Karnataka PGCET 2024 MBA Question Paper (Available): Download Solution PDF with Answer Key

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Shivam Yadav

Educational Content Expert | Updated on - May 29, 2025

Karnataka PGCET 2024 MBA Question paper with answer key pdf is available here for download. Karnataka Examinations Authority (KEA) conducted Karnataka PGCET 2024 for MBA on August 4 in Afternoon Shift 2.30 PM to 4.30 PM. The question paper comprises a total of 100 questions divided among 4 sections.

Karnataka PGCET 2024 MBA Question Paper with Answer Key

Karnataka PGCET 2024 MBA Question Paper with Answer Key download iconDownload Check Solutions

Question 1:

A sum of Rs. 800 amounts to Rs. 920 in 3 years at simple interest. What would be the amount, if the interest rate is increased by 3%?

  • (1) Rs. 800
  • (2) Rs. 192
  • (3) Rs. 992
  • (4) Rs. 120

Question 2:

In a 100 m race, A runs at 8 km per hour. A gives B a start of 4 m and still beats him by 15 seconds, what is the speed of B?

  • (1) 2.40 km/hr
  • (2) 6.76 km/hr
  • (3) 3.76 km/hr
  • (4) 5.76 km/hr

Question 3:

The perimeter of two squares are 40 cm and 32 cm. The perimeter of a third square whose area is equal to the difference of the areas of the two squares is :

  • (1) 36 cm
  • (2) 24 cm
  • (3) 16 cm
  • (4) 40 cm

Question 4:

In what ratio must water be mixed with milk to gain 20% by selling the mixture at cost price?

  • (1) 1 : 5
  • (2) 5 : 1
  • (3) 1 : 6
  • (4) 5 : 6

Question 5:

Two pipes can fill a tank in 10 hours and 12 hours respectively, while a third pipe empties the full tank in 20 hours. If all the three pipes operate simultaneously, what is the time required to fill the tank ?

  • (1) 7 hours 30 minutes
  • (2) 6 hours
  • (3) 6 hours 30 minutes
  • (4) 8 hours

Question 6:

Peter can cover a certain distance in 1 hour 24 minutes by covering two-thirds of the distance at 4 kmph and the rest at 5 kmph. The total distance is :

  • (1) 5.5 km
  • (2) 6.5 km
  • (3) 5 km
  • (4) 6 km

Question 7:

What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question ? \[ \frac{120 - 22 \times 6 \div 2}{\frac{1}{4} of 256 \div 16 + 2} = ? \]

  • (1) 9
  • (2) \( 3\frac{1}{3} \)
  • (3) 6
  • (4) 8

Question 8:

A dealer sold three-fourth of his articles at a gain of 20% and the remaining at cost price. What is the gain earned by him in the whole transaction?

  • (1) 13%
  • (2) 16%
  • (3) 10%
  • (4) 12%

Question 9:

Mr. Jones gave 40% of the money he had to his wife. He also gave 20% of the remaining amount to each of his three sons. Half of the amount now left was spent on miscellaneous items and the remaining amount of ¥ 12,000 was deposited in the bank. What amount of money did Mr. Jones have initially?

  • (1) Rs. 1,00,000
  • (2) Rs. 1,50,000
  • (3) Rs. 75,000
  • (4) Rs. 1,25,000

Question 10:

The average of 25 results is 18. The average of the first twelve of them is 14 and that of the last twelve is 17. What is the thirteenth result?

  • (1) 75
  • (2) 78
  • (3) 80
  • (4) 82

Question 11:

The following line graph gives the annual percent profit earned by a company during the period 1995 - 2000. If the income in 1998 was Rs. 264 crores, what was the expenditure in 1998?

  • (1) Rs. 104 crores
  • (2) Rs. 145 crores
  • (3) Rs. 160 crores
  • (4) Rs. 185 crores

Question 12:

What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the equation \( 38^2 + 63^2 + (?)^2 = 6089 \) ?

