Karnataka PGCET 2024 MCA Question Paper (Available) Download Solution PDF with Answer Key

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Shivam Yadav

Educational Content Expert | Updated on - May 29, 2025

Karnataka PGCET 2024 MCA Question paper with answer key pdf is available here for download. Karnataka Examinations Authority (KEA) conducted the Karnataka PGCET 2024 for MCA on August 4 in Afternoon Shift 2.30 PM to 4.30 PM. The question paper comprises a total of 100 questions divided among 4 sections.

Karnataka PGCET 2024 MCA Question Paper with Answer Key

Karnataka PGCET 2024 MCA Question Paper​ with Answer Key Download PDF Check Solution
Karnataka PGCET 2024 MCA Question Paper

Question 1:

Choose the word which is CLOSEST in meaning to the word given in the question:

FABULOUS

  • (1) Auspicious
  • (2) Astonishing
  • (3) Credible
  • (4) Rigorous

Question 2:

Choose the word which is OPPOSITE in meaning to the word given in the question:

ISOLATE

  • (1) Assuage
  • (2) Insulate
  • (3) Mingle
  • (4) Transpose

Question 3:

Select the option which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/phrase.

Add fuel to the fire

  • (1) Make somebody angry
  • (2) Make something worse
  • (3) To start a fire somewhere
  • (4) To call for help

Question 4:

Directions: There are five sentences marked as I, II, III, IV and V. The position of I is fixed as the first sentence of the passage. Choose one of the four alternatives given below as the most logical sequence of the sentences in the passage.

I.For thousands of years, Indians have believed that man is different from his fellow animals because of his ability to make tools.
II.In modern India, people still place garlands on the machines of their different trades hoping for an auspicious response.
III.They have also developed a tradition of worshipping and honouring the tools and implements they use in agriculture and business.
IV.By honouring their implements they honour human ingenuity.
V.Weapon worship originated with warriors honouring their weapons, the tools of their trade.

  • (1) IV, V, II, III
  • (2) III, IV, V, II
  • (3) V, II, III, IV
  • (4) II, III, IV, V

Question 5:

There are four parts of the sentence marked A, B, C and D. Choose one of the four alternatives given below as the most logical sequence of the parts to form a correct sentence.

I enjoy going markets because / bargains and unusual items / to auctions and flea / I can find

  • (1) CADB
  • (2) ACDB
  • (3) CDAB
  • (4) ADBC

Question 6:

Select the best alternative for the underlined expression to make the sentence better in meaning.

If I were Ramesh, I would not accept this job.

  • (1) If I was Ramesh
  • (2) If I am Ramesh
  • (3) If I have Ramesh
  • (4) No improvement

Question 7:

Choose the correct word and fill in the blank.

_______ is a pond near the hill.

  • (1) Their
  • (2) They’re
  • (3) There
  • (4) Dare

Question 8:

Select the most appropriate form of the word and complete the sentence.

Health is too important to be __________.

  • (1) neglect
  • (2) neglecting
  • (3) neglected
  • (4) neglected

Question 9:

There are four parts to the sentence that have been underlined and marked A, B, C, and D. Choose the part that has an error.
He was quite amusing when he heard what had happened.

  • (1) A
  • (2) B
  • (3) C
  • (4) D

Question 10:

Choose the passive form of the following sentence from the options given:
"The boys were playing cricket."

  • (1) Cricket had been played by the boys.
  • (2) Cricket has been played by the boys.
  • (3) Cricket was played by the boys.
  • (4) Cricket was being played by the boys.

Question 11:

Choose the alternative which is the best substitute for the phrase.

One who is filled with excessive enthusiasm in religious matters

  • (1) Heretic
  • (2) Highbrow
  • (3) Fatalist
  • (4) Fanatic

Question 12:

According to the passage, which of the following have non-astronomers not been busy with?

  • (1) Sinister war tactics
  • (2) Being sceptical about the universe
  • (3) Deadly chemicals
  • (4) Shiny new machines

Question 13:

As per the passage,

  • (1) The author insists new planets have disturbed the world
  • (2) New planets have made astrologers’ predictions go wrong
  • (3) The author has a positive disposition towards scientific discoveries in general
  • (4) New planets are discovered by astrologers.

