
  • (2) Only 3 statements are correct
  • (3) Only 2 statements are correct
  • (4) Only 1 statement is correct
Correct Answer: (1) All of them are correct

View Solution

Question 96:

With reference to the international trade of India at present, which of the following statement/statements is/are correct?

  • (1) a and b only
  • (2) b and d only
  • (3) c and d only
  • (4) a, c and d only
Correct Answer: (4) a, c and d only

View Solution

Question 97:

In which Indian state is the "Flamingo festival" celebrated?

  • (1) Rajasthan
  • (2) Manipur
  • (3) Andhra Pradesh
  • (4) Assam
Correct Answer: (3) Andhra Pradesh

View Solution

Question 98:

Consider the following events in the history of India:

a. Rise of Pratiharas under the rule of King Bhoja.

b. Establishment of Pallava power under Mahendravarma-I.

c. Establishment of Chola power by Parantaka-I.

What is the correct chronological order of the above events starting from the earliest time?

  • (1) b - a - d - c
  • (2) c - a - d - b
  • (3) c - d - a - b
  • (4) c - d - a - b
Correct Answer: (3) c - d - a - b

View Solution

Question 99:

Assertion (A): The problem of organic pollution in rivers is usually worse in the hot summer months.

Reason (R): Higher water temperatures exacerbate oxygen depletion.

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  • (3) (A) is true but (R) is not correct
  • (4) (A) is false but (R) is correct
Correct Answer: (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

View Solution

Question 100:

Assertion (A): The Government cannot directly restrict one freedom by permitting another freedom.

Reason (R): Clause (1) of Article 19 of the Indian Constitution provides equal opportunity for every type of freedom.

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are true
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  • (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
  • (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Correct Answer: (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false

View Solution

Karnataka PGCET MBA 2025 Exam Pattern

The Karnataka PGCET MBA 2025 is conducted for admission into various MBA courses in the state of Karnataka.

The Karnataka PGCET MBA consists of 100 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) to be solved in 120 minutes.

Component Details
Mode of Exam Computer-Based Test (CBT)
Duration 120 Minutes
Total Questions 100 MCQs
Total Marks 100 Marks
Marking Scheme +1 for each correct answer, 0 for each incorrect answer
Section-wise Distribution
  • Verbal Ability – 40
  • Quantitative Analysis – 30
  • Logical Reasoning – 20
  • General Awareness – 10
Question Type Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
Language of Paper English

Karnataka PGCET Questions

  • 1.
    Headquarters of 'World Anti Doping Agency' is located at

      • Montreal, Canada
      • Cape Town, South Africa
      • Montevideo, Uruguay
      • Tokyo, Japan

    • 2.
      Read the following statements about the Tashkent Declaration, and identify the incorrect statement among the choices given below:

        • It was signed between India and Pakistan on 10th January 1966 to resolve the issues of India-Pakistan war of 1965.
        • The signatories of this agreement were Prime Minister Indira Gandhi of India and President Ayub Khan of Pakistan.
        • The meeting was held in Tashkent in the former U.S.S.R.
        • The meeting was held under the terms of the Indo-Soviet Treaty of Peace, Friendship, and Cooperation.

      • 3.
        Assertion (A): The Government cannot directly restrict one freedom by permitting another freedom.
        Reason (R): Clause (1) of Article 19 of the Indian Constitution provides equal opportunity for every type of freedom.

          • Both (A) and (R) are true
          • Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
          • (A) is true, but (R) is false
          • (A) is false, but (R) is true

        • 4.
          Consider the following statements:
          A. It is the world's largest domestic rooftop solar initiative with a bold vision to supply solar power to one crore households by March 2027.
          B. It aims to provide free electricity to households.
          C. Households will have access to collateral-free, interest-free loans with 0% interest for the installation of residential rooftop solar (RTS) systems up to 5 kW.
          D. The transition to solar energy under this scheme will help lower carbon emissions, supporting India's commitment to reducing its carbon footprint.
          How many of the above statements/statements are correct?

            • All of them are correct
            • Only 2 statements are correct
            • Only 3 statements are correct
            • Only 1 statement is correct

          • 5.
            Consider the following events in the history of India:
            a. Rise of Pratiharas under the rule of King Bhoja.
            b. Establishment of Pallava power under Mahendravarma-I.
            c. Establishment of Chola power by Parantaka-I.
            What is the correct chronological order of the above events starting from the earliest time?

              • b - a - d - c
              • c - a - d - b
              • c - d - a - b
              • c - d - a - b

            • 6.
              Which of the following states has the richest resources and biodiversity such as coral reef, sea grass and other marine flora and fauna?

                • Tamil Nadu
                • West Bengal
                • Karnataka
                • Gujarat

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