  • (1) 26
  • (2) 24
  • (3) 28
  • (4) 32

Question 13:

The pie chart provided below gives the distribution of land in a village under various food crops. Which combination of three crops contribute to 50% of the total area under the food crops ?

  • (1) Wheat, Barley and Jowar
  • (2) Rice, Wheat and Jowar
  • (3) Rice, Wheat and Barley
  • (4) Bajra, Maize and Rice

Question 14:

The bar graph given below shows the percentage distribution of total expenditure of a company under various expense heads during 2003.



What is the ratio of the total expenditure on infrastructure and transport to the total expenditure on taxes and interest on loans?

  • (1) 5 : 4
  • (2) 8 : 7
  • (3) 9 : 7
  • (4) 13 : 11

Question 15:

A sum of money amounts to \( Rs. 6690 \) after 3 years and \( Rs. 10,035 \) after 6 years on compound interest. The sum is :

  • (1) Rs. 4460
  • (2) Rs. 5460
  • (3) Rs. 6640
  • (4) Rs. 3420

Question 16:

The sum of the squares of three consecutive odd numbers is 2531. The numbers are :

  • (1) 27, 29 and 31
  • (2) 28, 30 and 32
  • (3) 29, 30 and 31
  • (4) 29, 31 and 32

Question 17:

If '+' stands for addition, '×' stands for subtraction, '÷' stands for multiplication and '–' stands for division, then \[ 12 \times 8 + 16 - 4 \div 6 = ? \]

  • (1) 8
  • (2) 28
  • (3) 38
  • (4) 3

Question 18:

A student got twice as many questions wrong as he got right. If he attempted 48 questions in all, how many did he answer correctly ?

  • (1) 12
  • (2) 13
  • (3) 14
  • (4) 16

Question 19:

There are 50 students in a class. Some can speak only English and some can speak only Hindi. Ten students can speak both Hindi and English. If the number of students who can speak English is 21, then how many students can speak only Hindi, and how many students can speak only English ?

  • (1) 39, 29 and 11 respectively
  • (2) 37, 27 and 13 respectively
  • (3) 28, 18 and 22 respectively
  • (4) 27, 11 and 29 respectively

Question 20:

\( (20)^2 - \sqrt{324} = \)

  • (1) 400
  • (2) 18
  • (3) 382
  • (4) 328

Question 21:

Choose the word which is closest in meaning to the word given below.
EXEMPLARY

  • (1) Perpetual
  • (2) Outstanding
  • (3) Eluding
  • (4) Impartial

Question 22:

Choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the word given below.
FERVOUR

  • (1) Ardor
  • (2) Zeal
  • (3) Passion
  • (4) Apathy

Question 23:

Choose the correct meaning of the underlined phrase.
"Nowadays, on TV channels, reality shows are becoming the order of the day."

  • (1) Something that is negligible
  • (2) Something that is a must
  • (3) Something that is stylish and attractive
  • (4) Something that is very common or important

Question 24:

Fill in the blank with the best suitable expression.
Geetha’s friends _____ her as her parents were poor.

  • (1) looked up on
  • (2) looked down on
  • (3) looked up with
  • (4) looked down with

Question 25:

Different parts of a sentence are given in a jumbled order. These parts are numbered.

Choose the answer from the options given to form a meaningful sentence.
I the parents

1. when they were in France

III. to their children

IV. could not teach

V. Hindi

  • (1) V-IV-I-II-II
  • (2) II-I-IV-II-V
  • (3) I-IV-III-V-II
  • (4) I-IV-V-II-II

Question 26:

Different parts of a sentence are given in a jumbled order. These parts are numbered. Choose the answer from the options given to form a meaningful sentence.

I. advanced technologies
II. in medical research
III. are revolutionizing
IV. how we fight diseases

  • (1) I - II - IV - III
  • (2) I - III - II - IV
  • (3) I - III - IV - II
  • (4) I - II - III - IV

Question 27:

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate option given below and complete the sentence.