Question 14:

According to the author, who are continually searching for the truth about us and the universe?

  • (1) Astronomers
  • (2) Astrologers
  • (3) Sceptics
  • (4) The author himself/herself

Question 15:

Mentioning "The morbid passion for war", the author

  • (1) is not happy with war and spending on war.
  • (2) says it is natural to spend on war.
  • (3) says the world is after new war tactics.
  • (4) is happy that the world is not disturbing astronomers.

Question 16:

The net understanding of the passage is

  • (1) Astronomers are better than astrologers.
  • (2) Science has moved us from the conclusive belief to reasonable understanding.
  • (3) That the Sun is not revolving around the Earth but the Earth is revolving around the Sun.
  • (4) Astrologers are to be rejected.

Question 17:

Ajay left home for the bus stop 15 minutes earlier than usual. It takes 10 minutes to reach the stop. He reached the stop at 8.40 a.m. What time does he usually leave home for the bus stop?

  • (1) 8.30 a.m.
  • (2) 8.45 a.m.
  • (3) 8.55 a.m.
  • (4) Data inadequate

Question 18:

If in the word 'DISTURBANCE', the first letter is interchanged with the last letter, the second letter is interchanged with the tenth letter and so on, which letter comes after the letter T in the newly formed word?

  • (1) C
  • (2) N
  • (3) S
  • (4) E

Question 19:

Six roads lead to a country. They may be indicated by letters X, Y, Z and digits 1, 2, 3.
When there is a storm, Y is blocked. When there are floods, X, 1 and 2 will be affected. When road 1 is blocked, Z also is blocked. At a time when there are floods and a storm also blows, which road(s) can be used?

  • (1) Only Y
  • (2) Only Z
  • (3) Z and 2
  • (4) Z and 2

Question 20:

There are six children playing football, namely A, B, C, D, E and F. A and E are brothers. F is the sister of E. C is the only son of A's uncle. B and D are the daughters of the brother of C's father. How is C related to F?

  • (1) Cousin
  • (2) Brother
  • (3) Son
  • (4) Uncle

Question 21:

Manoj and Sachin are ranked seventh and eleventh respectively from the top in a class of 31 students. What will be their respective ranks from the bottom of the class?

  • (1) 20th and 24th
  • (2) 24th and 20th
  • (3) 25th and 21st
  • (4) 26th and 22nd

Question 22:

Consider the following statements followed by conclusions. Assuming the statements to be true, decide which of the conclusion(s) follow(s) from the given statements.


Statements:

All books are books.

All cakes are apples.


Conclusions:

I. Some cakes are books.

II. No cake is a book.

III. Some apples are books.

IV. All apples are books.

  • (1) Only conclusion I follows
  • (2) Either conclusion I or II follows
  • (3) Only conclusion I and III follow
  • (4) Either conclusion III or IV follows

Question 23:

Two positions of a dice are shown. When 4 is at the bottom, what number will be on the top?


  • (1) 3
  • (2) 1
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 5

Question 24:

Reena is twice as old as Sunitha. Three years ago, she was three times as old as Sunitha. How old is Reena now?

  • (1) 6 years
  • (2) 7 years
  • (3) 8 years
  • (4) 12 years

Question 25:

Consider the following statement followed by conclusions. Decide which of the conclusion(s) follows from the given statement.


Statement: Morning walks are good for health.

Conclusions:

I. All healthy people go for a morning walk.

II. Evening walks are harmful.

  • (1) Only conclusion I follows
  • (2) Only conclusion II follows
  • (3) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
  • (4) Both conclusions I and II follow

Question 26:

Four milkmen rented a pasture. A grazed 24 cows for 3 months, B, 10 cows for 5 months, C, 35 cows for 4 months and D, 21 cows for 3 months. If A’s share of rent is Rs.720, then the total rent of the field is:

  • (1) Rs.3000
  • (2) Rs.2250
  • (3) Rs.4000
  • (4) Rs.3250

Question 27:

If the cost price of an article is Rs.632, selling price of an article is Rs.765 and total profit earned is Rs.1596, then the number of articles sold are:

  • (1) 12
  • (2) 14
  • (3) 10
  • (4) 11

Question 28:

A mixture contains alcohol and water in the ratio 4 : 3. If 5 litres of water is added to the mixture, the ratio becomes 4 : 5. The quantity of alcohol in the given mixture is:

  • (1) 4 litres
  • (2) 5 litres
  • (3) 10 litres
  • (4) 9 litres

Question 29:

If 20 men can build a wall 56 metres long in 6 days, what length of a similar wall can be built by 35 men in 3 days?

  • (1) 36 metres
  • (2) 25 metres
  • (3) 49 metres
  • (4) 50 metres

Question 30:

A man takes 3 hours 45 minutes to row a boat 15 km downstream of a river and 2 hours 30 minutes to cover a distance of 5 km upstream. What is the speed of the river current in km/hr?

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 1
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 2.5

Question 31:

A man is standing on a railway bridge which is 180 m long. He finds that a train crosses the bridge in 20 seconds and him in 8 seconds. The length of the train is:

  • (1) 120 metres
  • (2) 160 metres
  • (3) 90 metres
  • (4) 100 metres

Question 32:

If the seventh day of a month is three days earlier than Friday, what day will it be on the nineteenth day of the month?

  • (1) Sunday
  • (2) Monday
  • (3) Tuesday
  • (4) Thursday

Question 33:

How many 5’s are there in the following sequence which are immediately followed by 3 but not immediately preceded by 7?

8953253855687335775363535738

  • (1) One
  • (2) Two
  • (3) Three
  • (4) Four

Question 34:

If the height of a pole is \( 2\sqrt{3} \) metres and the length of its shadow is 2 metres, what is the angle of elevation of the sun?

  • (1) \( 60^\circ \)
  • (2) \( 45^\circ \)
  • (3) \( 30^\circ \)
  • (4) \( 15^\circ \)

Question 35:

A cone, a hemisphere and a cylinder stand on equal bases and have the same height. The ratio of their volumes is:

  • (1) \(1 : 2 : 3\)
  • (2) \(2 : 1 : 3\)
  • (3) \(3 : 1 : 2\)
  • (4) \(2 : 3 : 1\)

Question 36:

If \( \log_3 2, \log_3 (2^x - 5), \log_3 \left(2^x - \frac{7}{2}\right) \) are in A.P., then \(x\) is:

  • (1) \( 1, \frac{1}{2} \)
  • (2) \( 1, \frac{1}{3} \)
  • (3) \( 1, \frac{3}{2} \)
  • (4) None of the above

Question 37:

If the sum of the roots of a quadratic equation \( ax^2 + bx + c = 0 \) is equal to the sum of the square of their reciprocals, then \( \frac{a}{c}, \frac{b}{a}, \frac{c}{b} \) are in:

  • (1) AP
  • (2) GP
  • (3) HP
  • (4) None of the above

Question 38:

The value of \( \sum_{a,b,c} \frac{1}{1 + \log_a bc} \) is:

  • (1) 0
  • (2) 1
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 3

Question 39:

In the expansion of \( \left( x - \frac{3}{x^2} \right)^9 \), the constant term is:

  • (1) \( ^9C_2 \)
  • (2) \( -2268 \)
  • (3) \( 2268 \)
  • (4) Does not exist

Question 40:

If \( A = \begin{bmatrix} \cos \theta & \sin \theta & 0
\sin \theta & -\cos \theta & 0
0 & 0 & 1 \end{bmatrix} \), then the value of \( AA' \) is:

  • (1) \( \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 & 0
    0 & 1 & 0
    1 & 1 & 0 \end{bmatrix} \)
  • (2) \( \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 & 0
    0 & 1 & 0
    0 & 0 & 1 \end{bmatrix} \)
  • (3) \( \begin{bmatrix} 0 & 0 & 0
    0 & 1 & 0
    1 & 0 & 0 \end{bmatrix} \)
  • (4) \( \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 & 1
    0 & 0 & 0
    1 & 1 & 0 \end{bmatrix} \)
0 & 1 & 0
0 & 0 & 1 \end{bmatrix} \)
View Solution

Question 41:

If the latus rectum of an ellipse is equal to half of the minor axis, then its eccentricity is:

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{\sqrt{3}}{\sqrt{2}} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{1}{2} \)

Question 42:

The equation of the tangent at \( (2, -3) \) on the hyperbola \( x^2 - \frac{y^2}{3} = 1 \) is:

  • (1) \( x + 2y = 0 \)
  • (2) \( 2x + y = 0 \)
  • (3) \( x + 2y = 1 \)
  • (4) \( 2x + y = 1 \)

Question 43:

The angle between \( x^2 = y \) and \( y^2 = x \) at \( (1, 1) \) is:

  • (1) \(\tan^{-1} \left( \frac{3}{4} \right)\)
  • (2) \(\tan^{-1} \left( \frac{4}{3} \right)\)
  • (3) \(\tan^{-1} \left( \frac{1}{3} \right)\)
  • (4) \(\tan^{-1} \left( \frac{1}{4} \right)\)

Question 44:

The distance between the foci of the hyperbola \( \frac{x^2}{16} - \frac{y^2}{9} = 1 \) is:

  • (1) 10
  • (2) 5
  • (3) 20
  • (4) 40

Question 45:

What is the annual income derived by investing Rs.6800 in 10% stock at 136?

  • (1) Rs.500
  • (2) Rs.600
  • (3) Rs.400
  • (4) Rs.300

Question 46:

If \( x \) and \( y \) are Boolean variables, then which of the following statement is/are incorrect?

a. \( x \lor 0 = x, \, x \land 1 = x \)
b. \( x \lor x' = 1, \, x \land x' = 0 \)
c. \( x \land (x \lor y) = x \)
d. \( x \land (x \land y) = x \lor y \)

  • (1) a, b and c
  • (2) a only
  • (3) c only

Question 47:

The Boolean equation of NOR gate is

  • (1) \( C = A + B \)
  • (2) \( C = \overline{A + B} \)
  • (3) \( C = A \cdot B \)
  • (4) \( C = \overline{A \cdot B} \)

Question 48:

The dual of \( x \lor (y \land 0) \) is

  • (1) \( x \land (y \lor 1) \)
  • (2) \( x \lor (y \lor 1) \)
  • (3) \( x' \lor (y \land 0) \)
  • (4) \( (x \lor y) \land 0 \)

Question 49:

In Boolean algebra, if \( a \land x = b \land x \) and \( a \land x' = b \land x' \), then which of the following statements is correct ?

  • (1) \( a > b \)
  • (2) \( a < b \)
  • (3) \( a = b^2 \)
  • (4) \( a = b \)

Question 50:

In Boolean algebra \( [B, \land, \lor, ', 0, 1] \), the value of \( x' \land (x \lor y) \) is

  • (1) \( x \land y \)
  • (2) \( x' \land y \)
  • (3) \( x' \land y' \)
  • (4) \( x \land x' \)

Question 51:

The value of \( \sqrt{2 + \sqrt{2 + 2 \cos 4\theta}} \) is

  • (1) \( \cos \theta \)
  • (2) \( 2 \cos \theta \)
  • (3) \( \cos 2\theta \)
  • (4) \( 2 \sin \theta \)

Question 52:

The value of \( \tan^{-1}(1) + \tan^{-1}(2) + \tan^{-1}(3) \) is equal to

  • (1) \( \frac{\pi}{4} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{\pi}{2} \)
  • (3) \( 0 \)
  • (4) \( \pi \)

Question 53:

If \( \cos B = \frac{\sin A}{2 \sin C} \), then the triangle is

  • (1) equilateral
  • (2) isosceles
  • (3) right-angled
  • (4) scalene

Question 54:

The value of \( \frac{1}{\sin 10^\circ} - \frac{\sqrt{3}}{\cos 10^\circ} \) is equal to

  • (1) 4
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 1

Question 55:

If \( \cot^{-1}(n) > \frac{\pi}{6} \), \( n \in N \), then the maximum value of n is

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 5
  • (3) 9
  • (4) 3

Question 56:

The probability that A passes a test is \( \frac{2}{3} \) and the probability that B passes the same test is \( \frac{3}{5} \). The probability that only one passes is

  • (1) \( \frac{2}{5} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{4}{15} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{2}{15} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{7}{15} \)

Question 57:

If \( P(A) = \frac{1}{4} \), \( P(B) = \frac{1}{3} \) and \( P(A \cup B) = \frac{1}{2} \), then \( P(A \cap B) = \)

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{4} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{1}{3} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{12} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{1}{2} \)

Question 58:

Suppose that there is a chance for a newly constructed house to collapse whether the design is faulty or not. The chance that the design is faulty is 10%. The chance that the house will collapse if the design is faulty is 95% and otherwise it is 45%. It is seen that the house collapsed. What is the probability that the design is faulty?