I don't like to go to ______________________ dentist regularly.

  • (1) the
  • (2) a
  • (3) an
  • (4) None of the above

Question 28:

Complete the sentence using the most appropriate option given below :
It's ______________________ restaurant in the town.

  • (1) a costly
  • (2) a costlier
  • (3) the costliest
  • (4) None of the above

Question 29:

Choose the sentence which is grammatically correct from the options given below.

  • (1) I asked them what they were doing.
  • (2) I asked them what were they doing.
  • (3) I asked them what have they been doing.
  • (4) I asked to them what they were doing.

Question 30:

Choose the passive form of the sentence "They will demolish the entire block." from the options given below.

  • (1) The entire block will have to be demolished by them.
  • (2) The entire block is being demolished.
  • (3) They will be demolished the entire block.
  • (4) The entire block will be demolished by them.

Question 31:

Choose the sentence which is grammatically correct from the options given below.

  • (1) Why should the students be afraid of English language is not clear.
  • (2) Why should be the students afraid of English language is not clear.
  • (3) Why are the students afraid of English language is not clear.
  • (4) Why the students should be afraid of English language is not clear.

Question 32:

Choose the correct one-word substitute for:
An unconventional style of living.

  • (1) Misanthrope
  • (2) Autonomy
  • (3) Bohemian
  • (4) Monarchy

Question 33:

There are five sentences marked as I, II, III, IV, and V. The position of I is fixed as the first sentence of the passage. Choose one of the four alternatives given below as the most logical sequence of the sentences in the passage.

  • (1) II - III - IV - V
  • (2) III - IV - V - II
  • (3) IV - III - V - II
  • (4) V - IV - III - II

Question 34:

There are four parts to the sentence marked A, B, C, and D. Choose one of the four alternatives given below as the most logical sequence of the parts to form a correct sentence.

If you have to do minor home repairs / you can save money / yourself / the time and the skills.

  • (1) DCAB
  • (2) DACB
  • (3) ACBD
  • (4) ABCD

Question 35:

Select the most appropriate form of word/phrase from the alternatives given and complete the sentence.
The baby kept on crying while it ________.

  • (1) is bathed
  • (2) was bathed
  • (3) was being bathed
  • (4) is being bathed

Question 36:

Choose the word with the correct spelling from the given options.

  • (1) guarantee
  • (2) gaurantee
  • (3) garantee
  • (4) guarentee

Question 37:

Who is the author of Othello?

  • (1) William Wordsworth
  • (2) William Morris
  • (3) William Shakespeare
  • (4) Christopher Marlowe

Question 38:

Which of the following work is written by Charles Dickens?

  • (1) Hard Times
  • (2) Midnight’s Children
  • (3) Sons and Lovers
  • (4) Time Machine

Question 39:

There are four parts to the sentence that have been underlined and marked A, B, C, and D. Choose the part that has an error.
I am very worried as neither of my brothers have returned from the picnic.

  • (1) A
  • (2) B
  • (3) C
  • (4) D

Question 40:

A man who is womanish in his habits is called \hspace{1cm}.

  • (1) Feminine
  • (2) Effeminate
  • (3) Transgender
  • (4) Womanine

Question 41:

Which of the following is the largest memory size?

  • (1) TB
  • (2) GB
  • (3) MB
  • (4) KB

Question 42:

Consider the following lists:





Identify the correct match.

  • (1) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
  • (2) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
  • (3) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
  • (4) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i

Question 43:

ASCII stands for:

  • (1) American Standard Code for Information Interchange
  • (2) American Standard Code of International Interchange
  • (3) American Scientific Code for Information Interchange
  • (4) American Scientific Code for International Interchange

Question 44:

The base of the hexadecimal number system is:

  • (1) 16
  • (2) 10
  • (3) 8
  • (4) 2

Question 45:

A source program is written in which language?

  • (1) Symbolic
  • (2) Machine level
  • (3) Assembly level
  • (4) High-level

Question 46:

The two’s complement of a binary number is obtained by adding what to its one’s complement?

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 0
  • (3) 10
  • (4) 11

Question 47:

The program that analyses and executes the source code line-by-line is called:

  • (1) Compiler
  • (2) Interpreter
  • (3) Assembler
  • (4) Operating System

Question 48:

The decimal equivalent of \(10010_{(2)}\) is:

  • (1) \(16_{(10)}\)
  • (2) \(21_{(10)}\)
  • (3) \(18_{(10)}\)
  • (4) \(24_{(10)}\)

Question 49:

Query language comes under _______ generation programming languages.

  • (1) second
  • (2) third
  • (3) fourth
  • (4) fifth

Question 50:

Which of the following Operating System reads and reacts in actual time?

  • (1) Multi-user system
  • (2) Real-time system
  • (3) Batch Processing system
  • (4) Multiprocessor system

Question 51:

______ is the screen that appears with all the icons when a computer is turned on.

  • (1) Menu
  • (2) Taskbar
  • (3) Spreadsheet
  • (4) Desktop

Question 52:

The program required to load an Operating System is _______.

  • (1) RAM BIOS
  • (2) ROM BIOS
  • (3) EPROM
  • (4) POST

Question 53:

Which of the following is used in aptitude test?

  • (1) MICR
  • (2) POS
  • (3) OCR
  • (4) OMR

Question 54:

Consider the following:





Which of the following matches is correct ?

  • (1) a - ii, b - i, c - iv, d - iii
  • (2) a - iii, b - i, c - ii, d - iv
  • (3) a - iii, b - iv, c - i, d - ii
  • (4) a - iv, b - iii, c - i, d - ii

Question 55:

The collection of 8 bits is called _______.

  • (1) Word
  • (2) Nibble
  • (3) Byte
  • (4) Record

Question 56:

What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question ?
50% of 6000 + 20% of ? = 4000

  • (1) 3000
  • (2) 6000
  • (3) 5000
  • (4) 4500

Question 57:

If twice the numerator of a fraction is decreased by 50% and thrice the denominator is increased by 200%, the resultant fraction is \( \frac{121}{150} \). What was the original fraction ?

  • (1) \( \frac{1100}{150} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{1098}{150} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1089}{150} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{9810}{150} \)

Question 58:

In the series 3, 9, 15, 21, _______, what is the \(20^{th}\) term ?

  • (1) 100
  • (2) 107
  • (3) 112
  • (4) 117

Question 59:

Find the wrong term in the following number series: 1, 1, 2, 4, 3, 6, 4, 16

  • (1) 4
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 6
  • (4) 16

Question 60:

What terms will fill the blank space in the following series ?
A, Z, X, B, V, T, C, R, _______, _______

  • (1) P, D
  • (2) E, O
  • (3) Q, F
  • (4) O, Q

Question 61:

The missing term in the following series KM5, IP8, GS11, _______, EV14 is:

  • (1) BX17
  • (2) BY17
  • (3) CY17
  • (4) CZ17

Question 62:

If in a certain code MONDAY is coded as OPPECZ, then which word is coded as RECORD ?

  • (1) PCAMPB
  • (2) PDANPC
  • (3) QDBNQC
  • (4) PDAMQC

Question 63:

A group of eight girls are sitting in a circle. Deepa is between Arathi and Farah, and is opposite Geetha. Esha is to the right of Arathi but to the left of Chaitra, whose right hand neighbour is Geetha. Beena enjoys having Hamsa to her left and Farah to her right. Find the member who is diagonally opposite to Arathi.

  • (1) Hamsa
  • (2) Beena
  • (3) Farah
  • (4) Chaitra

Question 64:

Among 5 children, Vimal is taller than Mallika but not as tall as Raju. Jasmine is taller than Deepa but shorter than Mallika. Who is the tallest in the group?

  • (1) Mallika
  • (2) Vimal
  • (3) Raju
  • (4) Jasmine

Question 65:

P, Q, R, S are playing cards. P and Q are partners. S faces North. If P faces towards West, then who faces towards South?