  • (1) 0.91
  • (2) 0.091
  • (3) 0.19
  • (4) 0.019

Question 59:

The probability that a person aged 60 years will live up to 70 is 0.65. What is the probability that out of 10 persons aged 60, at least 7 of them will live up to 70?

  • (1) 0.3158
  • (2) 0.5318
  • (3) 0.5138
  • (4) 0.5831

Question 60:

Quartile coefficient of skewness is

  • (1) \( \frac{Q_3 + Q_2 - 2Q_1}{Q_3 - Q_1} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{Q_3 + Q_1 - 2Q_2}{Q_3 - Q_1} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{Q_3 + Q_2 - 2Q_1}{Q_1 - Q_3} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{Q_3 + Q_1 - 2Q_2}{Q_2 - Q_1} \)

Question 61:

A set of processes and procedures that transform data into information and knowledge is known as

  • (1) Information system
  • (2) Database system
  • (3) Knowledge system
  • (4) Computer system

Question 62:

The default character coding in HTML-5 is

  • (1) UTF-4
  • (2) UTF-8
  • (3) UTF-16
  • (4) UTF-32

Question 63:

The fastest memory in a computer system is

  • (1) ROM
  • (2) RAM
  • (3) Cache memory
  • (4) Pen drive

Question 64:

Pick the correct sequence which is in the decreasing order of storage capacity.

  • (1) Primary Memory, Magnetic Disk, CPU Registers, Cache
  • (2) CPU Registers, Cache, Primary Memory, Magnetic Disk
  • (3) Magnetic Disk, Primary Memory, Cache, CPU Registers
  • (4) CPU Registers, Primary Memory, Cache, Magnetic Disk

Question 65:

Given the following information with respect to Third and Fourth generation languages:

S1: Both are non portable.
S2: Third generation languages are mostly compiled languages.
S3: Fourth generation languages are in line with minimum work and skill concept.
S4: Third generation languages are user-friendly and have intelligent default options.

Which of the following is correct?

  • (1) S1 and S4 only
  • (2) S2 and S3 only
  • (3) S1 and S3 only
  • 4) S2 and S4 only

Question 66:

Given the following Lists:




Identify the correct match.

  • (1) a-iv; b-iii; c-ii; d-i
  • (2) a-iv; b-ii; c-iii; d-i
  • (3) a-iv; b-iii; c-i; d-ii
  • (4) a-iv; b-i; c-ii; d-iii

Question 67:

Given the following information with respect to a high level programming language:

a. Easier to use.
b. Uses English-like words and familiar mathematical symbols.
c. Computer cannot understand high level language programs.

Which of the following is correct?

  • (1) a, b and c are correct
  • (2) a and c are correct but b is not correct
  • (3) a and b are correct but c is not correct
  • (4) Only c is correct

Question 68:

Conversion of decimal number 100 to Octal and Hexadecimal is ______ and ______

  • (1) \( 123_{(8)}, AB_{(16)} \)
  • (2) \( 64_{(8)}, 144_{(16)} \)
  • (3) \( 144_{(8)}, 64_{(16)} \)
  • (4) \( 74_{(8)}, A1_{(16)} \)

Question 69:

The storage of 1024 KB in binary means ______ number of bytes.

  • (1) 1 Kilobyte
  • (2) 1 Gigabyte
  • (3) 1 Terabyte
  • (4) 1 Megabyte

Question 70:

Given the following Lists:





Identify the correct match.

  • (1) a-ii; b-i; c-iii; d-iv
  • (2) a-i; b-ii; c-iv; d-iii
  • (3) a-iii; b-i; c-iv; d-ii
  • (4) a-iv; b-i; c-ii; d-iii

Question 71:

Given the following Lists:

List-I                List-II

a. BCD code   i. Code used for encoding characters in IBM mainframe systems
b. EBCDIC      ii. Codes widely used for character encoding standard for electronic communication
c. ASCII          iii. Universal character encoding standard that can represent virtually all written languages
d. Unicode     iv. Code used to represent decimal digits in binary form

Identify the correct match.