  • (1) Q
  • (2) R
  • (3) S
  • (4) Data inadequate

Question 66:

How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘EFFECT’ which have as many letters between them in the word as in the alphabet?

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 4

Question 67:

In a row of students, A is sitting 14th from the left and B is 7th from the right. If there are 4 students between A and B, how many students are there in the row?

  • (1) 25
  • (2) 23
  • (3) 21
  • (4) 19

Question 68:

If the 5th day of a month is 3 days before Saturday, what day will it be on the 20th day of the month?

  • (1) Monday
  • (2) Tuesday
  • (3) Wednesday
  • (4) Thursday

Question 69:

Ashish has a certain number of boxes to pack into a parcel. If he packs 3, 4, 5 or 6 in a parcel, he is left with 1 and if he packs 7 in a parcel, none is left over. What is the number of boxes he has?

  • (1) \(108\)
  • (2) \(301\)
  • (3) \(309\)
  • (4) \(400\)

Question 70:

A group of 240 persons consisting of students and teachers is travelling in a train. For every 15 students, there is one teacher. Then, the number of teachers is \hspace{1cm}.

  • (1) \(12\)
  • (2) \(13\)
  • (3) \(14\)
  • (4) \(15\)

Question 71:

A father is 3 times as old as his son. Five years back he was 7 times as old as his son. The age of the son is \hspace{1cm}.

  • (1) \(20\)
  • (2) \(25\)
  • (3) \(15\)
  • (4) \(30\)

Question 72:

What number should replace the question mark (?) ?


  • (1) 102
  • (2) 100
  • (3) 92
  • (4) 90

Question 73:

If a 'book' is called 'pencil', 'pencil' is called 'bag', 'bag' is called 'dictionary' and 'dictionary' is called 'door', then what is used to carry the books?

  • (1) pencil
  • (2) bag
  • (3) dictionary
  • (4) door

Question 74:

The train for station B leaves every two and a half hours from station A. An announcement was made at station A that the train for station B had left 40 minutes ago and the next train will leave at 17.00 hours. At what time was the announcement made?

  • (1) 14.30 hours
  • (2) 15.10 hours
  • (3) 14.00 hours
  • (4) 15.30 hours

Question 75:

Given that:
I. \( P \) is the brother of \( Q \)
II. \( R \) is the father of \( P \)
III. \( S \) is the brother of \( T \)
IV. \( T \) is the daughter of \( Q \)

Then the uncle of \( S \) is:

  • (1) \( P \)
  • (2) \( Q \)
  • (3) \( R \)
  • (4) \( T \)

Question 76:

Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct answer from the given options:
Assertion (A): The digital divide in India is a serious national issue.
Reason (R): The concept of knowledge economy will become a reality when the civil society addresses the issue of digital divide.

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are true.
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  • (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Question 77:

In which of the following places is the Vijaya Vittala temple located?

  • (1) Elephanta
  • (2) Chidambaram
  • (3) Hampi
  • (4) Vijayapura

Question 78:

Consider the following statements:
I. The Constitution of India defines its "basic structure" in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights, and democracy.
II. The Constitution of India provides for judicial review to safeguard the citizens' liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is based.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • (1) Only I
  • (2) Only II
  • (3) Both I and II
  • (4) Neither I nor II

Question 79:

Consider the following events and arrange them in chronological order using the codes given below:

I. Partition of Bengal
II. Transfer of the capital of the Central Government from Calcutta to Delhi
III. Congress Split
IV. Formation of Muslim League

Arrange the events in chronological order:

  • (1) I, III, II, IV
  • (2) I, IV, II, III
  • (3) I, II, III, IV
  • (4) I, IV, III, II

Question 80:

According to Winer (2001), blog posts canonically encode in this formation:

  • (1) I, III, II, V, IV
  • (2) I, II, III, IV, V
  • (3) I, IV, II, III, V
  • (4) III, IV, I, V, II

Question 81:

In which year did India host the Commonwealth Games for the first time?