  • (1) a-iii; b-iv; c-i; d-ii
  • (2) a-iv; b-i; c-ii; d-iii
  • (3) a-iv; b-iii; c-ii; d-i
  • (4) a-i; b-ii; c-iii; d-iv

Question 72:

A floating-point number is said to be normalized, if the MSB (Most Significant Bit) of the mantissa is ______.

  • (1) -1
  • (2) 0
  • (3) 1
  • (4) 2

Question 73:

The product of \( 0110_2 \) and \( 0110_2 \) is _____.

  • (1) \( 011100 \)
  • (2) \( 110110 \)
  • (3) \( 100100 \)
  • (4) \( 011011 \)

Question 74:

In floating-point representation, the part that represents a signed and fixed-point number, and the position of the decimal point are called ______ and ______.

  • (1) Mantissa, Exponent
  • (2) Exponent, Mantissa
  • (3) Float, Exponent
  • (4) Mantissa, Float

Question 75:

Division of \( 111000_{(2)} \) by \( 100_{(2)} \) in binary is ______.

  • (1) \( 111_{(2)} \)
  • (2) \( 1110_{(2)} \)
  • (3) \( 1100_{(2)} \)
  • (4) \( 1001_{(2)} \)

Question 76:

Given the following Lists:

List-I (Binary Representation)    List-II (Decimal Representation)

a. 00100001                                   iii. 33
b. 11100011                                   ii. 227
c. 11111111                                    iv. 255
d. 10000000                                  i. 128

Identify the correct match.

  • (1) a-iii; b-ii; c-iv; d-i
  • (2) a-iii; b-iv; c-ii; d-i
  • (3) a-i; b-ii; c-iv; d-iii
  • (4) a-iv; b-ii; c-i; d-iii

Question 77:

The process of starting a computer system is called ______.

  • (1) Booting
  • (2) Padding
  • (3) Deeping
  • (4) Morphing

Question 78:

To access the services of the Operating System, the interface is provided by ______.

  • (1) Library
  • (2) Assembly Instructions
  • (3) System Calls
  • (4) API

Question 79:

Given the following information about Open-Source Operating Systems:

a. Free to use and distribute
b. Easy to customize
c. Availability of technical support

Which of the following is correct ?

  • (1) a, b and c
  • (2) a and b only
  • (3) b and c only
  • (4) a only

Question 80:

Given the following statements about an Operating System:

S1: Operating System is a resource manager.
S2: Operating System acts as an interface between user and the computer.
S3: The primary function of the Operating System is application development.

Which of the following holds good?

  • (1) S1, S2 and S3 are correct
  • (2) Only S1 is correct
  • (3) Only S2 is correct
  • (4) S1 and S2 are correct and S3 is incorrect

Question 81:

What does a Gantt chart primarily display ?

  • (1) Financial performance
  • (2) Project schedule
  • (3) Market share analysis
  • (4) Employee productivity

Question 82:

Which of the following are Porter's Five Forces ?

a. Threat of new entrants
b. Power of suppliers
c. Competition among competitors
d. Bargaining power of buyers

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  • (1) a and b only
  • (2) a and c only
  • (3) b and d only
  • (4) a, b, c and d

Question 83:

Match the following:

List-I (Year)                   List-II (Events in India)

a. 1971                ii. Signing of Indo-Soviet Treaty of Peace, Friendship and Cooperation
b. 1974                i. Conducted first Nuclear Test
c. 1975               iii. Declaration of Emergency
d. 1984               iv. Assassination of Smt. Indira Gandhi
Options:

  • (1) a-i; b-ii; c-iii; d-iv
  • (2) a-ii; b-i; c-iii; d-iv
  • (3) a-iv; b-iii; c-ii; d-i
  • (4) a-i; b-iv; c-iii; d-ii

Question 84:

Which of the following are considered primary functions of a Central bank ?

a. Regulating the money supply
b. Supervising commercial banks
c. Setting interest rates
d. Managing government revenue collection

State the correct answer using the codes given below.

  • (1) a and b only
  • (2) a and c only
  • (3) a, b and c only
  • (4) All of the above

Question 85:

Which of the following is not a stage in Tuckman's Model of group development ?