  • (1) 1998
  • (2) 2002
  • (3) 2010
  • (4) 2014

Question 82:

Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct answer from the given options:
Assertion (A): Pravasi Bharatiya Divas is celebrated on 9th January every year to mark the contribution of the overseas Indian community to the development of India.
Reason (R): 9th January was chosen as the day to celebrate the occasion because on this day in 1915, Mahatma Gandhi returned to India from South Africa.

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  • (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Question 83:

Identify the chronological order of Dadasaheb Phalke award winners:

  • (1) D. Ramanaidu, Tapan Sinha, Manoj Kumar, Soumitra Chatterjee
  • (2) Manoj Kumar, Soumitra Chatterjee, D. Ramanaidu, Tapan Sinha
  • (3) Manoj Kumar, Tapan Sinha, Soumitra Chatterjee, D. Ramanaidu
  • (4) Tapan Sinha, D. Ramanaidu, Soumitra Chatterjee, Manoj Kumar

Question 84:

Which chemical process is primarily used in the production of ammonia for fertilizers?

  • (1) Ostwald process
  • (2) Haber-Bosch process
  • (3) Contact process
  • (4) Solvay process

Question 85:

Operation Blue Star was an operation that was carried out by the Indian military in June 1984 to flush out militants from the premises of which of the following buildings?

  • (1) Golden Temple, Amritsar
  • (2) Babri Masjid, Ayodhya
  • (3) Parliament Building, New Delhi
  • (4) Victoria Terminus, Mumbai

Question 86:

With reference to Visible Light Communication (VLC) technology, which of the following statements are correct?
I. VLC uses electromagnetic spectrum wavelengths 375 to 780 nm.
II. VLC is known as long-range optical wireless communication.
III. VLC can transmit large amounts of data faster than Bluetooth.
IV. VLC has no electromagnetic interference.

  • (1) Only I, II and III
  • (2) Only I, II and IV
  • (3) Only I, III and IV
  • (4) Only II and III

Question 87:

Which sociologist introduced the concept of the "Sociological imagination"?

  • (1) Max Weber
  • (2) Emile Durkheim
  • (3) Talcott Parsons
  • (4) C. Wright Mills

Question 88:

Consider the following statements:

I. Genetic changes can be introduced in the cells that produce eggs or sperms of a prospective parent.
II. A person’s genome can be edited before birth at the early embryonic stage.
III. Human induced pluripotent stem cells can be injected into the embryo of a pig.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  • (1) Only I
  • (2) Only II and III
  • (3) Only II
  • (4) I, II and III

Question 89:

Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct answer from the given options:
 

Assertion (A): Three new criminal laws, the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), and Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA) which took effect from 1st July 2024, replace the colonial-era Indian Penal Code (IPC), the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) and Indian Evidence Act.
 

Reason (R): The new laws aim to replace colonial-era punishments with a justice-focused approach, integrating technological advancements in police investigations and court procedures.

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  • (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Question 90:

The concept of "Minimum Support Price" in India is related to

  • (1) Export subsidies for agricultural products
  • (2) Guaranteed price support to farmers for their produce
  • (3) Tax exemption for agricultural machinery
  • (4) Interest subsidies on agricultural loans

Question 91:

'Kudumbashree' is a community organisation of neighbourhood groups which brings together women from all walks of life to remove poverty and promote empowerment. In which of the following states is it located?

  • (1) Karnataka
  • (2) Tamil Nadu
  • (3) Kerala
  • (4) Andhra Pradesh

Question 92:

Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct answer from the given options:

Assertion (A):
India's victory over Pakistan in the 1971 War would not have been possible without Soviet assistance.
Reason (R): The Soviet Union deployed a fleet of nuclear-armed warships which successfully prevented the U.S. and the British warships from interfering in the war.

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  • (4) Both (A) and (R) are false.

Question 93:

Consider the following pairs:
International agreement  set-up - Subject

I. Alma-Ata Declaration - Health care of the people
II. Hague Convention - Biological and Chemical weapons
III. Talanoa Dialogue - Global climate change
IV. Under Coalition - Rights of the child


Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

  • (1) Only I and II
  • (2) Only IV
  • (3) Only I and III
  • (4) Only II, III and IV

Question 94:

With respect to the 'shares of a company', which of the following statements is/are correct?

I. A share is treated as a "Good" under Sale of Goods Act.
II. A person who holds the share of a public limited company has the right to transfer his/her share.
III. A share makes a person the owner of assets of the company.

Select the correct option from the codes given below:

  • (1) Only I
  • (2) Only I and II
  • (3) Only II and III
  • (4) I, II and III

Question 95:

The term "Liquidity Trap" in economics refers to a situation where:

  • (1) Interest rates are high, leading to reduced investment
  • (2) Consumer spending declines due to inflationary pressures
  • (3) Monetary policy becomes ineffective as interest rates approach zero
  • (4) Excess liquidity causes asset bubbles in the financial markets

Question 96:

'Matki' is the popular folk dance form of which of the following states?

  • (1) Assam
  • (2) Madhya Pradesh
  • (3) Bihar
  • (4) Rajasthan

Question 97:

What is the name of the automated situational awareness system in Indian Railways that provides automated train protection as well as collision prevention capabilities for trains?

  • (1) Kavach
  • (2) Collision Avoidance System (CAS)
  • (3) Automatic Train Protection (ATP) system
  • (4) Zero Accident System (ZAS)

Question 98:

Match the following:

  • (1) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
  • (2) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
  • (3) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii
  • (4) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii

Question 99:

The Treaty of Mangalore was signed after __________.

  • (1) Second Anglo-Mysore War
  • (2) Third Carnatic War
  • (3) First Anglo-Mysore War
  • (4) Third Anglo-Mysore War

Question 100:

The International Day of Yoga recognized by the United Nations is celebrated worldwide annually on:

  • (1) June 21
  • (2) July 1
  • (3) August 15
  • (4) September 27


Karnataka PGCET Questions

  • 1.
    Assertion (A): The Government cannot directly restrict one freedom by permitting another freedom.
    Reason (R): Clause (1) of Article 19 of the Indian Constitution provides equal opportunity for every type of freedom.

      • Both (A) and (R) are true
      • Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
      • (A) is true, but (R) is false
      • (A) is false, but (R) is true

    • 2.
      ‘World Beneath His Feet’ is a biography of

        • Sachin Tendulkar
        • Ajit Wadekar
        • Nawab Pataudi
        • Leander Paes

      • 3.
        In object-oriented programming, which of the following is true about "Polymorphism"?

          • It allows objects of different classes to be treated as objects of a common superclass
          • It refers to the ability of a class to inherit properties from more than one class
          • It refers to the ability to define a function with the same name but different signatures
          • It allows data to be encapsulated in the class

        • 4.
          Read the following statements about the Tashkent Declaration, and identify the incorrect statement among the choices given below:

            • It was signed between India and Pakistan on 10th January 1966 to resolve the issues of India-Pakistan war of 1965.
            • The signatories of this agreement were Prime Minister Indira Gandhi of India and President Ayub Khan of Pakistan.
            • The meeting was held in Tashkent in the former U.S.S.R.
            • The meeting was held under the terms of the Indo-Soviet Treaty of Peace, Friendship, and Cooperation.

          • 5.
            Consider the following events in the history of India:
            a. Rise of Pratiharas under the rule of King Bhoja.
            b. Establishment of Pallava power under Mahendravarma-I.
            c. Establishment of Chola power by Parantaka-I.
            What is the correct chronological order of the above events starting from the earliest time?

              • b - a - d - c
              • c - a - d - b
              • c - d - a - b
              • c - d - a - b

            • 6.
              Find the next number in the series: 2, 6, 12, 20, .......

                • 30
                • 24
                • 36
                • 28

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