  • (1) Forming
  • (2) Storming
  • (3) Performing
  • (4) Stabilizing

Question 86:

What does the term "intermodal transportation" refer to ?

  • (1) Using multiple types of transportation for a shipment
  • (2) Exclusive use of railways for cargo
  • (3) Road transportation only
  • (4) Air transportation combined with sea transportation

Question 87:

Which of the following services are commonly provided by business incubators ?

a. Networking opportunities
b. Long-term financial investment
c. Legal and regulatory assistance
d. Research and Development funding

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  • (1) a and b only
  • (2) c only
  • (3) c and d only
  • (4) a, c and d only

Question 88:

Who is known for the 'Theory of General Relativity' ?

  • (1) Isaac Newton
  • (2) Albert Einstein
  • (3) Galileo Galilei
  • (4) Niels Bohr

Question 89:

Which type of analysis focuses on evaluating a company's financial statements ?

  • (1) Technical Analysis
  • (2) Fundamental Analysis
  • (3) Sentiment Analysis
  • (4) Quantitative Analysis

Question 90:

Which of the following statements are true about cultural assimilation ?

a. Cultural assimilation is the process by which a minority group adopts the customs and attitudes of the prevailing culture.
b. Cultural assimilation always leads to the complete loss of the minority group's original culture.
c. Cultural assimilation can result in the blending of cultures, creating a new, diverse society.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  • (1) a and b only
  • (2) b and c only
  • (3) a and c only
  • (4) a, b and c

Question 91:

What is "Invisible hand" in economics ?

  • (1) The self-regulating nature of the market force
  • (2) Government intervention in the market
  • (3) The influence of monopolies
  • (4) Centralized economic planning

Question 92:

What does "bootstrap" mean in entrepreneurship ?

a. It refers to starting a business without external investment and relying on personal finances or operating revenues.
b. It means acquiring large amounts of venture capital for quick business growth.

Which of the above is/are correct ?

  • (1) a only
  • (2) b only
  • (3) Both a and b
  • (4) Neither a nor b

Question 93:

Which communication barrier involves misunderstandings due to different backgrounds or experiences?

  • (1) Physical barrier
  • (2) Semantic barrier
  • (3) Psychological barrier
  • (4) Cultural barrier

Question 94:

Which global health initiative aims to reduce child mortality and improve maternal health ?

  • (1) Millennium Development Goals (MDGs)
  • (2) Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)
  • (3) Health For All by the year 2000
  • (4) Global Health Security Agenda

Question 95:

How many of the following are types of financial markets ?

a. Stock market
b. Bond market
c. Real estate market
d. Consumer market

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  • (1) One
  • (2) Two
  • (3) Three
  • (4) Four


Karnataka PGCET Questions

  • 1.

    About 2000 pandas live in the wilderness and 300 live in ____zoos around the world.

      • variety
      • various
      • similar
      • fewer

    • 2.

      The giant panda is a bear that lives in Central China. It is special because of its black and white fur. Pandas belong to the most ___ species of our world.

        • dangerous
        • danger
        • variety
        • endangered

      • 3.

        Recently, there have been __ in many countries to save the giant panda.

          • battles
          • elections
          • campaigns
          • operations

        • 4.
          Find the next number in the series: 2, 6, 12, 20, .......

            • 30
            • 24
            • 36
            • 28

          • 5.
            Consider the following statements related to National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM).
            A. It is one of the initiatives under Atmanirbhar Bharat.
            B. It was launched to build a resilient value chain for critical mineral resources that are vital to Green Technologies.
            C. It will encompass all stages of the value chain, including mineral exploration, mining, beneficiation, processing, and recovery from end-of-life products.
            D. It aims to encourage Indian PSUs and private sector companies to acquire critical minerals assets abroad and enhance trade with resource-rich countries. It also proposes developing a stockpile of critical minerals within the country.
            How many of the above statement/statements are correct?

              • All of them are correct
              • Only 3 statements are correct
              • Only 2 statements are correct
              • Only 1 statement is correct

            • 6.

              If it was a Friday on 15th September 2023, then what will be the day on 20th September 2024?

                • Friday
                • Saturday
                • Sunday
                • Monday

              Fees Structure

              Structure based on different categories

              CategoriesState
              General650
              sc500
              pwd500
              Others500

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